CD 19

All India Mock (CLAT) 2023
English Language
Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Reading develops our brains and gives us the ability to understand life in a much better fashion. Besides,
there's
a lot of room for grammar and language development. When you read a lot, you learn new words
all the time.
Not sure how many readers will agree but I firmly believe books can go more in-depth than a
movie can.
When you read a script then watch the movie more details are added that would not be there
in a movie.

I read two books simultaneously (one fiction and one nonfiction) every four weeks or so, which adds up
to about 25
books per year.

As a rule, I always read at least a few pages every day. Often it is a lot more than that, and again at times,
there's a block. I squeeze reading in whenever I can - primarily during travelling, after waking up, in
between
classes and then of course throughout the weekend.

I read books primarily to learn, grow, and feed my curiosities and love for good stories. This means that I
mostly
read non-fiction books about great people, lifestyle, and business/marketing, and then, of course,
there's a great
deal of multi-genre reading. My criteria for picking up a book is very simple A. I should
need it or B. It should seem
like an amazing book (good looks, great blurb, great or mysterious title etc).

While I certainly learn a lot through academics, I for a fact know that books are a gateway to deeper
knowledge.
Now even though a good amount of information is out there on the internet, my personality is
best-suited to a deep
exploration of a limited number of subjects, rather than casually flipping from topic
to topic. Therefore I greatly
prefer reading full books over magazines, online articles, or any other type of
micro-content.
Also, it makes the reading experience tangible. Something that I can hold on to.

I always read with a pencil in hand so I can bracket key passages as I go. I honestly developed this habit
in my final
year of school. I was always interested in writing short little creative pieces but I couldn't
understand how to carve
my way into the industry. So I started reading and I fell in love with it. I later
discovered that book blogging was a
thing and that I could do it all for free sitting at home. That way I
could read and learn about the current trends in the
publishing world plus the books would be sent to me
without me having to spend a fortune over them.
What's better? Reviewing meant I'd be responsible for
carefully reading through the books and analysing the good
and the bad. So this made reading my habit. I
almost felt like a social entrepreneur.
Q 1. 30658143 What is the most appropriate title of the passage?
a) Reading helps in developing brains and acquiring better fashion.
b) Passion for reading and reviewing books
c) Grammar helps in the language development
d) Different criterion for choosing a book to read
Q 2. 30658143 What is the opinion of the author about the effects of reading a book?
a)
Reading helps in attaining a good knowledge of grammar and helps in the development of language too.
b)
Books help in vocabulary building; however, they can't go more in-depth when compared to the movies.
c) Reading helps primarily in learning, and growing but not feeding the curiosity for good stories.
d)
Reading doesn't involve many details of a specific event as compared to watching a movie based on the
same book.
Q 3. 30658143 What is the most suitable word to describe the above passage?
a) prescriptive b) doubtful c) critical d) engaging
Q 4. 30658143 What does the author mean by the phrase 'feed my curiosities' in the context of reading
the books?
a) The poet is talking about the growing need for reading books among the masses.
b)
The poet refers to the amount of information one can acquire via books and hence they serve as the best
gateway to deeper knowledge.
c)
The poet refers to the fact that reading books help him basically to learn and grow and hence it fulfils his
eager desire to learn more about good stories.
d) It refers to the deep exploration of a wide variety of subjects.
Q 5. 30658143 What is the correct role of 'Pencil', as described in the passage, in the reading of books?
a) It helps in careful reading through the books and analysing the good and the bad.
b) It helps in bracketing the key passages as one proceeds to read.
c)
It helps in attaining a sense of satisfaction and accomplishment after finishing the reading of one book.
d) It helps in networking with new people be they fictional or real.

Passage – 2

The storytelling enigma from grandpa or grandma has lost its root with the emaciation of family and
values in our
society. The nuclear family snatched the most beautiful sight of storytelling which was our
asset in our time.
The Brothers Grimm, otherwise known as Jacob Grimm and Wilhelm Grimm, were
German librarians who also
specialized in philology, which is the study of language in historical texts.
During the early 19th century,
they became interested in cultural research and began to collect and
publish local folklore. The Brothers Grimm
didn't actually write any of the stories their name has become
synonymous with. Instead, these stories existed as
part of a longstanding oral tradition in Germany and
had been passed down from one generation to another for
many years. The Brothers Grimm interviewed
friends and relatives, writing down these stories to save them from
extinction.

Eventually, they published their collection of folklore and fairy tales as Children's and Household Tales in
1812.
In addition to the famous tales mentioned previously, the collection contained many other famous
tales,
including The Frog Prince, Little Red Riding Hood, and Hansel and Gretel. The collection, which
would over time
become known as Grimm's Fairy Tales, was republished many times, eventually growing
from an initial collection
of 86 stories to over 200 stories in the seventh edition. To date, the fables and
fairy tales of the Brothers Grimm
have been translated into more than 160 different languages.

The stories are so timeless and popular that one language can have many versions. In the United States,
for example, you can find more than 120 different editions of Grimm's Fairy Tales. The enduring
popularity of these
stories can be seen in the number of the stories that have been made into movies.
Even though many people
would consider these popular fairy tales to be children's stories, they weren't
originally meant for kids. The earliest
editions of Grimm's Fairy Tales did not contain illustrations and
were targeted at adults. Many of the stories contained
violence and other dark content not meant for
children.

Over time, many of the stories were modified to resemble to the tales we know today. Although the
Brothers
Grimm published many other works, including books about mythology, linguistics, and medieval
studies,
Grimm's Fairy Tales was their enduring, signature work. It was a bestseller during their lifetimes
and has maintained
its popularity throughout the ages. Alas, those bygone days will never come back,
neither the nocturnal animals
will come in their dreams and haunt them. Rapunzel and her long braided
plate will not mesmerize the children
anymore. The seven dwarf and Snow White will never visit in their
dream.
Q 6. 30658143 What is the most appropriate title for the above passage?
a) Modification of the rituals of storytelling b) The lost world of storytelling
c) Enduring popularity of storytelling d)

Deprivation of mesmerising content for
contemporary children
Q 7. 30658143 What does the author not mention about The Brothers Grimm in the context of
storytelling?
a) The Brothers Grimm didn't actually write any of the stories their name has become synonymous with.
b) They specialized in philology, which is the study of language in historical texts.
c)
During the early 19th century, they became interested in cultural research and began to collect and
publish local folklore.
d) They published their collection of folklore and fairy tales as Children's and Household Tales in 1819.
Q 8. 30658143 What does the word 'emaciation' mean?
a) weakening b) Mitigate c) Manhandling d) Enduring
Q 9. 30658143 What is the tone of the given passage?
a) Delightful b) Happy c) Sad d) Mournful
Q 10. 30658143 Which is NOT true in the context of the collection of folklore and fairy tales - Children's
and Household
Tales?
a) It contained famous tales such as The Frog Prince, Little Red Riding Hood, and Hansel and Gretel.
b) It was later come to be known as Grimms' Fairy Tales.
c)
Eventually the collection grew from an initial collection of 86 stories to over 250 stories in the last edition.
d) The Tales have been translated into more than 160 different languages.
Passage – 3

India is in talks with the governments of other countries to export green hydrogen made in the South
Asian nation,
Reuters quoted an official of its foreign ministry as saying on Thursday. "We are in a
position to make green
hydrogen as our main source of energy in the future," Prabhat Kumar, an
additional secretary of the external affairs
ministry, said at an industry event. Green hydrogen is made by
breaking down water using electricity from renewable
sources, which is considered crucial to
decarbonize hard-to-abate heavy industries.

The Indian government is planning a massive expansion of green hydrogen production to curb its
dependence on
energy imports and to wean the economy off fossil fuels to meet climate targets. New
Delhi is aiming for an annual
production capacity of 25 million tons by 2047, people familiar with the
plans told Bloomberg. However, the number
could change going forward, depending on technology and
the country's demand outlook, they said.

India's current output of the fuel is very low and comes from a handful of pilot projects. While green
hydrogen is
regarded as a potential panacea to cut emissions, there are still major challenges in scaling
up the technology and
making it cost-effective. It's not certain demand growth will materialize, and the
fuel may not become the first
choice in transport and industry.

The potential to generate low-cost renewable energy in India, the world's third biggest emitter of
greenhouse
gases, has been a driving force behind the government's carbon-free hydrogen ambitions.
India's goal of getting to
net zero by 2070 has found support from business tycoons, including Gautam
Adani and Mukesh Ambani, as well as state-run energy giants like NTPC Ltd. and Indian Oil Corp. Adani
has pledged to spend $70 billion on
clean energy assets, including green hydrogen, while Ambani's
Reliance Industries Ltd., one of India's most valuable
companies, plans to add production of solar panels,
electrolyzers for clean hydrogen and rechargeable batteries.
French oil giant Total Energies SE has
agreed to partner with Adani on hydrogen in India.

The government is considering more ways to spur the sector, including offering production-linked
incentives to
make electrolyzers.
Green hydrogen is made by splitting hydrogen and oxygen in water with the help of electrolyzers, powered
by
renewable electricity. The product can replace the use of hydrogen derived from some fossil fuels, in
refineries
and fertilizer plants. It has the potential to become an alternative to coal in steel mills and oil
products in long-haul
transport. The green hydrogen targets are part of a broader strategy for 2047, the
centenary year of India's
independence. The plan also includes measures to improve energy efficiency,
overhaul power markets and expand
manufacturing of renewable energy equipment, according to the
people. Conglomerates run by India's two richest
men -- Gautam Adani and Mukesh Ambani -- along with
state energy giants have committed large investments in
the green hydrogen value chain, responding to
Prime Minister Narendra Modi's ambition to make the country a
global powerhouse in this area.
a) India may soon export green hydrogen b) Energy Giants' role in exporting green hydrogen
c) India - A Global Powerhouse d) Broader strategies for going green
Q 12. 30658143 What does the author mean by "potential panacea" in the passage with regard to the
export of green hydrogen?
a)
It talks about the availability of green hydrogen in great abundance in India and hence leading to a
potential
export.
b)
It states that green hydrogen is regarded as a strong source for dealing with the issues or difficulties
related to emissions.
c)
It reflects the possibilities of increasing the potential of green hydrogen so as to curb the issues related
to
scaling up the technology.
d) It talks about the need for generating effective and potential dependence on energy imports.
Q 13. 30658143 What word is the most suitable word to describe the passage?
a) prescriptive b) argumentative c) critical d) descriptive
Q 14. 30658143 What does the word 'decarbonise' mean?
a) Reduce or remove b) Enhance or develop c) Prompting d) Elusive
Q 15. 30658143 Which statement is NOT correct in the context of "support from the business tycoons"
in the passage?
a) Adani has pledged to spend $70 billion on clean energy assets, including green hydrogen.
b)
Ambani's Reliance Industries Ltd. plans to add production of solar panels, electrolyzers for clean
hydrogen
and rechargeable batteries.
c) French oil giant TotalEnergies SE has agreed to partner with Adani on hydrogen in India.
d)
Adani, along with the German oil giants, has pledged to spend $70 billion on clean energy assets,
including green hydrogen.

Passage – 4

Global Dental Services (GDS), Asia's largest dental chain, has received Rs. 545 crore in fresh funding, led
by
Bahrain-based alternative investment firm Investcorp. Growth investor Tybourne Capital, as well as
new and
existing shareholders, also participated in the capital raising round for a significant minority
stake in GDS,
which is among the top 15 global dental services organisations.

The investment is expected to fund GDS' expansion to 1,000 clinics in the next five years. Founded in
2011 by
Amarinder Singh, the GDS group owns and operates 340 clinics across 24 cities under the brand,
Clove Dental.

The Indian dental services market, which is worth $3 billion, is highly fragmented with large hospitals and
dental
chains accounting for under 10% of all practices, said Gaurav Sharma, head of private equity, India
at Investcorp.
This is expected to double to $6 billion in the next five years, he added.

Clove Dental is its fourth healthcare deal in dental care in the country, Sharma added.

"Indians need oral healthcare infrastructure, and our mission is to provide every citizen access to high-
quality
affordable dental care," said Amar Singh, CEO of Global Dental Services. "This partnership will
empower us to
prepare to achieve our expansion goals, and the network of our new partners will enable
us to significantly accelerate
our growth." In the Indian healthcare space, Investcorp has invested in V-
Ensure Pharma Technologies, NephroPlus
(dialysis chain), and ASG Eye Hospitals.

It recently sold its entire stake in ASG to PE firms General Atlantic and Kedaara Capital. Investcorp has
also
invested in bewakoof.com, FreshtoHome, Zolo, InCred, Citykart, Unilog, XpressBees, and Safari
Industries.
a) Fresh fund raising by Global Dental Services
b) Fragmentation of Indian dental services market

c) Indians need oral healthcare infrastructure
d) Capital raising round for minority stake in Global Dental Services

Q 17. 30658143 What does the author mean by "high-quality affordable dental care” in the passage with
regard to global
dental services?
a) It refers to the excess need for oral dental care, especially by the Indians.
b)
It states the proper access to good quality and affordable dental care since it is the need felt by Indians
for
oral healthcare infrastructure.
c) It talks about the expansion of healthcare goals by Clove Dental.
d) It states the selling of entire healthcare stakes to foreign investors.
Q 18. 30658143 Which is the most suitable word to describe the passage?
a) descriptive b) prescriptive c) argumentative d) critical
Q 19. 30658143 What does the word 'accelerate' mean?
a) Progress b) Moveable c) Repeated occurrence d) Hierarchical
Q 20. 30658143 Which statement is NOT correct in the context of Indian dental services in the passage?
a) Indian dental services market is worth $3 billion.
b)
It is highly fragmented with large hospitals and dental chains accounting for under 10% of all practices.
c)
Dental chains account for under 10% of all practices is expected to double to $6 billion in the next five
years.
d) Indian dental services is the fourth healthcare service in dental care in the country.

Passage – 5

It is one of my regrets that I never had a chance to meet CLR James; we never met in a press box; we
were never
even in the same continent at the same time. When he died in 1989, Times (London) called
him the 'Black Plato',
but such comparisons merely served to diminish him. He was much too large to be
squeezed into a single
analogy.

Two of his books have been all-time favourites. Beyond a Boundary, the finest book on cricket and life,
and The Black Jacobins, the story of Toussaint L'Ouverture and the only successful slave revolt in history
when
the small island of San Domingo (later, Haiti) triumphed over France, Britain, and Spain.

The Welsh writer John L. Williams has pulled together the various strands of this unusual personality,
painting him
with greatness not restricted exclusively to politics, art, music, literature, philosophy,
activism, theatre or cricket,
all areas where he was among the finest to have drawn breath, as
theoretician, performer or critic.
Williams celebrates the contradictions and consistencies of this
astonishing man celebrated across so many
fields in a recent biography, C L R James: A Life Beyond the
Boundaries.

Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to limit the personality of a man who bursts through and beyond
these
books. CLR - addressing him by his initials seems as natural as turning his name into an adjective
to stand for a
variety of values - was large, he contained multitudes.

Already in school, he was known as the brightest boy in Trinidad. The Nobel Laureate Derek Walcott
pointed out
how hard it was over the years for CLR "to have been so brilliant and yet to have been thought
of as a brilliant black
man".

CLR played cricket with the great West Indian all-rounder Learie Constantine (he went to England to write
his
autobiography), debated with Trotsky (visiting him in exile in Mexico) and Bertrand Russell ("I rolled
him around in
the dust and won the public vote comfortably," CLR said later), was published by Leonard
and Virginia Woolf,
acted alongside Paul Robeson in a play CLR had written, and interacted with a range
of people while travelling
widely. He was too a serious thinker and financially ailing most of the time.
Complexity and fragility co-existed,
not always peacefully.

As Williams points out, "So many of the ideas we take for granted now - of the importance of identity and
culture - start with his work. He is practically an academic subject in himself - no discussion of
postcolonial
studies can take place without his work being front and centre."

As countries in Africa and the Caribbean gained independence, CLR's acolytes became Prime Ministers
and
Presidents: Kawame Nkruma in Ghana, Eric Williams in Trinidad and Tobago and, to a lesser extent,
Julius
Nyerere in Tanzania.

The historian E.P. Thompson said, "The older James became, the more dangerous he got." Three decades
after
his death, CLR is back in our midst thanks to this passionate, well-researched and necessary
portrait.
Q 21. 30658143 Which of the following can be termed as the tone of the author?
a) Satirical b) Narrative c) Laudatory d) Critical
Q 22. 30658143 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a) Inconsistencies did make a part of the work and persona of CLR James.
b) CLR James did win an election and also acted in a play.

c) Complexity and fragility did shore up massively during his lifetime.
d) CLR James usually reeled under financial stresses.
Q 23. 30658143 With whom did Times compare CLR James with?
a) John L. Williams b) Plato c) Aristotle d) Tolstoy
Q 24. 30658143 How did John L. Williams describe CLR James?
a) An unusual man with greatness not restricted exclusively to arts.
b) A weird man with unusual interests in arts and cricket.

c) A mysterious man with massive contributions to economic restoration.
d) None of these
Q 25. 30658143 How were the earlier biographies of CLR James different from C L R James: A Life
Beyond the Boundaries?
a) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to limit his personality.
b) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to glorify his personality.
c) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to blow his personality out of proportion.
d) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to suppress the account of his life.

Passage – 6

Since childhood, we are taught the functioning of the human body in biology. While the discipline
concerns itself
with basic concepts at the outset of our education such as the number of bones in our
bodies, it moves on to the
operation of hormones, the respiratory system, how the heart pumps blood,
etc. with the help of dexterous diagrams,
of course. In a nutshell, we deduce that the human body is a
system which is governed by the entanglement of
nerves emanating from the spinal cord and the brain,
constituting the nervous system. The idea that the brain is an
organ which is integral to the state of being
human, the 'axis mundi' of our body, is not unique to biology. The social
sciences too pedestalize the
importance of the brain, albeit delving into the concepts of the 'mind' and
'consciousness.'

There is a fundamental difference between the brain and the mind: while the former is concerned with
physical
aspects of our body, such as its control of motor abilities, the mind is associated with esoteric
aspects and the
primary 'thinking' capabilities of human beings. Another major difference cited by many
is the tangibility of the brain
versus the incorporeal nature of the mind. But we need to consider that while
the mind is not a physical entity,
it most certainly possesses the means to regulate the way in which the
body is viewed - be it our own or that of
others. The mind enables us to perceive and feel. Our
perceptions are contoured by the socio-cultural environment
we find ourselves in. The study of
psychology gives great precedence the 'nature and nurture' aspect, that is,
how our upbringing and our
environment affect the way we think, feel, and perceive things. Each society has
certain 'archetypes'
which the Neo-Freudian scholar, Carl Jung, explained as "inborn" and unconscious models of
people, their
behaviours and actions. It is imminent that human society views a particular body as the 'ideal',
and in the
process, concretizing the conception of attractiveness within particular socio-cultural context.

Numerous terms such as 'body type' or 'size' have gained traction in today's world. A slim body is
considered
desirable, as is evident from representation in the glamour industry. The body of a disabled
person using a wheelchair
would be either viewed with pity or seen as abominable. But where does the
human mind set into this? To begin,
we must pay heed to how we view our own body. Through societal
archetypes and opinions and comments we
hear from others, the mind crystallizes its own image of the
body it calls its abode. Each one of us, influenced by
pre-conceived notions, compares our body, and
figure, to be specific, to these societal archetypes. The saddest
part of this is that most people consider
slimness or the 'normal' such as bipedal locomotion, as the important
parameters for viewing oneself.
Instead of injecting into our cognizance that we have healthy bodies, and the fact
that the organs in our
body are working perfectly fine, we tend to focus on superficial aspects such as being thin.

Our minds tend to toy with our insecurities, and if they happen to align with societal expectations and
conventions,
they are reinforced or manifested in a negative manner.
Q 26. 30658143 Out of the following options, which one can be an appropriate synonym of the word
'pedestalize' as used in
the passage?
a) To vindicate someone b) To hold someone in high esteem
c) To hold someone in low esteem d) To hold someone responsible for something
Q 27. 30658143 According to the passage, what is one of the characteristics of the mind?
a) The mind has negative attributes. b)

The mind controls the physical attributes of the
body.
c) The mind has reflective attributes. d) The mind is an unknown entity.
Q 28. 30658143 According to the author, how does the society perceive a specially abled person?
a) b) Specially abled people are treated with respect.
A specially abled person is treated with disrespect. c)
Specially abled people are forced to do menial jobs.
d) Specially abled people cannot get jobs.
Q 29. 30658143 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:
a) Perception of the world cannot be linked to the existing social institutions.
b) Socio-cultural environment should not be seen as a contributing factor in the perception of the world.
c) Socio-cultural environment is redundant when it comes to understanding of things.
d) Socio-cultural environment plays a role in our interpretation of things.
Q 30. 30658143 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements?
a) One should try to be slim in order to gain respect from their peers.
b) Obesity has become a problem in today's age.
c) Being slim should not be the ultimate goal in life.

d) Being slim should be the ultimate goal in life.
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

India inaugurated its pavilion, themed around the Mission LiFE concept that is being championed by
Prime Minister
Narendra Modi, at the 27th edition of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UN
Framework Convention on
Climate Change. LiFE advocates moving away from a consumptive lifestyle to
more climate-friendly behaviour,
has been integrated as one of the central pillars of India's climate
change response.

"This is just a showcase of what we are already doing. India does not just preach. It practices what it
preaches.
And that is why PM Narendra Modi has been propagating it. A consumption-oriented lifestyle is
not sustainable.
And it does not help in achieving the climate change goals," Environment Minister
Bhupendra Yadav said after
inaugurating India's pavilion at COP27 at [1].

"Last year, all the countries were asked to strengthen their climate actions. Only 29 of the 190-odd
countries have
done so. India is one of them. We deliver on our promises. And we expect other countries
to also deliver on their
pledges," he said. In October 2022, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and UN
Secretary General Antonio Guterres had
launched Mission LiFE at an event in Kevadiya, Gujarat. LiFE has
also been included in India's updated climate
action plan for 2030. India's pavilions at the COPs have
attracted good number of visitors in the past, especially
the one in 2018 that was themed around yoga.
Hundreds of delegates used to participate in the daily yoga sessions
that used to be organized.
Q 31. 30658143 In October 2022, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and UN Secretary General Antonio
Guterres had launched
Mission LiFE at an event in Kevadiya, Gujarat. What is the full form of LiFE
mentioned in the passage
above?
a) b) Lifestyle for Economy c) Lifestyle for Eating d)

Lifestyle for Environment Lifestyle for Everything
Q 32. 30658143 The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference is held in [1], which of the
following countries has
been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Mexico b) France c) Japan d) Egypt
Q 33. 30658143 The report titled "The Adaptation Gap Report 2022: Too Little, Too Slow - Climate
adaptation failure puts
world at risk" was released by the_________.
a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) b)

United Nations Climate Change Conference
(UNFCCC)
c) Ministry of Environment Climate Change d) Green Peace Organization
Q 34. 30658143 The Sharm-El-Sheikh Adaptation Agenda outlines 30 Adaptation Outcomes to build

resilience for four billion
people that are most vulnerable to climate by___________.
a) 2030 b) 2035 c) 2047 d) 2070
Q 35. 30658143 The Prime Minister of India at the COP-26 Glasgow summit presented five nectar
elements (Panchamrit),
which of the following statements is Not true regarding the (Panchamrit)?
a) India will reach its non-fossil installed electricity capacity to 500 GW by 2030.
b) India will meet 50% of its electricity requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
c)
India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now onwards till 2030.
d) By 2047, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than 90%.
Passage – 2

The [1] team's haul of 61 Gold, 35 Silver and 32 Bronze medals has ensured that they finished at the top
of the
medals tally in the recently concluded 36th National Games 2022 hosted by [2]. In the finest
traditions of the Armed
Forces, the [1] team, under the aegis of Services Sports Control Board (SSCB),
displayed exceptional fortitude,
skill and sportsman spirit during the Games to become the proud winners
of the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy,
which is presented to the overall champions. This is the fourth
consecutive overall championship trophy win for
the [1] at the National Games.

Vice President Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar presented the trophy to President SSCB Air Marshal K
Anatharaman and
Secretary of SSCB Group Captain Dinesh Suri at the closing ceremony at the Pandit
Deendayal Upadhyay Indoor
Stadium in Surat on October 12, 2022. The Air Marshal, on behalf of the [1],
dedicated the trophy to all the service
personnel who have made the supreme sacrifice for the nation.
The Secretary credited the rich medal haul to the
discipline and dedication of all the athletes.

The SSCB was established in 1919 and is one of the founder members of the Indian Olympic Association
(IOA).
It is because of this legacy that SSCB has the privilege of participating in the National Games along
with other
States and Union Territories. The best athletes of the three [1], the Indian Army, the Indian Navy
and the Indian Air
Force, undergo a gruelling selection process at the Inter-services level to be chosen
and fielded as part of the
[1] Team for the National Games and World Military Games.
Q 36. 30658143 Which of the following teams placed at the top of the medals tally in the recently
concluded 36th National
Games 2022 which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Services b) Haryana c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu
Q 37. 30658143 The 36th National Games 2022 was held in [2], which of the following states has been
redacted with [2] in
the passage above?
a) Maharashtra b) Goa c) Andhra Pradesh d) Gujarat
Q 38. 30658143 The official motto of the 36th National Games 2022 is___________.
a) Celebrating unity through sports b) United and Together for commongood
c) Sports for Goodwill d) Sports unite the nations
Q 39. 30658143 The 36th National Games 2022 mascot is__________.
a) Rhino b) Savaj c) Great Indian Bustard d) Cheetah
Q 40. 30658143 At the 36th National Games, who among the following has become the first athlete to
win gold in Yogasana?
a) Pooja Patel b) Harmeet Desai c) Manav Thakkar d) Aruna Patel
Passage – 3

The upper house of Russia's parliament voted to approve the incorporation of four Ukrainian regions into
Russia,
as Moscow sets about formally annexing territory it sized from Kyiv during its seven-month
conflict.

In a session, the Federation Council unanimously ratified legislation to annex the Donetsk, Luhansk,
Kherson and
Zaporizhzhia regions of Ukraine, following a similar vote in the State Duma, Russia's lower
house. The documents
now pass back to the Kremlin for President Vladimir Putin's final signature to
formally annex the four regions,
representing around 18% of Ukraine's internationally-recognised territory.
Russia declared the annexations after holding what it called referendums in occupied areas of Ukraine.
Western governments and Kyiv said the votes breached international law and were coercive and non-
representative.
Despite having passed through Russia's rubber-stamp parliament, the Kremlin is yet to
formally designate the
borders of the new regions - large parts of which are under the control of Ukraine's
forces. As such, it is still
unclear where Russia will demarcate its own international borders once the
annexation is complete.
Kremlin spokesman Dmitry Peskov said consultations were ongoing regarding
the borders of the Zaporizhzhia
and Kherson regions.
Q 41. 30658143 Vladimir Vladimirovich Putin is a former ___________.
a) Intelligence officer b) Comedian c) Journalist d)

Scientist at Roscosmos
Q 42. 30658143 The Constitution Act 2015 (100th amendment) ratified the land boundary agreement
between India
and____________.
a) Bangladesh b) Nepal c) Pakistan d) Bhutan
Q 43. 30658143 What is the currency of Russia?
a) Real b) Reel c) Renminbi d) Ruble
Q 44. 30658143 The Kuril Islands dispute is a territorial dispute between __________and the Russian
Federation over the
ownership of the four southernmost Kuril Islands.
a) Japan b) Ukraine c) Georgia d) Turkey
Q 45. 30658143 In a special referendum held in 1975, more than 97 percent of the electorate voted for
the merger of Sikkim
with India. Sikkim became the 22nd state of India on__________.
a) May 16, 1971 b) May 16, 1973 c) May 16, 1975 d) May 16, 1978
Passage – 4

The Supreme Court ordered the premature release of all six remaining convicts - including Nalini Sriharan
- who
were serving life sentences in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case. Convicts R P Ravichandran,
Santhan, Murugan,
Robert Payas and Jayakumar were also ordered to be released. The bench in its order
took note of the case of A
G Perarivalan, the seventh convict, who was released in May.

Former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated on the night of [1], at Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu
by a
woman suicide bomber identified as Dhanu, at a poll rally. A bench of Justices B R Gavai and B V
Nagarathna said
the May 2022 judgment of the top court in the case of A G Perarivalan was applicable
here as well. Invoking its
extraordinary power under Article [2] of the Constitution, the top court had on
May 18 ordered his release after he
served over 30 years in jail.

The TADA or Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act trial court had initially sentenced 26
people to death
in the case. In 1999, a few years after the TADA Act was allowed to lapse, the Supreme
Court upheld the conviction
of only seven people, releasing all others. The SC order observed none of
those convicted was part of the nucleus
of the assassination team.
Q 46. 30658143 The former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated on [1], which of the following
has been redacted
with [1] in the passage above?
a) May 21, 1989 b) May 21, 1990 c) May 21, 1991 d) May 21, 1992
Q 47. 30658143 Which of the following articles has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Article 140 b) Article 141 c) Article 142 d) Article 143
Q 48. 30658143 The advice of the State Cabinet is binding on the Governor in matters relating to
commutation/remission of
sentences under___________.
Q 49. 30658143 The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions
of punishment or to
suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence
under ____________.
Q 50. 30658143 The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was a Tamil militant organization that was
based in northeastern
Sri Lanka. It was founded in May 1976 by___________.
a) b) c) Masood Azhar d) Ranil Vikransinha

Velupillai Prabhakaran Mahela Dhanuskaratne
Passage – 5

India and China on September 13, 2022 confirmed the disengagement of their troops from a fifth friction
point in
Eastern Ladakh along the LAC. With the latest withdrawal of troops from Patrolling Point (PP) 15
in the Gogra-Hot
Springs area, buffer zones have now been established by the two sides in five locations,
including in Galwan
Valley, north and south of Pangong Lake, and at PP17A in Gogra. The arrangements
in the four earlier established
buffer zones have so far helped keep the peace over the past two years. No
patrolling is to be undertaken by either
side in the buffer zones, which have been established on territory
claimed by both India and China. The latest
disengagement came just three days before Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping are
to attend the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO) Summit in Uzbekistan.

Reflecting the current state of relations, the two leaders have not directly spoken in more than two-and-a-
halfyears,
an extraordinary situation for the world's two most populous countries. Whether they meet at
the SCO
Summit - as of September 14, neither side had confirmed or ruled out a meeting - or at the G20 in
Indonesia later
this year, India will need to proceed with caution as it inevitably resumes high-level
engagement with China.
While the buffer zones may serve as a temporary measure to prevent a
recurrence of clashes, the reality is that
this is an arrangement that has been forced on India.
Q 51. 30658143 For the first time in nearly 45 years, a violent skirmish between Indian and Chinese
troops broke out in the
Galwan Valley on____________.
a) May 15, 2019 b) June 15, 2020 c) July 15, 2021 d) March 15, 2022
Q 52. 30658143 The Darbuk-Shyok-DBO Road (DS-DBO Road) also called the Sub-Sector North Road, is a
strategic
all-weather road in_____________.
a) Punjab b) Arunachal Pradesh c) Sikkim d) Ladakh
Q 53. 30658143 The McMahon Line is the boundary between Tibet and British India as agreed in the
maps and notes exchanged
by the respective plenipotentiaries on 24-25 March 1914 at Delhi, as part of
the______________.
a) b) c) d)

1914 Tibet Convention 1914 Simla Convention 1914 Beijing Convention 1914 Shanghai
Convention
Q 54. 30658143 Which of the following statements is/are true?
a) India and China share 3488 km long boundary.

b)
Previously, both India and China disengaged at PP14 in Galwan Valley in 2020, in Pangong Lake in
February 2021, and PP 17A in Gogra in August 2021.
c)
Issues of Demchok and Despang Plains remain unresolved and same areas were occupied by China in
1962 Indo-China war.
d) All of the above
Q 55. 30658143 Xi Jinping has been serving as the _____________.
a) b)
General Secretary of the Chinese Communist Party Chairman of the Central Military Commission
(CCP) (CMC)
c) d) All of the above

President of the People's Republic of China (PRC)
Passage – 6

The Centre has announced that it revoked the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) from
Meghalaya from
April 1. In simple terms, AFSPA gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in
"disturbed areas".
They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can
use force or even open fire
after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law. If
reasonable suspicion exists, the army
can also arrest a person without a warrant; enter or search a
premises without a warrant; and ban the possession
of firearms.

Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest
police station
along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest. A disturbed area is
one which is declared by
notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to
differences or disputes between
members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or
castes or communities. The Central
Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the
Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the
State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. A
suitable notification would have to be made in the Official Gazette.
As per Section 3, it can be invoked in
places where "the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary".
The Ministry of Home
Affairs would usually enforce this Act where necessary, but there have been exceptions
where the Centre
decided to forego its power and leave the decision to the State governments.
Q 56. 30658143 In September 2022, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has extended the Armed
Forces (Special Powers)
Act (AFSPA) in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and __________for another six
months.
a) Nagaland b) Tripura c) West Bengal d) Sikkim
Q 57. 30658143 According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976 once declared 'disturbed',
the area has to
maintain status quo for a minimum of ____________ months.
a) 2 months b) 3 months c) 5 months d) 6 months
Q 58. 30658143 In November 2004, the Central government appointed a five-member committee headed
by ____________to
review the provisions of the AFSPA in the northeastern states.
a) b) c) Justice PJ Kapadia d)

Justice B P Jeevan Justice Rakesh Takhur Justice Lokeshwar
Reddy Prasad
Q 59. 30658143 Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958 was first come into effect in 1958 to
deal with the
uprising in the____________.
a) Naga b) Bodo c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Junagadh
Q 60. 30658143 Name the case of the Supreme Court which upheld the constitutionality of AFSPA in a
1998 judgment.
a) b)
Kashmir People's Movement of Human Rights v. Naga People's Movement of Human Rights v. Union
Union of India of India
c) d)
Assam People's Movement of Human Rights v. Tripura People's Movement of Human Rights v.
Union of India Union of India
Passage – 7

The 2022 Nobel Peace Prize has been jointly awarded to [1] human rights advocate Ales Bialiatski, the
Russian
human rights organisation [2], and the Ukrainian human rights organisation [3]. The award was
announced by the
Norwegian Nobel Committee in Oslo.

Mr. Bialiatski is a champion of human rights in [1] and has dedicated his life to the cause of democracy in
his
country. The dissent has, however, come at the cost of personal liberty. The activist was arrested in
July 2021,
following the large-scale anti-government protests in the country that started in 2020. He has,
since, been detained
without trial. Human Rights Watch reported that he has been charged with tax
evasion and faces up to seven
years in prison.
[2] is a Russian human rights organisation started in 1987 in the erstwhile Soviet Union. Andrei Sakharov,
the Nobel Prize-winning physicist, and Svetlana Gannushkina, a human rights advocate, were among its
early
organisers. The organisation was started as a movement to expose repression under the regime.
Eventually,
it expanded into civil society groups that ran a museum, a library, an archive, and support
centres to help
Soviet-era repression victims and their family members. After the collapse of the Soviet
Union, [2] also focused on
the compilation of information on political repression and human rights
violations in Russia.

Ukrainian human rights organisation [3] was founded in Kyiv in 2007 with the goal of transforming the
country into
a full democracy. In 2014, when Russia invaded Ukraine and annexed Crimea, the Centre for
Civil Liberties
participated in mobile monitoring groups in Crimea as well as Donbas. The organisation is
presently focused on
identifying and documenting Russian war crimes following the invasion of Ukraine
in February 2022.
Q 61. 30658143 Ales Bialiatski has been jointly awarded the 2022 Nobel Peace Prize, he hails from
which of the following
countries redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) China b) USA c) Russia d) Belarus
Q 62. 30658143 What is the name of the Russian human rights organisation which has been redacted
with [2] in the passage
above?
a) Open Russia b) Memorial c) Prisoners' Union d)

Civic Assistance
Committee
Q 63. 30658143 What is the name of the Ukrainian human rights organisation which has been redacted
with [3] in the
passage above?
a) Ukrainian Helsinki Human Rights Union

b) Kharkiv Human Rights Protection Group
c) Centre for Civil Liberties
d) The Association of Ukrainian Human Rights Monitors on Law Enforcement
Q 64. 30658143 Which of the following organizations is the most honoured organization for the Nobel
Peace Prize?
a) The International Committee of the Red Cross b) The World Food Programme
c) Institute of International Law d) Global Peace Mission
Q 65. 30658143 Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Prize for Peace in 1937, 1938, 1939, 1947
and, finally, a few
days before he was murdered in___________.
a) January 1948 b) January 1949 c) January 1950 d) January 1951
Legal Aptitude
Direction for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on
each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external
knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

The doctrine of impossibility is a contract law concept and refers to situations in which it is impossible
for a party
to a contract to perform its obligations under it. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act 1872
states that "an agreement
to do an act impossible in itself is void". It also talks about a scenario in which
an act becomes impossible or
unlawful or illegal, after the contract was drawn. The provision notes that
such a contract also becomes void when
the act becomes impossible or unlawful. A contract is typically
said to have been 'frustrated' if the performance of
such a contract becomes impossible.

Section 56 lists down examples of such scenarios. One of the examples says that an agreement by
which
"A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic" is void. Another example said, "A contracts to act
at a theatre for
six months in consideration of a sum paid in advance by B. On several occasions A is too
ill to act. The contract to
act on those occasions becomes void."

Salient Features of the Doctrine of Impossibility: There must be a valid and existing contract between the
parties;
There must be some part of the contract yet to be performed; That part of the contract, which is
yet to be performed,
should become impossible or unlawful; and That the impossibility should be by
reasons of some event which the
promisor could not prevent.

Causes of Subsequent Impossibility or frustration

• Destruction of subject-matter of contract: If the subject matter of a contract is destroyed after the
formation
of the contract without any fault of the parties, the contract is discharged and no party is liable.
Case: Taylor
vs. Caldwell, (1863, 3 B & S 826)

• Death or personal incapacity of the party: When the performance of a contract is based on the personal
skill,
ability or qualification of a party, then such contract becomes discharged on the death, incapacity or
illness
of that party. A contract for personal service cannot be performed by an agent or a legal
representative.

• Non-occurrence of contemplated event: A contract becomes void on the ground of frustration if the
expected
event which is the foundation of the contract, is cancelled.

• Government passes a law making the performance illegal.

Impossibility isn't a defense in the following circumstances:

• If the person making the promise in the contract is the one who caused the contract to become
impossible
to perform
• If the impossibility is foreseeable

• If the occurrence is not severe enough

Q 66. 30658143 Dr. Ghosh was a renowned surgeon who was famous all over India for his successful
treatment of cancer.
Karishma was a patient with blood cancer and she was getting treated by Dr. Ghosh.
During this time
Dr. Ghosh met with an accident and lost his eyesight. Therefore, he refused to treat
Karishma further.
Karishma brought out a suit against him asking his agent (who supported Mr. Ghosh in
all these surgeries)
to perform on behalf of Dr. Ghosh. Decide.
a) She will succeed as the agent has the capacity to perform surgery.
b) She will not succeed as it is impossible for the agent to perform surgery.
c) She will not succeed as the consent of Dr. Ghosh is not there.
d) She will succeed as it is essential to perform the surgery to save her life.
Q 67. 30658143 Kajal entered into a contract with Kshitiz to buy his dog for a sum of Rs. 6000 which she
claimed to pay in
instalments. Kajal was aware of the fact that the puppy was weak at the time she was
making the contract,
claiming that she will take good care of it. After a few days, the dog passed away
and Kajal refused to pay
further money for the impossibility of the contract and also brought a suit of
mental trauma she suffered.
Decide.
a) Kajal will succeed as she suffered mental trauma due to the loss of the dog.
b) Kajal will not succeed as she claims to take care of the dog.
c) Kajal will not succeed as she was aware of the weak condition of the dog.
d) Kajal will succeed as she has not fully paid the amount due.
Q 68. 30658143 Nilesh was a resident of Odisha, who entered into a contract with Suresh to build
another floor on his house.
Accordingly, Suresh brought all the materials required for the work and Nilesh
paid only 50% as he agreed to
pay the rest when the work will commence. Before the commencement of
such work, Odisha witnessed a
huge flood in which Nilesh also lost his house. Suresh brought a suit
against Nilesh, making him liable to pay
the rest amount. Decide.
a) Nilesh will be liable to pay as Suresh bought the required materials.
b) Nilesh will not be liable rather Suresh will be liable to pay the amount paid by Nilesh.
c) Both Nilesh and Suresh will not be liable.
d) Both Nilesh and Suresh will have to pay an equal amount.
Q 69. 30658143 Jethalal entered into a contract with Iyer for the sale of his land. During this time the
government came up
with the policy to take the said plot for the development of a railway track. Iyer
brought a suit and asked for
the alternate plot since he already paid the full amount to Jethalal. Decide.
a) Jethalal will be liable to provide another land to Iyer.
b) Jethalal will be liable as the incident was foreseeable.
c) Jethalal will not be liable to provide alternate land as the contract is violated.
d) Jethalal will not be liable as he did not consent to provide the land to the government.
Q 70. 30658143 Saddam entered into a contract with Keshav for the delivery of liquor from West Bengal
to the state of Bihar
since there is a complete ban in the sale of liquor. During this journey, Saddam met
with an accident and
therefore was not able to deliver the liquor on time. Keshav bought a suit against
Saddam in which Saddam
took the defence of the doctrine of impossibility. Decide.
a) He will succeed as he was incapable to perform the contract.
b) He will not succeed as the work could have been completed by his agent.
c) The defence cannot be taken as the contract itself was not valid.
d) The defence can be claimed as the validity of contact is immaterial.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 2

The assault is generally an attempt to harm someone else which also includes threats against other
people.
So, assault is a planned attempt to violently harm another person. While the battery is
intentionally touching
another person without the person's consent. In the battery, the personal liberty of
the person is compromised to
cause physical harm to the person.

Essentials for the battery are:

• Intention: The intentions for both civil battery and criminal battery are different. Criminal intent to cause
the
injury is not necessary but the intention to cause the act which harms the person is required as it
results in
the battery.

• Contact: Contact or use of force is necessary for committing battery. Harm through the force is not
basic
requirement but the use of force is basic requirement to conduct battery. It is not necessary that
the contact
must be physical or individual but the physical contact through indirect ways is also
considered as physical
contact. As the use of sticks or spitting on someone is also considered as a
battery.

• Harm: Damage is necessary for the completion of the battery. Damage can be of any kind, it can be
physical,
mental, or emotional. Battery is not limited to physical damage.

• No Consent and No lawful justification: The victim must not know about the action which is planned by
the
accused. In the event of proving battery, there mustn't be any legal justification present to justify the
actions
of the accused.

There are certain defenses given to the accused to prevent themselves from wrongful accusation:

• Self Defense: In this defense, it is proved that the defendant was safeguarding himself from the
unlawful
force of the complainant. But in this case, the defendant must prove that he did not provoke the
other person
and there was absolutely no other way to save himself.

• Defense of Others: In this defense, there must be an honest and reasonable fear of harm to another
person.

• Defense of Property: This defense is also very similar to self-defense, as in this defense the defendant is
trying to protect his property, but the force used is only considered when there is an unlawful use of force
against the defendant. The defense is only valid when there is an honest and reasonable fear of harm to
the
person's property. So, in cases of disputes over personal property, the owner can use force to take his
property back.

• Consent: Consent can also be considered as a defense in the case of assault and battery. Consent is
when
the person voluntarily agrees to the intention of the defendant. So, when the individual has given his
consent
to perform the act, then that same act can not be considered as a battery. But in situations when
the person
exceeds the extent of the act, on those grounds the act can be considered as a battery.
Q 71. 30658143 Pratyush called over Gida, yelled at her and abused her further saying that he will shoot
her as soon as he
will get a sight of her. Gida filed a suit for assault against Pratyush. Decide.
a) She will succeed as there was an assault.
b) She will not succeed as assault cannot be done over a phone call.
c) She will succeed as there was the apprehension of assault.

d) She will succeed as Pratyush threatened her.
Q 72. 30658143 Santa was intoxicated and riding his bike a high speed while stretching his arms on
both side. Banta was
walking by the same road when Santa's arm hit Banta's shoulder. Banta alleges
Santa for committing the
offence of Battery. Decide.
a) Santa will be liable for the battery as there was no lawful justification for the incident.
b) Santa will be liable for being intoxicated and battery.
c) Santa will be liable for being intoxicated and driving at a high speed.
d) Both (b) & (c)

Q 73. 30658143 Vikrant went to watch the game of wrestling as it was being organised by his friend. At
a certain point in the
game, both players became violent and started hitting all the spectators who were
not cheering for them.
In this incident, one of the players also hit Vikrant. Decide who will be liable?
a) The organiser will be liable for the battery as it was his responsibility.
b) The players will be liable for making a chaotic situation.
c) The players will be liable for the offence of battery.
d) No one will be liable as there was prior consent from Vikrant as he himself came to watch the game.
Q 74. 30658143 Aman and Atul were fond of dogs and used to feed them on the streets. One day while
they were feeding the
strays, some of them started fighting while a few people were on the road itself.
Ravi was phobic of dogs
and therefore he hit both Aman and Atul for feeding them. Both filed a suit of
battery against Ravi and he took
the defence of self-defence. Whether he will be successful?
a) Yes, as there was the apprehension of danger.
b) No, as there was no danger by Aman and Atul.
c) Yes, as the act was a defence of himself and others also.
d) No, as the fight was caused because they started feeding the strays.
Q 75. 30658143 Which of the following is not true?
a) A told B that he will kill C once he gets sight of him. Here A committed the offence of Assault.
b)
A was dancing on the floor when he slipped on it and in the course of saving himself, he grabbed B's hand
very tightly. Here the offence of battery is committed by A.
c) Both
d) None of the above
each
knowledge of

Passage – 3

Specific performance means enforcement of exact terms of the contract instead of a monetary relief
ordered by
the court in terms of compensation. According to Section 10 of Specific Relief Act 1963,
specific performance of
the contract is enforceable in primarily two cases. One, when there exist no
standard for ascertaining actual
damage, i.e., a situation in which the plaintiff is unable to determine the
amount of loss suffered by him.
Second is the case where compensation of money is not adequate relief
for the breach of contract. This may be
the case in following circumstances:

• Where the subject matter of the contract is an immovable property.

• Where the subject matter of the contract is movable property and, such property or goods are not an
ordinary article of commerce i.e. which could be sold or purchased in the market.

• The article is of special value or interest to the plaintiff.

• The article is of such nature that is not easily available in the market.

• The property or goods are held by the defendant as an agent or trustee of the plaintiff.

On the contrary, following contracts cannot be specifically performed:

• A contract for the non-performance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief;

• A contract which runs into such minute or numerous details or which is so dependent on the personal
qualifications or volition of the parties, or otherwise from its nature is such, that the court cannot enforce
specific performance of its material terms;

• A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court
cannot
supervise.

Q 76. 30658143 A enters into a contract with B, a painter, for buying a painting of his. Soon after making
the contract,
B dies and the painting turns out to be his last piece of work. Legal heirs of the painter
refuse to sell the
painting to A and plead the court to award compensation to A. Can A successfully plead
for the specific
performance of this contract?
a) No, as monetary compensation is adequate relief for the breach of the contract.
b) No, as the contract depends upon the personal qualification of the painter.
c) Yes, as the painting is not an ordinary article of commerce.

d) Yes, as the article is of a nature that is not easily available in the market.
Q 77. 30658143 A wanted to buy an expensive clothing item from B's shop. He called B and told him to
save one piece for
him to be picked up later. A sent B the money worth the price of the item through
electronic means.
B got a better offer from a customer and sold the last clothing item designated for A to
the other customer.
A wished to sue B for specific performance while B claims that he would pay
compensation to A for the
breach of their agreement. Is this contract specifically enforceable?
a) No, as money is an adequate relief for the breach of contract.
b) No, as the contract is dependent on the personal volition of the parties.
c) Yes, as B held the clothing item as a trustee for A.
d) Yes, as the article was of a special value to A.

Q 78. 30658143 A singer was to perform as an opener for a political rally. However, A, the leader of the
political party made
some offensive and derogatory remarks due to which the singer was affronted and
became unwilling to be
associated with the politician. As a result, he decided not to perform at the rally.
The petitioner asked the
court to compel the singer to perform at the rally as agreed upon in the contract.
Can this contract be
specifically enforced?
a) No, because performance depends upon the volition and qualifications of the singer.
b) Yes, as damage accrued due to the absence of the singer cannot be ascertained.
c) Yes, as compensation of money is not an adequate relief for the breach of the contract.
d) No, as the performance of the contract involves a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise.
Q 79. 30658143 In the case above, C was the owner of the arena that was booked by A's political party
for conducting the
rally. After the remarks made by A, C refused to let the party host a rally where A would
give a speech in his
arena. C offered to return the rent paid by the party along with compensation. The
political party however
insisted upon holding the rally in C's arena. Can the party do so?
a) No, as monetary compensation is adequate relief for non-performance of the contract.
b) No, as the contract involves performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise.
c) Yes, as there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by C's non-performance.
d) Yes, as the subject-matter of the contract is an immovable property.
Q 80. 30658143 A borrowed a sum of money from B. He promised to pay back the money back to B
before a certain date and
also agreed that if he failed, B would become the owner of A's house. A repaid
the money 3 months after the
due date. B sued A and asked for an order for specific performance of the
contract. Is this contract capable
of being specifically performed?
a) Yes, as compensation of money is not adequate relief for the breach of contract.
b) No, as compensation of money is adequate relief.
c) No, as the contract depends upon the personal volition of the parties.
d) Yes, as there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused to B.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 4

The Supreme Court in the case of Hari Krishna Mandir Trust vs. State of Maharashtra has directed that
High
Courts are bound to issue a writ of mandamus for enforcement of a public duty.

The facts in the instant case related to a dispute with respect to a Private Road. The Hari Krishna Mandir
Trust,
who was the owner of the certain Plots, filed a Proposal in which it requested the State of
Maharashtra Government
to correct the wrong entry in the name of Pune Municipal Corporation being the
owner of the said Private Road.
The Urban Development Department, Government of Maharashtra
rejected the proposal for modification of sanction
scheme under the Regional and Town Planning Act,
1966 (the Act). It also held that the Pune Municipal Corporation
is the owner in respect of the said Private
Road.

Being aggrieved the Appellant i.e., Hari Krishna Mandir Trust filed the Writ Petition in the Bombay High
Court
challenging the said Order dated 03.05.2006. The Writ Petition was dismissed. The High Court
found that the land
in question had been vested, without any encumbrances, in the Pune Municipal
Corporation at the time of
commencement of the Town Planning Scheme, by virtue of Section 88 of the
Act.

When the matter was argued in the Supreme Court the Pune Municipal Corporation stated that they were
not the
owners of the disputed property as erroneously claimed by the Government of Maharashtra. It
was found that the
land belongs to the Hari Krishna Mandir Trust and had been taken over by the
Government without any authority.
The Supreme Court after hearing the matter at length held that the
High Courts in exercising their jurisdiction under
Article 226 of the Constitution of India, not only have the
power to issue a Writ of Mandamus or in the nature of
Mandamus, but are duty bound to exercise such
power, where the Government or a public authority has failed to
exercise or has wrongly exercised
discretion conferred upon it by a Statute, or a rule, or a policy decision of the
Government or has
exercised such discretion malafide, or on irrelevant consideration.

In all such cases, the High Court must issue a Writ of Mandamus and give directions to compel
performance in an
appropriate and lawful manner of the discretion conferred upon the Government or a
public authority.

The Supreme Court further held that the High Court is duty bound to issue a writ of Mandamus for
enforcement of
a public duty. There can be no doubt that an important requisite for issue of Mandamus
is that Mandamus lies to
enforce a legal duty. This duty must be shown to exist towards the applicant. A
statutory duty must exist before it
can be enforced through Mandamus. Unless a statutory duty or right
can be read in the provision, Mandamus
cannot be issued to enforce the same. Thus, the Court held that
in the absence of any proceedings for acquisition
or for purchase, no land belonging to the Appellant
Trust could have vested in the State. The Appeal was allowed,
and the Judgment and Order under Appeal
was set aside.
Q 81. 30658143 A, retired from a government office X after completing 35 years of service. Upon
retirement he demanded
that a monthly pension should be paid to him which he was entitled to under the
terms of his service.
On being denied the pension he approached the High Court which decreed the suit
in his favor. Decide.
a) Office X should provide the pension to A after the case being decreed in his favor.
b)
High Court should pass a writ of Mandamus in a case of refusal by office X to pay the pension even after
the suit is decreed.
c)
High Court should mandatorily pass a writ of Mandamus to office X directing them to pay the amount of
pension.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 82. 30658143 A joined a private coaching institute X for a period of two years in order to appear for
the medical entrance
exams. After studying for a year, A was unsatisfied with the quality of the services
provided to him and decide
to leave the coaching. However, the coaching institute refused to refund A's
fees. A filed a suit in the
High Court and a decree was passed in his favor. Decide.
a)
High Court should mandatorily pass a writ of Mandamus to X directing them to refund the amount of fee.
b)
High Court may pass a writ of Mandamus to office X directing them to pay the amount of pension on
their
discretion.
c)
High Court cannot pass a writ of Mandamus to office X directing them to pay the amount of pension on
their discretion.
d) High Court can only pass a writ of Mandamus if the coaching refuses to abide by the decree.
Q 83. 30658143 A, a resident of colony X which was managed by the Municipal corporation fell in an
open manhole.
The Municipal corporation was negligent in their duty for the proper maintenance of the
drainage facilities in
the area. A asked for a compensation of ? 50,000 for the injuries caused to him
which was denied.
He approached the High Court for the same.
a)
The High court can pass a writ of Mandamus directing the municipal corporation to pay compensation.
b)
The High court cannot pass a writ of Mandamus as they did not have any duty of care towards A
individually.
c)
The High court cannot pass a writ of Mandamus as they were not engaged in the dereliction of any public
duty.
d)
The High court cannot pass a writ of Mandamus as they do not come under the ambit of the government.
Q 84. 30658143 A was a doctor in the government hospital. He also used to privately practice and run a
clinic in the evening.
B was suffering from a stomach infection and went to the government hospital. As
he was late and A's duty
was over, he went to A's clinic. A gave certain medicines to B which caused side-
effects and B's condition
worsened. He filed a suit against A for compensation and got the decree in his
favour. Decide.
a) High Court can pass mandamus against A as he was negligent in his act.
b) High Court can pass mandamus against A as he owed a duty of care towards B.
c) High Court cannot pass mandamus against A.
Q 85. 30658143 A was brought by the police in custody for questioning on the charge of theft against
him. He was made to sit
in the interrogation room the whole day and was refused food despite of him
being asking for it several
times. A suffered from low blood pressure and required food intake at regular
hours. Due to this, he suffered
a cardiac arrest and died. A's relatives filed a suit against the police for
compensation which was decreed in
their favour. Decide.
a) High Court can pass mandamus against the police as they owed a duty of care towards A.
b) High Court can pass mandamus against the police as they are a part of the government.
c) High Court cannot pass mandamus against the police.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 5

Any minor having a property in his name is accompanied by a Natural guardian or in case any guardian
appointed
by the court to take care of such minor. A sale of minor's property by guardian can be done by
a guardian only with
the prior permissions of the court before any such kind of sale or alienations. The
minor can file a suit to set aside
the deed within the period of limitation i.e. 3 years on the minor attaining
the majority, as prescribed under Article 60
of the Limitation Act. In case the minor has died before
attaining majority, the legal representatives of the minor
should bring the suit within 3 years from the date
on which the minor would have attained majority.

As per Section 8(2) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956, permission of the Court was
necessary
for the guardian to sell minor's property. Sale in violation of Section 8(2) is voidable as per
Section 8(3).
Therefore, the sale remains valid until set aside by the Court. A document which is voidable
has to be actually set
aside before taking its legal effect.

If any suit is filed by a minor on attaining the majority, seeking for cancellation of such sale deed or any
other kind
of alienations should be asking for declaration of such transaction as null and void along with
should also seek for
a declaration of title and handing over the possession of such minor, within the
limitation period. The limitation
period for any minor to challenge such kind of alienations is 3 years from
the date of attaining majority. any suit filed
after the period of 3 years of attaining majority will not be
entertained by the courts.
Q 86. 30658143 A, a minor was bequeathed by a property of ? 50 lakh by his parents. B who was A's
uncle was appointed as
his guardian. As A wanted to go abroad for a summer school which required ? 10
lakh, B sold a part of the
property in order to acquire money to facilitate A. Decide.
a) The sale is valid as it was for A's betterment. b) The sale is valid is B was A's legal guardian.
c) The sale is invalid. d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 87. 30658143 A, a minor was entrusted with two houses in a posh locality of the city. B, who was A's
legal guardian worked
as a real estate agent. B got a buyer for one of A's houses who was willing to pay
double the amount of the
market price. Despite A's wish to sell the house B got the permission from the
court to sell the house,
B proceeded with the sale. Decide.
a) The sale is valid as B was A's legal guardian. b)

The sale is valid as B got the permission of the
court.
c) d) The sale is invalid is A is still a minor.
The sale is invalid as it was made without A's
permission.
Q 88. 30658143 A was the legal guardian of B who was left with an ancestral house by his parents. A
entered into a sale
agreement of the house with a buyer when A turned 16 years old. Upon attaining
majority B wants to rescind
the agreement. Decide.
a) B can rescind the sale from the date on which the agreement was made by A.
b) B can rescind the sale only on the date of attaining majority.
c) B can rescind the sale till three years from the date B entered into A.
d) B can rescind the sale till three years from the date of attaining majority.
Q 89. 30658143 A's father was a rich businessman who passed away in a plane crash. He left A all his
property.
As A's mother B was physically unwell, his aunt C became his legal guardian. C sold some of A's
property
after obtaining the consent of the court. Decide the legal remedies of A after attaining majority.
a) A can himself challenge the sale agreement entered by C upon attaining majority.
b) B acting as A's legal representative can challenge the sale agreement entered by C.
c) A cannot challenge the sale agreement as C got the permission of the court.
Q 90. 30658143 A who was the legal guardian of B entered into a contract selling B's property without
the permission of the
court. B on attaining majority ratified the sale. Decide the validity of the contract.
a) The contract is void as the permission of the court was not taken.
b) The contract is void ab initio as it was null from its initiation.
c) The contract is valid.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 6

Defamation is defined in Sec. 499 of I.P.C. as " Whoever, by words either spoken or intended to be read, or
by
signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person
intending to harm,
or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation
of such person, is said,
except in the cases hereinafter excepted, to defame that person.

Explanation 1: It may amount to defamation to impute anything to a deceased person, if the imputation
would
harm the reputation of that person if living, and is intended to be hurtful to the feeling of his family
or other near
relatives.

Explanation 2: It may amount to defamation to make an imputation concerning a company or an

association or
collection of persons as such.

Explanation 3: An imputation in the form of an alternative or expressed ironically, may amount to

defamation.

Explanation 4: No imputation is said to harm a person's reputation, unless that imputation directly or
indirectly,
in the estimation of others, lowers the moral or intellectual character of that person, or lowers
the character of that
person in respect of his case or of his calling or lowers the credit of that person, or
causes it to be believed that
body of that person is in a loathsome state or in a state generally considered
as disgraceful.
Q 91. 30658143 Owing to the huge reputation earned by Baba Kamalnath of curing people with his
miraculous powers,
Preeto went to his centre for being cured of her problem of sleep talking. She paid a
hefty fee and was put on
a course of expensive medicines made by Baba Kamalnath himself for two
weeks but she was not cured.
Disappointed by the heavy expenses she had to incur without any result
she wrote a letter to the Baba
accusing him of fraud and misrepresentation, also calling him a cheat and
liar. Baba filed a suit for defamation.
Will he succeed?
a) Yes, he will succeed and Preeto should be held liable for defamation
b) Preeto is guilty of defamation as she wrote the letter
c) No, Preeto will not be liable for defamation.
d) Baba should be held for fraud.
Q 92. 30658143 Rahul and Yuganter were brothers. Rahul was jealous of Yuganter as Yuganter got
married despite being
younger to Rahul and Rahul did not get any offers. Rahul started spreading
rumours about Yuganters character
that he had been in relationships with many girls and used them and
later parted ways. Yuganters's newly
wedded wife Saloni comes to know about this. She files a
defamation suit against Rahul. Decide.
a) Rahul is liable for defamation.
b) Rahul is not liable for defamation.

c) Rahul was speaking the truth. Truth is a defence against defamation.
d) Saloni should leave Yuganter instead of taking side with him.
Q 93. 30658143 Assertion (A): If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to
defamation.

Reason (R) : Slander is actionable per se.
a) b)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct Both A and R are true but R is not correct
explanation of A. explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false d) R is true but A is false.
Q 94. 30658143 A wrote letters to the husband of X in which he alleged that X was a witch and by her
sorcery had caused the
death of some of his relatives. Decide.
a) A has not caused defamation since there was no publication as husband and wife are single entity.
b) A has not caused defamation since he only stated the truth.
c) A has caused defamation as he caused injury to the reputation of X.
d) None of the above.
Q 95. 30658143 Sherlock and Moriarty are arch enemies. In a bid to destroy Sherlock's reputation,
Moriarty launched a
systematic media campaign against him claiming that he was a bad detective and
that he had made up all
the crimes he solved. Sherlock stumbles upon one such newspaper article and
scoffs at it. His partner,
John, on seeing the article gets enraged and takes Moriarty to Court. At the Old
Bailey, the judge is called
upon to decide whether or not Moriarty is guilty of defamation.
a)
Moriarty is guilty because he had published the articles with the specific intent of harming Sherlock'
reputation and knew that whoever reads the article would end up doubting Sherlock's capabilities.
b) Moriarty is not guilty because Sherlock was indeed a useless detective
c)
Moriarty is not guilty because if Sherlock didn't have a problem with the published content, John had no
standing to bring it to Court
d)
Moriarty is not guilty because a reasonable person would not think ill of a celebrated detective solely on
the basis of a smear campaign. John is being hypersensitive because he cares about Sherlock.
Q 96. 30658143 A book was published by an author in which it was alleged that Mr Y, a famous actor,
has been convicted for
bigamy. On an action by Mr. Y, the author published an apology in various
newspapers all around the country
along with a notice that the book has been withdrawn. Various copies
of the book were transported through
X airways, an airways company to Sinha library situated in a
different city. The book was circulated amongst
the members of the library. Mr Y. brought an action
against the airways company and the library. Decide.
a) Yes, as they helped in the circulation of the defamatory material against Mr y.
b) No, as they were not aware that the contents of the book were defamatory.
c) No, as the author had published an apology, therefore the cause of action had extinguished.
d) Yes, but only if the action against the library is also successful.
Q 97. 30658143 A book was published by an author in which it was alleged that Mr Y, a famous actor,
has been convicted for
bigamy. On an action by Mr. Y, the author published an apology in various
newspapers all around the country
along with a notice that the book has been withdrawn. Various copies
of the book were transported through
X airways, an airways company to Sinha library situated in a
different city. The book was circulated amongst
the members of the library. Mr Y. brought an action
against the airways company and the library. Decide.
a) No, as they neither authored nor published the book, therefore they cannot be held liable.
b) No, as the books were circulated in a different city, therefore no cause of action arises.
c)
Yes, as they circulated the books even after the publication of the apology and consequent withdrawal of
the book.
d) Yes, but only if the airways company is also held liable as a joint tort- feasors for circulation.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 7

Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of India states that, all citizens shall have the right to freedom of
speech and
expression. The philosophy behind this Article lies in the Preamble of the Constitution, where
a solemn resolve is
made to secure to all its citizen, liberty of thought and expression. The exercise of
this right is, however, subject to
reasonable restrictions for certain purposes being imposed under Article
19(2) of the Constitution of India.

The main elements of right to freedom of speech and expression are as under-

1. This right is available only to a citizen of India and not to foreign nationals.

2. The freedom of speech under Article 19(1) (a) includes the right to express ones views and opinions at
any
issue through any medium, e.g. by words of mouth, writing, printing, picture, film, movie etc.

3. This right is, however, not absolute and it allows Government to frame laws to impose reasonable
restrictions
in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with
foreign states,
public order, decency and morality and contempt of court, defamation and incitement to
an offence.

4. This restriction on the freedom of speech of any citizen may be imposed as much by an action of the
State
as by its inaction. Thus, failure on the part of the State to guarantee to all its citizens the
fundamental right to
freedom of speech and expression would also constitute a violation of Article 19(1)
(a)
Q 98. 30658143 Akbar Rude-bean Oasis is the leader of a political party in Hyderabad. A speech he
delivered in an election
rally highlighted the contributions of Muslim rulers towards India's archaeological
heritage. It was argued that
this speech incited communal hatred against Hindus, subsequent to which
the videos of the rally were
removed from online media and Akbar was penalised for the same. Is the
state's action justified?
a) No. Akbar was simply pointing out a reality that generally "escapes" the majoritarian consciousness.
b)
Yes. The state can prevent the publication of any material which incites communal hatred amongst
people.
c)
No. Criticism is important to further intellectual discussion in the public sphere, which cannot take place
with such draconian laws in place.
d) Yes. The state has total discretion in preventing any form of expression.
Q 99. 30658143 Faizan approached the Supreme Court to file a writ petition under Article 32 of the
Constitution, alleging that
his freedom of speech has been infringed. The state contends that he should
have filed the case first in the
High Court under Section 226, and asks the court to reject his petition on
this ground. Is Faizan's plea
maintainable?
a)
Faizan's petition cannot be dismissed because infringement of freedom of speech is a serious matter
and dismissing it would be a display of inappropriate levity from the court.
b)
High courts cannot entertain matters pertaining to breach of fundamental rights. Faizan's petition cannot
be dismissed.
c)
Faizan approached the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution, which is itself a fundamental
right. His plea cannot be dismissed.
d)
Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the land, which cannot be approached directly.
Hence
Faizan's petition can be dismissed.
Q 100. 30658143 V is a mysterious crusader in dictatorial England. One evening, he hijacks the
communication lines and
broadcasts a message saying "…there's something seriously wrong with this
country, isn't there? Cruelty
and injustice, intolerance and oppression. And where once you had the
freedom to object, to think and speak
as you saw fit, you now have systems of surveillance…" He is
caught and brought to trial, and sought to be
executed for his words. Decide.
a) V will be guilty because under a dictatorship, free speech doesn't hold.
b) V will not be guilty because he was only expressing his opinion on the current political state.
c)
V will be guilty because free speech is subject to reasonable restrictions, and reasonability acquires a
twisted meaning in dictatorships.
d) V will not be guilty because he was only having a friendly chat with the people of England.
each
knowledge of

Passage – 8

The Central Consumer Protection authority (CCPA) under the Department of Consumer Affairs has
notified
'Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading
Advertisements, 2022'.

The guidelines seek to ensure that consumers are not being fooled with unsubstantiated claims,
exaggerated
promises, misinformation and false claims. Such advertisements violates various rights of
consumers such as
right to be informed, right to choose and right to be safeguarded against potentially
unsafe products and services.

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, to CCPA, the
Guidelines
were notified Misleading advertisement has already been defined under section 2(28) of the
Consumer Protection
Act, 2019. The present guidelines define "bait advertisement", "surrogate
advertisement" and clearly provides
what constitutes as "free claim advertisements". Keeping in view the
sensitiveness and vulnerability of children
and severe impact advertisements make on the younger
minds, several preemptive provisions have been laid
down on advertisements targeting children.
Guidelines forbid advertisements from exaggerating the features of
product or service in such manner as
to lead children to have unrealistic expectations of such product or service
and claim any health or
nutritional claims or benefits without being adequately and scientifically substantiated by a
recognized
body. Guidelines says that advertisement targeting children shall not feature any personalities from
the
field of sports, music or cinema for products which under any law requires a health warning for such
advertisement or cannot be purchased by children.

Disclaimers in advertisements play a pivotal role from consumer perspective since, in a way it limits the
responsibility
of the company. Therefore, guidelines stipulates that disclaimer shall not attempt to hide
material information with
respect to any claim made in such advertisement, the omission or absence of
which is likely to make the
advertisement deceptive or conceal its commercial intent and shall not
attempt to correct a misleading claim
made in an advertisement. Further, it provides that, a disclaimer
shall be in the same language as the claim made
in the advertisement and the font used in a disclaimer
shall be the same as that used in the claim. Similarly,
clear Guidelines are laid for duties of manufacturer,
service provider, advertiser and advertising agency, due diligence
to be carried out before endorsing and
others. Guidelines aims to protect consumer's interest through bringing in
more transparency and clarity
in the way advertisements are being published, so that, consumers are able to
make informed decisions
based on facts rather than false narratives and exaggerations. Penalty for violating the
Guidelines are
also clearly outlined. CCPA can impose penalty of upto 10 lakh rupees on manufacturers, advertisers
and
endorsers for any misleading advertisements. For subsequent contraventions, CCPA may impose a
penalty
of upto 50 lakh rupees. The Authority can prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement
from making any
endorsement for upto 1 year and for subsequent contravention, prohibition can extend
upto 3 years.
Q 101. 30658143 Data, a shoe company made an advertisement claiming that their sports shoes will
help people to burn
more calories. The shoes were mainly built with the elements which causes more
heat and sweat which
ultimately became a health hazard. Decide.
a) The company will be liable for misleading advertisement.
b) The company will be liable if there is no scientific proof for the claim.
c) The company will be liable as it causes a health hazards.
d) All of the above
Q 102. 30658143 Banza was a self-claimed doctor who used to make medicine using different plants
and minerals.
He claimed it to be the only medicine for HIV and therefore people started visiting him for
medicine.
It was later found that there was no scientific proof for it. Decide.
a) Banza will be liable for misleading advertisement as it was not telecasted on television.
b) Banza will be liable as there was no scientific proof to support it.

c) Banza will not be liable as proof for everything is not required.
d) Banza will not be liable as it helped a few people to mitigate the disease.
Q 103. 30658143 Pitbig came up with an energy drink which had a tagline "Pitbig gives you snow for
Christmas in the month
of summer". After this advertisement, all children brought chaos to the market for
the product expecting it to
bring snow for Christmas. Many families brought a suit against Pitbig. Decide.
a) Pitbig will not be liable as taglines are not always true.
b) Pitbig will be liable to generate expectations in the children.
c) Pitbig will not be liable as there cannot be any connection between energy drinks and snow.
d) Pitbig will be liable as the advertisement was impossible.
Q 104. 30658143 Which situation will not attract the offence of misleading advertisement?
a) Products which claim to give nutrients which are not even present in them.
b) The product which is being advertised by a renowned cricketer which cannot be purchased by a minor
c) Both
Q 105. 30658143 Choose which of the following is not mentioned in the guidelines?
a) Guidelines are made to save the interest of consumers and to inform them.
b) Guidelines put an obligation on the service providers to carry out due diligence.
c) Guidelines make the company responsible for the disclaimer.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Reservation is intrinsically linked to the historical injustice meted out to Shudras and Dalits. It was during
the
anti-caste movement that the idea of reservation came up as a way for an egalitarian social order, to
ensure fair
representation in the socio-political order, and to mitigate and compensate for the inhuman
exclusion of humans
based on ascriptive status. Reservation is implemented in politics, education and
public employment so that all
those in the hierarchy can participate in nation-building on equal terms. But
this idea did not appeal to the so-called
nationalists either then or now. For them, the nation is based on
the status-quoist hierarchical 'being' and not the
futuristic egalitarian 'becoming'.

B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramasamy 'Periyar' spoke about reservation as a means of providing
representation;
not as a poverty alleviation programme. Negating a century of nuanced arguments and
understanding of affirmative
action, the Supreme Court recently upheld the 103rd Constitution
Amendment for providing reservation for
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of upper castes falling
under the general category.

Merit is often the mantra used against the idea and implementation of reservation. Historically, Brahmins
had the
monopoly in offering sacrifice, receiving gifts, becoming priests, spiritual mentorship, and
teaching. Vaishyas had
the monopoly in wealth-generating professions. These monopolies were rooted
in, and buttressed by, the authority
of scriptures like the Manusmriti and treatises like the Arthasashtra.
The top three Varnas had access to learning.
In the colonial era, under the progressive pressures of
modernisation and democratisation, the traditional monopolies
based on caste order were diffused into
the secular domains of bureaucracy, legal practice, professorship, etc.
Leaders professing equality, such
as Jyotirao Phule, Periyar and Ambedkar, wanted to annihilate the arbitrary
reservation for certain
professions, being implemented based on fanciful mythical stories. Essentially, the mission
was to 'de-
reserve' education and employment opportunities from a handful of castes to make them available to
the
remaining castes which were aspiring to be a part of the newly independent nation.

The EWS judgment is hailed by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) as "social justice to the country's poor".
Are those in the EWS category really India's poor? Individuals from upper caste communities who earn up
to
Rs. 8 lakh a year and may own a 1,000-square feet home are being called economically weak.
Q 106. 30658143 Which one of the following options would the author agree with?
a) The EWS reservation exposes the hypocrisy of utilising 'merit' in de-reservation conversations.
b) The leaders of equality would have ultimately wanted reservation to end.
c) Since reservation is rooted in history its present value is mostly academic in nature.
d) Nations should be structured around hierarchies.
Q 107. 30658143 What according to you is the objective of the study of the present passage?
a) To offer a history of reservation.
b) To show the merits and demerits of reservation.
c) To show the hypocrisy involved in structuring reservation.
d) To show the necessity of reservation vis-a-vis representation.

Q 108. 30658143 Suggest a suitable title for the passage from amongst the given titles:
a) The Need for Social Justice. b) India and Her Castes.
c) EWS: Appropriating Exclusion. d)

The Curious Developments of Reservation in India.
Q 109. 30658143 Which of the following is a correct inference from the given passage?
a) Nationalists glorify the past even if it is detrimental to the present.
b) Reservation developed after many debates and arguments.
c) Wealth generation was beyond the ambit of lower castes.
d) Owning a small house is necessary to be called backward in India.
Q 110. 30658143 Read the following and select the best answer:

I. Learning is currently incumbent on one's Varna.

II. Ancient professions get diffused into their modern counterparts over time.
a) I is true b) II is true c) Both are false. d) Both are true.

Passage – 2

Kathak is an ancient dance form from northern India. Its origin is traced back to the traveling bards of
ancient
northern India, called Kathakars. Their dance forms were based on epic poetry, and their music
was highly regarded
in the region. Today, the dance form continues to evolve.

Kathak is a beautiful dance form from northern India that is based on the concept of storytelling. This
classical
dance is the only dance form in the world to have connections to both Hindu and Muslim
cultures. It represents a
unique synthesis of artistic genius from both cultures. It is also the only Indian
classical dance to be married to
Hindustani music.

Kathak has three major gharanas, which are based on geographical areas. These are Jaipur, Lucknow,
and
Benares. The styles of these schools vary slightly in repertoire and interpretation. The origin of
Kathak is unclear.
Some sources attribute it to Krishna. Kathak has been influenced by both classical and
contemporary dance
styles. Its basic movement is expressive and gives away information about a
person. It can tell us about their
sense of confidence or how they view space and their surroundings. The
movements in Kathak are rooted in
rhythm and play with movement to convey meaning and messages
without the use of words.

Although Kathak has its roots in Hinduism, its messages are universal. The artists' interpretation of its
meaning is
subjective and transcends religious boundaries. As a result, there are no hard and fast rules
when it comes to its
influences. Kathak has many different Gharanas, or regional styles. The term is
derived from the Hindi word 'ghar',
which means house. Several famous personalities have been
associated with Kathak. Maharaj Bindadin,
who is often referred to as Lachhu Maharaj, was a prominent
exponent of the dance form. Birju Maharaj, who lived
in exile from his home country of India until his
death in 1998, was one of the most celebrated artists of the art form.
Q 111. 30658143 Which of the following is the correct expression of the author's opinion as stated in the
passage?
a) Kathak is an ancient form of dance that has changed and evolved throughout the centuries.
b) Kathak is a dance of rhythm and movements.
c) It is a dance form which is subjective and transcends religious boundaries.
d) Kathak has added a new level of emotion to the dance and introduced a new range of musical forms.
Q 112. 30658143 Which of the following is the central theme of the above passage?
a) Kathak dance gained Royal patronage and became an integral part of court culture.
b) Kathak is a Beautiful Dance Form from Northern India
c) Kathak represents a unique synthesis of artistic genius from Hindu and Muslim cultures.
d) Kathak has different styles that vary slightly in repertoire and interpretation.
Q 113. 30658143 Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
a) Kathak provides an interpretation and its messages are universal.
b)
Kathak dance is an integral part of the culture of India as it has been influenced by both classical and
contemporary dance styles.
c) Kathak dance has added a new level of emotion to the world of dance.
d) Kathak is a result of regional stylistic idiosyncrasies.
Q 114. 30658143 According to the passage, what are the most plausible reasons for changes in Kathak?
a) It has happened due to the transition of religious boundaries.
b)
It has taken place as a result of innovative contributions by individual artists and social and political
forces
and religious stylistic idiosyncrasies.
c) It may have happened as a result of particularly displaying emotion and grace.
d) It has happened due to the innovation in contemporary dance styles.
Q 115. 30658143 Which of the following statements is NOT true in the context of the passage?
a)
The evolution of the Kathak movement was influenced by the Bhakti movement, which focused on stories
of Lord Krishna and his incarnations.
b)
The movements in Kathak are rooted in rhythm and play with movement to convey meaning and
messages
without the use of words.
c)
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, communication between artists was sporadic and
inefficient, which led to the development of distinct Gharanas.
d)
Maharaj Bindadin, who is often referred to as Lachhu Maharaj, was not a prominent exponent of the
dance form when compared to Birju Maharaj.

Passage – 3

A museum is a building where historical objects, scientific substances and discoveries, cultural things
and artistic
portions of work and interests are exhibited and stored safely. To find out about the problem,
I decided to pay a visit
to one of the largest museums globally, Field Museum of Natural History (The
Field Museum) in Chicago.
Aforementioned is a great museum full of history, and a lot of scientific
materials have been observed and stored
here together with the T. rex, a fossilized skeleton that is
believed to be 67 million years old. It was such a quality
place where many human beings from all over
the world just met up with one purpose, that is, to view the history
of the world and that of the United
States of America. The receptionists welcomed people very warmly and afterwards
one of the attendants
came to guide and explain to you through some of the items stored there, it was so superb
and very
informative. One of the most amazing features that made me feel like visiting the museum over and over
again was the marvelous archives that described the struggle of America during the slave trade era and
how all the
efforts to put a stop to slave trade, the astonishing scientific materials that were stored in the
museum and last but
not limited to this one was the Pacific Northwest Indian artifacts and artwork
(Alexander 2007).

In reading the history archives, there is so much to learn and discover the history books describing the
struggles
of the United States. I took my time and impacted a focused broad view on the specific
archives that explained the
history of America and I based my whole study on the issue of the slave
trade. At first, it was so terrifying how
human beings were mistreated, beaten up and forced to do hard
labor with less food and poor health conditions.
Later, as you cruise through the notes of the books
liberation came in and a move to stop the slave trade set up in
the United States and the whole world as a
whole.
Q 116. 30658143 The objective behind the information furnished in the passage is:
a) To spread information about the global importance of museums
b) To refer to the amazing features observed in a museum
c) To refer to the great scientific materials present in museums all over the world
d) To refer to the impact of the special archives present in the museums to explain the historical facts.
Q 117. 30658143 Based on the information presented in the paragraph, it will not be possible to draw
out the following information
about The Field Museum in Chicago:
a) It is one of the largest museums globally and is a great museum filled with history that explains a lot.
b)
A lot of scientific materials have been observed here with the T. rex, a fossilized skeleton that is believed
to be 67 million years old.
c)
This place serves one purpose so nicely and that is to view the history of the world and that of the United
States of America.
d)
A lot of human beings meet up at this place for their individual reasons with the least interest in the
scientific materials.
Q 118. 30658143 What can be most conveniently inferred from the given passage?
a)
One should encourage others to take an extraordinary chance and learn and discover something new
and
fresh in their lives via visiting the Museums.
b)
Museums help in discovering more and feed the thirsty nature of yearning to find out more about history.
c) Special Archives in the museums help a lot in understanding the whole world as a whole.
d)
The astonishing scientific materials stored in the museum help in a long-lasting effect in discovering new
learnings.
Q 119. 30658143 Which of the following points most closely supports the fact that in reading the history
archives, there is so
much to learn and discover about the history books describing the struggles of the
United States?
a) A move to stop the slave trade was strongly set up in the United States.
b)
It makes it clear that human beings were mistreated, beaten up and forced to do hard labour with less
food and poor health conditions.
c) Human beings were more into displaying the various beliefs posted by the diverse communities.
d)
It also talks about ignoring the scientific materials and discoveries that were in the museum for
captivating
the original piece of art stored in diverse museums.
Q 120. 30658143 What conclusion can be drawn from the above passage?
a) The artistic portions of work and interests are partially exhibited and stored safely in the museums
b)
A museum is a building where historical objects, scientific substances and discoveries, and cultural
things are exhibited.
c) Field Museum of Natural History is one of the sober and informative museums in the world.
d) The struggles of America are clearly shown in the Field Museum of Natural history

Passage – 4

Youth culture is the societal norms that shape children, adolescents, and young adults. The norms,
values,
and symbolic systems shared by this demographic are distinct from those found in adult culture.
As a result,
there are many theories on the origins, development, and influences of this culture. This
article will discuss some
of these issues. The study of youth culture has its roots in the 1960s and 1970s.
A University of Birmingham
research center was one of the first to focus on this topic. Its research
inspired a new generation of cultural
geographers. These studies, which focused on the social and
cultural practices of youth, were crucial in inspiring
new approaches to cultural geography. This
generation of scholars asserted that places are not defined by one
culture, but by a variety of diverse
cultures.

A number of influential authors contributed to the field. In the second half of the twentieth century, the
study of youth
culture grew rapidly as the number of youth groups and youth activities increased. The
emergence of new media
such as cinema and television also helped to shape the field. In addition, social
and economic changes influenced
the youth culture. Early studies of youth culture often viewed youth as
troublemakers and rebels. Norms of youth
culture are the norms that guide behavior for young people.
Many societies are committed to universalistic values,
but in some cases, youth culture does not
conform to these values. In such cases, the youth may have invented
their own hybrid values. However, it
is possible that some of these values will return to mainstream culture as the
next generation reaches its
peak of youth.

The study of youth culture has a long tradition in the social sciences. It has included ethnographies of
distinct youth
subcultures, such as clubbers, students, and Goths. The values of youth culture are the
norms and values that
underlie behavior among young people. They are shaped by their varied interests
and by inconsistencies in adult
society. As a result, they create norms that challenge the society they live
in and spread rebellion among other
young people. In the end, this rebellion becomes a style that
embodies particular values and expressive symbols.
The concept of youth culture is vast and often has
multiple definitions. Typically, it can be divided into two types:
culture as custom, and culture as a value
system. Often, these two concepts are conflated, but they are quite
different. For example, the culture of
genital mutilation of young girls is a value system that has little place in a
civilized society. Youth culture
is the expression of youth's dissatisfaction with traditional values and the rise of a
new social order.
Unlike high culture, youth culture is not homogeneous or static. Rather, it is a combination of
different
styles and influences, and the youths who adopt them often make them their own.
Q 121. 30658143 What according to you is the objective of the study of the present passage?
a) To study the development and influences of the youth culture
b) To consider the societal norms for shaping the lives of children and young adults
c) To check the emergence of new media for the youth
d) To guide the behaviour of young people for attaining universalistic values.
Q 122. 30658143 Which factors as per the author are more appropriate for the study of youth culture?
a) It's an important factor in inspiring a new generation of cultural geographers.
b) It would result in enhancing the technologically-advanced approach to cultural geography.
c) It would help in determining the norms needed for shaping the lives of growing adults.
d) It may result in the proper analysis for knowing the development needed for youth culture.
Q 123. 30658143 Which of the following falls closest to the underlying assumption in the present study?
a) Universalistic values do not tend to return to mainstream culture in future times.
b) The values of youth culture are the norms and values that underlie behaviour among young people.
c) The study of youth culture seems to have a long tradition in the social sciences.
d) Most of the time youth culture conforms to universalistic values.
Q 124. 30658143 Suggest a suitable title for the paragraph from amongst the given titles:
a) The Origins, Development, and Influences of Youth Culture
b) Varied interests and inconsistencies in adult society
c) Invention of hybrid values by the youth culture
d) Expression of youth's dissatisfaction with traditional values
Q 125. 30658143 With reference to the above paragraph, which of the following offers the most
plausible statements for the
values of the youth culture?
a) Values of the youth are not homogeneous or static in nature.
b)
The values create norms that challenge the society the youth live in and hence it spreads rebellion
among
other young people.
c) Rebellion is a style adopted by the youth for incorporating a particular value and expression symbols.
d) Values are totally dynamic as they are distinct in youth subcultures.

Passage – 5

Three years ago, he was in prison over corruption charges. Today, he is the President-elect of South
America's
largest country. The story of Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva, a former two-term President of Brazil and
leader of the leftist
Workers Party (PT), is one of the most astonishing comebacks in contemporary Latin
American politics.
When 99.5% of votes were counted, Lula, as he is popularly known, had won 50.9%
votes, defeating the incumbent
Jair Bolsonaro, who got 49.1%. Mr. Bolsonaro, a far-right populist who
presided over Brazil's rightward shift in the
past five years, had done better than most pollsters expected
in the first round. But in the run-off, when the voters
were offered two contrasting choices - one
representing a cocktail of ultra-nationalism, conservatism and free
market policies and the other
promising inclusive and sustainable development anchored in social liberalism -
they chose the latter. Mr.
Bolsonaro has none but himself to blame. An admirer of Brazil's brutal military dictatorship,
he oversaw a
disastrous governmental response to COVID-19, which caused some 7,00,000 deaths, and shrinking
economic opportunities. If Mr. Bolsonaro rose to power attacking Brazil's left, after his five years in power,
for many
Brazilians, the PT rule was an era of better days. What the Brazilian Left wanted was a leader.
And they got one
again in Lula, after his corruption convictions were annulled by the Supreme Court.

When Lula was in power between 2003 and 2010, his policies lifted some 25 million Brazilians out of
poverty.
He focused on growth and welfare and chose a cooperative model that sought coexistence
rather than confrontation
with the country's aristocracy while pushing for incremental redistribution. As in
the past, Lula returns to power
when a pink tide is sweeping through the Americas. Most of the major
countries in the continent are now ruled by Leftists. While Lula will find a favourable regional
environment, his only challenge would be to live up to the
expectations of Brazilians. He will inherit a
different Brazil today. The commodity boom that funded his ambitious
welfare programme last time is no
longer there. The slowdown in China, Brazil's biggest trading partner,
has hurt the economy, which is
expected to grow only 0.6% next year.
Q 126. 30658143 Which of the following can be inferred from "...is one of the most astonishing
comebacks in contemporary
Latin American politics."?
a) Lula is the first leftist president elect of Brazil. b)

He came back from prison and won the election.
c) He defeated a far right opponent Bolsonaro. d) He was already president for two terms.
Q 127. 30658143 Bolsonaro lost because…
a) He was radical in his approach. b) He was promoting free market choices
c) His response to covid 19 was a failure d) He did not adhere to social liberalism
Q 128. 30658143 Which of the following is true according to the given passage?
a) b) Bolsonaro failed to keep Lula in prison.

Lula was also a dictator but a left leaning dictator. c)
Lula was released because of his social left
attributes.
Q 129. 30658143 Which of the following cannot be seen as a challenge for Lula?

1. Pulling people out of poverty.

2. Expectations of the Brazilians after this change in the government.
a) 1 b) 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 130. 30658143 Which of the following is not a valid inference?
a) Though the trading relations with China have suffered a setback , the economy is expected to grow.
b) Most countries in Latin America are opting for left administration.

c) Lula will take over a Brazil that wants sustainable development and social reforms.
d) All of the above.

Passage – 6

Ensuring sustainable development requires more than good intentions and verbal commitments. And it is
the
physical commitment that is the crucial first step. Tamil Nadu has struck out clearly for a future that
would be
climate conscious, greener, with a series of announcements this year - in the form of
government orders and via
the Budget. Apart from getting the Ramsar Site declaration for a record
number of ecological zones as a
well-planned and implemented initiative, it has also declared its
intention to create green parks in 100 villages that
would cater to local requirements too. Also proposed
are an elephant reserve at Agasthiyarmalai in the south, a
dugong conservation park in the Palk Bay, a
new bird sanctuary at Tiruppur, and establishing India's first-ever
wildlife sanctuary for the slender loris in
Dindigul and Karur district. While these and similar incremental efforts
made possible with political will, if
implemented well, will lend themselves to a visibly greener landscape,
the bolder initiatives have been
conceptualised within the challenging field of climate change, where conviction is
the driver. The recently
appointed governing council on Climate Change, which has experts including Montek
Singh Ahluwalia,
Nandan Nilekani and Erik Solheim, for instance, is an example of good intent followed by a solid
tool to
aid implementation. It will provide policy directives to the Climate Change Mission, advise on climate
adaptation
and mitigation activities, provide guidance to the State Action Plan on Climate Change and
provide strategies for
implementation. The setting up of a Green Climate Fund corpus is a further
indication of commitment. Additionally,
a special purpose vehicle, Tamil Nadu Green Climate Company,
has been set up to advise on managing three
important missions - Climate Change, Tamil Nadu Green
and Wetlands.

But pursuing climate change has not been easy, not now, not ever. As per United Nations data, only 26 of
193
countries that agreed to enhance climate change action last year have followed up with concrete
plans.
For, indeed, the challenges are daunting. Environmental evangelism will have to drive these
projects, so that the
passion, urgency and seriousness that the parent institution (Environment and
Climate Change department),
brings to the table are absorbed by other departments. All modern states
are beset by challenges in the sectors of
energy transition, mobility transition and agricultural transition.
It is crucial to build capacity capable of fashioning
local solutions, and ensure that the announcements
are all implemented, in a time-bound manner.
Q 131. 30658143 Which of the following instances strengthens the author's argument/intention
projected in the 1st line of the
passage?
a)
A meeting was held by the local authority regarding conservation of water resources, everyone
participated.
b)
A decision was taken to improve the living conditions of the hawkers but it took years to rehabilitate
them.
c) A street light was not functioning properly,the locals complained but no action was taken.
d)
Two months before the election the ruling party promised a separate bicycle track for the cyclists,
it was
done in two weeks.
Q 132. 30658143 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) It is crucial to accept climate change. Most nations don't do that.
b) Often the department that deals with the environment gets overpowered by other departments.
c) People act priority wise, for most nations acting on the environment is still not a priority.
d) None of the above.
Q 133. 30658143 Read the given conclusions and select the correct answer.

1. The Green Climatic Fund is set up to showcase the commitment of the Tamil Nadu government.

2. The requirements of the local people is also a priority for these projects to take place. .
a) 1 b) 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 134. 30658143 Which of the following is a valid assumption?

I. Most of the countries according to the UN stayed away from implementing climate exchange action

II. the main idea is to establish a greener landscape
a) I is true b) II is true c) Both are false. d) Both are true.
Q 135. 30658143 All of the following are true, Except
a) The governing council on climate change will look over the State Action Plan
b) The council will provide directives.
c) The Green Council vehicle is set up for the council to overview everything.
d) All of the above.
Mathematics
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the year 2019, Himachal Pradesh produced 12500 tonnes of Apples and all of it was sold to five states
- Bihar,
Odisha, Kerala, Gujarat and Punjab - in the ratio 8 : 6 : 5 : 4 : 2. In the year 2020, the apple sales in
Bihar and
Gujarat increased by 20% from the numbers in the previous year and in Kerala and Punjab by
10% from the
numbers in the previous year in each state. The increase of sales in Odisha was equal to
the total increase in
Gujarat and Punjab. In the year 2021, the total sales of apples went up by 20% from
the numbers in the previous
year and the increase in number was equally distributed among the five
states.
Q 136. 30658143 Find the percentage increase in the sales of apples in Bihar from 2019 to 2021.
a) 34.55% b) 27.35% c) 33.33% d) 41.25%
Q 137. 30658143 For which of the above states was the percentage increase in sales of apples from
2019 to 2021 the
maximum?
a) Punjab b) Gujarat c) Odisha d) Bihar
Q 138. 30658143 What was the total increase in sales of apples from 2019 to 2020?
a) 2125 tonnes b) 2250 tonnes c) 2050 tonnes d) 1960 tonnes
Q 139. 30658143 What was the difference in the total sales of apples in Kerala and Gujarat during the
given time period
(in tonnes)?
a) 1100 b) 1200 c) 1300 d) 1400
Q 140. 30658143 In the year 2020, what was the ratio of total sales of apples in Odisha and Punjab
respectively?
a) 48 : 11 b) 35 : 11 c) 35 : 24 d) 2 : 1

There is a rectangular park in a residential colony having length 66 m and breadth 34 m. There is a
jogging track of
width 2 m along the inner boundary of the rectangle as well as in the middle
perpendicular to the length, such that
inner part of the rectangular park is divided into two squares of
equal areas - A and B. There is a circular fountain
of radius 7 m at the center of Area A. There is a kids'
play area in a concentric circle around the fountain having a
width of 7 m. In Area B of the park, there is a
badminton court having dimensions 11 m × 5 m.
Q 141. 30658143 If the cost of fencing 5 m length is Rs.120, then what will be the cost (in Rs.) of fencing
the park along the
boundaries of the jogging track?
a) 12600 b) 12600 c) 10560 d) 10840
Q 142. 30658143 What is the ratio of the area covered by the kids’ play area to that of the badminton
court?
a) 11 : 7 b) 42 : 5 c) 6 : 5 d) 13 : 7
Q 143. 30658143 If two slides having base area 30 m2 each and two merry-go-rounds having base area
25 m2 each are
placed in the kid's play area, then what percentage of the kid's play area remains vacant
for the kids to run
around?
a) 324 m2 b) 332 m2 c) 268 m2 d) 352 m2
Q 144. 30658143 If the monthly cost for maintaining the badminton court is Rs.15 per square meter and
an annual discount of
10% is given on the total amount, then find the annual maintenance cost of the
badminton court.
a) Rs.8,910 b) Rs.8,100 c) Rs.9,900 d) Rs.9,000
Q 145. 30658143 If a pack of 20 garden tiles of size 25 cm × 25 cm costs Rs.800, then find the total cost
of tiling the jogging
track. (Assume that single tiles can also be purchased at the same rate.)
a) Rs.2,86,420 b) Rs.2,40,240 c) Rs.2,02,140 d) Rs.2,84,160

The list of five top scoring batsmen in the recently held Cricket World Cup was released by the
International
Cricket Council. Some of the details have been shown in the table below:

Q 146. 30658143 Which pair of batsmen had the highest and the lowest average runs scored per match
played respectively?
a) b) c) d)

Max O'Dowd and Kusal Jos Butler and Max Suryakumar and Kusal Virat Kohli and Jos
Mendis O'Dowd Mendis Butler
Q 147. 30658143 What is the absolute difference between the total scores of the batsman with the
maximum number of 4’s
and the score of the batsman with the maximum number of 6’s?
a) 16 b) 12 c) 10 d) 18
Q 148. 30658143 If the batsmen were ranked according to their best score in the tournament, then what
is the difference
between the average runs scored per match played by the batsmen with second and
third ranks?
a) 5.355 b) 4.268 c) 3.225 d) 6.255
Q 149. 30658143 What is the ratio of total runs scored by Virat Kohli and Max O'Dowd respectively that
were not 6's or 4's?
a) 72 : 71 b) 74 : 77 c) 79 : 73 d) 74 : 73
Q 150. 30658143 Approximately what percentage of the runs scored by Jos Butler were from 4's and
6's?
a) 72% b) 61% c) 55% d) 67%

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All India Mock (CLAT) 2023

a) Reading helps in developing brains and acquiring better fashion.

b) Passion for reading and reviewing books

c) Grammar helps in the language development

d) Different criterion for choosing a book to read

Q 3. 30658143 What is the most suitable word to describe the above passage?

a) prescriptive b) doubtful c) critical d) engaging

d) It helps in networking with new people be they fictional or real.

a) Modification of the rituals of storytelling b) The lost world of storytelling

c) Enduring popularity of storytelling d)

Q 8. 30658143 What does the word 'emaciation' mean?

a) weakening b) Mitigate c) Manhandling d) Enduring

Q 9. 30658143 What is the tone of the given passage?

a) Delightful b) Happy c) Sad d) Mournful

b) It was later come to be known as Grimms' Fairy Tales.

c) India - A Global Powerhouse d) Broader strategies for going green

a) prescriptive b) argumentative c) critical d) descriptive

Q 14. 30658143 What does the word 'decarbonise' mean?

a) Reduce or remove b) Enhance or develop c) Prompting d) Elusive

a) Fresh fund raising by Global Dental Services

b) Fragmentation of Indian dental services market

d) Capital raising round for minority stake in Global Dental Services

Q 18. 30658143 Which is the most suitable word to describe the passage?

a) descriptive b) prescriptive c) argumentative d) critical

Q 19. 30658143 What does the word 'accelerate' mean?

a) Progress b) Moveable c) Repeated occurrence d) Hierarchical

a) Indian dental services market is worth $3 billion.

a) Satirical b) Narrative c) Laudatory d) Critical

Q 22. 30658143 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

b) CLR James did win an election and also acted in a play.

d) CLR James usually reeled under financial stresses.

Q 23. 30658143 With whom did Times compare CLR James with?

a) John L. Williams b) Plato c) Aristotle d) Tolstoy

Q 24. 30658143 How did John L. Williams describe CLR James?

a) An unusual man with greatness not restricted exclusively to arts.

b) A weird man with unusual interests in arts and cricket.

a) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to limit his personality.

b) Earlier biographies of CLR James tended to glorify his personality.

a) To vindicate someone b) To hold someone in high esteem

a) The mind has negative attributes. b)

Q 29. 30658143 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

a) Perception of the world cannot be linked to the existing social institutions.

c) Socio-cultural environment is redundant when it comes to understanding of things.

d) Socio-cultural environment plays a role in our interpretation of things.

b) Obesity has become a problem in today's age.

c) Being slim should not be the ultimate goal in life.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) b) Lifestyle for Economy c) Lifestyle for Eating d)

a) Mexico b) France c) Japan d) Egypt

a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) b)

c) Ministry of Environment Climate Change d) Green Peace Organization

Q 34. 30658143 The Sharm-El-Sheikh Adaptation Agenda outlines 30 Adaptation Outcomes to build

a) 2030 b) 2035 c) 2047 d) 2070

a) Services b) Haryana c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

a) Maharashtra b) Goa c) Andhra Pradesh d) Gujarat

a) Celebrating unity through sports b) United and Together for commongood

c) Sports for Goodwill d) Sports unite the nations

Q 39. 30658143 The 36th National Games 2022 mascot is__________.

a) Rhino b) Savaj c) Great Indian Bustard d) Cheetah

a) Pooja Patel b) Harmeet Desai c) Manav Thakkar d) Aruna Patel

a) Intelligence officer b) Comedian c) Journalist d)

a) Bangladesh b) Nepal c) Pakistan d) Bhutan

Q 43. 30658143 What is the currency of Russia?