FISHERIES ENVIRONMENT

1. Deepest lake in the world is

a. Baikal lake b. Superior lake
c. Chilka lake d. Pulicat lake

2. The science dealing with the various systems of inland waters, usually fresh water is called
a. Limnology b. Oceanography c. Hydrology d. None

3. Phytoplankton contain C:N:P in the ratio of

a. 100:17:2.4 b. 100:16:2.4 c. 75:16:2.4 d. 75:17:2.4

4. Abundant blooms of Fragillaria oceanica indicates presence of a particular fish

a. Sardine b. Mackeral c. Bombay duck d. Tuna

5. Consider the statements

I. Ocean water occupy 7/10 of earth’s surface
II. Inland waters are less than 1/50 of earth’s surface
III. Ocean waters have restricted fauna
IV. Inland waters have prolific fauna

Of the statement
a. I & II are correct b. I, II & III are correct
c. I & II are correct d. All are correct

6. Identify the correct order in which the lentic series evolved

a. Pond, Bogs, Swamps, Lakes b. Lakes, Ponds, Bogs, Swamps
c. Swamps, Lakes, Pond, Bogs d. Lakes, Swamps, Ponds, Bogs

7. Which one of the following is comes under lentic series

a. Creeks b. River c. Streams d. Lake

8. Indicator species of oceanic water

a. Dinoflagellates b. Diatoms c. Sagitta acerosa d. None

9. Red tide caused by

a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Dinoflagellates d. Diatoms

10. ELNINO current occurs off the coast of

a. Antartica b. East Australia c. North sea d. Peru

11. Eutrophication is a phenomenon, where there is

a. Excessive feeding by available fauna b. Diversity of species high
c. Over abundance of nutrients d. High sunlight penetration

12. Beels/oxboo lakes are mostly distributed in

a. Tamil Nadu b. Gujarat c. Himachal Pradesh d. Assam

13. Itai-Itai disease is due to consumption of fish contaminated with

a. Cadmium b. Zinc c. Mercury d. Lead

14. Salt content of the sea water

a. 3 to 3.5% b. 3 to 5% c. Less than 1% d. More than 10%

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15. Point at which respiration and photosynthesis is equal known as
a. Average depth b. Mean depth c. Compensation depth d. None

16. Which areas in the oceans are rich in fish population?

a. Upwelling area b. Pelagic region c. Benthic region d. None

14. Which is the largest river system in India?

a. Indus b. Ganga c. Brahmaputra d. Mahanadi

15. Riverine system is placed in

a. Open system b. Closed system
c. Both open and closed system d. None of above

16. Beels / ox bow lake are mostly distributed in

a. Tamil Nadu b. Gujarat c. Himachal Pradesh d. Assam

17. Chilka lake is

a. Lagoon b. Bhery c. Backwater d. Mangrove

18. The mud flat and saline swamps located in West Bengal is called
a. Bheries b. Lagoon c. Backwater d. Embanked brackish water

19. The brackish water which act as buffer zone between sea and land is called
a. Lagoon b. Mangrove c. Backwater d. Embanked brackish water

20. The largest estuarine ecosystem India is

a. Hooghly Matlah estuary b. Mahanadi system
c. Godavari system d. Narmada system

21. The pH value of the Indian coastal marine waters range from
a. 7 – 8.5 b. 6.0 to 8.5 c. 6 – 7.0 d. None

22. The value of suspended solids of Indian coastal marine water is around
a. 50mg/1 b. 150mg/1 c. 200mg/1 d. 100mg/1

23. The dissolved oxygen level of Indian coastal marine water is not less than
a. 1mg/1 b. 5mg/1 c. 3mg/1 d. 2 mg/1

24. The free ammonia of Indian coastal marine water is about

a. 1mg/1 b. 0.5mg/1 c. 1.5mg/1 d. 2 mg/1

25. The BOD of Indian coastal marine water is about

a. 100 mg/1 b. 150 mg/1 c. 200 mg/1 d. 50 mg/1

26. The COD of Indian coastal marine water is about

a. 200mg/1 b. 100 mg/1 c. 250 mg/1 d. 300 mg/1

27. The total nitrogen content of India coastal marine water is about
a. 2mg/1 b. 5mg/1 c. 3mg/1 d. None

28. The dissolved oxygen level at a distance of 5 to 10 Kms from the sea mouth is around
a. 1mg/1 b. 5mg/1 c. 4mg/1 d. None

29. The amount of ammonia at 5km distance from sea mouth is around
a. 1.5ppm b. 1.4 ppm c. 2 ppm d. 2.5 ppm
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30. The amount of ammonia at 50km distance from sea mouth is around
a. 1.5ppm b. 1.0 ppm c. 0.5 ppm d. 2.0 ppm

31. Desirable level of TDS in drinking water is

a. <500 mg/1 b. >500 mg/l c. < 250 mg/l d. 250 mg/l

32. Water mass is characterized by

a. Sea surface temperature b. Zooplankton indication
c. Temperature salinity profile d. Density

33. Tide pattern in Indian coastline

a. Diurnal b. Semidiurnal c. a & b d. None

34. Tsunami is a
a. Internal wave b. Surface current c. Deep water current d. Storm

35. It leads to the hyperplasia

a. Eutrophication b. Sedimentation c. Pollution d. None

36. Types of current in lakes are

a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Returning d. All

37. -------------- is considered to be one of the most important limiting factors in the development of
phytoplankton
a. Magnesium b. Nitrogen c. Calcium d. Potassium

38. --------- require silicones manufacture of their shells.

a) Phyto plankton b) Benthos c) Diatoms d) None

39. It is an animal association where no partner is harmed. One or both the partners are benefited is
called
a) Symbiosis b) Commensalisms c) Mutualism d) None

40. A symbiotic inter-specific relationship where one partner is benefited and other partner is not harmed.
a) Symbiosis b) Mutualism c) Commensalisms d) None

41. International year of ocean

a) 1997 b) 1998 c) 1996 d) 1994

42. Biomagnification is related to

a) Pollution b) Turbidity c) Turbulence d) None

43. Minamata disease is caused by

a) Cadmium b) Iron c) Mercury d) None

44. Physalia is also called

a) Portuguese man-of war b) Little star c) Queen of sea d) None

45. Acid rain is due to accumulation of

a) NO2 b) CO2 Gas c) a & b d) NH4 Gas

46. Oxbow lake formed by

a) Pond activity b) Ocean activity
c) River activity d) All

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47. C14 technique to measure
a) Secondary production b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Primary productivity d) None

48. The term ecology derived from

a) British b) Greek c) Latin d) None

49. The science of all the relations of all organisms in relation to all their environment
a) Limnology b) Meterology c) Ecology d) None

50. Hard water contains

a) Soluble chlorides b) Sulphate of ca & Mg ions
c) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg ions d) All

51. The number of calories necessary to raise 1gm (ml) of water to 1 oC

a) Latent heat b) Specific heat c) Specific humidity d) None

52. The quantity of heat required to liquid to vapour

a) Latent heat b) Specific heat c) Specific humidity d) None

53. Thermal conductivity of water is

a) 1.025 b) 0.125 c) 0.00125 d) 0.0125

54. Density of water is inversely proportional to

a) Salinity b) Temperature c) Dissolved oxygen d) None

55. Transparency is measured by

a) Secchidisc b) Salinometer c) Hydrometer d) Naphlometer

56. Secchidisc was coined by

a) Schwan b) Hynes c) Secchi (1865) d) None

57. Epilimnion refers

a) Bottom layer of water b) Upper layer of water (27oC and 21oC)
c) Middle layer of water d) None

58. Hypolimnion refers

a) Bottom layer of water (5oC and 7oC) b) Bottom layer of water
c) Middle layer of water d) None

59. Thermocline or Metalimnion refers

a) Middle layer (21oC above >7oC) b) Upper layer of water
c) Bottom layer of water d) None

60. Nitrogen constitute of the atmospheric air is

a) 65% b) 48% c) 82% d) 78%

61. Fresh water is

a) Hypertonic b) Hypotonic c) a& b d) None

62. Body fluid of freshwater animals

a) Hypertonic b) Hypotonic c) a& b d) None

63. Animal which can tolerate narrow range of salt concentrations are called
a) Euryhaline b) Stenohaline c) a & b d) None

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64. Animals which can tolerate wide range of salt concentration are called
a) Eury haline b) Stenohaline c) Oligohaline d) None

65. Example for animals possess both stenohaline and eury haline is
a) Carp b) Tilapia c) Anguilla d) None

66. Animals which excrete their nitrogenous waste products in the forms of ammonia are called
a) Ureotelic b) Amminotelic c) Urecotelic d) None

67. Majority of fresh water forms are

a) Amminotelic b) Ureotelic c) Urecotelic d) None

68. Lentic habitat is a

a) Stagnant b) Standing water c) Running water d) a & b

69. Lotic habitat is a

a) Stagnant b) Standing water c) Running water d) a & b

70. Literally, Aestivation means

a) Summer sleep b) Winter sleep c) Summer break d) None

71. Seawater is
a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic c) a& b d) None

72. Body fluid of sea water is

a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic c) a& b d) None

73. Exosmosis occur in

a) Saline water organism b) Fresh water animals
c) Marine animals d) None

74. Sea water animals are

a) Amminotelic b) Ureotelic c) Uricotelic d) None

75. Bioluminescent organ helps to

a) To attract the prey b) To identify their mates
c) Both a & b d) None

76. --------- is the mouth of a river where seawater and fresh water mix.
a) Estuary b) Reservoir c) Lake d) None

77. Estuarine animals are

a) Stenohaline b) Oligohaline c) Eury haline d) None

78. Example for blue green algae are

a) Anabaena b) Nostac c) Microcystis and Oscillatoria d) All

79. Microfauna animals with a size between

a) 20 and 200µ b) 30 and 300 µ c) 10 and 20 µ d) None

80. Animals with a size between 200µ - 1cm.

a) Microfauna b) Meso fauna c) Macrofauna d) None

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 81. Animals with a size >1cm
a) Microfauna b) Meso fauna c) Macrofauna d) None

82. The temperature is high during day time and low during night time is called
a) Earth variation b) Diurnal variation c) Magnetic variation d) None

83. On the basis of penetration of light

a) Euphotic zone b) Disphoticzone c) Aphotic zone d) All

84. Cyclic event caused by the rotation of the moon around the earth
a) Lunar rhythm (29 day cycle) b) Eutrophication
c) Cyclonicstorm d) None

85. During full moon and new moon the sun, the moon and the earth are in
a) A single line b) Opposite line c) Double line d) None

86. In lakes ----------------- is a limiting factor in the growth of algae

a) Calcium b) Potassium c) Phosphorus d) None

87. Periodic movement of animals from one place to another and back for breeding etc.
a) Migration b) Nataliy c) Mutualism d) None

88. Example for Anadromous migration.

a) Diatoms b) Salmon c) Mollusk d) None

89. The migration never returns to the stating place.

a) Immigration b) Emigration c) Anadromous migration d) None

90. Loss of individuals from one population and the addition of individuals to anther population.
a) Immigration b) Emigration c) Catadromous migration d) None

96. Producers are

a) Heterotrophs b) Primary consumer c) Autotrophs d) None

97. Consumers are

a) Heterotrophs b) Primary producers
c) Autotrophs d) None

98. Herbivores are also called

a) Primary producer b) Primary consumer c) a& b d) None

99. Carnivores are called

a) Primary consumer b) Secondary producer
c) Secondary consumer d) None

100. Functional status of an organism in its community

a) Niche b) Ooze c) Hold fast d) None

101. The word ecosystem was coined by

a) Hynes b) Secchi c) A.G Tansley d) None

102. The amount of organic material &rate of energy produced by autotrophs is called
a) Primary production b) Secondary production
c) Tertiary production d) None

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 103. Primary production can be measured by
a) Harvest method b) Carbon dioxide assimilation method
c) Radio isotope method (C14) d) All

104. Various steps in food chain are called

a) Energy web b) Energy flow c) Trophic level d) None

105. Transfer of energy from one Trophic level to another is called

a) Energy web b) Energy flow c) Trophic level d) None

106. In an eco system the various food chain are inter connected with each other to
form a network called
a) Food web b) Energy flow c) Trophic level d) None

107. The graphic representation of the number, biomass & energy of the successive
trophic levels if an ecosystem
a)Total Biomass b) Food chain c) Ecological pyramid d) None

108. Ecological pyramid was 1st described by

a) Schwan b) Charles Elton (1927) c) Emilton d) None

109. In the ecosystem the number & biomass of producers are more & those of
consumers are less
a) Upright pyramid b) Inverted pyramid c) Horizontal pyramid d) None

110. In the ecosystem the biomass of producers are less & those of consumers are
more
a) Upright pyramid b) Horizontal pyramid
c) Inverted pyramid d) None

111. The process at which atmospheric free N 2 is converted in to soluble salts like nitrites & nitrate.
a) Ammonia fixation b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Denitrification d) None

112. The conversion of nitrate in to ammonia or free nitrogen.

a) Denitrification b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Ammonia fixation d) None

113. Percentage of CO2 content in air is

a) 0.01% b) 0.05% c) 1.05 % d) 0.03%

114. Member of the same species are interrelated the relation ship is called
a) Inter specific relationship b) Intra specific relationship
c) Symbiosis d) None

115. Member of different species are related is called

a) Inter specific relationship b) Intra specific relationship
c) Symbiosis d) None

116. Inter specific relation ship is Classified in to

a) Neutralism b) Symbiosis c) Mutualism d) a& b

117. It is an association where no partner is harmed

a) Neutralism b) Symbiosis c) Mutualism d) a& b

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118. It is an inter specific relationship where one partner inhibits or kills the other partner.
a) Antibiosis b) Parasitism c) Symbiosis d) Neutralism

119. -------------is a one sided relationship where one partner is benefited at the expense of the other.
a) Antibiosis b) Parasitism c) Symbiosis d) Neutralism

120. -------------is an animal relationship where one animal kills and devours other animals for food.
a) Parasitism b) Predation c) Predator d) None

121. The animal which kills other animals

a) Prey b) Predator c) a & b d) None

122. The animal which is killed

a) Prey b) Predator c) a & b d) None

123. Fresh water ecology is also called

a) Hydrology b) Meterology c) Limnology d) a & b

124. The study of fresh water organism in relation to their environment

a) Hydrology b) Meterology c) Limnology d) All

125. Example for Lentic habitat

a) Ponds b) lakes c) swamps d) All

126. Example for Lotic habitat

a) Rivers b) streams c) a & b d) None

127. Based on the depth of water and the availability of light pond can be categories in to
a) Littoral zone b) Limneticzone c) Profundal zone d) All

128. Example for phytoplanton

a) Nitzschia & Scenedesmus b) Fragillaria c) Volvox d) All

129. Organism living on the bottom

a) Benthos b) Neuston c) Nekton d) None

130. Organism attached or clinging to water plants

a) Nekton b) Benthos c) Periphyton d) None

131. These are organisms surviving at the air – water interface

a) Neuston b) Benthos c) Periphyton d) None

132. A large body of standing water which does not have connection with sea.
a) Reservoir b) Pond c) Lakes d) b & c

133. Yercad lake is Situated in Tamil Nadu is

a) Nammakkal dist b) Salem Dist c) Madurai d) None

134. Largest lake in the world,

a) Lake superior b) Baikal c) Chilka lake d) None

135. Lakes are classified on the basis of productivity

a) Oligotrophic lake b) Eutrophic lake
c) Dystrophic lake d) All

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136. River is characterized by
a) Current b) Later water inter exchange
c) Oxygen tension d) All

137. Fluctuation of tides which are extraordinarily high and unusually low.
a) Spring tides b) Neap-tide c) Tide web d) None

138. Possess the least amount of flow and ebb. Tides are produced when the sun and moon pull the earth
in opposite direction.
a) Spring tides b) Diurnal tide c) Neap-tide d) None

139. Pelagic organisms are broadly classified in to

a) Neuston & Nekton b) Plankton and nekton
c) Pleuston & Nekton d) None

140. The name “plankton” is coined by

a) Rirtcher b) Hynes c) Hensen d) none

141. Based on the duration of life cycle, ZP are classified in to

a) Mero plankton, Holoplankon b) Mero plankton & Macro plankton
c) Macro plankton & Micro plankton d) None

142. Based on size zooplankton are classified in to

a) Macro plankton b) Microplankton c) Nanoplankton d) All

143. The beautiful gardens of the sea.

a) Sea weeds b) Coral reefs c) Sea grass d) None

144. Ring shaped or horse - shoe shaped coral reefs:

a) Atolls b) Fjords c) a & b d) None

145. Groups of small land trees that inhabit inter tidal mud flats and estuarine deltas along their tropical
and subtropical sea –coasts.
a) Coral reef b) Mangroves c) Beels d) None

146. Mangroves are commonly called as

a) Arms of the sea b) Sailor by wind c) Mangroves forest d) None

147. Mangroves are

a) Euryhaline b) Poly haline c) Oligo haline d) None

148. The common mangroves species are

a) Rhizophora & Avicenia b) Bruguiera & Casuala
c) Oryza d) All

149. About 80% mangroves in India are located in

a) Andra b) Karnataka c) West Bengal d) Kerala

150. Mangrove vegetation require

a) Shallow water, thick mud b) High humidity
c) Water logged saline soil d) All

151. Respiratory root found in mangrove is

a) Pneumatophores b) Pedaldise c) Tube feet d) None

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152. Estuaries are classified in to
a) Salt wedge estuaries & Partially mixed estuaries
b) Well mixed estuaries
c) Fjords and Barbuilt estuaries
d) All

153. It is formed when a river flows in to a tideless sea.

a) Salt wedge estuaries b) Well mixed estuaries
c) Partially mixed estuaries d) None

154. It is formed when a river flows in to a sea with appreciable tidal movement
a) Fjords b) Partially mixed estuaries c) a & b d) All

155. Deep estsuaries is called

a) Fjords b) Barbuilt estuary c) Salt wedge estuaries d) All

156. Fjords not found in

a) Indonesia b) India c) Australia d) None

157. Barbuilt estuaries also called

a) Permanent estuaries b) Temporary estuaries c) a & b d) None

158. Important estuaries available in Tamil Nadu is

a) Coleroon, Killai b) Adyar, Manakkudy
c) Thenkapattanam estuary d) All

159. The estuaries animals are

a) Euryhaline b) Polyhaline c) Stenohaline d) None

160. Most of estraries animals are

a) Homoeosmotic b) Heterosmotic c) a & b d) None

161. Precipitation of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen with rain is termed

a) Acid water b) Acid drop c) Acid rain d) None

162. It is the amount oxygen required by the micro organisms in water.

a) COD (Chemical Oxygen demand) b) BOD (biological oxygen demand)
c) Both d) None

163. Increased productivity of lakes and ponds brought about boy nutrient enrichment is known as
a) Bio Magnification b) Eutrophication c) Bioaccumulation d) None

164. Increase in CO2 lead to warming of the earth is called

a) Global warming b) Phototaxis c) Green house effect d) None

165. Abbreviation of DDT

a) Dichloro diphenyl dichloromethane b) Diphenyl dichloromethane
c) Dichloro diamine tetrachloride d) None

166. Atoms of the same elements having different numbers of nutrition but the same number of electrons
and proteins is called
a) Ratio tope b) Isotopes c) Ionotope d) None

167. Bioluminescence otherwise called

a) Winter sleep b) Living light c) Flash light d) None

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168. Long journeys within the sea for breeding is called
a) Catadromous b) Potamodromous
c) Oceanodromous migration d) None

169. Long travels within fresh water.

a) Potamodromous migration b) Anadromous
c) Oceanodromous migration d) None

170. Sea water has salinity between

a) 33 and 38% b) 33 and 37% c) 30 and 32% d) None

171. Hyper saline (>47% )found in

a) Red sea b) Percian gulf c) a & b d) Black sea

172. Surface salinity of oceans depend on

a) Evaporation b) Precipitation c) a& b d) None

173. Salinity
a) E+P b) E X P c) E-P d) None

174. Salinity
a) 0.03 + 1.805 – Chlorinity b) 0.03 + 1.805 x Chlorinity
c) 0.03 x 1.805 x Chlorinity d) None

175. Ocean with high salinity (35.5%) is

a) South Atlantic b) North Atlantic c) East Atlantic d) West Atlantic

176. Highest point of a wave.

a) Crest b) Trough c) Current d) Heave

177. Lowest point of wave

a) Crest b)Current c) Trough d) Heave

178. Waves are classified in to

a) Shallow water waves b) Deep water waves c) a & b d) None

179. Types of waves based on nature of shore

a) Plunging breaker b) Spilling breaker c) Surging breaker d) All

180. Types of wave based on force disturbance

a) Tsunamis or seismic waves b) Storm waves
c) Stationary waves d) All

181. The rise and down movement of water due to gravitational pull between earth and moon is called
a) Tide b) Wave c) Current d) None

182. The time between successive high or low tide is known as

a) Lunar rhythm b) Lunar period c) Tidal period d) None

183. Some ocean has only one high tide and only one low tide per day is called
a) Daily tide b) Diurnal tides c) a & b d) Semi daily tide

184. When the 2 high and 2 low tides are approximately equal with their relative heights are called
a) Semi daily b) Semi diurnal tide c) a & b d) Diurnal tide

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 185. When the 2 high and 2 low tides are differ in heights are called
a) Mixture tides b) Single tide c) Neap tide d) None

186. Spring tide occur during

a) Full moon period b) New moon period c) a & b d) None

187. Pollution (pollutas) is a word derived from

a) Greek b) Latin word c) French d) None

188. Difference between Initial O2 level and Final O2 level gives value of
a) COD b) BOD c) Primary productivity d) None

189. BOD in sea water is

a) 200-400 ppm b) 150-300 ppm
c) 150-200 ppm d) 300-400 ppm

190. BOD test is an

a) empirical test b) Approximate test
c) Accurate test d) All the above

191. BOD is represented by

a) mg/l b) Kg O2/day c)a & b d) None

192. It is the measure of total oxygen requirement for the conversion of all organic math in to inorganic
components
a) COD b) BOD c) Dissolved Oxygen d) None

193. Empirical formula for biomass

a) (CH2O)106 (NH3)16 H3PO4 b) (CH4O)106 (NH2)16 HPO3
c) (CH2O)104 (NH2)16 HPO4 d) None

194. Mass per unit volume of the substance is called

a) Density b) Salinity c) Gravity d) None

195. Density is measured in

a) mg/m3 b) g/cm3 c) g/cm2 d) mg/cm3

196. Density of pure water is (g/cm3 at 4oC)

a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 0.5 d) None

197. Density of sea water is (g/cm3 at 4oC)

a) 1.0278 b) 1 c) 1.278 d) 0.1027

198. Tsunamis may have wave length as long as

a) 150 km b) 50 km c) 100km (435 miles) d) 200 km

199. The change in current direction and peed with increasing depth forms a spiral when viewed from
above is called
a) Turbulence b) Eckman spiral c) Spiral wave d) None

200. Denitrification begins only when the O2 goes below

a) 0.5ml/l b) 0.01ml/l c) 0.2ml/l d) 0.1ml/l

201. Fe deficiency leads to

a) No algal bloom b) Presence of algal bloom c) a & b d) None

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 202. It is a ratio between concentration of metals in tissue and concentration in water in which
organism live
a) Biological index b) Bio concentration factor c) Correlation factor d) None

203. Nitrite combined with hemoglobin leads to formation of met hemoglobin disease called
a) Methemoglobinemia b) blue baby syndrome
c) a & b d) None

204. High level of cadmium leads to disease like

a) Itai itai b) Ouch ouch c) Minimata d) a & b

205. Toxic forms of mercury is

a) Methyl mercury b) Mercuric chloride c) Mercuric oxide d) None

206. Heterogenous mixture of living and non-living bodies which float or swim in water are called
a) Pleuston b) Benthos c) Neuston d) Seston

207. Organisms which are related to the surface film of water either by hanging form or floating against
the lower side are called
a) Pleuston b) Benthos c) Neuston d) Seston

208. Higher plants which float either upon the surface or within the water
a) Pleuston b) Benthos c) Neuston d) Seston

209. Planktons are classified on the Basis of origin

a) Auto geneic plankton (Produced locally)
b) Allogenetic plankton (Introduced from other locality)
c) a & b d) None

210. White froth on crests of waves by wind is called

a) White cap b) Surf c) Current d) None

211. Energy supplied by the wind is equal to the energy lost by breaking waves called
a) Surf b) White cap c) Current d) None

212. Amount of incident light which receive compensation depth

a) 10% b) 0.1% c) 1% d) 20%

213. Krishna river does not flow through which state

a) West Bengal b) Orissa c) Andra Pradesh d) Kerala

214. Flat slow flowing river course is called

a) Potamon b) Psammon c) a & b d) None

215. The brahmaputra is joining the Ganga at

a) Gudusia b) Golaundo c) Khads d) None

216. Coral reef distributing salinity is

a) 27 to 40 ‰ b) 20-25‰ c) 15 – 20 ‰ d) None

217. Starfishes have

a) Fins b) Byssus thread c) Tube feet d) None

218. Mussels have

a) Byssus thread b) Tentacle c) wings d) None

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219. Example for Red mangrove is
a) Avicennia b) Rhizophora c) a & b d) None

220. Example for Black mangroves is

a) Avicennia b) Rhizophora c) a & b d) None

221. Pathogen + Environment + Host relationship was first given by

a) Robert Boyle b) Meyer and Wed meyer (1970)
c) E. Halley d) None

222. Psammon is a group of organisms seen between

a) Rock b) Sand grains c) Plant d) None

223. Around ------- tonnes of industrial effluents are released annually into Indian coastal waters
a) 390 million b) 380 million c) 370 million d) None

224. Domestic sewage added to the sea by coastal population per year is
a) 4200 million tonnes b) 4100 million tonnes
c) 4000 million tonnes d) None

225. Sewage and effluents added by the river to the sea per year is
a) 60 million tonnes b) 70 million tonnes
c) 50 million tones d) None

226. Solid waste and garbage by coastal population per year contribute
a) 33 million tonnes b) 34 million tonnes
c) 35 million tonnes d) None

227. In India, fertilizer used per year for agriculture is

a) 6 million b) 5 million c) 4 million d) None

228. In India, pesticides used per year for agriculture is

a) 85,000 tonnes b) 95 tonnes c) 75,000 tonnes d) None

229. In India, synthetic detergents used per year for agricultures

a) 1,25,000 tonnes b) 1,20,000 tonnes c) 1, 23,000 tonnes d) None

230. Pesticides which are non-biodegrade accumulate in the marine organisms

a) Organo phosphate pesticides b) Organochlorine pesticides
c) a & b d) None

231. Maximum permissible level of chloride in drinking water is

a) 250-450 mg/l b) 450-500 mg/l
c) 200-300 mg/l d) 201-600 mg/1

232. Total alkalinity is the

a) Concentration of titratable Acids in water b) Concentration of ions in water
c) Concentration of titratable bases inwater d) None

233. The two primary bases of water include

a) HCO3 & CO3 ions b) ClO3 & HCO3 c) HCO3& Mg ions d) None

234. Total hardness is the

a) Total concentration of divalent Anion b) Total concentration of Monovalent cation
c) Total concentration of divalent cations d) Total concentration of Anion

14
 235. The two major divalent cations of water include
a) Ca & p b) Mg and Ca c) Mg & Mn d) None

236. Organic of sediments derived from organism

a) Biogenous b) Hydrogenous c) Lithogenous d) None

237. Organic of sediments derived from water

a) Hydrogenous b) Lithogenous c) Hydrogenous d) None

238. Organic of sediments derived from rocks

a) Lithogenous b) Hydrogenous c) Lithogenous d) None

239. Radiolarian sediment predominant in

a) Antarctica b) Equatorial pacific c) Indian ocean d) a & b

240. Radiolarian accumulation rate is highest

a) 50mm/1000 years b) 20mm/1000 years
c) 15mm/1000 years d) 55mm/1000 years

241. CaCO3 can be easily dissolved at

a) 4500 m depth b) 2000 m depth
c) 3500 m depth d) 4000 m depth

242. Sediments containing more than 30% biological constituent by volume

a) Oozeb) Solenoids c) Auroras d) None

243. When diatoms are dominant in the sediment

a) Diatomaceous mud b) Diatom ooze c) Foraminiferal mud d) None

244. When foraminifera are dominant in the sediment

a) Foraminiferal mud b) Diatomaceous mud c) Foraminiferal ooze d) None

245. When diatoms shells constitute more than 30% by volume

a) Diatomaceous mud b) Foraminiferal mud
c) Diatom ooze d) None

246. When foraminiferal shells constitute more than 30% by volume

a) Diatom ooze b) Diatomaceous mud c) Foraminiferal mud d) None

247. One of the slowest chemical reaction known

a) Manganese nodules formation b) Magnesium nodules formation
c) Caisium nodules formation d) None

248. Organism which inhabit the surface of the water

a) Neuston b) Pleuston c) Neckton d) None

249. Large floating assembled organism blown about by the wind

a) Neckton b) Neuston c) Pleuston d) None

250. Community of microscopic organisms composed of algae, bacteria, fungi, protozoa and small
metazoan
a) Aufwach b) Periphyton c) a & b d) None

251. Nitrogen concentration of sea water

a) 8 to 18 ml/litre b) 10 to 15 ml/litre c) 2 to 18 ml/litre d) None

15
252. Oxygen concentration of sea water
a) 10 -15 ml/litre b) 2 – 5 ml/litre
c) 15 – 20 ml/litre d) 5 to 10ml/litre

253. Carbondioxide concentration of sea water

a) 35 to 65 ml/litre b) 15 to 20ml/litre
c) 35 to 50ml/litre d) 30 to 60ml/litre

254. The largest mangrove area occur in

a) India b) Indonesia (30%) c) Australia d) America

255. Largest mangrove area in India

a) West Bangal (4,200km2) b) Kerala c) Mumbai d) Karnatak

256. Indicator indicating the abundance of oil sardine in the west coast and chodai in east coast
a) Fragilaria oceanica b) Hemidiscus hardmanniarnus
c) a & b d) None

257. Eating contaminated (saxitoxin) shell fish caused

a) Scombroid b) Itai itai c) Ciguatera d) All

258. Maximum concentration of nitrate and phosphate found in

a) Mesopelagic zone (200 to 1000m) b) Bathypelagic zone (1000 to 4000m)
c) Benthic Zone d) None

259. Bioluminescence are found mainly in

a) Bathypelagic zone b) Mesopelagic zone c) Benthic Zone d) All

260. Most dominant phytoplankton of saline environment

a) Diatoms b) Dinoflagelate c) Noctiluca d) None

261. Gastropod Littorina sp can tolerate salinity upto

a) 25 ppt b) 50 ppt c) 60 ppt d) 70 ppt

262. Amount of suspended solid and BOD removed by primary treatment

a) 30 to 70% b) 20 to 60% c) 70 to 80% d) 40 to 75%

263. Amount of BOD reduced from initial in secondary treatment

a) 15% b) 10% c) 20% d) 30%

264. Amount of Bacteria removed in secondary treatment

a) 95% b) 85% c) 90% d) 70%

265. Duration of water passing through activated sludge system

a) 4 to 8 hours b) 5 hours c) 2 to 8 hours d) None

266. Activated carbon (tertiary or advanced system can remove organic and inorganic compounds upto)
a) 60 to 80% b) 40 to 50% c) 70 to 80% d) 80 to 90%

267. A possible method of removing salts

a) Electrodialysis b) Electrophoresis c) Radiation d) None

268. Study of soil as a natural body

a) Ornithology b) Pedology c) Hydrology d) None

16
269. Study of soil from the stand point of higher plant
a) Meterology b) Pedology c) Edaphology d) None

270. pH range of sea water

a) 6.5 to 7.5 b) 7.5 to 8.6 c) 8.5 to 9.0 d) 7.5 to 8.4

271. Changes of CO2 concentration cause the

a) Acidity of water b) Alkalinity of water c) a & bd) None

272. Alkalinity range for productive water

a) >10 ppm b) < 40 ppm c) > 40 ppm d) < 10 ppm

273. Lake which undergo a regular annual alternation of summer and inverse winter stratification
a) Temperate lake b) Polar lake c) Tropical lakes d) Amictic lakes

274. Lake which the water never cooled below 4oC and stratified
a) Polar lake b) Tropical lakes c) Temperate lake d) None

275. Lake which the water temperature never rise above 4 oC and inversely stratified
a) Amictic lakes b) Temperate lake c) Polar lake d) None

276. Lakes sealed off perennially by ice from most annual temperature variation
a) Warm monomictic lakes b) Amictic lakes c) Dimictic lake d) None

277. Lakes with temperature average greater than 4 oC and one period of circulation
a) Cold monomictic lakes b) Dimictic lake
c) Warm monomictic lakes d) None

278. Lake which circulate twice a year (in spring and fall)
a) Dimictic lake b) Warm monomictic lakes
c) Cold monomictic lakes d) None

279. Lake with temperature always deep below 4oC and circulate freely in winter
a) Dimictic lake b) cold monomictic lakes
c) Amictic lakes d) None

280. Circulation period at irregular interval with temperature above 4 oC

a) Oligometric lake b) Polymictic lakes
c) Cold monomictic lakes d) Dimictic lake

281. Lake with frequent or continuous circulation

a) Polymictic lakes b) Dimictic lake c) Amictic lakes d) None

282. Neritic zone extend up to

a) 100 to 200 m b) 50 to 200 m c) 200 to 250 m d) 0 to 200 m

283. Disphotic zone extends up to depth of

a) 150 to 400 m b) 250 to 400 m c) 200 to 400 m d) 350 to 400 m

284. Aphotic zone extends up to depth of

a) Beyond 400m (no light) b) < 400m c) beyond 500 m d) None

285. Heterogenous atmosphere layer is preset in

a) Above 90 kms b) Above 60 kms c) < 90 kms d) a & c

17
286. Lowest layer of earth atmospheres
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Ionosphere d) None

287. The next layer above or beyond troposphere

a) Mesosphere b) Ionosphere c) Stratosphered) None

288. Ozone concentration is highest in

a) Stratosphere b) Ionosphere c) Troposphere d) None

289. Mesosphere extends up to height

a) 70 to 90 km b) 80 to 90 km c) 90 to 100 km d) 60 to 80 km

290. Thermosphere layer extends up to

a) 200km b) 350km c) 500km d) 450km

291. The ozone hole is as large as

a) 5 times the size of India b) 3 times the size of India
c) 8 times the size of India d) 6 times the size of India

292. Mercuric barometer is also known as

a) Fortin’s barometer b) Kew’s barometer c) a & b d) None

293. Amount of water vapour in gm present in 1kg weight air

a) Specific humidity b) Specific gravity c) Specific density d) None

294. Instrument used to measure humidity

a) Psychrometer b) Naphlometer c) Thermo meter d) None

295. Changing temperature of a mass without transfer of heat

a) Adiabatic change b) Stratification c) Destratification d) None

296. Instrument used to measure relative humidity

a) Thermograph b) Hydrograph c) a & b d) None

297. Cloud was classified by

a) Luke Howard(1803) b) Hynes c) Pritchard d) None

298. Introduction to limnology written by

a) S.Wetch (1935), America b) G.E. Hutching
c) R.G. Neteel d) None

299. ‘Limnology’ written by

a) R.G. Neteel (1975) b) Hynes c) William d) None

300. ‘Ecology of Running water’

a) R.G. Netedl b) H.B.N. Hynes (1972) c) Hynes d) None

301. Pioneer limnologist of India

a) Ganapathi b) Sriveevasan c) Banerjee d) All

302. Lake with no productivity is call

a) Dystrophic lake b) Oligomictic lake c) Subtropical lake d) None

303. Pyramid of number was advanced by

a) Hynes b) Charles Elton (1927) c) Pritchard d) None

18
304. The production of organic matter by way of photosynthesis
a) Gross primary production b) Net Primary Production
c) Gross secondary Production d) Net Secondary Production

305. Amount of organic material synthesis by photosynthetic organism to excess of that respired of
excreted
a) Net primary production b) Net Secondary Production
c) Gross secondary Production d) None

306. Horse –shoe shaped lake is

a) Yercaud lake b) Kodaikanal lake c) Ooty lake d) None

307. Cresent –shaped natural water body

a) Logtak lake b) Nainital lake c) Yercaud lake d) a & b

308. Logtak lake situated in

a) Palani Hills b) Manipur c) Shevary hills d) None

309. Largest reservoir in India is

a) Hirakud b) Gandhisagar c) Rehand d) b & c

310. Deepest reservoir is

a) Manimuthar b) Pechiparai c) Vidur d) a & b

311. Soft water reservoirs are

a) Amaravathy b) Bhavanisagar, Stanely c) Aliyar d) All

312. Hard water reservoir

a) Sathanur b) Krishnagiri c) Stanely d) a & b

313. Biggest reservoir in Rajasthan is

a) Rana Pratap sagar b) Nagarjuna sagar
c) Govindasagar Reservoir d) None

314. Definition of Estuary has been given by

a) Pritchard b) Hynes c) William d) None

315. Drowned river vallays also called as

a) Coastal plain estuaries b) Fords
c) Bar-built estuaries d) None

316. Shallowest reservoir is

a) Manimuthar b) Pechiparai c) Vidur d) None

317. Oceanology is a better description of the current state of ocean research because
a) More people are doing research than in the past.
b) Geographers now do what oceanographers once did
c) Scientific techniques and methods are being applied to the study of the ocean
d) None

318. Alfred wegner’s hypothesis of continental drift was rejected because

a) Continental outlines do not really fit when continents are placed together
b) a & c
c) Continents could not possibly plow through the denser and stronger sea floor
d) None

19
319. Rift valleys along the oceanic ridge crests are:
a) Bounded by normal faults formed as the ridge pulls apart and the center subsides
b) Is where all of the sea floor begins.
c) Areas of tension
d) All

320. Magnetic anomalies on the sea floor result from

a) Orientation of the paleomagnetic fields of the rocks on the sea floor
b) Change in rock type from basaltic to andesitic towards the island areas
c) a & b
d) All of the above

321. Paleomagnetism results from which of the following

a) Magnetic polar reversals b) Magnetic polar normals
c) a & b d) Alignment of some magnetic minerals in rock

322. For terrigenous sediments

a) Rate of erosion strongly influence the nature of the sediments
b) Their nature strongly reflects their source material
c) a & b
d) All of the above

323. Authigenic sediments

a) Are only found on the deep-sea floor
b) Form by the conversion of biogenic sediments into metal-rich compounds
c) a & b
d) Tend to be more abundant if terrigenous, biogenic and volcanogenic sediments are
absent.

324. The stratigraphy (layering) of sediments in the Pacific Basin is more complex than in the Atlantic
Basin because:
a) The Pacific Basin is larger and deeper
b) Plate tectonics are slower in the Pacific than in the Atlantic
c) The pacific plate moves across several climatic zones and the Atlantic does not
d) None

325. Electrons
a) Leave or join an atom in the formation of iron b) Have a negative electrical charge
c) Travel in orbits around the nucleus d) All of the above

326. Solids differ from liquids in that

a) Solids possess greater
b) Solids must release heat to form a liquid
c) In liquids the atoms and molecules possess more kinetic energy
d) None

327. All of the following are unique properties of water except

a) High melting point b) Great heat capacity
c) Great solvent power d) Great contraction as freezes

328. The hydrogen bond is important because

a) It indirectly makes ice less dense than water
b) It attracts the water molecules to each other to form hexagonal patterns
c) It makes water below 3.98oC less dense
d) All of the above

20
329. Inert gases are
a) Highly reactive and used by pants in photosynthesis
b) Type of nutrients called noble gases
c) Released by organisms when they decompose
d) Components of the dissolved gases in the sea and are chemically un-reactive.

330. Based upon the principle of constant proportions

a) Salinity never changes within the ocean
b) The rations of various salts are unstable in volcanic areas
c) The residence time of salts are very long
d) Clorinity provides a good basis for determining salinity

331. Salt sinks reduce the amount of salt in the sea and include all of the following except:
a) Formation of evaporates b) Formation of shells
c) Absorption of ions by clays d) Dilution of salt by springs and rivers

332. The thermocline in the ocean

a) Is a temporary feature in the tropics and subtropics
b) Is a zone of rapid increase in temperature with depth
c) Reflects not only a change in temperature, but also a change in density
d) All of the above

333. The halocline in the ocean

a) Is a zone of rapid decrease in salinity with depth in the subtropics
b) Is likely to exist wherever evaporation and precipitation are equal
c) Is prevalent in the subpolar and polar regions
d) None

334. The saturation value for gas

a) Is a relative amount dependent upon temperature, salinity and pressure
b) Is exceeded when water is under saturated
c) Is exceeded when salinity decreases
d) None

335. The pH of ocean water

a) Is buffered by the presence of CO2 b) Decreases as the abundance of CO 2 increases
c) Is lower in the deep ocean than the surface d) All of the above

336. Ocean water

a) Represents 79% of all the water on Earth
b) Is constantly recycled among the land, ocean and atmosphere
c) Is second in abundance to groundwater
d) All of the above

337. All of the following are methods of desalinization except

a) Reverse osmosis b) Electro dialysis
c) Freezing d) Dilution of salt water with fresh

338. Sea ice

a) Begins as needles and can eventually grow into icebergs
b) Can form pancake ice
c) Forms pressure ridges where icebergs collide
d) All of the above

21
339. Light in the ocean
a) Penetrates to the bottom of the deep ocean
b) Can only travel downward to the bottom
c) Cannot exist in the aphotic zone
d) Is mostly absorbed and converted to heat within the first meter of depth

340. The speed of sound in the ocean

a) Initially decreases, then increases and finally decreases with depth
b) I fairly uniform throughout the ocean
c) Is at a maximum in the SOFAR channel
d) Has a shallow maximum speed and deeper minimum speed

341. The sea surface microlayer

a) Is devoid of life b) Extends to a depth of several centimeters
c) Is highly distorted as bubbles pass through d) Is in the aphotic zone

342. Which of the following is likely to be the least dense air mass
a) Warm dry air b) Cold dry air c) Warm moist air d) None

343. The change in air pressure between two locations relative to the distance between them is called as
a) Low pressure zone b) High pressure zone
c) Wind d) Pressure gradient

344. The global wind pattern is cause by

a) Differential solar heating b) Coriolis deflection
c) Hadley, Ferrel and Polar cells d) All of these

345. The coriolis deflection is

a) To the right of the direction of travel in both hemispheres
b) To the left of the direction of travel in both hemispheres
c) To the right of the direction of travel in only the southern hemisphere
d) To the left of the direction of travel in only the southern hemisphere

346. The generation of ocean currents by winds is

a) Not influenced by Coriolis
b) Largely produced by waves
c) The result of molecules of air colliding with molecules of water at the ocean surface
d) Unrelated to the Eckman spiral and Eckman transport

347. This fundamental and unchanging property of a wave can be used to classify them
a) Wave length b) Wave height c) Wave period d) None

348. All of the following determine the size and type of wind-generated waves
a) Wind velocity b) Wind duration c) Wind height d) Fetch

349. As wind speed increases across a wide area of the open ocean, which of the following would be
expected to increase?
a) Wave length, wave period and wave stability
b) Wave length, wave period and wave refraction
c) Wave length, wave period and wave refraction
d) None

350. In a fully developed sea

a) Both progressive and standing waves will be present
b) All of the waves present are of a significant wave height

22
 c) Waves are as large as they can be under current conditions
d) None

351. Mass transport

a) Is another name for Eckman transport b) Is greater as water depth increases
c) Is greater as water depth decreases d) Decreases as wavelength increases

352. Celerity is
a) Velocity of form, not of mass b) The same as speed
c) Greater as wave height increases d) None

353. Wave interference

a) Can be both constructive and destructive, depending upon which parts of two waves
momentarily overlap
b) Will produce a higher when ever it occurs
c) Can only occur in progressive surface waves
d) None

354. As waves migrate from the area of fetch

a) They undergo dispersion and become sorted by height
b) They undergo dispersion and become sorted by wavelength and speed
c) They are transformed into intermediate-water waves
d) They become rogue waves

355. As a wave enters shallow water all of the following occur except
a) Wave period remains the same b) Wave height increases
c) Wave stability increases d) None

356. Wave refraction

a) Occurs mainly with deep-water waves
b) Increases the period of the wave
c) Means that when the wave breaks it will be nearly parallel to the shoreline
d) None

357. Wave orthogonal

a) Demonstrate that wave energy is focused in bays
b) Demonstrate that wave energy is unfocused on headlands
c) Predict significant wave height
d) Predict where along a coast waves can be expected to be larger or smaller

358. Waves break

a) Only in shallow water
b) Only if wind-generated
c) Only on the water surface
d) Whenever wave height divided by wavelength is greater than one seventh

359. All of the following are true except

a) Spilling breakers generally move across a broad, gentle surf zone
b) Surging breakers reflect much of their energy
c) Spilling breaks expend most of their energy collapsing on the seashore
d) None

360. Standing wave

a) Can be formed by storm surges b) Possess nodes and antinodes
c) Can occur on the surface and on pycnoclines d) All of the above

23
361. Resonance in standing waves
a) Causes the displacement at the antinodes to increase
b) Causes the displacement at the node to increase
c) Occurs when the period of the basin is one-half of the period of the standing wave
d) All of the above

362. Internal waves, compared to surface waves, generally display

a) Greater speed b) Less wave stability
c) Longer wave length d) All of the above

363. Tsunamis
a) Produce rogue waves in the deep ocean b) Pose a great danger to ships on the open ocean
c) Are only a danger in coastal areas d) Can be produced by hurricanes

364. Methods of measuring aspects of waves include all of the following

a) Pressure sensors on the sea floor b) Satellite imagery
c) Floats carried along by the waves d) None

365. Capillary waves

a) Expend most of their energy overcoming surface tension
b) Expend most of their energy overcoming surface tension
c) Have very short periods
d) All of the above

366. Solitary waves and waves of translation both

a) Are solitary waves and consist only of crests
b) Display incomplete orbital motion
c) Are the rush of water up the beach face after a breaker collapses
d) None

367. The tides are

a) The regular rise and fall of sea level caused by the Sun and the Moon
b) The rotary migration of an inclined water surface about an ocean basin
c) Periodic and predictable
d) All of the above

368. Tidal ranges

a) Are the same along all coasts everywhere
b) Reach a maximum and minimum once each month
c) a & b
d) Are the difference between low and high tide and this value daily

369. Tidal period is

a) The time between a consecutive high and low tide
b) Between 12 hr 25min, and 24 hr 50min.
c) Longer for neap tides than spring tides
d) All the above

370. All of the following are true except

a) Diurnal tides have a period of 24 hours
b) Diurnal tides have one high and one low tide each day
c) a & b
d) Semidiurnal tides have a period of 18 hr 12min.

24
371. Neap tides
a) Occur twice each month and correspond to phases of the Moon
b) Occur twice each month and correspond to the phases of the Sun
c) Have a maximum tidal range
d) Do not occur in areas which experience a diurnal tide

372. The forces creating the tide are

a) Ocean currents pushing water against the landmass
b) A combination of all of the above
c) Gravitational and centrifugal effects of the Sun and the Moon
d) All of the above

373. The Moon is more important for creating the tides than the Sun because
a) It is closer to the Earth
b) It is bigger than the Sun
c) It orbits the Earth faster than the Earth orbits the Sun
d) None

374. The Sun and the Moon

a) Each create gravitational bulges and centripetal bulges in the ocean
b) Each create centrifugal bulges and gravitational bulges in the ocean
c) a & b
d) None

375. Amphidromic systems

a) Rotate in the same directions as the gyres flow
b) Display combined properties of standing and progressive waves
c) Occur in ocean, seas and long, narrow embayments
d) Only occur with the spring tides

376. The most complete definition of ecology is

a) The study of where organisms live
b) The study of what organisms do to survive
c) The study of the interrelationship between organisms and their environment
d) The study of environmental change

377. In terms of light penetration in the ocean

a) The photic zone is well lighted and the dysphotic is permanently dark
b) There is light in the aphotic zone, but insufficient for photosynthesis
c) The maximum depth of light penetration is about 1000 m in clear seawater
d) The dysphotic zone is lighted, but insufficiently for photosynthesis

378. The monera include

a) Foraminifera, green algae and diatoms b) Bacteria and blue-green algae
c) Fungi, bacteria and blue-green algae d) None of the above

379. The protista include

a) Single-cell organisms with no nucleus
b) Multi-cell organisms with nuclei
c) Bacteria, diatoms, radiolarians and foraminifera
d) Single-cell organisms with a nucleus

380. The metaphyta are

a) All of the plants in the sea
b) Red, brown and green algae and the advanced plants in the sea and coastal areas

25
 c) All of the advanced animals in the sea
d) All of the advanced plants and animals in the sea

381. In terms of major marine organism lifestyles, all of the following are correct
a) Nekton are active swimmers that have some ability to swim against a current
b) Benthic organisms live on or in the bottom sediments
c) Organisms do not change their lifestyle during their life
d) Benthic and planktonic plants are restricted by depth

382. The best definition of an ecosystem is

a) What an organism does to survive in an environment
b) Where an organism lives within an environment
c) The total environment including biota and the non-living physical and chemical
aspects
d) None

383. Temperature can control the distribution of organisms

a) By controlling or limiting an organism’s predators
b) By controlling diseases to which an organism is susceptible
c) By limiting an organism’s ability to reproduce
d) All of the above

384. In terms of salinity

a) A marine organism placed in fresh water will likely dehydrate
b) Freshwater organisms rarely drink and produce abundant, dilute urine
c) a & b d) None

385. Hydrostatic pressure

a) Decreases as salinity increases and as temperature decreases
b) Varies by about 1 atmosphere for each 10m change in depth
c) Decreases with depth
d) Causes water to be greatly compressed`

386. Most marine plants are unicellular because

a) It makes holdfasts unnecessary
b) Frustrules can not be built to a larger size
c) Small size reduces the problem of sinking
d) They are less likely to be eaten

387. In diatom reproduction

a) Each new shell secretes a new hypotheca to form a complete frustule
b) Rapid reproduction can result in a diatom bloom
c) The epitheca of one frustule becomes the hypotheca of its descendant
d) All of the above

388. Forminifera
a) Construct shells of silica b) Have more pelagic forms than benthonic
c) Feed by digesting food outside of their shells d) Are commonly multicellular

389. To move smoothly through water, the body of an organism

a) Must reduce surface drag, by having a blunt leading end and tapering tail end
b) Can reduce all forms of drag by having a torpedo- shaped body
c) a & b
d) None

26
390. In terms of predation success rates
a) Torpedo-shaped fish tend to have a low success rate
b) Elongated-body fish tend to have a high success rate
c) Body shapes between torpedo and elongated have variable success rates
d) All of the above

391. An ecosystem
a) Involves the recycling of matter and energy between organisms
b) Involves both geothermal energy from the Earth and solar energy
c) Must have a constant resupply of energy because it is gradually lost as heat
d) All of the above

392. Autotrophs
a) Are all photosynthetic
b) Convert carbon dioxide and water to sugar and nitrogen
c) Do not respire
d) Determine the amount of biomass supported by successive trophic levels

393. Bacteria can

a) Photosynthesize b) Chemosynthesize
d) Serve as a food source of other organisms d) All of the above

394. All of the following are life styles of animals

a) Grazers b) Producers c) Scavengers d) Predators

395. Volcanic vent communities

a) Die when venting of hot water ceases
b) Consist mainly of bacteria, tube works, clams and mussels
c) Have chemosynthetic bacteria as the autotrophs and are independent of the sun
d) All of the above

396. Primary production

a) Is the same above and below the compensation depth
b) Is dependent on the amount of nutrients and sunlight available in most ecosystems
c) Is based upon the amount of biomass that is uneaten by herbivores
d) All of the above

397. The compensation depth

a) Is where net productivity equals zero b) Is in the aphotic zone
c) a & b d) None

398. Nutrients
a) Are more abundant above the dysphotic zone than below it
b) Will be the controlling factor in productivity if sunlight is unlimited
c) a & b
d) None

399. Upwelling
a) Occurs in the tropics between the major gyres
b) Re-supplies nutrients to the surface waters
c) Tends to be seasonal in the temperate regions
d) All of the above

400. All of the following exert some direct or indirect control on primary productivity
a) Latitude b) Grazing pressure c) Turbidity d) Length of food chain

27
401. Nitrogen is usually the limiting nutrient in the ocean because
a) It is relatively rare at the Earth’s surface
b) It is a micronutrient
c) It is needed in large quantities and is released slowly by decay
d) None

402. Potential production

a) Is dependent on the transfer efficiency with in a food chain
b) Is directly related to the primary production
c) Is a function of the area of ocean for which a given annual primary production is appropriate
d) All of the above

403. EI Nino
a) Is a time of prolific algae growth, but little fish reproduction in the coastal waters
b) Is related to the cooling of the tropical Pacific Ocean
c) Can lead of massive starvation of fish-dependent species
d) All of the above

404. Long shore currents

a) Become stronger as the angle of wave approach decrease
b) Become stronger as waves become larger
c) occur in the offshore waters
d) All of the above

405. Wave set-up

a) Refers to the wave-induced accumulation of water against the shore
b) Is influenced by refraction
c) Can produce long shore currents
d) All

406. Rip currents

a) Are allow, narrow, deep currents directed seaward
b) Form where opposing long shore currents meet
c) Create tidal inlets
d) All

407. Beach profiles

a) Can indicate if there is a positive, negative or steady-state sand budget
b) Will display expansion of the beach during times when swells dominate
c) Will probably display distinct seasonality to the beach
d) All

408. Coastal dunes

a) Are constructed by offshore winds transporting sediment from inland to the beach
b) Tend to be larger if the tidal range is smaller
c) Can migrate with time
d) All of the above

409. Barrier Islands

a) Migrate land ware as sea level rises
b) Have sediment transported from the seaward side to the landward side to the landward side of the
island
c) a & b
d) None

28
 410. Barrier islands can originate in all the following ways except
a) Breaching of a spit during a storm
b) vertical growth and emergence of a long shore bar
c) Offshore sand dune construction by the wide
d) All

411. Tidal inlets

a) Tend to be preserved once formed
b) Generally are eroded from the seaward side landward
c) Begin as washover fans and are deepened and widened by washover currents
d) All

412. Cliffed coasts

a) Develop a wave-cut platform as they recede
b) Are frequently breached by storm surge
c) All
d) None

413. Major factors controlling the rate of cliff erosion include all of the following, except
a) Joints, fractures and faults b) Amount of rainfall
c) Hight of cliff d) All

414. Deltas
a) Are continuously subsiding as the sediment of the delta compacts
b) Begin their development as sand dunes which migrate offshore
c) All
d) None

415. Jetties
a) Accrete sand on their down drift side b) Show the velocity of currents in an inlet
c) Can accrete sand within harbor mouths d) All

416. Breakwater
a) Are built perpendicular to the beach
b) Interfere with the long shore drift of sand
c) Accretes sand on the side facing the ocean
d) All

417. A seawall
a) Decreases wave turbulence b) Prevents shoreling erosion during storms
c) Narrows a beach d) None

418. All of the following are ways in which estuaries form except
a) Flooding of river valleys b) Tectonic uplifts.
c) Erosion of barrier islands d) None

419. The type of estuary that develops is strongly controlled by

a) River discharge relative to tidal mixing b) Thermal stratification
c) Flocculation and shoaling d) All

420. In salt-wedge estuaries

a) The water column is highly stratifies b) Sediments are dominantly from the river
c) a & b d) None

421. In contrast to estuaries, subtropical lagoons

29
 a) Tend to be isothermal b) Have lower productivity
c) Display increased salinity away from the tidal inlet d) All
422. Salt marshes
a) Are typically barren of vegetation b) Are rarely flooded by tides
c) Are highly productive d) None

423. Differences between high and low salt marshes include all of the following except
a) Height to which tides flood b) Amount of sunlight received
c) Type of vegetation d) None

424. Mangroves
a) Form the base of the food chain in the mangrove swamps
b) Are replaced by salt marshes in cooler climates
c) a&b
d) None

425. Coral reef

a) Only live in the tropical and subtropical oceans b) Are only built by hermatypic corals
c) Pass through a series of stages from fringe reef to atolld) All

426. The coral organism

a) Is a plant
b) Has a sac-like body and its mouth is surrounded by tentacles
c) a & b
d) None

427. The progression from fringe reef to barrier reef to atoll results from all of the following reasons
except
a) Erosion on the landward side of the coral reef b) Sea level rises
c) Land subsides d) Coral grows upwards towards the sunlight

428. The defining differences between the stages of salt marsh development are
a) Productivity
b) Amount of low marsh relative to the amount of high marsh
c) Height to which tides flood
d) Age of the marsh

429. In the neritic zone

a) The major predaceous fish species display schooling
b) Diatoms and dinoflagellates are the major phytoplankton
c) All
d) None

430. The advantages of schooling include all of the following except

a) To a predator the school may appear as a single large organism
b) Hunting efficiency for predators is low
c) It is easier for the school to find food because so many fish are searching together
d) None

431. Fish schools typically

a) Consist of many fish of different sizes, sexes, and even species
b) Vary in size up to about 10,000 individuals
c) Perform complex movements in uniform
d) All

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432. In the sublittoral zone
a) Energy in the environment has a strong control over the type of sediments and the
biota
b) Filter feeders are commonly found on muddy substrates
c) Filter feeders are commonly found on muddy substrates
d) All

433. Bottom energy conditions are important for organisms because

a) High energy can make it difficult for epifauna to become established
b) It determines the type of sediment that will collect
c) High energy can sweep away all of the sediment and expose bare rock
d) All

434. All of the following are characteristic of a hard bottom community except
a) Rock or gravel substrate b) All filter feeders
c) Turbulent water d) Organic rich sediment

435. In soft bottom communities

a) Filter-feeding bivalves dominate in clean sand
b) Sediments are unconsolidated mud or sand
c) There are few epifaunal filter feeders
d) All

436. The open ocean is characterized by which of the following

a) Low nutrient availability b) Great depth
c) Sparse life for the volume of water d) All

437. Adaptations to the dysphotic zone include all of the following except
a) Large light- sensitive eyes
b) Semidiurnal migration of some species to feed in the surface waters
c) Use of photophores in capturing prey
d) None

438. Distinctive characteristics of fish in the aphotic zone include all of the following except
a) Blue or black pigmentation b) Greatly expandable stomach
c) Small size d) A jaw that can be unhinged

439. Bioluminescence
a) Is produced by bacteria b) Is concentrated in photophores
c) Is used for species identification d) All

440. Evolutionary developments of the penguins include all excepts

a) Thin flexible bones b) Thick layers of fatty tissue for insulation
c) Waterproof feathers d) Small wings

441. Petroleum and natural gas

a) Are usually recovered from shales ad muds.
b) Result from melting of ice and condensation of gas hydrates
c) Migrate upward from the source rock until they become trapped by an
impermeable layer
d) None

442. Gas hydrates

a) Are deposits of ice with molecules of methane entrapped b) Form in polar regions
c) a & b d) None

31
443. Sand and gravel deposits
a) Can be recovered from the shelf with little threat to marine life
b) Are used in construction and road building
c) Occur primarily below wave base
d) All

444. Manganese nodules

a) Contain about 7% manganese
b) To be recovered from the ocean floor would require approval of the International
Seabed Authority
c) Are rich in magnesium
d) All

445. Phosphate nodules

a) Occur in area of high productivity
b) Grow rapidly at a rate between 1 and 10 cm/yr
c) Form from inorganic material in the sediment
d) None

446. The fishing industry

a) Mainly catches fish which display schooling
b) Has probably reached maximum systainable yield
c) a & b
d) None

447. Mariculture
a) Is only done with shellfish and finfish
b) Accounts for one in every four fish eaten
c) Can be done for most fish species
d) All

448. Species used for mariculture display all of the following except
a) Marketability b) Slow growth
c) Trophically efficient d) Disease resistance

449. Pollution includes all of the following except

a) Increase in heavy metals released into the sea as a by-product of manufacturing
b) Release of petroleum from rocks of the continental shelf
c) Dispersants used to clean and oil spill
d) Municipal effluent

450. Pollution
a) Is all man-made b) Tends to settle on the pysnocline in estuaries
c) a & b d) None

451. Petroleum
a) Is highly uniform in composition
b) Can be distilled into crude oil and refined oil
c) Can do damage to the marine ecosystems, even if naturally released into the environment at
oil seeps
d) All

452. When petroleum is released into the environment

32
 a) Some of the petroleum evaporates b) Some of the petroleum evaporates
c) a & b d) None
453. Methods of dealing with petroleum spills include all of the following except
a) Floating booms to help contain the spill
b) Bioremediation with bioengineered microorganisms that more efficiently degrade the spill
c) Chemical dispersants
d) Burning the oil

454. Sewage
a) Typically has human wastes as a major component b) Can contain disease-causing pathogens
c) Can contain heavy metals d) All

455. Heavy metals

a) Occur normally in the sea in trace amounts b) Are not necessary for life
c) None d) All

456. Artificial biocides

a) Are all insecticides such as DDT b) Can biomagnify and bioaccumulate
c) Tend to be stored in the muscles of organisms d) All

457. Ocean dredging and dumping

a) Are responsible for most of the material dumped into the sea
b) Can lead to a change in the fauna if the substrate is sufficiently altered
c) a & b
d) None

458. Hydraulic pumping to recover deep-sea deposits

a) Selectively removes minerals and leaves organisms undisturbed by using screens.
b) May decrease phytoplankton production
c) a & b
d) None

459. Over fishing

a) Is possible because of the advances in modern technology
b) Occurs because maximum sustainable yields are set too low
c) a & b
d) None

460. The maximum sustainable yield is influenced by all of the following except
a) Size of fish catches b) Predation and disease
c) Size of fish stocks d) Fishing techniques

461. Global warming

a) Is greater in the polar regions than in the tropics
b) will cause the melting of the glaciers in Greenland and Antarctica
c) Could change wind patterns and rainfall patterns
d) All

462. Which of the following best describes Earth’s crust?

a) Outer part of the lithosphere and above the moho
b) Least dense part of the Earth upon which the hydrosphere and atmosphere sit
c) a & b
d) None

463. Which of the following best describes the mantle

33
 a) Extends from the base of the lithosphere to the core, at about 2900 km
b) Is separated from the core by the moho
c) All
d) None

464. Which of the following always favors melting

a) Increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
b) Decreasing pressure and increasing temperature
c) a & b
d) None

465. Which of the following sets of Earth layers are at least partially liquid?
a) Crust, mantle, core
b) Lithosphere, mantle, inner core
c) Asthenosphere, outer core and hydrosphere
d) None

466. Which best describes the difference between the continental shelf, slope, and rise
a) They mainly differ in slope and depth
b) The shelf is mainly sedimentary but the slope and rise are volcanic
c) a & b
d) None

467. Which best describes the deep ocean province

a) Featureless plain between the continental margin and midoceanic provinces
b) Area crossed by submarine canyons
c) Highly variable region containing flat plains, trenches, hills and seamounts
d) None

468. Fracture zones are best described as

a) Faults which extend along the midoceanic ridge crests
b) Inactive parts of transform faults which extend into the deep ocean province
c) The cause of the submarine canyons on the continental slope and rise
d) None

469. The process where by ice bergs transport and randomly distribute sediments across the sea floor is
called
a) Isostacy b) Ice rafting c) Wind driven circulation d) None

470. Substances that occur in parts per billion in seawater are called
a) Major element b) Major constituent c) Trace element d) None

471. Salinity
a) Is a measure of all salts dissolved in a sample of water
b) Is a non conventional property of the sea
c) Is a measure of how much solvent has been dissolved in a solute
d) None

472. Production of fresh water from salt water is called

a) Sediment sink b) Transgression
c) Desalinization d) None

473. Factors control the speed of sound in the sea

a) Salinity b) Temperature c) Pressure d) All

34
474. In the ocean wind driven and boundary currents form a circular current called
a) Mound b) Gyre c) Guyol d) None
475. Boundary currents an curve irregularly as they flow forming a series of bonds called
a) Meanders b) Vagrant c) a & bd) None

476. Coriolis deflection increases gradually with depth as the speed of water decreases. This creates a
phenomenon known as
a) Eckman transport b) Eckman spiral c) a & b d) None

477. A wave in shallow water consisting of only a wave crest is

a) Capillary wave b) Solitary wave c) a & b d) None

478. As glaciers melted, they frequently deposited ridges of sediment called

a) Macro tidal b) Peat c) Moraine c) None

479. A reef that is separated from the adjacent land mass by a lagoon
a) Barrier reef b) Atoll c) Fringing reef d) None

480. An instrument records depth and temperature in water less than about 300 meters deep
a) Thermistor b) Bathythermograph c) a & b d) None

481. Sediment that originates in outer space

a) Lithogenic sediment b) Biogenic sediment c) Cosmogenic sediment d) None

482. A special type of estuary that is narrow and deep, and was excavated by glaciers
a) Bar built estuaries b) Fjords c) a & b d) None

483. A reef that is immediately adjacent to a land mass without the presence of a lagoon
a) Atoll b) Barrier reef c) Fringing reef d) None

484. The length of time a given element would be expected to remain in solution in the ocean assuming a
steady flow and equilibrium conditions
a) Residence time b) Tidal period c) Transmission time d) None

485. The study of earth quakes or earth vibrations

a) Oceanology b) Seismology c) Hydrology d) None

486. The amount of living tissue per unit area or volume at a given point in time
a) Standing crop b) Total biomass c) a & b d) None

487. The type of estuary that is characterized by a distinct horizontal layering between the overlying fresh
water and the underlying saltwater is
a) Barbuilt estuary b) Fjords c) Stratifed estuary d) None

488. Oceanic sediment derived from land and transported by bottom currents
a) Cosmogenous sediment b) Terrigenous sediment
c) Lithegenous sediment d) None

489. The regular and predictable change in water elevation caused by the mass attraction of the earth,
moon and sun
a) Wave b) Tide c) Crust d) None

490. A very long period and high velocity sea wave produced by some disturbance on the floor of ocean
a) Neap tide b) Volcanic eruption c) Tsunamis d) None

35
491. The amount of water exchanged in a given area during the tidal cycle
a) Tidal prism b) Tidal inlet c) Tidal flat d) None
492. The time that is takes for two successive corresponding points on a wave to pass a given point
a) Wave period b) Wave amplitude c) Tidal period d) None

493. The vertical distance between the wave crest and the adjacent and trough is
a) Wave length b) Wave height c) Wave amplitude d) None

494. The tidal range between 2 and 4 meters

a) Mesotidal b) Microtidal c) Macotidal d) None

495. The tidal range that is less than 2 meter

a) Mesotidal b) Microtidal c) Trace tidal d) None

496. The first person systematically study life in the sea

a) Mathew b) W.B. carpenter c) Edward forbes d) None

497. The world’s first oceanographer is

a) M.F. Maury b) Edward forbes c) Charles d) None

498. Salinity
a) 1.80655 X Chlorinity b) 1.80655 + Chlorinity
c) 1.80655 – Chlorinity d) None

499. The average pH of seawater is

a) 7.8 b) 8.7 c) 6.5 d) None

500. The movement of an object over a rotating sphere is influenced by the earth’s gravity field, so the
object appears to move in a curved path ralha than a straight line. This phenomenon is called
a) Eckman spiral b) Coriolis effect
c) Eckman transport d) None

501. For effective sampling, plankton gauze should possess

a) The meshes should be square and the mesh aperture uniform
b) The porosity should not change when the net is immersed in sea water
c) The gauze should resist clogging and allow complete removal of material after use
d) All

502. The net designed for rapid towing, is mainly used for horizontal collection of plankton belonging to a
specific stratum
a) Clarke Bumpus horizontal closing net b) Hardy’s continuous plankton net
c) a & b d) None

503. The net primarily intended for catching zooplanktons which make diurnal vertical migrations
a) Beyer’s Epibenthic closing net b) Clarke Bumpus horizontal closing net
c) Hardy’s continuous plankton net d) None

504. Narcotising agent used for identification of zooplankton is

a) Mgcl2 . 6H2O b) MgSO2 . 7H2O c) a & b d) None

505. The important methods of estimating the biomass of zooplankton include

a) Volume method b) Gravimetric method
c) Individual species dry weight method d) All

506. Deep scattering layer caused by vertical migration of

36
 a) Siphonophores b) Euphausids
c) a & b d) None
507. Example for bioluminescent zooplankton
a) Ctenophores, Medusae b) Siphonophores
c) Ostracods, Euphausids d) All

508. Coriolis effect was first described by

a) Gaspard Gustave de coriolis b) Eckman c) F. Maury d) None

509. Process for desalting (Desalination) water is

a) Process involving phase exchange (evaporation, distillation and freezing)
b) Process involving semi permeable membrane (Electrodialysis and Reverse osmosis)
c) Process involving chemical equlibria
d) All

510. Match the following

a) Asthenosphere - Gaseous layer surrounding the solid Earth (b)
b) Atmosphere - Mass/ volume (g/cm3) (d)
c) Crust - All the free water on the Earth (e)
d) Density - Outer most shell of the solid Earth (c)
e) Hydrosphere - Partially melted mantle (a)

511. a) Inner Core - Combined crust and outer rigid mantle (c)
b) Liquid - Solid layer of iron and nickel alloys (a)
c) Lithosphere - Consists of lower lithosphere, asthenosphere, and mesosphere (d)
d) Mantle - Solid mantle directly above the core (e)
e) Mesosphere - Physical state when temperature exceeds melting point (b)

512. a) Pitcha varam mangrove - State when pressure raises melting point above existing (e)
temperature
b) Ribandar mangrove - Cauvery delta (a)
c) Sunderbans - Liquid layer composed of iron and nickel alloys (d)
d) Outer Core - Goa. (b)
e) Solid - West Bengal (c)

513. a. Limnetic plankton - Salt water plankton (d)

b. Pheo plankton - Lake plankton (a)
c. Heleo plankton - Brackish water plankton. (e)
d. Hali plankton - Pond plankton (c)
e. Hypalmyro plankton - Running water (b)

514. a) Holo plankton - Debris mingled in plankton (d)

b) Mero plankton - True plankton (c)
c) Eu plankton - Free floating throughout their life (a)
d) Pseudo plankton - U-shaped estuary (e)
e) Fjord - Free floating only at certain times (b)
515. a) Lok tak lake - Andhra Pradesh (e)
b) Chilka lake - Tamil Nadu (d)
c) Samphar lake - Orissa (b)
d) Pulicat lake - Manipur (a)
e) Koleru lake - Rajasthan (c)

516. a) Elnino - Internal wave (b)

b) Gulf stream - Surface currents (c)
c) Seiches - Coral (d)
37
 d) Atolls - Sea floor spreading (e)
e) Tectonics - Upwelling (a)
517. a) Poitive estuary - Moderate oxygen concentration (b)
b) Negative estuary - Low oxygen concentration (a)
c) Cohesion - Extraterrestrial particles (d)
d) Cosmogenic sediment - Small particles that sticking together (c)

518. a) Hjulstrom Diagram - Name for sediment derived from land (d)
b) Mud - Relates energy to transport, erosion and deposition of sediment (a)
c) Relict sediment - Name for mixture of silt and clay (b)
d) Terrigenous sediment - Grains deposited under different environmental conditions
than now exist (c)

519. a) Volcanogenic sediment - C=L/T, d>½L (c)

b) Closed basin - T = 41√gd (e)
c) Deep-water wave - ½ » d » 1/20 (d)
d) Intermediate-water wave - T=21√gd (b)
e) Open basin - Particles ejected in a volcanic eruption (a)

520. a) Shallow-water wave - H/L (b)

b) Steepness (stability) - C = √g (H + d) (c)
c) Wave of translation -½L (d)
d) Wave base - C = 3.13 √g (H + d) (a)

521. a) Physalia physalis - Largest jelly fish (d)

b) Velella velella - Saucer shaped jelly fish (c)
c) Aurelia aurita - Portuguese man-of-war (a)
d) Cyanea sp - Sailor-by-the –wind (b)

522. a) Pleurobrachia pileus - Glass worm (c)

b) Sagitta enflata - Sea gooseberry / combjelly (a)
c) Sagitta enflata - Phosphorescent (d)
d) Noctiluca milaris - Mushroom shaped jelly fish (e)
e) Periphylla periphylla - Arrow worm (b)

523. a) Hermit crab - Diogenes Diogenes (a)

b) Larvae of starfish - Bipinnaria (b)
c) Larvae of Brittlestar - Ophiopluteus (c)
d) Larvae of sea-urchin - Echinopluteus (d)

524. a) Larvae of starfish - Brachiolaria (a)

b) Larvae of secucumber - Auricularia (b)
c) Larvae of sealily - Doliolaria (c)
d) Larvae of Balanoglossus - Tornaria (d)

38