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A.P T.S KARNATAKA TAMILNADU MAHARASTRA DELHI RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT JEE-MAIN Date: 27-01-2023
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTM-17 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases.
(II) Section‐II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5
questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below
.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________
Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
27‐01‐23_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT_ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Test Syllabus
PHYSICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : TOTAL SYLLABUS
MATHEMATICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
3b
1. The angle between P and Q is cos 1 ,if P a 2b . Find Q , if P Q :
2a
1) a 2b 2) 2a b 3) a b 4) 2a 2b
A
2. If has the dimensions MLT 4 , what is A ?
0
1) Square of electric flux 2) Square of magnetic flux
3) Square of electric field 4) Square of energy
3. The velocity and acceleration of a particle at time t=0 are u a 2 i a 2 j (m/sec) and
a0 ai a j respectively. Find the angle made by the velocity of the particle at t=2 sec with
the initial velocity :
1
1 2gR M m 2
1) 2gR 2 2)
M
1 1
2gRM 2
2gR M m 2
3) 4)
M m m
7. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density is bent into a circular loop with
900
L3 L3 5 L3 3 L3
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 2 16 2 16 2 8 2
8. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are M 1 , R1 and M 2 , R2 respectively. Their centers
are distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be
projected from a point midway between two centers so as to escape to infinity is:
G M1 M 2 G M1 M 2
1) 2 2)
d d
2G M 1 M 2
3) 4) None of these
d
A, L, Y1 A, L, Y2
M 2g 2L 2M 2 g 2 L M 2 g 2L M 2 g 2 L Y1 Y2
1) 2) 3) 4)
A Y1 Y2 A Y1 Y2 2 A Y1 Y2 2 AYY 1 2
10. An open pipe is in 2nd harmonic with frequency f1 . Now one end of the tube is closed and
frequency is increased of f 2 such that the resonance again occur in nth harmonic. Choose the
correct option :
5 3
1) n 5, f 2 f1 2) n 3, f 2 f1
4 4
5 3
3) n 3, f 2 f1 4) n 5, f 2 f1
4 4
11. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal form the sides of
an isosceles triangle ABC , right angled at B . The points Aand B are maintained at
temperature T and T 2 respectively. In the steady state, the temperature of the point C is
1 1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 1
12. A rectangular glass slab ABCD of refractive index n1 is immersed in water of refractive
index n2 n1 n2 . A ray of light is incident at the surface AB of the slab. The maximum
value of the angle of incidence max , such that the ray comes out only from the other surface
CD , is given by :
Sec: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT Page 4
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
n n 1
1) sin 1 1 cos sin 1 2 2) sin 1 n1 cos sin 1
n2 n1 n2
n n
3) sin 1 1 4) sin 1 2
n2 n1
13. What is the limit of achieving maximum velocity for two charges of same mass m and
having unequal charges q1 and q2 in a gravity free space where they are at present distance
' a ' apart which is almost negligible compared to the distance where their velocity will be
maximum :
1 1 1 1
qq 2 qq 2 qq 2
q1q2 2
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4)
2 0 ma 4 0 ma 0 ma 4 2 0 ma
14. Statement-1: angular momentum of the planet orbiting around the sun remains constant
Statement-2 : Torque may act on the rotating planet under some specific conditions.
1) Statement -1 is true. Statement-2 is true and it is correct explanation for statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is true but it is not correct explanation for statement-1
3) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true.
15. Statement-1: viscous force will not change the angular momentum of this satellite.
Statement-2 : Viscous force will change the velocity of satellite.
1) Statement -1 is true. Statement-2 is true and it is correct explanation for statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is true but it is not correct explanation for statement-1
3) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false. Statement-2 is true.
16. In the given circuit with steady current, the potential drop across the capacitor must be :
V V 2V
1) V 2) 3) 4)
2 3 3
Sec: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT Page 5
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
17. A square is made of wire of length 4a. what will be the maximum magnetic moment that can
be, achieved by geometrical changes out of the same perimeter. The current is I :
6a 2 I 2a 2 I 8a 2 I 4a 2 I
1) 2) 3) 4)
18. A coil having N terms wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii
a and b respectively. When a current I passes through the coil, magnetic field at the
centre is :
0 NI 2 0 NI 0 NI b 0 NI
1) 2) 3) ln 4)
b a 2b a a 2b a
19. In the network as shown, at a particular instant, current is 5A and decreasing. What should
be the rate of decrease of current so that points Aand B are at the some potential ? (Current
from A to B)
21. In the circuit as shown, charge q varies with time t as q t 2 4 where q is in C and time t
is in seconds. Find VAB at time t 3 sec (in V )
22. The potential difference across a 4H inductor vary with time as shown. The current is zero
at time t 0 . Find the current in A at time t 2sec.
23. Find the recoil speed (approximately in m/sec) when a hydrogen atom emits a photon
during the transitions from n 5 to n 1
24. In ground state , find the ratio between total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized
helium atom and hydrogen atom.
25. Voltage versus time graph of a circuit element is shown in the figure. If capacitance C 2 F ,
find the current ( in Amp).
26. The point charges 2q, 2q and q are put on the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
a. Find the work done by some external force in increasing the separation to 2a ( in J)
27. A body is cooled in 2 minutes in a room from 750 C to 650 C . If the same body is cooled
from 550 C to 450 C in the same room , find the time taken (in minute ). (room temperature
at 300 C )
28. n moles of hydrogen are mixed with two moles of helium. The speed of sound in mixture is
1
times the root mean square (rms) of the gas molecules in the mixture. Find the value of
2
n
29. If P V diagram of a diatomic gas plotted, it is straight line passing through origin. The
molar heat capacity of the gas in the process is IR where I is an integer. Find value of I
30. A vessel of volume 3V contains a gas at pressure 4P0 and another vessel of volume 2V
contains the same gas at pressure 1.5 p0 . Both vessels have the same temperature. when both
vessels are connected by a tube of negligible volume, the equilibrium pressure is IP0 ,where
I is an integer . find the value of I
Sec: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT Page 7
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
31. For a gas obeying vanderwaal’s equation at critical point
p 2 p 2 p
1) Both and 2 are zero 2) Only 2 is not zero
v T V v
p 2 p p 2 p
3) is zero but 2 is non zero 4) is non zero but 2 is zero
v T V v T V
32. A 20 ml sample of a 0.20 M solution of the weak diprotic acid H 2 A is titrated with 0.25M
NaOH . The concentration of solution at the second equivalent points
1) 0.10 M NaHA 2) 0.153 M Na2 A 3) 0.10 M Na2 A 4) 0.0769 M Na2 A
33. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 min at 270 C and in 5 min at 470 C . The
energy of activation of the reaction is
1) 43.85 KJ / mol 2) 55.14 KJ / mol 3) 11.97 KJ / mol 4) 6.65 KJ / mol
34. When a concentrated solution of an electrolyte is diluted
1) Its specific conductance increases
2) Its equivalent conductivity decreases
3) Its specific conductivity decreases and equivalent conductivity increases
4) Both specific and equivalent conductivity increases
35. In a 0.2 molal aquous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of dissociation is 0.25 . The
freezing points of the solutions will be nearest to: K f 1.86 k Kg mol 1
1) 0.260 C 2) 0.4650 C 3) 0.480 C 4) 0.4650 C
36. In NaCl the centers of two nearest like charged ions are present at a distance of
1 1 3 1
1) a 2 2) a 3) a 4) 2a
2 2 2 2
37. Match List-I with List-II
List I
List-II
Molecules
p IF7 (1) planar and polar
Q SO2 (2) Non- planar and polar
R SF4 (3) planar and non - polar
S CS2 (4) non planar and non-polar
1) P 4; Q 1; R 2; S 3 2) P 4; Q 2; R 1; S 3
3) P 3; Q 1; R 2; S 4 4) P 3; Q 1; R 4; S 2
Sec: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT Page 8
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
38. Statement-1 : H F bond length is smaller than the sum of the radius of H atom and F
atom.
Statement-2: The electronagativity difference gives a shrinkage in bond length.
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is correct explanation for
Statement-1
2) Statement-1is Ture, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT correct explanation for
Statement-1.
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True .
39. Statement-1: NaCl and KCl are anhydrous but MgCl2 and CaCl2 exists as MgCl2 . 6 H 2O
and CaCl2 . 6H 2O respectively
Statement-2: Hydration energies of group-2 ions are greater then those of group -1 ions
because of these small size and more charge they have strong attraction towards water
molecule.
1) Statement-1is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is True; Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT correct explanation for
Statement-1
3) Statement-1is True, Statement-2 is False.
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
40. B3 N 3 H 6 solution of hydrochloric acid ? Select correct about above reaction
1) No reaction
2) B3 N3 H 6 show substitution reaction and produce B3 N 3Cl6
3) B3 N 3 H 6 show addition reaction and produce B3 N 3 H 9Cl3 in which Cl is bonded to boron
4) B3 N3 H 6 show addition reaction and produce B3 N3 H 9Cl3 in which Cl is bonded to nitrogen
41. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of molecular formula
CH 3 CH CH CH OH CH 3
is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 3
42. Which of the following has the shortest C Cl bond ?
Cl CH CH 2 Cl CH CH NO2
1) 2)
Cl CH CH CH 3 Cl CH CH OCH 3
3) 4)
Sec: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT Page 9
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 27‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐17_Q.P
43. Which of the following compound will show highest dipole moment ?
O
O O
1) 2) 3) 4) O
44. The species which can best serve as an initiator for the cationic polymerization is
1) LiAlH 4 2) HNO3 3) AlCl3 4) BuLi
45. Statement 1: Acid chloride is more reactive than amide for addition followed by elimination
reaction.
Statement 2: Leaving power of NH 2 group is more than the Cl group.
1) Statement-1 and statement -2 are true and statement -2 is the correct explanation of
statement-1
2) Statement-1 and statement -2 are true but statement -2 is NOT a correct explanation of
statement -1
3) Statement-1 is true, statement -2 is false
4) Statement -1 is false, statement -2 is true
46. Which of the following statement is correct ?
1) RNA controls the synthesis of proteins
2) The sugar present in DNA is D ribose
3) RNA has double stranded Helix stricture
4) DNA mainly occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell
47. Assertion (A) : Formaldehyde is more reactive than benzaldehyde for nucleophilic addition
reaction.
Reason (R) : Formaldehyde is more stable than benzaldehyde
1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
2) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
3) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
4) Assertion is wrong and Reason is correct
48. The major product of the following reactions
CH 3
OH i ) aqu NaOH
ii ) CH 3 I
CH CH 3 CH 3
1) 3
2) 3) 4)
49. Identify A in the given reaction,
OH
SOCl2
A major product
OH CH 2 OH
Cl
OH
OH CH 2Cl OH CH 2 OH
1) 2)
Cl
OH
Cl CH Cl Cl CH Cl
3) 2
4) 2
50. Assertion (A) :Acetone can be converted into acetic acid by I 2 / NaOH .
Reason (R) : Haloform reaction is given by methyl ketones.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, but R is false
4) A is false, but R is true.
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
52. For the coagulation of 50 ml of ferric hydroxide sol 10 ml of 0.5 M KCl is required. What is
the coagulation value of KCl ?
53. The angular momentum of an electron in Bohr’s orbit of He is 3.1652 1034 Kg m2 / sec.
The wave number in terms of Rydberg constant (R) of the spherical line emitted when an
xR
electron falls from this level to the first excited state is then x y is .
y
Use h 6.626 1034 J .s
54. In an iodometric estimation, the following reactions occur
2Cu 2 4 I Cu2 I 2 I 2
0.12 mole of CuSO4 was added to excess of KI solution and the liberated iodine required
120 ml of hypo. The molarity of hypo solution was:
55. Pure nitrosyl chloride NOCl gas was heated to 2400 C in a 0.1L container. At equlilibrium
the total pressure was 1.0 atm and NOCl pressure was 0.64 atm. The value of K p is
58. Consider the sulphides HgS , PbS , CuS , NiS , As2 S3 and CdS . Number of these sulphides
soluble in 50% HNO3 is
61. Statement-1 :- Let the vector a i j k be vertical. The line of greatest slope on a plane
n1
ai ai 1 is S then S is equal to
i 1
1 x
2 2
2 2
3) e x tan 1 x c 4) e x tan 1 x c
1 x2 1 x2
66. Three natural numbers are taken at random one by one with replacement from the set
A = x |1 x 100, x N . The probability that the AM of the number is 25 is
74 25 74
C C C72 74
1) 100 72 2) 100 2 3) 4)
C3 C3 1003 1003
67. From the top of a ‘h’ meters high cliff the angle depression of the top and bottom of a tower
are observed to be 300 and 600 respectively the height of the tower is
h 2h h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 4
68. If p: Nidhi is intelligent; q: Nidhi will pass, then the statement Nidhi is intelligent but will
not pass is written in symbols as
1) p q 2) p q 3) p q 4) p q
2 4 6
69. The value of cos cos cos is equal to
7 7 7
1 1 1
1) -1 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
70. Let O be origin and point P1 1,1,1 lie on L1 x y z . Projection of OP1 on x-axis be
OM1 . Projection of OM1 on L1 be OP2 and so on. Then the value of PM
1 1 P2 M 2 ........
3 3 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
a b
71. Let A where a, b, c, d 0,1 the number of such A so that trace (A) > det(A)
c d
1) 13 2) 14 3) 12 4) 10
72. If y f x ax b is a tangent to circle x 2 y 2 2 x 2 y 2 0 then the value of
a b 2 a b a b 1 is equal to
2
1) 0 2) 1 3) 3 4) -3
at the point where the circle meets positive y-axis, then equation of the chord is
1) 2 x 3 y 0 2) x 2 y 0 3) x 2 y 0 4) 2 x 3 y 0
76. The probability that the triangle formed by choosing any three vertices from the vertices of a
cube is equilateral is
3 6 4 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 7 7 7
a a12 x y
77. Let A 11 , X 1 , Y 1 ( X 1 , Y 1 denote the transpose of X and Y )
a21 a22 x2 y2
x2 1 1 x2 1
1) sec 1 c 2) sec 1 c
2x 2 2x
1 x2 1 x2 1
1
3) sec 1 c 4) sec c
2 2 2
18 18
xi 8 9 and x 8
2
79. If i 45 then the standard deviation of the observations x1 , x2 ,.....x18
i 1 i 1
is
1) 4/9 2) 9/4 3) 3/2 4) 2/3
x
2
1
tan x dx
81. lim 0 where . is greatest integer function
x
x 1
2
The maximum value of P 1 x1 1 y1 1 x2 1 y2 where x1 x2 y1 y2 2
2 2 2 2
82.
x2 y 2
83. The lengths of perpendicular from the foci S and S on any tangent to ellipse 1
1
4 9
ac
are ' a ' and ' c ' respectively then the value of 0 xdx where denote fractional part of ‘x’
84. The number of solutions of the equation 2 x x 1 2 x is equal to_____ where
greatest integer function.
where denote greatest integer function and denote fractional part ‘x’
87. If A 1,2,3,4,5 then total number of reflexive relations on ‘A’ is 2 then
90. The sum of all the non-real roots of x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 12 is ' 'then