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MODEL TEST PAPER OF POST BASIC NURSING ENTRANCE

1. The body part that would likely display jaundice 12. The nurse notes variable decelerations on fetal
in the dark skinned individual is the monitor strip, appropriate action is
(a) Conjunctiva of eye (a) Notify the doctor
(b) Soles of the feet (b) Start an IV
(c) Roof of the mouth (c) Reposition the client
(d) Skins (d) Readjust the monitor
2. The nurse is checking the client’s central 13. A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice
venous pressure. The nurse should place the regarding birth control methods which is
zero of manometer at the suitable?
(a) Phlebostatic axis (b) PHI (a) IUD
(c) Erb’s point (d) Tail of spence (b) Oral contraceptives
3. A person admitted in casualty with history of (c) Diaphragm
opium poisoning, which kind enema should be (d) Contraceptive sponge
given 14. The toddler is admitted with cardiac anomaly.
(a) Opium enema Nurse is aware that infant with VSD will
(b) Coffee enema (Vrentricular septal defect)
(c) Carminative enema (a) Tire easily
(d) Cold enema (b) Grow normally
4. The most common way of heat loss from body (c) Need more calories
is (d) Be susceptible for viral infections
(a) Conduction (b) Convection 15. Nurse performing initial assessment of a 32
(c) Radiation (d) Evaporation weeks newborn male, nurse should expect to
5. The humidity of a ward in hospital should be find
(a) 10-30% (b) 30-60% (a) Mongolian spots (b) Scrotal rugae
(c) 60-80% (d) 100% (c) Head lag (d) Polyhydraunious
6. The nurse is caring for a client with uremic frost 16. The primary physiological alteration in the
the nurse is aware that uremic frost is often development of asthma is
seen in clients with (a) Bronchiolar inflammation and dyspnea
(a) Severe aneamia (b) Arteriosclerosis (b) Hypersecretion of abnormally viscous
(c) Liver failure (d) Parathyroid mucus
disorder (c) Infectious processes causing mucosal
7. The term crisis in regard to fever means edema
(a) Maximum upper limit of fever (d) Spasm of bronchiolar smooth muscle
(b) Extreme cooling of body 17. The client with history of abusing barbiturates
(c) Sudden return of high temperature to the abruptly stops taking the medication the nurses
normal priority is to assess
(d) Sudden increasing of normal temperature (a) Depression of suicidal ideation
to high (b) Tachycardia with diarrhea
8. The tube used for therapeutic management of (c) Muscle cramping with abdominal pain
esophageal varices is (d) Tachycardia with euphoric mood
(a) Levin tube 18. A nurse plan to send sputum of a TB patients
(b) Sengestawn blackmore tube the best time to take the sample is
(c) ET tube (a) After brushing but before breakfast
(d) Miller abbotte tube (b) After breakfast
9. To give enema to an adult person the rectal (c) Before brushing
tube should be inserted to about (d) At bed time
(a) 1 inch (b) 2 inch 19. The composition of intracellular fluid in human
(c) 2.5 inch (d) 4 inch body is
10. The temperature of liquid used for retained (a) 22% (b) 30%
enema should be (c) 70% (d) 100%
(a) 98.6 F (b) 100oF 20. A newborn baby weight is 2.5 kg, the weight in
(c) 105 F (d) 115 Fo pounds will be
11. What is enterolysis (a) 7 (b) 5.5
(a) Inflammation of bowel (c) 7.5 (d) 9.5
(b) Cleaning of bowel 21. Jaundice is clinically evident when the serum
(c) Surgery of bowel bilirubin level is above
(d) Accumulation of gases (a) 1.0 (b) 1.5
(c) 0.5 (d) 2

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22. Normal portal venous pressure 37. An adult client with fracture Lt tibia has a long
(a) 1-5 mm of Hg (b) 5-10 mm of Hg leg cast and is using crutches to ambulate.
(c) 10-15 mm of Hg (d) 15-20 mm of Hg Which signs symptoms indicates the
23. Which of the following drug has to be restricted complication of using crutches?
1 wk before urea breath test? (a) Left leg discomfort
(a) Ranitidine (b) Omeprazole (b) Weak biceps brachii
(c) Lasix (d) Both a & b (c) Triceps muscle spasms
24. Which of the following cancer has less risk for (d) Forearm muscle weakness
metastasis to bone? 38. A client with myasthenia gravis is experiencing
(a) Ca bladder (b) Ca breast prolonged periods of weakness, and physician
(c) Ca prostate (d) Ca brain prescribes an edrophonium (Tensilon) test A
25. The term leukopheris is test dose is administered and client becomes
(a) Peripheral blood cell transplantation weaker the test result interprets.
(b) Bone marrow transplantation (a) Normal (b) Positive
(c) Leukocyte transplantation (c) Myasthenic crisis (d) Cholinergic crisis
(d) Skin transplantation 39. Which assessment is most important for the
26. Which blood test to be done before nurse to make before advancing a client from
administering MgSO4? liquid to solid food?
(a) RFT (b) LFT (a) Bowel sounds (b) Chewing ability
(c) CBC (d) BT/CT (c) Current appetite (d) Food preferences
27. Increased frequency of uterine contraction is 40. A nurse administered a purified protein
(a) Hypertonic (b) Polysystole derivative (PPD) to a client with low risk for TB.
(c) Hypermetria (d) Hypometria Nurse determines that test is +ve when
28. A moderate burn can cause (a) An induration of 15 mm
(a) Hypernatremia (b) Hyponatremia (b) Presence of a wheal
(c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypocalcaemia (c) A large area of erythema
29. A nursing officer is asked to do kveim test on a (d) Complaints of itching on infection site
patient, the officer will perform this test by 41. Main complication of a mother with twin
(a) I/M (b) S/C pregnancy
(c) I/D (d) I/V (a) Hemorrhoids (b) Postterm labour
30. The causative organism of SARS is (c) Maternal anaemia (d) Gestational
(a) Rotavirus (b) Retrovirus diabetes
(c) Ricornavirus (d) Coronavirus 42. The hallmark sign characteristic of the
31. A child born with TEF and aspirate, diagnosis of pemphigus
immediately put on ventilator. Most appropriate (a) Turnen’s sign (b) Chvostek’s sign
type of ventilator is (c) Cullen’s sign (d) Nikolsky’s sign
(a) Pressure cycled (b) Time cycled 43. Route of administration of rubella vaccine is
(c) Volume cycled (d) Microprocessor (a) IV (b) IM
32. The O2 saturation of healthy person should be (c) SC (d) ID
(a) 90-95% (b) 95-99% 44. In which trimester. Maternal immunoglobulin
(c) 96-100% (d) >90% passes to fetus through placenta
33. The best time for amniocentesis is (a) 1st (b) 2nd
(a) 1st month of gestation (c) 3rd (d) 4th
(b) 2nd month of gestation 45. A client is in ventricular tachycardia in the
(c) 5th month of gestation physician prescribes. In lidocaine (xylocaine)
(d) 3rd month of gestation the nurse plans to dilute the solution with
34. The recommended drug to a HIV +ve mother (a) RL (b) NS – 0.9%
during pregnancy is (c) NS – 0.45% (d) 5% Dextrose in
(a) Lamivudine (b) Zidovudine H2O
(c) No drugs (d) Amoxycillin 46. Study that focus on the life experiences of
35. The sonography report of a mother shows that living person is
she is pregnant with twin, she had a history of (a) Experimental study
1 male baby and 1 still birth, what would be her (b) Ethnography
GPA status (c) Grounded theory
(a) G-3, P-2, A-0 (b) G-2, P-1, A-1 (d) Phenomenology
(c) G-2, P-2, A-0 (d) G-3, P-1, A-1 47. The articles in a journal is published in a format
36. The nurse tells the adolescent that it is best to of IMRAD in this ‘M’ refer to
take iron with which item? (a) Meaning of study (b) Meta - analysis
(a) Cola (b) Soda (c) Methodology (d) Manuscript
(c) H2O (d) Tomato juice

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48. To avoid pulling the urinary catheter the nurse (d) 1st sacral vertebra
should tape the catheter on patient’s 63. Which neurotransmitter deficiency can cause
(a) Upper thigh (b) Lower thigh myasthenia gravis
(c) Hind leg (d) Foot (a) Dopamine (b) GABA
49. Normal compartment pressure is (c) Serotonin (d) Acetylcholine
(a) 206 (b) 201 64. Autonomic dysreflexia is a lethal condition that
(c) 300 (d) 205 occurs if injury to the following region
50. Acromian process is located on (a) T6 and above (b) T6 and below
(a) Ilium (b) Humerus (c) Lumbar region (d) Cauda equina
(c) Scapula (d) Ulna 65. A client with beningn prostatic hyperplasia
51. The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle undergoes TURP (trans urethral resection of
(a) Sarcolemma (b) Sarcoderma prostate) which solution to be used for
(c) Sarcomere (d) Sarcosome continuous irrigation?
52. Which connects bone to bone (a) Sterile H2O
(a) Tendon (b) Ligament (b) Sterile NS
(c) Muscle (d) Cartilage (c) Sterile bakins solution
53. The client complaining of morning stiffness of (d) Sterile H2O with 5% D
his hand and joints longer than 1 hr, indicates 66. The gold standard diagnostic tool for
(a) gout (b) SLE measuring bone mass density is (BMD)
(c) Fikrouyalgia (d) Rheumatoid (a) Dexa (dual energy xray absorptiometry
arthritis (b) Bone scan
54. Beningn tumour of bone is called (c) Bon biopsy
(a) chondrocarcinoma (d) Gallium scan
(b) Chondrosarcoma 67. Mental health act was came into action in India
(c) Chondroma (a) 1982 (b) 1987
(d) Osteoma (c) 1988 (d) 2002
55. Common cause of pathological fracture? 68. The life threatening intoxication occurs when
(a) Fall (b) Infection blood lithium level reaches above
(c) Osteoporosis (d) Osteoarthritis (a) 1.5 meq/L (b) 2 meq/L
56. Which of the following vitamin is restricted for a (c) 3 meq/L (d) 3.5 meq/L
patient with allupurinol 69. Rabbit syndrome is a side effect of which drug
(a) Vit A (b) Vit C (a) Clozapine (b) Haloperidol
(c) Vit D (d) Vit K (c) Buproprion (d) CBZ
57. Laboratory test in rheumatic arthritis 70. Main drug of choice in heart failure is
(a) Pancreatic lipase (a) Decadran (b) Digoxin
(b) Bence jones protein (c) Morphine (d) Efcorlin
(c) Antinuclear antibodies 71. The degree of stretch of cardiac muscle fibers
(d) Alkaline phosphatase at the end of diastole is called
58. Nurse assess which important parameter in (a) Preload (b) Afterload
nephrotic syndrome? (c) Contracticity (d) Ejection fraction
(a) weight 72. CVP is a pressure within
(b) albumin levels (a) Inferior vena cava
(c) activity tolerance (b) Pulmonary artery
(d) BUN (c) Pulmonary vein
59. The procedure to form an intra-abdominal (d) Subclavian vein
pouch from part of ileum that store fecal 73. Master rotation plan means
material is (a) Planning of course for one year
(a) Kock procedure (b) Koch’s procedure (b) Complete course planning of all years
(c) Cook’s procedure (d) Ileostomy (c) Planning of one years vacation,
60. Previous viral infection of liver is indicated by examinations and holidays
(a) IgM (b) IgA (d) Rotation of students in clinical
(c) IgG (d) IgD 74. The major proportion of learning is through
61. Normal secreation of saliva per day which sense of human being
(a) 500 ml (b) 1000 ml (a) Seeing (b) Hearing
(c) 1500 ml (d) 2000 ml (c) Touching (d) Taste
62. The spinal cord in the vertebral column is 75. In which method of teaching, a teacher have
extended upto full control over students.
(a) thoracic vertebra (a) Lecture
(b) 2nd lumbar vertebra (b) Demonstration
(c) 4th lumbar vertebra (c) Discussion

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(d) Lecture cum demonstration (c) Promote movement
76. In which leadership style, a leader sells his (d) Prevent pain and discomfort
ideas 89. The nurse is preparing client for cataract
(a) Democratic (b) Autocratic surgery the nurse aware that the procedure will
(c) Laissez faire (d) Benovelant use
77. A nurse is providing substandard care to her (a) Mydriatics to facilitate removal
patients, it is a matter of (b) Miotics such as timoptic
(a) Negligence (b) Malpractice (c) A larser to smooth and reshape the lens
(c) Fraudness (d) Assault (d) Silicon oil injections into eyeball
78. The law that exempt the liability of nurses in 90. Toxicity of amphotericin B in a client receiving it
emergency situation to provide care is is indicated by
(a) Good sam aritan law (a) Changes in vision
(b) Exemption law (b) Nausea
(c) Emergency law (c) Urinary frequency
(d) Special preference law (d) Changes in skin color
79. Total health care staff at PHC is 91. A client with cystic fibrosis is taking pancreatic
(a) 10 (b) 15 enzymes. The nurse should administer it at
(c) 20 (d) 25 (a) Once per day in morning
80. After mastectomy breast prosthesis was (b) 3 times per day with meals
implanted for figurement of breast is a (c) Once per day before meals
(a) Primordial prevention (d) 4 times per day
(b) Primary prevention 92. A client is admitted for CT scan the nurse
(c) Secondary prevention should question on
(d) Tertiary prevention (a) Pregnancy
81. Measles vaccine is a (b) A titanium hip replacement
(a) Killed vaccine (b) Live vaccine (c) Allergies to antibiotics
(c) Toxoid (d) Immunoglobulin (d) Inability to move his feet
82. Which vaccine is stored at -20oC 93. An obstetric client is admitted with dehydration
(a) DPT (b) BCG which IV fluid is appropriate?
(c) Polio (d) Measles (a) 0.45% NS
83. The reconstituted measles vaccine should be (b) Dextrose 1% in H2O
used within (c) RL
(a) 1 hr (b) 3 hr (d) Dextrose 5% in 0.45% NS
(c) 7 hr (d) 9 hr 94. Client with colour blindness mostly have
84. The health survey and planning committee is problem with distinguishing which of the
(a) Bhore committee following colors?
(b) Mudaliar committee (a) Orange (b) Violet
(c) Mukherjee committee (c) Red (d) White
(d) Kartar Singh committee 95. Which of the following complication develop in
85. Histoplasmosis is transmitted by oliguric phase of acute renal failure
(a) Cats (b) Dogs (a) Pulmonary edema
(c) Turtles (d) Birds (b) Metabolic alkalosis
86. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (c) Hypotension
asks the nurse about prevention of (d) Hypokalemia
reoccurrence, nurse should teach 96. Diet for acute renal failure patient is
(a) Douche after intercourse (a) High carbohydrate, low protein
(b) Void every 3 hours (b) Low carbohydrate, high protein
(c) Obtain urine analysis monthly (c) High protein, low fat
(d) Wipe from back to front while voiding (d) High carbohydrate, high protein
87. The client has recently returned from having 97. Which of the following is the commonest lung
thyroidectomy, nurse should keep which one at carcinoma
bedside (a) Small cell carcinoma
(a) a tracheostomy set (b) Squamous cell carcinoma
(b) a padded tongue blade (c) Adeno carcinoma
(c) An ET tube (d) Large cell carcinoma
(d) an airway 98. One patient is drowning in his own fluid is
88. The primary reason for rapid continuous (a) Common cold
rewarming of the area affected by frostbite is (b) Pleural effurion
(a) Lessen the amount of cellular damage (c) Pulmonary edema
(b) Prevent the formation of blisters (d) Emphysema

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99. Portion for client with rib fracture
(a) Fowler’s (b) Supine
(c) Prone (d) Side lying
100. Immunoglobulin mediater in asthma
(a) IgG (b) IgA
(c) IgE (d) IGM

ANSWERS

1 C 26 A 51 C 76 D
2 A 27 B 52 B 77 A
3 B 28 C 53 D 78 A
4 C 29 C 54 D 79 B
5 B 30 D 55 C 80 D
6 C 31 B 56 A 81 B
7 B 32 C 57 C 82 C
8 B 33 C 58 A 83 A
9 D 34 B 59 A 84 B
10 A 35 A 60 A 85 D
11 B 36 D 61 C 86 B
12 C 37 D 62 B 87 A
13 C 38 D 63 D 88 A
14 C 39 B 64 A 89 A
15 C 40 A 65 B 90 D
16 D 41 C 66 A 91 B
17 B 42 D 67 B 92 A
18 A 43 C 68 D 93 A
19 C 44 C 69 B 94 B
20 B 45 C 70 B 95 A
21 D 46 D 71 A 96 A
22 B 47 C 72 A 97 C
23 D 48 A 73 B 98 C
24 D 49 C 74 A 99 A
25 A 50 C 75 A 100 C

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