oe (DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO} Test Booklet Series T.B.C. :AS/2019/2 TEST BOOKLET MEDICAL OFFICER SLNo. 1785 (ASSISTANT SURGEON) ig Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 200] : INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES : 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOESNOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO,GETITREPLACED BYACOMPLETE TEST BOOKLET OF SAME SERIES ISSUED TOYoOu. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A,B, C ORD, AS THE CASE MAY BE, INTHE ‘APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET USING BALL POINT PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) 3. You have to enter your Roll No. on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO. NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. YOU ARE REQUIRED TO FILL UP & DARKEN ROLL NO., TEST BOOKLET / QUESTION BOOKLET SERIES IN THE ANSWER SHEET AS WELL AS FILL UP TEST BOOKLET / QUESTION BOOKLET SERIES AND SERIAL NO. AND ANSWER SHEET SERIAL NO. IN THE ATTENDANCE SHEET CAREFULLY. WRONGLY FILLED UP ANSWER SHEETSARE LIABLE FOR REJECTION AT THE RISK OF THE CANDIDATE, 5. _ This Test Booklet contains 200 items (questions), Each item (question) comprises four tesponses (answers). You have to select the correct response (answer) which you want tomark (darken) on the Answer Sheet. In case, you eel that there is more than one correct Fesponse (answer), you should mark (darken) the response (answer) which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response (answer) for each item (question). 8. You have to mark (darken) all your responses (answers) ONLY on the separate Answer Sheetprovided by using BALL POINT PEN (BLUE OR BLACK). Sce instructions in the Answer Sheet. 7. “Allitems (questions) carry equal marks. All items (questions) are compulsory. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses (answers). marked by you in the Answer Sheet. There will be no negative markings for wrong resporises (answers). 8 Before you proceed to mark (darken) in the Answer Sheet the responses (answers) to various items (questions) in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per the instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filing in all your responses (answers) on the Answer Sheet and after ‘conclusion of the examination, you should hand over to the Invigilator the Answer Sheet issued to you. You are allowed to take with you the candidate's copy / second page of the Answer Sheet along with the Test Booklet, after completion of the examination, for your reference. 10. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end (DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO so} NJ-1A/23 (Tum over) SEAL4. Whichof the following segment does (8) Third branchial cleft the right lobe of liver contain ? (C) Cervical sinus - dA) VAVLVI VIL (0). Fourth branchial cleft “@) ily 5. _ Inferior thyroid vein drains into : (C) MY,VIVIl vill (A) _Intemal jugular vein (Dy ILM IM (8) Brachiocephalic vein 2. Spiral valves of heister are present © svc in: (0) Extemaljugularvein (0) Cystic duct 6. Synaptic conduction is mostly (8) Preampullary part of bile duct orthodromic because : (©), Fundus of galbladder (A) Dendrites cannot be (D) Hepaticartery depolarized 3. _ Valoeon sheath referes to: (B) Once repolarized, an area (A) Fibrous sheath around broncho- cannot be depolarized pulmonary segments (C) The strength of antidromic (8) Condensation of connective Impulse is less tissue around splenic vessels, (D) Chemical mediator is localised athilum only in presynaptic terminal (C) Fibrous sheath surrounding 7. Function of phospholambanis : hepatic artery, bile duct, portal (A) Regulates Nak pump vein ineach liver segment (Gy. Tiansporls ‘calcion out-of (B) Noneiofthess mitochondria 4. Brachial cyst develops due to the (C) Binds actin with myosin persistence of : (D) Collect calcium into the (A)_ First branchial cleft sarcoplasmic reticulum NJ= 1/23 (2) Contd.8. 10. “TRUE regarding human heart: (A) Conduction of impulse from endocardium to inwards (8) During exercise duration of systole is reduced more than diastole (C) HR incteases with parasyrm- pathetic denervation (D) Vagal stimulation increase force of contraction Direct Fick's method of measuring cardiac output requires estimation of? (A) ©2 content of arterial blood (8) 02 content of venous blood (C) O2 consumption per unit time (0) Allofthese Volume receptors are: (A). Affected by total cardiovascular output (8) Stimutated by atrial systole and diastole (C) Stimulated by left ventricular contraction (D) Stimulated by aortic pressure NJ=1A/23 11. 12. Fluoroacetate inhibits : (A) Citrate synthase (8) Sucumate dehydrogenase (C) Aconitore (0) Alpha ketoglutarate Immediate precursor of ketone bodies : s (A) - Acetyl—CoA (8) HMG-CoA (C) Acetoacetyl~ CoA (0) Acyl-CoA “Classical phenylketonuria’ is caused by the deficiency of : (A) Phenylalanine transaminase {B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (C) Tyrosinase transaminase (D) Tyrosinase hydroxylase Achild develops plaster n exposure to suniight. Irregular dark spots on the skin are also found. He is very likely to have a defect in which mechanism ? (A) Nucleotide excision repair (8) Mismatch repair (C) Recombination repair (0) Thymine dimer (Tum over) f ;15. 16. 47. 18. ‘Adenosine phosphoribosyttransferase involved in: (A). Denovo purine synthesis (8) Purine degradation (C). Salvage synthesis of purine nucleotides (D) None of these Carboxylation of clotting factors by Vitamin K is required to the biologically active. Which of the following amino acid is carboxylaited ? (A) Histidine (8) Histamine (C) Glutamate (D) Asportat Heme is which perpgysin ? (A) Typel (8) Typelt (C) Typelll (0) Tyelv Which of the following porphyrin is, soluble in water and excerated in urine? (A) Protoporphyrin (8) Delta-ALA (C) Copos pospaysin (D). Uroperpgysin NJ=1A/23 20. 21. In molecular cloning, blue white screen is used for : (A) Toscreen for recombinant vats (8B) Todetect gene mutation (C) To — identify chromosomal DNA insert in chesered plasmid vect (D) Todetect host DNA insite Oncogenes'can be best studied by : (A) Transfection (B) Transduction (C) Transformation (D) Conjugation Ifa drug is absorbed through skin, what is the order of maximum percutaneous absorption of drug from the given routes ? (A) Scalp > Serotum > Posterior auricular > Dorsum of hand > Plantar area (B) Plantar area > Dorsum of hand > Scalp > Scrotum > Posterior auricular. (C) Scrotum > Scalp > Posterior auricular > Dorsum of hand > Plantar area (B) Posterior auricular > Scrotum > Scalp > Dorsum of hand > Plantar area Contd.22, 23. 24. 26. NJ- Nitroglycerine is effective when administered sublingually because : A) (B) (C) Non-ionized and water lonized and lipid soluble Non-ionized and lipid soluble insoluble (D) lonized and water insoluble Which of the following antiplatelet drug is prodrug ? A) (B) (c) (D) Tirofirin Aspirin Clopidogrel Dipyridamot Which of the following is a sedative beta-2 antagonist ? A) 8) (c) (D) Butoxamine Esmolol Betaxolol Celiprotol Propanol is contraindicated in diabetes mellitus because it : (A) (B) (c) (0) Causes seizures Causes hypotension Causes hyperglycemia Mask the hyperglycemic symptoms 1A/23 (5) 26. 2h 28. Which of the following is a venodilator ? (A) Hydralazine (B) Minoxidil (C) Nitroprusside (D) Nifedipine A3 years old child was undergoing squint surgery, initial heart rate was 14 beats/min. After anaesthesia and start of surgery heart rate dropped to 40 beats/min. What should be the next step ? (A) Decrease plane of anaesthesia (8) Stop surgery (C)_Injglycopyrrolate (0) Injatropine Organophosphates act by inhibiting the enzymes acetyl-cholinestrase. Which type of enzyme inhibitors are they? (A) (8) Competitive and reversal Uncompetitive and reversal (C)_Non-competitive and imeversal (0) Non-competitive and reversal (Tum over)29. 30. 31. 32. NJ— After taking some drug for acute attack of migraine, a patient developed nausea and vomiting. He also developed tingling and numbness in the tip of finger that are also turned blue: Which of the following is the most likely drug implicated in causing above findings ? (A) Dihydroergotamine (B) Aspirin (C) Sumatriptan (0) Butorphenol Sodium nitropruside acts by activation of: (A) Guanylate cyclase (8) Ktchannels (C) Ca+ channels (D) Cyclic AMP Caspases are involved in: (A) Apoptosis (B) Pinocytosis (C) Cell signaling (D) Cellinjury Anitschkow cells are : (A) Modified macrophages 4A/23 33. 34. 35. (8) Modified neutrophils (C) Modified B-cells (0) Modified RBCs Factor X-deficiency is associated with which of the following types of amyloidosis ? (a) AL (B) AB (C) ATTR (0) APrP ‘Small, warty vegetations along with the lines of closure of valve leaflets are seen in: (A) RHD (B)_Infective endocarditis (C)_Libman Sack's endocarditis (0) NBTE Allare examples of hypersensitivity mediated by antibodies, except : (A) Pemphigus vulgaris (8) Erythroblastosis fetalis (C) Pericious anemia (D) Serum sickness Contd,36. 37. NJ—1A/23 ‘Which of the following is notthe tumor ‘Suppressor gene ? (A) Wet 40. (B) p53 (C) RB (D) RAS An anti-inflammatory cytokine is : a (8) TNF (c) 4 iL (0) IFNy Type of protein deposited in hemodialysis associated amyloidosis bs 42. a (8) - AANF Immunoglobulin light chain (C) AB2m (0) Ab Weber-Osler-Rendu syndrome is a disorder of : (A) Collagen (8) Platelets (7) 41. (C) Clotting factors {D) Blood vessels Russel bodies are accumulation of: (A) Cholesterol (8) Immunogiobulin (C) Lipoprotein (0) Phospholipids Darting motilityis shown by : (A) Histeria (8) Campylobacter (C) Bonclia (0) Mycoplasma A patient is suffering from pneumonia. Laboratory study shows. acid fat filamentous bacteria, The Causative organism is : (A) M. Tuberculosis (B) Actinomyces (C) Nocardis (D) Mycobacterium avium intercellulose (Tum over)43. Membrane attack complex is : (A) C3b (B) C59 (c) €1-3 (D) C45 44. Sterilization is defined as : (A) _ Disinfection of skin (B) Complete destruction of all micro organisms. (C) Destruction of pathogenic ‘organism (D) Decrease bacterial count from. objects 45. PLET mediumis used for : (A) Plague (8) Anthrax {C) Typhoid (0) Cholera 46. Which of the following is a sexual spore ? (A) Chlamydospore (B) Sporangiospore (C) Ascospore (D) ‘Phialoconidia NJ = 1A/23 (8) 47. 48. 49. A farmer from the sub Himalayan region presents with multiple vesicles on hand and multiple eruptions along the lymphatics. The most likely causative against is : (A) Trichophyton rubrum (B) Clasdospotium species (C) Sporotherix schenckii (0) Aspergillus Differential coliform count is done by : (A) Multiple tube method (8) VRmedium (©) MacConkey's agar (D) Ekman test Which is false about Spaulding classification ? (A) Nororitical temsalso included inclassification (8) Semi-critical items contacts with mucus membrane (©) ‘Semi-critical items needs low disinfectant (D) Cardiac catheter e.g. of critical items Contd.50. St. NJ— Which of the following statement is false regarding communicability with reference to malarial parasite ? (A) The gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after appearance of 1st asexual form inP. vivax, (8) The gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after appearance of first asexual form inP. falciparum. (C) The number of gametocytes increase in blood with time. (D) The number of gametocytes may exceed 100 per cumm of blood. Perjury means giving wilful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonmentmay extend to7 years. This falls under which Section of IPC? (A) . 190 of Indian Penal Code (8) 191 of indian Penal Code 1/23 (9) 52. 53. (C) 192of indian Penal Code {D) 193of Indian Penal Code A case of suspected homicide comes to a doctor. He is supposed to inform the police under Section of CrPC(Criminal Penal Code). A) (8) (C) (D) 174 39 37 176 “Juvenile Court” is presided over by: (A) First Class Female Magistrate (B) Second Class Female Magistrate (c) (0) Second Class Male Magistrate District Magistrate Declaration of Geneva is related with : A) (B) (c) (D) Medical etiquette Disciplinary control Hippocratic oath Professional misconduct (Tum over)55. 56. 57. 58. NJ— Leaving or forgetting an instrument ‘or sponge in the abdomen of the patient during a surgery and closing the operation is: ) 8) (c) (dD) Civil negligence Corporate negligence Criminal negligence Doctor who did surgery on wrong side of the patient is punishable under which Section ? (A) Section 304A IPC (8) Section 306 IPC (cy (0) Section 307 IPC Section 305 IPC Preauricular sulcus helps in detection of: ) (8) () (0) Age Sex 61. Race Height Gustafson’s method used for age estimation of tooth includes all, except : (A) Primary dentition 4A/23 (10) Contributory negligence 59. 60. (B) Root resorption (C) Root transparency (0) Attrition Most reliable method of identification ofa persons: (A) Gustafson's method (8) Galton Method ) (D) Anthropometry Scars Suspended animation may be seen with which of the following 7 A) (B) (c) (0) Electrocution Salicylate poisoning Snake Bite Bums The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is : (A) Rectum (8B) Axilla (C) Mouth (0) Groin Contd.62. 63. 65. Cadaveric spasm involves ; (A) (8) Cc) (D) Voluntary muscles Involuntary muscles Both (A) and (B) Smoth muscles Lacareted wounds look like incised wounds over : (A) Scalp (B) Abdomen (C) Thigh (D) Forearm Motocyclist fracture among the following is: (A) Ring fracture (8) Sutural separation (C) Comminuted fracture of skull (D) Depressed fracture of skull In apatient of unilateral loss of vision, the patient had injury to opposite eye leading to comeal opacification. The patient was operated by cormeal grafting, he could see clearly again with one eye. The injury is said to be: (A) Simple NJ~1A/23 (11) 66. 67. 68. (8) Grievous injury (C). Dangerous (D) None of these Natural history of disease is studied with : (A) Longitudinal studies (B) Cross-sectional studies (C) Trials (D) None ofthese Spot maps are used for a disease in Epidemiology for depiction of : (A) Local distribution (B) (C) (0) Rural-urban variations National variations Intemational variations The folowing is true about prevalence and incidence : (A) Both are rates (8) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not (C) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not (D) Both arenote rates (Tum over)69. Case fatality rateis: (A) Spreading power of a disease (8) Kiling power of a disease in a time (©) Kiling power ofa disease with no time interval (D) Resistance of disease 70. Migration study is used to study: (A) Sociodemographic reasons for migration of a population (B) Prevalence of disease in a population (C) Environmental and genetic factors in a disease in a population (D) Diseases with long incubation period 71, Berksonian bias is a type of : (A) Information bias (B) Selection bias (C)_ Interviewer bias (D) Recall bias NJ- 1A/23 72. 73. 74. (12) Confounding can be removed by : (A) Assign confounders equally to both the cases and controls (8) Stratification (C) Matching (D) Allofthese Window period's defined as the time taken from : (A) Entry in cell to expulsion of first viral particle (8) Entry of pathogen to appearance of first clinical symptom . (C) Exposure to laboratory detection of disease (0) Entry of organism to maximum communicability Which is indirect mode of transmission ? (A) Hand contact (8) Throughplacenta (C) Vector-borne (D) Dog-bite Contd.76. Vhs: . The area is declared free of epidemic : (A) Till last secondary case recovers (B) No new case reported for incubation period of disease since last case (C) Nonewcase reportedfor twice the incubation period of disease since last case {D) No new case reported for six months since the last case Vaccine associated paralytic lopiomyemitis develops after days of OPV administration. A) 7-14 (8) 2060 (C) 60-90 (D) Immediately Dokoral, Sanchol, MORC VAX are used for the production of (A) Typhoid vaccine (B) Cholera vaccine NJ= 1A/23 78, 79. (13) (C). Influenza vaccine (0) Swine flu vaccine Ring vaccination is : (A) Given by a ting shaped machine (8) Given to produce ring shaped lesion {C) Given around 200 yards of a case detected (D) Given around a mite of a case detected KAP studies were first used in India to study : ) HV (8) Malaria (C)_ Family planning (D) Carcinomacervix WHO criteria for epidemic of meningococcal disease is : A) 0.1% (B) 0.01% (C) 0.001% (0) 1% (Tum over)81. 82. 83, NJ=1A/23 Most common. skin related complaints in patients with HIV: A) 8) (ce) () Idiopathic pruritus Fungal infection Seborrheic dermatitis Folliculitis 86. Binkley spots are also known as : (A), ®) ©) (0) Diabetic dermopathy. Cutaneous sarcoidosis Lupus vulgaris Rain droppigmentation Tripe paims alone is most commonly. associated with which internal 8T. malignancy ? (A) Breast Cancer (8) Lung Cancer © (0) Colon Cancer Gastric Carcinoma 88. Leukemiacutis is most commonly associated with : (a) ®) (C) (0) Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Aoute Myeloid Leukernia Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (14) 85. Common to all rashes in secondary syphilis is /are : (A) Donotitch (B) Are copperyred in colour (C) Are symmetrical (D) Allofthese BTA patient with normal USG but fendemiess in left lumbar region. Best investigation is: (A) MCU (8) INP {C).. CECT whole abdomen (D) RepeatUSG Investigation using dye to find out stone in salivary gland is : A ®) © (0) Sialography Mammography MRA USG After mammography if there is suspected lesion BIRADS staging system advices: (A) FNAC (8) Lumpectomy (C) MRI (2) Mammoaram Contd,83. 90. 91 92. NJ = 1A/23 25 yrs old female presenting with lump in breast to OPD. First investigation is : 6 (A) UsG (B) Mammogram (c) MRI (0) PET Intraoperative sentinel lymph node gg detection in axillae is done by using : (A) Mammography (8) Isosuiphan Blue ©) (D) MRE CT Scan Weber Ferguson Incision is used 95. in: A) (B) {c) Breast Cancer Carcinoma hard palate Thyroid cancer () Management of lip carcinoma < 2m is: (A). Surgery (8) RT (15) Carcinoma penis 96. (C) RT+CT (D) cT In head and neck cancer N2a is : (A) (B) (c) Singlenode <=3 om Single node > 3 cm & <6om Multiple ipsilateral nodes (0). Allnodes <6 cm For Leukoplakia treatement is : (A) (8) (c) (0) Local excision Excision and radiotherapy Topical chemotherapy Repositioning of ill fitting dentures: Conley's pointer is used to identify: @) 8) ) (D) Lingual nerve Hypoglossalinerwe Facial nerve Allof these P-ANCA is the characteristic for : (A) PAN (8) Microscopic Polyangiitis (c) (D) Wegners Granulomatosis HS Purpura (Tum over)97. 98. 99. 100. NI- Shrinking lung syndrome is seenin : (A) (B) (©) (D) SLE Rheumatoid Arthritis Sarcoidosis Scleroderma Metabolic complication in CRFis all, except: €) @) (c) (D) Hyperkalemia Hypophosphatemia Hypocalcemia Hypokalemia Good Pasture Syndrome is characterised by : (A) Anti GBM antibody (B) P-ANCA (C) C-ANCA (D) AntiNuclearAntibody Typical feature of minimal change disease include : (A) Normal Light Microscopy (B) (C) Tubular Sclerosis FSGS (D) Glomerular Sclerosis 4A23 (16) 101. 102. 103. 104, The earliest feature of Diabetic nephropathy is: (A) Microalbuminuria {8) Increased serum creatinine ©) (D) Nephritic syndrome. Hematuria The most common Histological Varicat of RCC is : (A) Clearcell type (8) Chromophobe type {C) Papillary (D) Tubular Broca Aphasia is : (A) FluentAphasia {B) Non-FluentAphasia (C) Sensory aphasia (©) Conduction Aphasia Bulbar paralysis refers to: (A) Motor Neuron Disease (8) UMNiesion (C)_ IX to Xil cranial nerve paralysis (d) Ill to XII cranial nerve paralysis Contd.105. Most common Nerve involved in 109. The drug of choice for Absence Intracranial Aneurysm is: seizure: (A) Troclear (A) Valproate ‘®) wl (8) Gabapentin (c) vil (C) Carbemazapine (D) Occulomotor (0) Phenytoin 108. Pseudotumorcarabriis caused by: 110, Prions include: (A) Acetazolamide (A) DNAand RNA (8) Vitamin A overdose (8) DNA (C) Methotentrate overdose (C) RNA (©) Excessive iron therapy (0) Proteins 107. Commonest presentation of 111. ‘Abypertensive with Protzinuria, Drug Neurocysticercosis : of choice for HTN is : (A) Seizures (A) Propranolol (8). Focal neurological deficit (B) Clonidine (C) Dementia (C) Enalaprit (0) Radiculopathy (0) Alpha methyl dopa 108. A lesion in Paracentral lobule 112. Most common cause of death in adult causes : with PDA is : (A) Contralateral Foot Weakness (A) CCF (8) Memory impairment (B) _Infective endocarditis (©) Brocas Aphasia (C) Rupture (D) Cognitive loss (0) Embolism NJ = 1A/23 (17) (Tum over)113. 114. 115. 116. NJ- Bacterial endocarditisis rarely seen in: (A) VSD (8) ASD (c) MVP (0) Septum Secundum In CPR chest compression should be at: (A) Upper half of sternum (B) Lowerhalfof sternum (C) Middle of stemum (D) Atstemalangie Microcytic hypochromicAnaemia is the feature of which of the following : A ®) (c) (0) Vitamin B12 deficiency Lead toxicity Thalassemia Aplastic anaemia Plummers vinson syndrome includes all, except: (A)_Irondeficiency anaemia (8) Dysphagia (C) Atropic glossitis (D) Macroglossia 1A/23 (18) v7. 118. 119. 420. The following protein’ defects can cause HS, except: (A) Ankyrin (B) Paladin {C) Glycophrinc {D) Anion Transport Protein Heterozygous Sickle Cell Anaemia gives protection against : (a) GePD (8) Malaria (Cc) (0) Thalassemia Dengue fever ‘Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is seenin: (A) ALL (B) CML (ce) CLL (0) None ofthese Gold Standard test for B thalassemia (A) (B) HbA (C) HbA2 HoF (D) HoH Contd.121. Paediatricsis a word. (A) Greek (8) Latin (©) Spanish (0) German 122. Universal Immunization Programme was launched in and includes____disease. (A) 1985;5 (8) 19866 (C) 1985;6 (D) 1986;5 123. RBSK was launched in for. disorders of children age group. (A) 2013; 30; 0-6yrs (8) 2013;32;0-6yrs (C) 2012; 30; 0-5yrs (©) 2012;3250-Syrs 124, Mission indradhanush launched in to attain coverage of _____ vaccines. (A) 2014;00% 7 (B) 2015; 75%;7 NJ —1A/23 (19) 125. 126. 127. 128. (C) 2013; 90% ;7 {D) 2014; 75% ;7 Human fetus secrets thyroxine from___of gestation. (A) 10" week (B) 12" week (C) 14! week (0) 16 week Toddler age group is (A) 12-24months (B) 12-36 months (C) 37-72months (D) 24-72 months Time of eruption of upper first molar is: = A) 67 8) 78 (C) 69 0) 11-12 Head and chest circumference are almost equal at the age of : (A) 8months (8) 10months (C) 42months (0) 14months (Tum over)129. 130. 132. NJ- Incidence of Tumer syndrome is : (A) 1/1000 tive birth (B) 1/40000 tive birth: (C) 1/2000 live birth (D) 1/2000 live birth Which of the foliowing leads to macrocephaly ? (A) Seckel (B) Cockayne (C) Ageiman {0) Sotes . Embryological origin of thyroid is from : (A) Floor of phyrynx (B) Tracheal diverticulum (C) 6th branchial arch (D) None ofthese Lateral aberrant thyroid is the name given for: (A) MTCwith neck nodes (B) FTCwith neck nodes 1AN23 (20) 133. 134. 13 & (C) PTC with neck nodes ({D) None ofthese: Pyramidal lobe is seen in about % of population. @ 10 (8) 20 (Cc) 30 (0) 40 Ligament of berry is the ‘condensation of : {A) Pretracheal fascia {B) Prevertebral fascia (c) (dD) investing layer None of these Which of the following is true regarding RLN anatomy ? (A) On right side, RLN hinges through subclavian artery (8) On left side, RLN hinges through Arch of Aorta (C) Both (A) and (8) (D) Noneofthese Contd.186. What is correct rate of maintenance fluid requirement is surgical patients for initial 10 kg of weight 2 A) A mikgine (8) 2mikgmhr (©) 3mikgihr (D) 4mikgihr 187. In mild hyponatremia, whatis serum sodium levelis ? (A) 128-132 mEqfiter (8) 130-138 mEqfiter (C) 120-130 mEqfiter (0) 116-120 mEqfliter 138. Normal plasma concentration of magnesium ion is: (A) 1.0-1.5 mEqlliter (8B) 1.5-2.0mEqliter (C) 2.0-2.5mEqfliter (0) 2.5-3.0mEafiter 13: Ss Whatis calories obtained by 1 gram of protein? (A) 3.4kcal NJ-1ar23 (21) (8) 4.0kcal (C) 7.0kcal (0) 7.8kcal 140. Aman having body massindex 41 is categorised as : (A) Overweight (B) Obesity grade 1 (C) Obesity grade 2 (0) Obesity grade 3 141. Location of level III nodes : (A) Lateralto Pec. Minor (8) Posterior to Pec. Minor (C) Medialto Pee. Minor (D) Neartocost clavicularligament 142. Tethering is a case of CA breast is. produced due to: (A) Ligament of Coopers infitration *(B) Lactiferous duct involvement (C) Sub-areolar lymphatic involvement (0) Axillary vein involvement (Tum over)143. Milk forming glands of breast are called : @) ®) © () Terminal duct lobular unit Alveoli Lactiferous duct Terminal ductules 144. The primary imaging modality for screening asymptomatic women is: “ “®) (©) Mammography Automated breast ultrasound High resolution ultrasound (0) MRiwitheontrast 145. Relative risk of breast cancer is highest for: (A) Nonproliferative disease (B) Proliferative disease without atypia Proliferative disease with atypia Lels (c) (0) 146. Most common mutated tumor suppressor gene in canceris : (A) APC (B) P53 NJ —1A/23 (22) 147. 14 S (C). PTEN (0) Rb Workers employed in dye industry are exposed to chemical carcinogen benzidine which predisposes them tohigher risk of : (A) (8) (c) ) Leukemia Lung cancer Urinary bladder cancer Skin cancer . Which of the following geneticcancer - syndrome is not autosomal 149. dominant ? “A (B) (c) (D) Xeroderma pigmentosa Lynch syndrome BRCA associated cancer FAP T cell adoptive therapy to isolate, expand and re-administer tumor reactive T cellsis usedas a treatment modality in : (A) Renal cell carcinoma (8) Malignant Melanoma (C) Lung cancer (0) Leukemia Contd.150. Major side effect to Trastuzumab therapy is: (A) (8) C (0) Myopathy Cardiomyopathy Peripheral neuropathy Alopecia 15: |. Which of the following is true regarding Bennett's fracture dislocation ? (A) _ Oblique fracture of the styloid Process of the radius bone (8) Depressed fracture of the lateral condyle of tibia (C) Fracture through the neck of the 5!" metacarpal with subluxation of trapeziometacarpel joint (D) Fracture throught the base of the 18 metacarpal with subluxation of trapeziometa- carpel joint 152. False regarding 2" degree sprain: (A) 1/3 to almost all fibres of ligament are disrupted (8) Patient presents with pain, swelling and inability to use limb NJ— 1A/23 (23) (C) Joints movement are restricted (0) Diagnosis made on performing stress test 153. Marker of bone resorption : (A) Serum crosslinked ‘N’ telopeptide and 'C' felopeptide (8B) Serum peptide of type 1 collagen (©) Serumtotal free deoxypyridino- line (0) Serum osteocalcin 164. Minerva cast used for: (A) (8) (c) (0) Cervical spine disease Fracture of patella cfracture of talus Fracture of tibia 155. Taylor's brace used for: (A) Scoliosis (8) Radial nerve paisy (C) Dorso lumbar spine immobilization (0) Brachial plexus injury (Turn over)156. Traction used for correction of hip (B) Fracture neck of femur deformity called : (C)_ Osteoarthritis of hip (A) Dunlop traction (D) ’ Ankylosing spondylitis (8) © Agnes-Huttacion 461. What is the maximum safe limit of (C) Wellleg traction noise exposure as recommended (0) Perkin's traction by Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India ? 157. Skyline viewis used to see : iy; tietadine (A) 904B, 8hours aday perweek (a) Pisone oun (8) 90bB, 8 hours a day for days per week (C)_ Calcaneum fracture oy aonetsle tag (Cc) 100 dB, 6 hours a day per abular fracture week 4158. Epiphyseal dysgenesis seen in: (©) 100 dB, 6 hours a day for § (A) Hemophilia days perweek (8) Hypothyroidism 462. The pinna is supplied by the nerves : (C)_ Hyperthyroidism @) styc2 (D) Diabetes metitus @ Wwvice 459. Pen testis used to see : (©) V.VII,X,C2, 63 (A) Radial nerve function (0) VI.VII,IX,c2,¢3 (B)_Ulnarnerve function 463. Earliest symptom of acoustic nerve (©) _Abduetor pollicis brevis function tumoris : (0) Flexor pollicis brevis function (A) Tinnitus 460. French osteotomy is done for : (8) Hearingloss (A) Correction of cubitus varus (C) Otormhoea deformity (0) Vertigo NJ-1A/23 (24) Contd.164, 165. 166. 167. Sinus not present at birth (i) Maxillary sinus (ii) Frontal sinus (iii) (wv) Ethmoid sinus Sphenoid sinus ) ®) © ©) i,iv All ofthese None ofthese Nasal perforation in bony part is caused by: A) 8) (c) (0) Syphilis Atrophic Rhinitis SLE Tuberculosis Which of the rectus muscle inserts Closest to the limbus ? (A) Lateral rectus (B) Medial rectus (C) Superior rectus (D) Inferior rectus Which of the following is most likely to be positive in a patient with non- granulomatous uveitis ? (A) HLA~Ba7 NJ-1A/23 (25) 168. 169, 170. (B) HLA=B51 (C) HLA-B5 (D) HLA-B54 Which of the following is clinical entity is correctly matched in terms of direction of lens displacement ? (A) Marfan's syndrome-infero- temporal (B) Homocysteinuria-supero- temporal Both (A) and (B) None of these (c) ) Which of the following signs is most likely to be present in a patient with Graves ophthalmopathy ? (A) Exophthaimos (8) External ophthalmoplegia (©) Eyelid retraction (2) Opticneuropathy In adults most common intraocular malignant tumor and most common site of involvementare : i) (8) (C) (D) Melanoma, choroid Melanoma, iris Metastasis, choroid Metastasis, iris (Tumover)174. 172. 173. 174. NJ— ©) Which of the following is seen in the ovulatory phase ? (A) Stimulation of continuation of reduction division of oocytes (8) Inhibin Aisincreased FSH increases steroid synthesis in granulosa cells (D) Activin causes FSH to act on granulosa cells Clomiphene citrate is indicated in : “ (8) (© 0) Stein-Leventhal syndrome Ovarian cyst Asherman's syndrome Carcinoma endometrium GnRH analogue may be given in all ofthe following, except: (A) (6) (©) (d) Prostate Ca Endometrial Ca Fibromyoma uterus. Precocious puberty Allofthe following are the advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogen in post menopausal women, except : (A) Reduces fracture rates 1A/23 (28) 176. 8) (cy Avoids endometrial hyperplasia Reduces the incidence of venous thrombosis (D) No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma . Basantidevi, 45 years old women presents with hot flushes after stopping of menstruation, ‘Hot Flush’ canbe relieved by the administration of the following agents : A (8) Ethinyl estradiol Testosterone © (D) Fluoxymesteron Danazol ‘Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27-years-old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhea, infertility and hirsutism ? (A) Polycystic ovaries (8) Endometriosis (C). Pelvic inflammatory disease (0) Tumer’s syndrome Contd.177. 178. 179. 180. NJ- True about Stein-Leventhal syndrome is/are, except: A (8) Oligomenorthea and amenonthea Seen in postmenopausal women (C) Innumerate cysts in ovary (D)_ Theca call hypertrophy Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome is associated with : A) (8) (c) Ovarian agenesis Absent fallopian tube Vaginal atresia (D) Bicomuate uterus Female pseudohermaphroditism trueis : (A) Absent ovary (B) Absent uterus (C) Presence oftestis (0) Clitoromegaly Best prenatal treatment forcongenital adrenal hyperplasiais : (A) Dexamethasone (8) Betamethasone 1A/23 (27) 18 182. 183. (C) Prednisolone (0) Hydrocortisone ‘Awoman presents with a thick curdy- White vaginal discharge. The best treatment forheris : (A) Miconazole (8) Metronidazole (C)_ Nystatin (0) Doxycycline Most common route of transmission of endometrial tuberculosis is : (A) Directlocal spread (B) Lymphatic spread (C) Retrograde spread (D) Hematogenous The right time in menstrual cycle to do endometrial biopsy in a patient with infertilityis (A) 12-14 days (8) 17-19 days (C) 20-22 days (0) 35days (Tum over)184. Fern testis due to : 185. 186. 187. NJ— (A) Presence of NaCl under progesterone effect (B) Presence of NaCl under estrogenic effect ©) (0) LH/FSH Mucus secretion by Glands Newer progestational contraceptives primarily act by : (A) Oviductal motility (B) Uterine endometrium (C) Cervix (D) Inhibiting ovulation OCP's are contraindicated in all, except: (A) (B) (c) (D) ‘Smoking 35 years Coronary occlusion Polycystic ovarian disease Cerebrovascular disease Most important parameter in modified Bishops score is : (A) Cervical dilation 1A/23 188. 189. 190. (B) Cervical position (C) Cervical length (D) Cenvical consistency Minimal intrauterine pressure required for cervical dilatationis : (A) 10mm of Hg (8) (C) 20mm ofHg 15mm of Hg (D) 30mm ofHg Most common sign of impending uterine rupture is : (A) Hematuria (B) Passage of meconium (C) Fetal distress and bradycardia (D) Maternal bradycardia Management of Chorioamnionitis includes all, except: (A)__ Intravenous Antibiotics (8) Removalofcerclage (C) Early delivery regardiess of gestational age (D) Corticosteroids Contd.191, 192. 193, In oral cavity examination, the upper part of faucial pillars and most of the uvula are visible, it comes under which grade Mallampati classification? (A) Class! (B) Classi (C) Classi (0) Classiv Which of the following Neuromuscular blocking agents depend heavily on biliary excretion ? (A) (8) (c) (D) Atracurium Cisatracurium Vecuronium Mivacurium Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of neuroaxial blockade ? (A) (B} Sepsis Pre-existing neurological deficits (C) Increased intracranial pressure (©) Stenotic vatvular heart lesions NJ- 14/23 (29) 194, 195. What is hyperalgesia 2 (A) Incréaséd response to mild stimulation . (B) Increased response tonoxious stimulus : (C) Abnormal sensation.perceived without apparent stimulus (D) Persistence of sensation after stimulus Which of the following is not a component of ERAS protocol ? “ 8) (C) 0) Regionalanesthesia DVT prophylaxis Routine bowel preparation NO/Short acting pre- medications and fast acting anesthetics . Which of the following is a sleep disorder of organic origin ? (A) Sleep walking (B) Sleep apnoea (C) Sleep terrors (0) Nightmare (Turmover)197. 198. 199. NJ— ‘What is the most common subtype ofacute schizophrenia? A) (B) «© (0) Simple schizophrenia Paranoid schizophrenia Hebephrenic schizophrenia Catatonic schizophrenia Lithium carbonate therapy is useful : “ In the treatment of an acute maniac episode (B) To prevent the recurrence of depression (C). To prevent the recurrence of mania (0) In the treatment of acute depression True about Korsakov syndrome: {) ‘Commonest cause of amnesic disorder Often follows Wernicke encephalopathy di) 200. (iii), Nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia (iv) Associated with alcoho! abuse and thiamine deficiency (A) i, 8) (C) iv i, ji, iv (D) Liv Characteristic symptoms of morphine withdrawal include : () Hypotension (ij) Muscle spasm 1Al23 (30) (iil) Dry conjunctiva fw) Diarrhea (A) (8) (C) ii,iv (D) ii, iii Contd.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK NJ 14/23 (31) GeesSEAL SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Medical Officer (32) (Assistant Surgeon) NJ = 1A/23 (475)