DNB CET SS 2016 (29-11-2016)

General Surgery
1. TRUE about neurogenic shock
a) Cold and moist extremity
b) Tachycardia
c) Due to parasympathetic cut-off
d) Diagnosis of exclusion
2. Shock associated with acquired adrenal insufficiency
a) Septic
b) Hypovolemic
c) Cardiogenic
d) Vasovagal
3. Packed red cell in preservative – half life in days
a) 7
b) 14
c) 21
d) 42
4. RET oncogene is located in :
a) 10q11.2
b) 10p11.2
c) 11q10.2
d) 11p10.2

5. Tracer used in PET scan

a) 18 –fluoro -2-deoxy glucose
b) 18-fluoro 2 –decarboxy glucose
c) 24 fluoro 2-deoxyglucose
d) –

6. Relative Contraindications of MRI

a) Cochlear implant
b) Intracranial Aneurysm clip
c) Metallic ocular foreign body
d) Early pregnancy

7. Inhalational agent of choice for anesthesia in preterm baby:

a. Isoflurane
b. Desflurane
c. Enflurane
d. Halothane

8. TRISS components
a. ISS + RTS + Age
b. ISS + GCS + Age
c. RTS+GCS+Age
d. ISS + RTS + GCS
9. Mangled extremity severity score components all except
a. Limb ischemia
b. Shock
c. GCS
d. Age

10. Reactionary haemorrhage TRUE is-

a) Occurs commonly after 24 hours
b) Caused due to infection
c) Patient may be taken to OT for exploration
d) Ooze is mostly from capillaries
11. True about keloid:
a) Doesnt extend beyond margin
b) Surgical excision best t/t
c) Histlogically less collagen with increased vascularity
d) Increase Growth factors locally

12. Clean contaminated wound, true:

a) Controlled/insignificant GI contamination
b) Gross contamination/significant GI spillage
c) Infection with pus
d) Traumatic wound

13. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by :

a) HHV 8
b) HPV 16
c) HHV 17
d) Human simian virus 40

14. HLA, true is :

a) HLA II is expressed in all nucleated cells
b) HLA A,B,DR are most important subtype for transplant
c) HLA 1 is present in macrophages/APC
d) –
15. HLA: (second question)
a) HLA : mono-morphic
b) Detects antibody in host body
c) Most common cause for graft rejection
d) –
16. HIV infects:
a. Tcells
b. Bcells
c. NK cells
d. Monocytes

17. MC inv. for a Patient of blunt trauma abdomen with hematuria:

a) CECT
b) IVP
c) RGU
d) USG
18. PEP :
a. start ART with in 2 hrs and continue for 28 days
b. start once HIV is confirmed
c. start after 2-3 days
d.

19. Renal stone is seen in which ART:

a) Protease inhibitor
b) Integrase inhibitor
c) NNRTI
d) NRTI

20. Radio & chemo protective :

a. Amifostine
b. sucralfate

21. Which drug anaerobic coverage:

a) Tobramycin
b) Netilmycin
c) Clindamycin
d) Azithromycin
22. Degloving injury definition:
a) Skin only
b) Skin + subcutaneous tissue
c) Skin + subcutaneous tissue+ fascia exposing tendons
d) Upto tendons, exposing bone.

23. Silodocin MOA:

a) Alpha adrenergic antagonist
b) Beta adrenergic antagonist
c) Anticholinergic
d) PDE5 inhibitor

24. Intraperitoneal Bladder rupture:

a) Perineal hematoma
b) Emergency laparotomy
c) IVP is IOC
d) Conservative

25. Decreased Body water in old age:

a. decreased sub-cutaneous fat
b. decreased skeletal muscle
c. decrease intake of water
d. decrease of bone mass

26. Cryoprecipitate is rich in which factor:

a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9

27. Max amount of fluid in body is in :

a. ECF
b. Interstitium
c. Body cavity
d. ICF

28. Which is seen bright on T2 in MRI

a. Water
b. Fat
c. Mucin
d. Bile
GI & HPB
29. RFA used in GERD treatment known as
a) Stretta procedure
b) EsophyX
c) Linx system
d) Enterx system

30. Type III gastric ulcer according to (Johnson classification)

a) High on lesser curvature
b) Pre-pyloric
c) Lesser curve
d) Body

31. Forrest classification of peptic ulcer Type IIB is

a) Actively spurting bleeding vessel
b) Non-spurting bleeding vessel
c) Adherent clot
d) Non bleeding visible vessel

32. PDGFRA mutation found in –

a) Aplastic anemia
b) ITP
c) GIST
d) GI Lymphoma
33. Mutation found in GIST is
a) CD117
b) CD110
c) CD 52
d) CD 10
34. Imatinib used in treatment of
a) GIST
b) Ca Esophagus
c) Ca Colon
d) GI Lymphoma

35. MAGIC trial is about

a. adjuvant t/t
b. Perioperative chemoradiation
c. Post Op Radiotherapy
d. D2 Lymphadenectomy

36. Metabolic abnormality in GOO :

a. Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
b. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
c. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis

37. What happens in Duct of luschka injury :

a. Bile leak
b. Bleeding
c. Chylous ascites

38. Station 8 in CA stomach lymph node

a) Left gastric
b) Common hepatic
c) Proper hepatic artery
d) Celiac trunk
39. In Radical Cholecystectomy enblock resection of which one is must:
a) Segment 4a, 5
b) Periportal LN
c) CBD
d) Aortocaval LN

40. Normal pressure in portal venous:

a) 5-8 mm of hg
b) 9-12mm of hg
c) 15-18mm Hg
d) 10-15mm Hg

41. Double duct sign seen in :

a) Periampullary Ca
b) Ch pancreatitis
c) CholangioCa
d) Ca Gall Bladder

42. Milwakukee Classification is for:

a) SOD
b) ABPDJ
c) Choledochal cyst
d) Acute Pancreatitis
43. Classical triad of Budd-Chiari :
a) Fever,Jaundice, pain
b) Fever, Ascites ,jaundice
c) Hepatomegaly, Jaundice , Ascites
d) Hepatomegaly, ascites, pain

44. Shunt in Budd chiari:

a) Rex
b) Lienorenal
c) Mesocaval
d) Side to side portocaval

45. Treatment for Left sided portal Htn:

a) Splenectomy
b) Splenorenal shunt
c) Mesocaval shunt
d) Portocaval shunt

46. Push, pringle, plug & pack is used for :

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Kidney

47. Middle HV drains:

a. Segment 4,5,6
b. Segment 4,5,8
c. Segment 3,4,5
d. Segment 5,6,7

48. Both extra & intrahepatic choledochal cyst is found in Todani

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
49. Risk factor for Cholangio Ca
a) Liver Fluke
b) Hydatid disease
c) OCP
d) Anabolic Steroids

50. Aflatoxin is a carcinogen for which cancer

a. HCC
b. Mesothelioma
c. Lung Ca

51. Malignant Hydatid disease is caused by:

a) E.Multilocularis
b) E.Vogeli
c) E.aveoloris
d) E.granulosus

52. Biliary atresia ; gold std investigation :

a) MRCP
b) HIDA
c) Liver Bx
d) Peroperative cholangiogram

53. TIGER-O classification is for :

a. Chronic Pancreatitis
b. Acute Pancreatitis
c. Ca Head of Pancreas
54. Beger’s procedure :
a) Pancreatic head resection in CP
b) Pancreatic head coring in CP
c) Modification of lateral pancreaticojejunostomy
d) –

55. Best prognosis in Pancreatic Ca with resection of

a) SMV
b) SMA
c) Liver
d) Paraaortic Nodes

56. Source of bleeding in duodenal Ulcer :

a. GDA
b. Left gastric
c. Gastroepiploic
d. Right Gastric

57. MC artery ligated in PD :

a. GDA
b. Right gastric
c. Splenic
d. Short Gastric

58. In paralytic ileus Return of peristalsis is earliest in :

a. Stomach
b. Small Bowel
c. Colon
d. Rectum
59. Grade 3 abdominal Htn :
a) 10-15 cm of water
b) 26-35cm
c) 36-40cm
d) >40cm

60. Grade 2 abdominal compartment syndrome treatment:

a) Hypovolaemic resuscitation
b) Neurovolemic resuscitation
c) decompression
d) Immediate Laparotomy

61. String of lakes appearance in angiography :

a) Chronic mesenteric ischaemea
b) NOMI
c) Mesenteric venous thrombosis
d) Mesenteric arterial thrombosis

62. Diverticulitis is best diagnosed by

a) CECT
b) MRI
c) Colonoscopy
d) Barium enema

63. Most common type of fistula in diverticulitis

a) Colo-vesical
b) Entero enteric
c) Entero-cutaneous
d) Colo-vaginal

64. Hinchey classification used for

a) Diverticulitis
b) Appendicitis
c) Gastric Ulcer

65. First LN to drain colonic wall:

a) Epicolic
b) Paracolic
c) Intermediate
d) Principle

66. Greatest chance of leak :

a. GJ
b. Bilio-enteric
c. ileo colic
d. Colo rectal

67. Ca rectum stage II(T3-T4) t/t:

a) Neoadjuvent CTRT >Surgery
b) Surgery>CTRT
c) Chemoradiation Alone
d) Surgery Alone

68. Best result of rectal cancer Sx is from :

a. TME
b. Distal margin more than 5cm
c. Pelvic LN dissection
69. Tumour marker of colo-rectal cancer :
a. CEA
b. CA 19-9
c. AFP
 70. MC infection after splenectomy:
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Influenza

71. Ogilvie Syndrome

a. Acute Pseudo-colonic obstruction
b. Acute small intestinal obstruction
c. Ca Colon
d. -

Transplant

72. Absolute contraindication of Liver transplant:

a) HIV infectiom
b) Active infection with inotropic support
c) Pt with CAD post CABG
d) HCC with 3 lesions, largest 2.8cm

73. TRUE about LDLT-

a) Only right lobe is taken
b) Only left lobe is taken
c) Liver size <0.5% to recipient’s BSA is called SMALL FOR SIZE.
d) Chances of bile leak is more than diseased donor

74. MELD score for liver transplant –

a) Decreased mortality in patient’s in waiting list
b) Less ill patients are given more priority for transplant
c) Set threshold for patients who are too ill to transplant
d) Increase waiting list period

75. True about Liver transplant:

a) PV thrombosis more common than HA thrombosis
b) Bile leak though more common but not significant problem
c) Any bleeding in post op period, pt should be taken to OT
d) Primary non function seen in 5-10% cases

76. Cellular effectors of Allograft rejection, the cell that recognise donor class I antigen

a. B cell
b. NK
c. CD4
d. CD8

77. MC infection in transplant pts on immune suppression:

a. CMV
b. HSV
c. HIV

78. Hyperacute rejection:

a) Microvascular thrombosis
b) Mononuclear cell infiltration
c) Common seen in liver transplant
d) Mostly due to antibody against HLA-II
 79. Xenograft is defined as
a. Siblings
b. Different species
c. Distant site of body
d.

80. Calcineurin inhibitor is

a. Cyclosporine
b. Sirolimus
c. MMF
d. Azathioprine

CTVS

81. Waterston Shunt ?

a. Ascending Aorta to Rt Pulmonary Artery
b. Lt Subclavian to Rt Pulmonary Artery
c. Descending Aorta to Rt Pulmonary Artery
d. Rt Subclavian to Rt Pulmonary

82. Mustard Operation for TGA ?

a. Aortic switch
b. Aortic switch with native atrial tissue
c. Aortic Switch with pericardial buckling

83. Rt Pulmonary Artery arising from Aorta is called as

a. Type I Aortopulmonary Window
b. Type2 Aortopulmonary Window
c. Type3 Aortopulmonary Window
d. Type 4 Aortopulmonary Window

84. Earliest Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis

a. Syncope
b. Dyspnoea
c. Chest pain/Angina
d. palpitation

85. Graham Steel Murmur

a. Complete tricuspid regurgitation
b. Mid diastolic murmur seen due to Aortic regurgitation due systolic accentuation
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Pulmonary Artery Hypertension

86. MC Post medistinal tumour:

a) Thymoma
b) Schwanomma
c) Ectopic thyroid
d) Parathyroid adenoma
87. TRUE about ‘thoracic outlet syndrome’

a) Long transverse process of thoracic vertibra may be a cause

b) 1st rib resection through thoracic approach is a treatment option
c) Reynaud’s phenomenon may occur
d) NCV cannot confirm the diagnosis of neural deficit

88. Cor-tritritum dextrum is-

a) Duplication of pulmonary artery

b) Right atrium subdivided by thin membrane
c) Left Atrium divided by fibromuscular septum receiving pulmonary veins
d) Connection between pulmonary trunk and aorta

89. Grade 5 pulmonary vascular thickening/stenosis/hypertension(Heath & Edward Grade)

a) Medial hypertrophy with intimal proliferation

b) Neointimal hyperplasia with intimal fibrosis
c) Plexiform and angiomatoid lesions
d) Hypertrophy of media with proliferation of intimal cells

90. M.C benign cardiac tumour

a) Fibroma
b) Myxoma
c) Rhabdomyoma
d) Leiomyoma

91. Agent increases APTT in cardio-pulmonary bypass

a) Heparin
b) Tirofiban
c) Warfarin
d) Streptokinase

92. Pulsatile mass around umbilicus, best initial test for diagnosis:

a.USG
b.CT Angio
c.MRI
d.DSA

93. Most significant long term sequale of DVT:

a) Venous stasis & ulcer

b) Venous gangrene
c) Claudication
d) Superficial thrombophlebitis

94. Cardiac output monitoring in critical patients is best done with:

a) PA catheter(PAC)
b) PV catheter
c) Aortic Catheter
d) Femoral Catheter
 95. True about mesothelioma is
a. Manganese exposure is a cause
b. Dyspnoea and chest pain are late complaints
c. Exudative pleural effusion
d. Butchart Staging

96. Horners syndrome is caused by

a. Thymoma
b. Ca Breast
c. Pancoast Tumor
d.

97. Best inv for IVC thrombosis diagnosis:

a. MRI
b. CT
c. Venocavagraphy
d. USG

Breast & Endocrine

98. Acromegaly can be diagnosed by measuring the levels of active form of GH

a) IGF 1
b) IGF 2
c) IGF 5
d) IGF 11

99. A pt presented with progressive hyperpigmentation, visual loss & amenorrhoea following bilateral adrenaliectomy done for adrenal
adenoma/hypercortilism. Diagnosis:

a) Nelson Syndrome
b) Seehan Syndrome
c) Adson Syndrome
d) Conn Syndrome

100. 4cm breast lump with ipsilateral mobile single LN. Staging?
a. T3N1M0
b. T2N1M0
c. T2N0M0
d. T4N0M0

101. Metastatic Breast Cancer in Post menopausal female. Appropriate therapy?

a. Tamoxifene
b. Anastrazole
c. B/L Oophorectomy
d. Trastuzumab

102. Best imagimg modality to differentiate between Post MRM scar and tumor recurrence?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. USG
d. Mammography

103. Inflammatory carcinoma of breast. Treatment modality?

a. Conservative surgery
b. Radiotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radical Surgery
104. Treatment protocol for locally advance Ca Breast(T4bN0M0)
a. Surgery
b. Surgery-chemo
c. Radiotherapy
d. Chemo- Surgery- Chemoradiation

105. Green / black discharge from nipple is seen in

a. Duct ectasia
b. Duct papilloma
c. Carcinoma
d. Fibroadenoma

106. Popcorn calcification on Mammogram is seen in

a. Trauma
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Comedo-carcinoma

107. Bilateral Breast Malignancy is seen in

a. Ductal Carcinoma in Situ
b. Lobular Carcinoma
c. Ductal Carcinoma
d. Inflammatory Carcinoma

108. Simple nipple inversion is seen in

a. Puberty
b. Duct Ectasia
c. Malignancy
d. Chronic periductal Mastitis

109. Following is a cause of Gynaecomastia

a. Leprosy
b. Tuberculosis
c. Ranitidine use
d. Congestive cardiac failure

110. Radiation in Mammography

a. .1cGy
b. .2cGy
c. .3cGy
d. .5cGy

111. Cushing disease cause is

a. ACTH producing pituitary tumor
b. Adrenal Tumor
c. Ectopic production of ACTH
d. Adrenal Hyperplasia

112. Null cell tumor exhibits mRNA of

a. Leutinising Hormones
b. ACTH
c. Prolactin
d. GNRH

113. BCS not done in :

a. Diffuse calcification
b. Skin tethering
c. Pregnancy 3rd trimester
d. Single Lymph node
 114. A woman operated for MRM 11 yrs ago developed Red & purple nodule at right arm,diagnosis:
a) Lymphangioma
b) Superficial thrombophelibitis
c) Angiosarcoma
d) Lymphedema

115. Types of cells in Islet cell mass:

a) ABDE
b) ABDF
c) ABCD
d) ABCE

116. Dermatological manifestation of Glucagonoma:

a) Migatory Necrolytic Erythema

b) Erythema nodosum
c) TEN
d) SJS

117. Streaks gonad found in :

a) Pure gonadal dysgenesis

b) CAH
c) True hermaphrodite
d)

118. MC enzyme defect in CAH :

a. 17 - hydroxylase
b. 3-b- deoxy hydroxylase
c. 11- b- hydroxylase
d. 21 - hydrolase

119. Plasma aldosterone concentration/Serum Renin assey (PAC/SRA) in aldoseronoma is 90% in

a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

Head & Neck

120. T2 lesion in oral Ca a/c to latest AJCC

a) 2.5cm in hard palate involving bone

b) 2 cm check involving buccinators muscle
c) 4cm lesion floor of mouth with submandibular duct inv
d) 3cm tongue lesion involving extrinsic muscles of tongue

121. Level I,II,III,IV neck LN dissection is called

a) Extended supra-omohyoid
b) Supraomohyoid
c) Ant-Lateral
d) Post Lateral

122. Superior parathyroid develops from which Branchial pouch

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
123. Post radiation thyroid malignancy in children
a. PTC
b. FTC
c. MTC
d. Hurthle Cell

124. Nerve of 2nd branchial arch

a. Mandibular
b. Facial
c. Maxillary
d. VAC

125. Chronic Retropharyngeal abscess: true

a) Commonly seen in children

b) Thoracic vertebrae involvement by TB
c) Drainage through cervical incision
d) Xray Neck in supine position is Normal

126. TRUE about tracheal stenosis

a) Slow onset respiratory difficulty

b) Involves carina in patient’s with prolong intubation
c) Repaired with 1-0 prolene
d) Diagnosis cannot be confirmed by bronchoscopy.

127. TRUE about carotid body tumour

a) Usually bilateral
b) High chances of metastasis
c) Moves side-by-side but not vertically
d) Radiotherapy is a treatment option

128. Warthin tumour :

a) Often B/L
b) Common in females
c) Common in tail of parotid
d) Recurrence is common after Sx

129. Ameloblastoma :

a) Highly malignant
b) Occurs in children <5yrs
c) MC odontogenic tumour
d) Mandible is not the most common site.

130. Great vessels are injured in which zone of neck trauma?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Skin & Soft tissue tumor
131. Max margin of excision is needed for
a. SCC
b. BCC
c. MM
d. Dermato fibrosarcoma protruberans

132. Immunotherapy is effective for :

a. SCC
b. BCC
c. MM
d. Dermato fibrosarcoma protruberans

133. Mohs microsurgery is done for :

a) Cutaneous Melanoma
b) DFP
c) SCC
d) -

134. Soft tissue tumor of extremity most commonly metastasize to

a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Bone
d. Lymph node

NeuroSurgery
135. Central Neurocytoma – MC site
a) Corpus callosum
b) Cerebellum
c) Lateral ventricle
d) Temporal lobe

136. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in

a) Pituitary adenoma
b) Frontal lobe tumour
c) Cerebellar tumor
d) _

137. Persistant vegetative state in Glasgow outcome score

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

138. B/L Coronal synostosis is known as

a) Brachycephaly
b) Plagiocephaly
c) Dolicocephaly
d) Trigonocephaly

139. TRUE about brainstem death-

a) Positive occulo-vestibular reflex
b) Pinpoint pupil
c) Loss of light reflex
d) Positive Doll’s eye reflex
 140. Nerve as pure content of Cavernous sinus-
a) Maxillary
b) Mandibular
c) Abducent
d) Occulomotor

141. M.C cause of spontaneous SAH

a) Hypertension
b) Aneurysm
c)

142. Growing skull # :

a) Occurs in children
b) MC seen in occipital bone
c) Surgical treatment not necessary
d) –

143. Orbital # true is:

a) Immediate surgical intervention in vision threatening injuries
b) Immediate Medical canthotomy
c) Conservative management with edema reducing measures
d) Muscle entrapment doesn’t require surgery

144. Lefort # :
a. Facial skeleton
b. Temporal bone
c. Femur

145. Old lady which presented with amaurosis fugax. Microembolism involving which of the following vessels involved:
a) Retinal artery
b) Superficial temporal artery
c) Occipital artery
d) –
146. Macewan sign seen in :
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Syringomyelia
c. Cervical Spine trauma

Urology

147. MC benign renal tumour which is hyperdense and appears as RCC

a) Oncocytoma
b) Juxtagromerular tumour
c) Rhabdomyoma
d) Metanephric Adenoma

148. Kidney function & obstruction, which nuclar scan is used:

a. DTPA
b. DMSA
c. MAG3
d. EC scan

149. MC route through which Genito urinary TB spreads :

a. Hematological
b. Ascending
c. Direct inoculation
d. Lymphatic
150. Post Varicocelectomy Hydocele :
a. Lymphatics
b. Testicular venous hypertension
c. –
d. –

151. T/t of metastatic bladder cancer:

a) Interferon
b) MVAC
c) AC
d) Cisplatin

152. MC site of urethral CA

a) Penile
b) Bulbo membranous
c) Prostatic
d) Fossa nevicularis

153. Stage T2 Ca penis:

a) Urethral involvement
b) Corporal involvement
c) Prostatic involvement
d) Prepuce involvement

154. Gold standard of treatment TCC involving renal pelvis :

a) Radical nephroureterectomy
b) Pelvi-ureterectomy
c) Radical Nephrectomy
d) Conservative Nephrectomy

155. Length of urethra in male :

a) 17.5-20cm
b) 25-27cm
c) 20-25 cm
d) –

156. Renal transplant, choice of ureteric transplantation/anastomosis:

a) Cohen
b) Politano and Leadbetter
c) Lich Gregoir
d) Glenn Anderson

157. Germ cell tumours are most sensitive to:

a) Platinum
b) Vinka alkaloids
c) Cyclophosphamides
d) Doxorubicin

158. Duplication of ureter is associated with :

a) Megaureter
b) VUR
c) Ureteral retrograde peristalsis
d) PUJ obstruction

159. Treatment is indicated in asymptomatic bacterurea:

a) Pregnancy
b) Old age
c) Incontinence
d) Catheterised patient
 160. Post branch of renal artery:
a) Post segment only
b) Post & apical
c) Posterior,apical & basal
d) Upper, middle lower & posterior

161. Retrocaval ureter occurs due to persistence of:

a) Azygous
b) Hemiazygous
c) Ant cardinal vein
d) Post cardinal vein

162. Relation of uterine art & ureter:

a. Uterine artery crosses ureter anteriorly

b. Uterine artery crosses ureter posteriorly
c. Uterine Artery does not cross and passes medially to ureter
d. Uterine Artery does not cross and passes laterally to ureter

163. Wilms tumour not associated with :

a) WAGR
b) Denys Drash
c) Beckwith wiedmann
d) Trisomy 13

164. MC cause of VVF in developed countries:

a) Radiation
b) Pelvic Surgery
c) Obstetric cause
d)

165. American urology association definition of microscopic hematuria:

a) 3/hpf
b) 20/hpf
c) 50/hpf
d) 100/hpf

166. Interstitial cystitis, cells deposited:

a. Mast cells
b. Platelet
c. Granulocyte
d. Eosinophils

167. Interstitial cystitis, use of Sodium pento.. sulphate covers which layer:
a) Lamina propriya
b) Detrusor muscle
c) Glycosaminoglycan layer
d) Epithelial layer

Paediatric Surgery

168. TEF in a child, poor prognosis is seen in:

a) Less than 2 kg wt with major cardiac anomaly
b) Proximal TE fistula with distal esophageal atresia
c) Vertebral anomaly
d) ?
 169. Blunt trauma in a child with splenic injury, mc management:
a) Conservative treatment
b) Lap splenectomy
c) Laparotomy
d) Open Splenectomy

170. Currarino triad includes pre-sacral teratoma + bifid sacrum &

a) Tethered cord
b) Bladder extrophy
c) Anal stenosis
d) Meningomyelocele

171. Hepatoblastoma is associated with :

a) Alagele syndrome
b) Beckwith wiedmann Syndrome
c) Acardi Syndrome
d) Downs Syndrome

Plastic Surgery

172. Relative C/I of tendon repair:

a) Children
b) Delayed presentation >6hrs
c) More than 1 cm length loss
d) Clean cut Tendon injury at two sites

173. Thoracodorsal Nerve injury causes:

a. Winging
b. loss of sensation of arm
c. weakness of abduction
d. atrophy of pectoral muscle

174. Tissue expander, true is:

a) Dermal thinning
b) Epidermal thinning
c) Subcut fat proliferation
d) Loss of skin appendages

175. Skin tightening of aging of face done by:

a) Phototherapy
b) Laser
c) Fractional photothermolysis
d) Chemical peeling

176. Fascio cutaneous flap: True

a) Fascial feeder vessels perforate the deep fascia
b) The fascial plexus is confluence of multiple adjacent vascular inter- communications that exist at the subfascial, fascial,
suprafascial levels
c) The flow to the corresponding angiosome is not equivalent for a distal fascial perforator and proximal fascial
perforator
d) Always only proximally based
Statistics

177. Mode definition:

a. Most frequent value in given set of variables
b. Mid Value when data is arrange is ascending/desending order
c.

178. Cross sectional study:

a. Assessment made for a small subset of population at a given time
b. Subjects are divided into groups on random allocation
c. ?A large subset of population for long period
d. ?Assessment made when one part of population is taken as control

179. Audit with poor evidence, what can be done ???

a. Clinical audit
b. Research proposal
c. Screening test
d. Service evaluation