Professional Documents
Culture Documents
by
Dr. V.P.Saini
Shubham Varshney
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ISBN :
Published by :
Preface ix
1 Limnology 1
2 Microbiology 23
3 Aquaculture Engineering 34
4 Aquatic Pollution 43
5 Breeding of Finfishes 54
6 Shellfish Breeding 66
10 Ornamental 95
11 Biochemistry 143
14 Statistics 208
23 Miscellaneous 399
About the Authors
Shubham Varshney grew up in Jodhpur, Rajasthan and did his B.F.Sc from Govind
Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pantnagar in 2017 and
now pursuing his M.F.Sc (Fish Biotechnology) from Central Institute of Fisheries
Education, Mumbai.
Udai Ram Gurjar did his B.F.Sc from Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture &
Technology, Udaipur in 2014 and M.F.Sc (Fisheries Resource Management) from
College of Fisheries, Ratnagiri in 2016 and currently pursuing his Ph.D (Fisheries
Resource Management) from Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai
Preface
It gives us immense pleasure in presenting this book “Fisheries Question Book” for
various competitive exams. In this book, we have tried to present the book in a very
simple and lucid manner keeping in mind the needs and requirements of students
aspiring for ICAR-PG and higher degree courses in the field of fisheries. Besides,
this book will also be helpful in various competitive examinations conducted by
ICAR & State Public Service Commissions.
It has been experienced that students are lacking their confidence to face
objective type questions. Therefore, leaving aside all the unnecessary things, only the
essential facts have been discussed in the form of objective type questions. Further,
this book has been written in such a way that it will help students in getting higher
scores in fisheries related competitive exams.
Every effort has been made to remove the mistakes and omissions in this
book. In spite of this some mistakes can be left in this book. Any error, mistake
or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice which shall be taken care of in
our next edition
Authors
1 Limnology
1. The word “plankton” is derived from the Greek word which means
a) Wanderers b) Floaters
a) Cellulose b) Silica
c) Chitin d) Calcium
a) Epitheca b) Hypotheca
c) Frustule d) none
c) Sexual d) Spores
2 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Sardinellasirum d) Sardinelladussumierii
a) Dinoflagelates b) Cocolithophores
c) Protozoan d) Diatoms
a) Dinoflagillates b) Diatom
c) Cocolithophores d) Protozoan
a) Chrysophyceae b) Bacillariophyceae
c) Cyanophyceae d) Dinophyceae
a) Bacillariophyceae b) Cyanophyceae
c) Dinophyceae d) Chrysophyceae
a) Cocolithophores b) Protozoan
c) Dinoflagillates d) Diatoms
a) Bacillariophyceae b) Cyanophyceae
c) Dinophyceae d) Chrysophyceae
Limnology 3
a) Chlorophyceae b) Euglenophyceae
c) Dinophyceae d) Cyanophyceae
a) Chara b) Ceratophyllum
c) Typha d) None
a) Hensen b) Tausley
c) J.S.Nelson d) Carpenter
16. The organisms living on the top of the air water interface are called as
a) Infrraneuston b) Supraneuston
c) Seastin d) Nekton
a) Tansley b) Henson
c) F.A.Forael d) J.M.Mackfoarlane
19. Organisms found attached over the surface of vegetation are called as
a) Parasite b) Creepers
c) Periphyton d) Nekton
a) Heleoplankton b) Limnoplankton
c) Potamoplankton d) Euplankton
a) Heleoplankton b) Limnoplankton
c) Potamoplankton d) Rheoplankton
a) Rheoplankton b) Potamoplankton
a) Haliplankton b) Hypalmyroplankton
c) Limnoplankton d) Rheoplankton
a) Limnoplankton b) Holoplankton
c) Haliplankton d) Meroplankton
a) Meroplankton b) Holoplankton
c) Euplankton d) Haliplankton
Limnology 5
26. Organisms that are growing or moving through sans are called
a) Eudobenthos b) Psammon
c) Periphyton d) Rhizobenthos
27. Organisms that are growing or moving through mud are called
a) Herpobenthos b) Rhizobenthos
c) Psammon d) Eudobenthos
28. Organisms that are rooted in the substratum of the salted aqueous phase
are called
a) Rhizobenthos b) Periphyton
c) Herpobenthos d) Psammon
29. The total living and non living matter of aquatic body is
a) Plankton b) Neuston
c) Sestan d) Nekton
30. The species colioch are unable to tolerate any pollution are known as
a) Saproxenous b) Sapropholious
c) Saprobioutic d) Saprophobious
a) Epilimnion b) Thermoclone
a) Nekton b) Plankton
c) Sestan d) Neuston
a) h= ⅓√F b) h=1/4√F
c) h= 1√F d) h=2√F
35. The lake in which surface temperature varies above and below 4ºC
c) Ammonia d) Nitrogen
a) Lake b) Pond
c) River d) Sea
a) Baikal b) Oxbow
a) 720m b) 1620m
c) 2740m d) 4000m
a) Neuston b) Pleuston
c) Tripton d) Nekton
c) Acrolin d) Gypsum
a) 1 to 3 ppm b) 20 to 25 ppm
a) Littoral b) Limnetic
c) Benthos d) Nektons
8 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Littoral b) Limnetic
c) Benthos d) None
a) Mettur b) Bhavanisagar
c) Sathanur d) Aliyar
a) Phosphorus b) Nitrogen
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
c) Carbon d) Potash
a) 5µm b) 70-100 µm
c) 5-70 µm d)>100 µm
a) Cocareiscerticola b) Spirulina
c) Rhizosolennia d) Chaetoceras
a) Dinofalgellates b) Diatoms
c) Phytoplankton d) Zooplankton
Limnology 9
a) Auorophyceae b) Pyrrophyceae
c) Cyanophyceae d) Euglenophyceae
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
a) Oligotrophic b) Dystrophic
c) Bog d) Reservoir
a) Aldine b) DDT
a) Rhizobenthos b) Nekton
c) Epiphytes d) Periphyton
10 Fisheries Question Bank
61. The carbon di-oxide in pond water will not allow pH to fall below
a) 3.0 b) 3.5
c) 4.0 d) 4.5
63. The branch of science dealing with the study of running water is
a) Limnology b) Limnobiology
c) Rheology d) Oceanology
a) b =A/l b) A=l/b
c) Mesotrophic d) Dystrophic
a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm
a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm
a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm
a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm
a) F A Fore b) Forbes
c) Hutchinson d) F Ruttner
a) F A Forel b) Forbes
c) Hutchinson d) F Ruttner
74. Which is the first & also the oldest known limnological instrument?
75. .………… covers the maximum part of the Surface water (Freshwater)?
a) Lakes b) Swamps
c) Rivers d) Oceans
a) Autumnal Ponds
b) Vernal Ponds
c) Aestival Ponds
79. In ………… ponds water exists throughout the year but freezes during the
winter Season.
a) Autumnal Ponds
b) Vernal Ponds
c) Aestival Ponds
80. …………. lakes are few in number but are one of the largest & the oldest lakes?
a) Aeolian lakes b) Tectonically formed lakes
83. Which lake is popular for the presence of its “Floating Phumpids”.
c) Bhimtallake d) Vembanadlake
c) Bhimtallake d) Vembanadlake
Limnology 15
94. Which lake has recently got certificate from Marine Stewardship Council
of India?
a) Epilimnion b) Metalimnion
c) Hypolimnion d) All
a) Holomictic b) Meromictic
c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic
a) Meromictic b) Holomictic
c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic
a) Holomictic b) Meromictic
c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic
c) Zooplankton d) Phytoplankton
100. ………..curve is obtained while plotting the distribution of Oxygen & carbon
di oxide in oligotrophic lakes?
a) Orthograde b) Clinograde
c) Analogous d) Hetrograde
16 Fisheries Question Bank
101. ………..curve is obtained while plotting the distribution of Oxygen & carbon
di oxide in eutrophic lakes?
a) Orthograde b) Clinograde
c) Analogous d) Hetrograde
102. Which of the following property constitute the optical properties of water?
a) Turbidity b) Transparency
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) >1 b) <1
c) 0 d) -ve
a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar
a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar
a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar
a) Swamps b) Bogs
c) Fens d) All
a) Marshes b) Swamps
c) Bogs d) Fens
a) Marshes b) Swamps
c) Bogs d) Fens
a) Marshes b) Swamps
c) Bogs d) Fens
a) Marshes b) Swamps
c) Bogs d) Fens
a) Marshes b) Swamps
c) Bogs d) Fens
a) Open estuary
b) Fjord
c) Blind estuary
a) J. Lorenz b) V. Hansen
c) F. Simony d) F.A.Forel
a) Salinity b) pH
d) None
Limnology 19
a) Stenothermic b) Eurythermic
c) Homeothermic d) Poikilothermic
123. The larval forms which are present temporarily as plankton are called
___________
a) Holoplankton b) Rheoplankton
a) Diatoms b) Dinoflagellates
c) Coccolithopores d) None
125. The oceanic province which extends from 200-1000 meters in depth is
___________zone
c) Mesopelagic d) Bathypelagic
126. Water bodies containing low concentrations of nutrient are called __________
a) Oligotrophic b) Eutrophic
c) Geotrophic d) Dystrophic
20 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Carbonification b) Ammonification
c) Nitrification d) Denitrification
a) Chlorella b) Anabaena
c) Tetraselmis d) Spirulina
a) Plankton b) Seston
c) Periphyton d) Saproplankton
a) BOD b) Alkalinity
c) Acidity d) Odor
132. The organisms, which live attached to foreign body are, known as_________
a) Benthos b) Nekton
c) Periphyton d) Seston
c) Flooding d) Cyclones
Limnology 21
a) Cadmium b) Mercury
c) Lead d) Cyanide
a) Rhithron b) Potamon
c) Riffles d) Rapids
a) Streptococci b) Diplococci
c) Tetrads d) Staphylococci
a) S-ring b) P-ring
c) R-ring d) M-ring
9. Find out the odd component in concern with the cell wall of gram negative
bacteria
a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic
c) Isotonic d) Osmotic
a) Bacteria b) Fungi
c) Protozoan d) All
Microbiology 25
12. “Microbiology” is a
a) Glycolipids b) Phospholipids
c) Sphingolipids d) phareolipids
14. “Pleomorphic” is
d) All
18. Cytosol is
d) All
a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous
c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous
a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous
c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous
c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous
22. Bacteria which has two or more flagella at one end is called as
a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous
c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous
c) Cyanobacteria d) Ricketisiae
Microbiology 27
a) Mycoplasma b) Bacteria
c) Fungi d) All
a) Chloroplast b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria d) Nucleolus
a) Hyphae b) Thallus
c) Stroma c) Spore
a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota
c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota
a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota
c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota
a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota
c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota
28 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Commensalism b) Ammensalism
37. Phaeophyta is
38. Clorophyta is
39. Chrysophyta is
40. Rhodophyta is
a) Virion b) Capsid
c) Capsomere d) Spikes
a) Virion b) Capsid
c) Capsomere d) Spikes
a)10X b) 25X
c) 50X d) 100X
c) Neutral d) None
c) Neutral d) None
30 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C
c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C
a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C
c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C
a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C
c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C
a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C
c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C
a) Osmophile b) Xerophile
c) Halophile d) Alkinophile
a) Osmophile b) Xerophile
c) Halophile d) Alkinophile
Microbiology 31
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitrification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitrification
c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
32 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Antigen b) Antibody
a)Antigen b) Antibody
65. Antibody is a
a) Immunoprotein b) Glycoprotein
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
Microbiology 33
a) 4&4 b) 2&2
c) 4&2 d) 2&4
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
a) Agar b) Broath
c) Both d) G-Gel
a) Agar b) Broath
c) Both d) G-Gel
71. ……….. Used by gram negative bacteria for sexual reproduction & also for
movement.
a) Flagella b) Pilli
c) Fimbriae d) Foot
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 8
3 Aquaculture Engineering
c) Both d) None
a) Plane Surveying
b) Trigonometric Surveying
c) Angular Surveying
d) All
c) 56 feet d) 66 feet
a) 100 b) 50
c) 56 d)66
c) 56 feet d) 66 feet
a) 100 b) 50
c) 56 d) 66
c) 56 feet d) 33 feet
a) 100 b) 50
c) 56 d) 16
36 Fisheries Question Bank
11. Among the following statement which statement is not true with regards
of aquaculture engineering?
b) Pegs are used to mark the positions of the stations or terminal points of
survey lines
c) Ranging rods are used for the rough measurement of short length
a) Ranging b) Chaining
c) Taping d) Peging
13. Among the following statement which statement is true with regards of
aquaculture engineering?
a) Sextant b) Theodolite
c) Both d) Compass
15. It is the direction shown by the free floating and balanced magnetic needles?
a) True Meridian
b) Prime Meridian
c) Magnetic Meridian
d) Magnetic Poles
Aquaculture Engineering 37
16. It is the line, in which a plane passing through that point and N and S poles
intersects with surface of earth?
a) True Meridian
b) Prime Meridian
c) Compass Meridian
d) Magnetic Poles
a) Isogonic lines
b) Zoogonic lines
c) Orbital lines
d) Agonic lines
a) Isogonic lines
b) Zoogonic lines
c) Orbital lines
d) Agonic lines
c) Datum d) Station
20. Mean sea level is the average height of sea for all stages of tides, It is derived
by heights of …….years?
a) 7 b) 18
c) 19 d) 20
38 Fisheries Question Bank
21. It is the last reading taken on a rod held on a point of unknown elevations?
22. Contour is a?
d) Imaginary line on the ground joining the points of two equal elevation.
a) Cohesive soils
c) Waterproof soils
d) Aquaculture soils
24. ……. Ponds are created by constructing a dyke or embankment across the
water?
a) Excavated ponds
b) Embankment ponds
c) Both
d) None
25. ……. Ponds are created by excavating a pit across the source of water?
a) Excavated ponds
b) Embankment ponds
c) Both
d) None
Aquaculture Engineering 39
c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm
c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm
c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm
29. If the voids of soil is completely filled with water content such a sample
is called as?
c) Moist Smple
d) None
30. If the voids of soil is completely filled with air content such a sample is
called as?
c) Moist Smple
d) None
31. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Nursery pond?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 20% d) 75%
40 Fisheries Question Bank
32. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Rearing pond?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 20% d) 75%
33. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Stocking pond?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 20% d) 75%
34. What is the Ideal side slope of the pond having clayey soil?
a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1
35. What is the Ideal side slope of the pond having loamy soil?
a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1
37. ……. Is the point where the dyke slope meets the pond bottom?
a) Toe b) Trench
a) ater b) Soil
c) Air d) Land
Aquaculture Engineering 41
d) None
d) None
a) 0-90% b) 90-95%
c) 95% d) 99%
43. t is the 1st reading taken on a rod held on a point of known elevations?
44. What is the ideal side slope of the pond having sandy soil?
a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1
42 Fisheries Question Bank
45. What is the ratio of Sand, Silt and Clay in a soil which is proved to be
conductive for aquaculture purposes?
a) 3:1:2 b) 2:1:3
c) 1:2:2 d) 3:2:1
4 Aquatic Pollution
a) Strong grassy
b) Mild grassy
c) Muddy
d) Fishy
a) Strong grassy
b) Mild grassy
C) Muddy
d) Fishy
a) Strong grassy
b) Mild grassy
c) Muddy
d) Fishy
44 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1% b) 70%
c) 99% d) 30%
a) 1% b) 70%
c) 99% d) 30%
a) 1% b) 70%
c) 99% d) 30%
a) 1% b) 70%
c) 99% d) 30%
d) Both A and C
d) Both A and C
Aquatic Pollution 45
10. According to Shannon and Weiner’s Diversity Index Clean water has Diversity
Index (H)
a) >1 b) >2
c) >3 d) >4
a) 5 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
a) Preliminary b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Tertiary
a) Preliminary b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Tertiary
a) Preliminary b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Tertiary
a) Preliminary b) Primary
c) Secondary d) Tertiary
a) Sewage b) Sulage
c) Sludge d) None
46 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Sewage b) Sulage
c) Sludge d) None
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
c) Carbon d) Potassium
21. Glyphosate is a?
a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide
c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides
22. Warfarin is a?
a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide
c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides
Aquatic Pollution 47
23. Simazine is a?
a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide
c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides
24. Baluscide is a?
a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide
c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides
a) Plastics b) Bacteria
c) Oil d) DDT
a) Polyethylene b) Polypropylene
c) Polystyrene d) Phenolic
a) 9 b) 10
c) 11 D) 12
28. Paul Hermann Muller got nobel prize for DDT in the year?
a) 1929 b) 1939
c) 1940 d) 1948
a) Lindane b) PCBs
c) POPs d) Drins
48 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Lindane b) PCBs
c) POPs d) Drins
31. .………. Is the increase in the level of pollutant across the food chain?
a) Bioaccumulation b) Biomagnification
c) Bioextraction d) Bioaugmentation
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 7
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
Aquatic Pollution 49
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a) Lead b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
a)Phillipines b) China
c) Japan d) Malaysia
43. 1st incident of Minamta disease was observed in the year…… along minmata
bay, Japan?
a) 1945 b) 1956
c) 1965 d) 1951
50 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Sewage bacteria
b) Sewage protozoan
c) Sewage Fungus
d) Sewage Plant
a) Bioaccumulation
b) Biomagnification
c) Bioextraction
d) Bioaugmentation
46. It is the process by which organic wastes are biologically degraded under
controlled condition?
a) Bioaccumulation
b) Biomagnification
c) Bioextraction
d) Bioremediation
47. It is the process used by plants to accumulate contaminants into the roots
and above ground shoots or leaves?
a) Phytoaccumulation
b) Phytotransformation
c) Phytostabilization
d) Phytodegradation
Aquatic Pollution 51
48. It is the process used by plants to uptake the organic contaminants from soil?
a) Phytoaccumulation
b) Phytotransformation
c) Phytostabilization
d) Phytodegradation
49. It is the technique used by plants to reduce the stability and migration of
contaminated soil?
a) Phytoaccumulation
b) Phytotransformation
c) Phytostabilization
d) Phytodegradation
a) Phytoaccumulation
b) Phytotransformation
c) Phytostabilization
d) Phytodegradation
a) 200-4000 Bq/Kg
b) 100-200 Bq/Kg
c) 700-1000 Bq/Kg
d) 0.1-1 Bq/Kg
52 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 200-4000 Bq/Kg
b) 100-200 Bq/Kg
c) 700-1000 Bq/Kg
d) 0.1-1 Bq/Kg
a) Graciliaria b) Gelidium
c) Porphyra d) Fucus
a) 1974 b) 1977
c) 1981 d) 1986
a) 1974 b) 1977
c) 1981 d)1986
a) 1974 b) 1977
c) 1981 d) 1986
a) 1974 b) 1977
c) 1981 d) 1986
Aquatic Pollution 53
a) Hyderabad b) Bangalore
a) 87 b) 77
c) 97 d) 67
a) Cirrhinus mrigala
b) Cirrhinus molitorella
c) Mylopharyngodon piceus
d) Cirrhinus cirrhosa
5. Shooting net is a
a) Catla b) Rohu
a) 11 b) <11
b) West Bengal
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Rajasthan
a) 10% b) 20-22%
c) 33% d) 42-44%
a) 10% b) 20-22%
c) 33% d) 42-44%
a) 0% b) 20-22%
c) 33% d) 42-44%
a) 10% b) 20-22%
c) 33% d) 42-44%
a) 10% b) 16%
c) 33% d) 42-44%
a) Brazil b) India
c) France d) China
a) Nain b) Rohu
17. Among the following which freshwater fish is preferred in the collection
of pituitary gland?
a) Rohu b) Nain
18. Among the following which marinewater fish is preferred in the collection
of pituitary gland?
a) Tachysurus b) Tuna
c) Sardine d) Mackerels
19. Injecting pituitary from one fish to another fish closely related to the donor
fish is known as?
a) Homoplastic b) Heteroplastic
c) Homobasic d) Heterobasic
a) Durameter b) Sellaturcica
c) Leptobasic d) Platybasic
a) Durameter b) Sellaturcica
c) Leptobasic d) Platybasic
23. Outer net of hatching hapa is made up of ………. and is ……… mm thick?
24. Inner net of hatching hapa is made up of ………. and is ……… mm thick?
a) >6 b) <2.5mm
c) >8 mm d) >40mm
a) 4-8mm b) 3-5mm
c) >8 mm d) >40mm
a) Rotenone b) Saponin
a) 5% b) 4-6%
c) 8% d) 10%
Breeding of Finfishes 59
a) Rotenone b) Saponin
a) 5% b) 4-6%
c) 8% d) 10%
d) Endrin
a) Endrin b) Diendrin
c) Aldrin d) Malathion
a) Hemiptera b) Coleoptera
c) Odonata d) Phononata
37. Which of the following is used as a sedative for the fish seed transportation?
a) Cirrhinus mrigala
b) Aristichthys nobilis
c) Mylopharyngodon piceus
d) Labeo rohita
39. Sumach is a ?
40. Antiutrin is a?
a) Purified HCG b) Crude HCG
c) Trade name c) Scientific name
a) sGnRH + Domperidone
b) sGnRH + Primzoide
d) sGnRH+ Tomoxifen
a) sGnRH + Domperidone
b) sGnRH + Primzoide
d) sGnRH+ Tomoxifen
a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae
c) Cichilidae d) Osphronemidae
62 Fisheries Question Bank
48. Tilapia is a?
a) erbivore b) Omnivore
c) Planktivore d) Piscivore
a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae
c) Cichilidae d) Mugilidae
a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae
c) Cichilidae d) Chanidae
Breeding of Finfishes 63
a) Mullets b) Tilapia
a) Mullets b) Tilapia
c) Grouper d) Tilapia
c) Grouper d) Tilapia
a) Epinephalustauvina b) Epinephaluslanceolatus
c) Epinephalusikkar d) All
64 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 300 Kg b) 500 Kg
c) 1000 Kg d) 650 kg
a) Oreochromis sp.
b) Sarotherodon sp.
c) Tilapia zilli
d) None
a) Hatching Hapa
b) Hatching incubator
d) LDPE Hatchery
Breeding of Finfishes 65
a) Chowdhary b) Khan H
c) S N Dwiwedi d) S Aayapan
a) Chowdhary b) Khan H
c) Bhowmick d) S Aayapan
a) lobes b) 4 lobes
c) 5 lobes d) 6 lobes
a) 3 micron b) 4 micron
c) 5 micron d) 6 micron
a) Ovipositor
b) Feeding appendeges
d) None
c) Both d) None
c) Both d) None
c) Both d) None
a) Regular Shape
b) Lighter in weight
c) Coloured
a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods
c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds
a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods
c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds
a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods
c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds
a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods
c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds
a) 0.14 mm b) 0.34 mm
c) 1.4 cm d) 3.4 cm
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
70 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
23. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the naupli stage of shrimp?
a) 3 b) 7
c) 13 d) 19
24. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the mysis stage ofsShrimp?
a) 3 b) 7
c) 13 d) 19
25. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the post larval stage of shrimp?
a) 3 b) 7
c) 13 d) 19
a) Nauplius b) Protozoea
a) Nauplius b) Protozoea
a) Nauplius b) Protozoea
a) Nauplius b) Protozoea
a) Bilateral b) Unilateral
c) Monomorphic d) Dimorphic
b) Intermoulting Stage
d) During rigor
c) Both d) None
a) Macrobrachium malcomsonii
b) Macrobrachium rosenbergii
c) Penaeus indicus
d) Penaeus monodon
72 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Macrobrachium malcomsonii
b) Macrobrachium rosenbergii
c) Penaeus indicus
d) Penaeus monodon
a) 0.14 mm b) 0.34 mm
c) 1.92 mm d) 1.92 cm
a) 3 b) 6
c) 11 d) 12
a) 5 ppt b) 12 ppt
a) 5 ppt b) 12 ppt
c) 13 ppt d) 14 ppt
b) Afternoon hours
c) Evening hours
d) Night hours
Shellfish Breeding 73
a) Scylla serrata
b) Scylla tranquberica
c) Neptunus pelagicus
d) Neptunus sanguinolentus
a) Male Lobster
b) Female Lobster
c) Male Crab
d) Female Crab
a) Megalopa b) Zoea
c) Both d) Nauplius
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
46. Byssal threads secreted by byssal gland which helps in attachment to the
rocks is present in the?
a) Bacteria b) Abalones
c) Oysters d) Mussels
74 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Trocophore b) Veliger
49. Edal organ which is used to search the suitable substratum to settle is
present in?
a) Pediveliger b) Veliger
a) Crassostrea madrasensis
b) lacuna placenta
c) Perna perna
d) Anadra granosa
a) C. madrasensis b) C. angulata
c) C. commercalis d) C. glomerata
a) Zooplnkton b) Phytoplankton
56. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the protozoea stage of shrimp?
a) 3 b) 7
c) 13 d)19
7 Cold Water Aquaculture
a) Salmo salar
b) Onchorhyncus mykiss
c) Onchorhyncus nerka
d) Salavlinus naymaycush
a) 1863, Scotland
b) 1900, Scotland
c)1912, England
d) 1800, England
a) 1863, Scotland
b) 1900, Scotland
c) 1912, England
d) 1800, England
a) Dry method
b) Wet method
a) 70×63×94 mm b)70×63×94 cm
c) 70×63×90 mm d) 70×63×90 cm
12. Capacity of vibert system which is used for egg incubation is?
a) 51 ×25 ×41 cm
b) 51×25×41 mm
c) 51×25×51 cm
d) 51×25×51 mm
a) Tor tor
b) Tor khudree
c) Tor putitora
d) Tor mosal
a) Lonavala, Maharastra
b) Bhimtal, Uttrakhand
c) Champawat, Uttrakhand
d) Nainital, Uttrakhand
18. 1st Mahseer hatchery was installed in the year 1971 by?
a) Trout b) Mahaseer
a) Ammoniotelic b) Ureotelic
c) Uricotelic d) All
a) 5.6 b) 9.4
c) 4.1 d) 2.8
a) 5.6 b) 9.4
c) 4.1 d) 2.8
a) 5.6 b) 9.4
c) 4.1 d) 2.8
Fish Feed Technology 81
a) 8-9:1 b) 2-3:1
c) 4-5:1 d) 13-15:1
a) 0.8-1 b) 1-1.8
c) 2.2-2.7 d) 5-6.1
7. Among the following protein which controls the osmotic pressure of blood
in fish?
a) Keratin b) Albumin
c) Histone d) Globulin
a) 8 & 12 b) 12 & 8
c) 11 & 9 d) 9 & 11
a) Lysine b) Methionine
c) Tryptophan d) Tyrosine
a) Leucine b) Isoleucine
c) Tyrosine d) Valine
a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid
c) Glucolipid d) Phospholipid
a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid
c) Triglycerides d) Phospholipid
a) 70% b) 75%
c) 80% d) 85%
a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid
c) Glucolipid d) Phospholipid
c) Esters d) Ethers
a) Gucose + Galactose
b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Glucose
d) Glucose + Mannose
a) Gucose + Galactose
b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Glucose
d) Glucose + Mannose
a) Homopolysaccharide
b) Heteropolysaccharide
c) Disaccharide
d) Trisaccharides
a) Homopolysaccharide
b) Heteropolysaccharide
c) Disaccharide
d) Trisaccharides
c) Aeration d) Feed
84 Fisheries Question Bank
24. ………. is the method of feed formulation aiming at minimizing the cost or
maximizing the profit?
c) Graphics Solution
d) All
25. ………. is the simplest and most common method of feed formulation?
c) Graphics Solution
d) All
a) GNOC b) MOC
c) Both A & B
d) None
c) Octylgallate d) BHT
Fish Feed Technology 85
a) Anti-microbial
b) Preservative
c) Feed colorant
d) Feed binder
a) Anti-microbial
b) Preservative
c) Feed colorant
d) Chemoattractant
a) 125-150⁰C b) 200-250⁰C
c) 50-100⁰C d) 400-450⁰C
a) 6-10% b) 18-40%
c) 45-70% d) 1-2%
a) 6-10% b) 18-40%
c) 45-70% d) 1-2%
a) 6-10% b) 18-40%
c) 45-70% d) 1-2%
86 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Growers
c) Brooders
d) All
36. Bacterial activity occurs when moisture content of feed exceeds about?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 25% d) 75%
a) 40% RH b) 60% RH
c) 50% RH d) 70% RH
a) Disc feeders
b) Drop feeders
c) Auger feeders
d) Pneumatic feeders
c) Tetrdonitoxins d) Dinogunelin
c) Tetrdonitoxins d) Dinogunelin
a) 0.4-2.4% b) 0.01-0.03%
c) 5-10% d) 10-20%
a) <0.1% b) <0.01%
c) <0.001% d) <0.0001%
44. Fish requires ….. water soluble vitamins and …. fat soluble vitamins?
a) 11 & 4 b) 10 & 5
c) 8 & 7 d) 6 & 9
9 Genetics & Breeding
a) Genetics b) Heredity
c) Variation d) Mutation
4. Chromatin is?
a) DNA+ Protein
b) RNA+ Protein
c) DNA+ Carbohydrate
d) DNA+ Carbohydrate
Genetics & Breeding 89
a) Nucleoside b) Ncleoprotein
c) Nucleotide d) Purine/Pyrimidine
a) Nucleoside b) Ncleoprotein
c) Nucleotide d) Purine/Pyrimidine
a) Cytosine b) Uracil
c) Thymine d) Guanine
a) Cytosine b) Uracil
c) Thymine d) Guanine
a) 2nm b) 3.4 nm
c) 34 nm d) 20nm
a) 2nm b) 3.4 nm
c) 34 nm d) 20nm
a) Introns b) Exons
c) C value d) Genome
90 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Introns b) Exons
c) C value d) Gene
a) Introns b) Exons
c) C value d) Gene
a) C Value b) Genome
a) C Value b) Genome
16. When F1 individuals are crossed with one of their parent, then the test is
known as?
17. When F1 individuals are crossed with their recessive parent, then the test
is known as?
18. Phenotypic ratio in both monohybrid and dihybrid test cross was about?
a) Dominant allele
b) Recessive allele
c) Monomorphic allele
d) Polymorphic allele
a) Dominant allele
b) Recessive allele
c) Monomorphic allele
d) Polymorphic allele
c) Both A & B
d) None
a) Epistasis b) Pleiotropism
a) Epistasis b) Pleiotropism
32. …….% of higher growth is found in Jayntirohu after the 7TH generation?
a) 17 b) 19
c) 18 d) 16
c) Mutation d) Hybridization
c) Mutation d) Hybridization
a) Malaysia b) Indonesia
c) Taiwan d) Phillipines
39. GIFT Tilapia shows…….. of higher growth than the normal bred tilapia?
a) 30% b) 40%
c) 50% d) 60%
a) Selective breeding
b) Cross breeding
c) In breeding
d) Out breeding
10 Ornamental
a) Aquascaping
b) Aquafarming
c) Aquariculture
d) Aquariumculture
a) Pearls b) Gems
a) China b) Japan
c) England d) Singapore
a) Guppy b) Molly
c) Rasbora d) Platy
96 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Piranha d) Oscar
a) Aquascaping
b) Aquafarming
c) Aquariculture
d) Aquariumculture
a) Carbon di oxide
b) Suspended particles
c) Ammonia
a) 5L b) 10L
c) 15L d) 20L
12. Rasbora is a?
a) Summer b) Monsoon
c) Spring d) Winter
a) Viviovoparous b) Viviparous
c) Oviparous d) Ovoviviparous
16. ………. is the first feeding larvae of most of small sized ornamental fishes?
a) Tubifex b) Infusorians
a) Discus b) Guppy
c) Piranha d) Oscar
98 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Discus b) Guppy
c) Piranha d) Oscar
a) Discus b) Guppy
a) Discus b) Guppy
d) Gourami d) Guppy
a) Tilapia b) Guppy
a) Discus b) Guppy
a) Serranidae b) Gobidae
c) Cotidae d) Cobitidae
26. Tilapia is a?
a) Discus b) Guppy
a) Resin b) Charcoal
a) 1803 b) 1805
c) 1853 d) 1855
a) China b) Japan
c) England d) Singapore
a) Hyderabad b) Kolkata
c) Cochin d) Mumbai
100 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 10%
a) Pterphyllumscalar b) Astronotusocellatus
a) Pterphyllumscalare b) Astronotusocellatus
a) Pterphyllumscalare b) Stronotusocellatus
a. Pinctada fucata
b. Pinctada maxima
c. Pinctada margaritifera
d. Pinctada sugillata
a. <30
b. <25
c. <20
d. <15
43. The nucleus manufactured in Japan for pearl culture are from thick shells
of freshwater mussel occur in ………………………….
a. Pearl oyster
b. Edible oyster
c. Marine mussel
47. …………. is the most important clam species contributing major share of
India’s clam production.
a. Meretix meretrix
b. Katelysia opima
c. Meretmix casta
d. Villorita cyprinoides
48. Among bivalves ………………. are the most abundant and widely distributed
resources.
c. Clams d. Abalone
Ornamental 103
49. Among the importance Lobster species……………… grows fast and most
suitable for culture in India.
a. Panulirus polyphagus
b. Panulirus homarus
c. Panulirus ornatus
d. Homarus gamarus
50. The optimum stocking density practiced in India for fattening of spiny
lobster is
a. 1 number/m2 b. 5 numbers/m2
c. 10 numbers/m2 d. 15 numbers/m2
51. The fattening period for grow-out mud crab Scylla serrata usually extends
for ………………
a. One b. Three
c. Five d. Ten
53. In case of mud crab the larval period extends ………………………. days.
54. …………….. forms best live feed organisms during larval rearing of mud crab.
a. Chlorella b. Brachionus
c. Isochrysis d. Chaetoceros
104 Fisheries Question Bank
55. Seaweeds rich in iodine such as ……………… can be used for controlling goiter.
a. Gracilaria edulis
b. Asparagopsis taxiformis
c. Padina tetrastromatica
d. Enteromorpha compressa
b. Sea cucumber
c. Clam
d. Octopus
60. Presence of three or four dorsal rostral teeth in the identifying character
of ………… zoeal stage of Macrobrachium rosenbergii.
a. Stage V b. Stage VI
c. Stage IX d. Stage X
a. 100 b. 500
c. 1000 d. 5000
a. 50 b. 100
c. 150 d. 200
66. During breeding season a male of Indian major carps can easily be
distinguished from female by the roughness of the ……………
67. Stocking rates of Indian major carps in broodstock ponds are kept at ……...
kg/ha.
a. 1000 – 2000
b. 2000 – 3000
c. 3000 – 4000
d. 4000 – 5000
a. 10 mg b. 20 mg
c. 10 µg d. 20 µg
69. In glass jar hatchery ………..number of eggs can be kept in a jar with capacity
of 6.35 litre.
a. 25,000 b. 50,000
c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
70. In hatching tank incubation of eggs for Indian major carps are done at …….
lakh/cubic metre
a. 2 - 3 b. 4 - 5
c. 7 - 8 d. 10 - 11
Ornamental 107
c. Hormone d. Preservative
a. 12 – 14 hours. b. 24 – 26 hours.
c. 48 – 50 hours. d. 72 – 74 hours.
74. The dosages of pituitary given for induced breeding of magur is ……..mg/
kg body weight of fish.
a. 8 – 10 b. 20 – 25
c. 30 – 50 d. 100 – 150
a. Larvivorous fish
c. Carnivorous fish
77. Dosage of Bassia latifolia that would be necessary for predatory and weed
fish control in a water body of one ha with two metre water depth is ……………
a. 2500 kg b. 5000 kg
c. 400 kg d. 800 kg
78. Tamarind seed husk is used as one of the fish toxicant of plant origin with
its active ingredient as ………………….
a. Saponin
b. b. Rotenone
c. Nicotine
79. Bleaching powder with 15% chlorine may be applied at ……………kg/ha for
control of predatory and weed fishes.
a. 175 kg b. 350 kg
c. 700 kg d. 1400 kg
a. 150 g b. 600 g
c. 1500 g d. 6000 g
a. Manipur b. Bihar
a. Duck b. Pig
c. Cattle d. Poultry
86. Mode of action of mahua oil cake to clear the unwanted fishes during pond
preparation is
a. Haemolysis of blood
a. Caudal spine
b. Caudal pedancle
c. Sessile eye
d. Biramus antennae
110 Fisheries Question Bank
a. Magnesium b. Cobalt
c. Nitrogen d. Phosphorous
a. 5 yrs b. 4 yrs
c. 3 yrs d. 2 yrs
a. 57% b. 67%
c. 77% d. 87%
92. Maximum achievable production rates in Sewage- fed fish culture is ………….
93. Induced breeding using pituitary gland is the world was first time successful
in
a. Brazil b. Rusia
c. India d. China
a. Channa punctatus
b. C. striatus
c. C. marulius
d. Anabas testudineus
96. Diamond shape structure of the caudal region is the identification character
of………fry.
a. Cirrhinus mrigala
b. Labeo rohita
c. Catla catla
d. Common carp
97. Dry bundh for carp breeding was first noticed in …………..
a. Hyriopsis schhegelli
b. Cristeria plicata
c. Hyriopsis cumingii
d. Lamellidens marginalis
101. Who studied the fishes of Ganga river and published in 1822.
b. Col. Alcock
102. Who made the 1st attempt to undertake a systematic study of Indian fish
fauna.
a. Russel
d. A. G. Jhingran
103. First All India Fisheries Conference was held at Delhi in the year……….
a. 1956 b. 1954
c. 1952 d. 1948
104. …………is considered as one of the most obnoxious aquatic weed in the
world.
a. Eichhornia b. Salvinia
c. Elosea d. Egevia
Ornamental 113
a. Eichhornia b. Pistia
a. Abalone b. Porphyra
c. Laminaria d. Trochus
a. Parreysia corruguta
b. Cristaria plicata
c. Hyriopsis cumingii
d. None
a. 1:2 b. 1:1
c. 2:1 d. 5:1
111. The developmental stage at which trout eggs can be transported is…….
113. Under any circumstances the water temperature for incubation of trout
eggs should not exceed …………………. °C.
a. 5-6°C b. 10-12°C
c. 15-18°C d. 20-22°C
a. Vit B1 b. Vit B6
115. Pond dyke slope for sandy loam type soil should be
a. 1:1.5 b. 1:2.5
c. 1:3.5 d. 1:4.0
116. Seston is
a. Dead organisms floating on the water surface
b. Organisms hanging from the water film.
c. Suspended organic matter in water
d. Dead organisms in the bottom of water
Ornamental 115
c. Mirgal x Rohu
d. Catla x Rohu
a. Salmonidae
b. Poecillidae
c. Cichilidae
d. Cyprinodentidae
a. 7 – 11th days
b. 20 – 30th days
c. 32 – 40th days
a. Microencapsulated
a. 20: 4 ω – 6
b. 20: 6 ω – 3
c. 22: 6 ω – 3
d. 18: 2 ω – 6
123. For one hectare pond area ……… nos of pigs are sufficient to fertilize the
pond water.
a. 140 – 150 b. 75 – 90
c. 60 – 70 d. 30 – 40
a. Notopteus b. Oriyzas
c. Lebisteus d. Gambusia
a. Phytoplankton culture
b. Tubifex culture
c. Artemia culture
d. Tissue culture
127. Normally thickness of plastic bags used for carp fry transpiration is
a. 0.004 mm
b. 0.04 mm
c. 0.4 mm
d. 0.1 mm
128. …………. culture was most successfully standardised by CMFRI & CSMCRI.
a. Sea weed
b. Sea cucumber
c. Pearl oyster
d. Grouper
a. Mugil cephalus
b. Lates calcarifer
c. Epinephalus malbaricus
d. Acanthopargus berda
a. Copper b. Cobalt
c. Iron d. Zinc
118 Fisheries Question Bank
a. Catla x Rohu
b. Rohu x mirgal
c. Rohu x Catla
133. Which among the following is most viable and sterile hybrid.
c. Catla x Rohu
a. 1 b. 3
c. 6 d. 10
a. Lysin b. Histidine
c. Methionine d. Tryptophan
a. Fat b. Carbohydrate
c. Protein d. Vitamin C
Ornamental 119
a. Diatoms
b. Sargassum
c. Laminaria
d. Porphyra
a. Trout b. Eel
a. Catla x Rohu
b. Rohu x Catla
d. Catla x Mrigal
d. Coastal waters
120 Fisheries Question Bank
a. 0.1 – 0.3 mt
b. 0.9 – 1.5 mt
c. 3.5 – 5 mt
d. 5 – 8 mt
a. Shigella
b. Streptococcus
c. Vibrio
d. Listeria monocytogens
145. A 50 mt3 water holding capacity eco-hatchery spawning pool can produce
…………. in a single operation.
a. 1 million eggs
b. 5 million eggs
c. 10 millions eggs
d. 25 million eggs
a. 30 mts/minute b. 20 mts/minutes
c. 10 mts/minutes d. 6 mts/minutes
Ornamental 121
a. Elvers
b. Glass eels
c. Silver eels
d. Yellow eels
148. Most valid genera bacteria that is capable of oxidizing ammonia to nitrite
in a biofilter is…………….
a. Nitrosomonas europea
b. Nitrobacter agile
c. Nitrobacter winogradinki
d. Nitrococcus sp.
c. RNA
d. Occluded virions
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 6
a. <30,000 b. <50,000
153. Tetraploidy can be produced by treating eggs with Colchiocine at the rate of
a. 0.001% b. 0.01 %
c. 0.1% d. 1%
155. The exotic frogs that introduced in Cuttack in the year 1968 is
a. Rana tigrina
b. Rana crassa
c. Rana catesbiana
a. Channel catfish
b. Tilapia
c. Gangetic carp
d. African catfish
a. 90% b. 80%
c. 50% d. 10%
Ornamental 123
158. Mean daily nitrogen fixing rates of a developed Azolla mat is in the range of
b. 1 – 2.5 kg/ha
c. 3 – 5.5 kg/ha
d. 9 – 11.5 kg/ha
a. Azolla b. Daphnia
c. Chlorella d. Spirulina
160. The life cycle of Artemia pass though ………..instars to become adult………..
a. 10 b. 12
c. 13 d. 14
161. Artemia is
a. Bisexual b. Parthenogenic
162. One gram of Artemia cysts gives about …………… million nauplii.
a. 0.1 b. 0.2
c. 0.4 d. 0.6
a. Labeo calbasu
b. Cirrhinus mrigala
c. Labeo gonius
d. Labeo rohita
124 Fisheries Question Bank
a. Isochrysis b. Tetraselmis
c. Skeletonema d. Chaetoceros
a. Folic acid
b. Pantothenic acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Calcium
a. 0.13 kg O2/hr/H.P
b. 2.13 kg O2/hr/H.P
c. 3.13 kg O2/hr/H.P
d. 4.13 kg O2/hr/H.P
167. B.O.D. level in most of the Indian city sewage generally varies between
a. 40 – 50 mg/lit
a. Vaccines
b. Immunostimulant
c. Probiotics
d. Food additives
Ornamental 125
a. 1:1 b. 1:2
c. 1:4 d. 1:10
a. 100% b. 90%
c. 130% d. 25%
a. Hyline cells
b. Semigranular cells
c. Granular cells
d. All
172. …………… are simple tandem repeats consists of one to four nucleotides
with long repeat unit.
a. Satellite DNA
b. Minisatellite DNA
c. Microsatellite DNA
d. All
a. RFLP b. AFLP
c. RAPD d. None
126 Fisheries Question Bank
175. Most preferred algae cell that is supplied from 2nd day of larval rearing
in pearl oyster hatchery is………..
a. Isochrysis galbana
b. Chaetoceros affinis
c. Chlorella
d. Skeletonema costatum
a. Scoliosis b. Lordosis
c. Calcinosis d. None
a. Choline
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Thiamine
d. Pantothenic acid
Ornamental 127
a. Cystine b. Tyrosine
c. Tryptophan d. Lysine
a. Ethoxyquin b. B.H.A
a. 0.9 b. 0.85
c. 0.75 d. 0.40
a. 6.25 b. 4.1
c. 9.0 d. .65
a. Gas chromatography
b. Spectrophotometry
c. HPLC
a. > 1 ppm
b. > 5 ppm
c. > 10 ppm
a. 1 – 3 days b. 4 – 7 days
c. 10 – 15 days d. 15 – 25 days
186. ……… can be cultured in close probioreacter using acetic acid as a carbon
nacre
a. Spirulina b. Chlorella
c. Skeletonema d. All
a. Insect b. Spirogyra
a. 100 b. 72
c. 50 d. 48
a. Selenium b. Molybdenum
a. Physical characters
b. Chemicals characters
c. Biological characters
d. All
194. Multifocal diffuse opacity of straited muscle is the chemical feature seen
in freshwater prawn hatchery
a. Idiopathic muscle necrosis (IMN) disease
b. Exuvia entrapment disease
c. Mid cycle disease
d. Shell disease
a. Murrels b. Carps
c. Milkfish d. Prawn
d. Thaimine
130 Fisheries Question Bank
a. Paphia malabarica
b. Perna indica
c. Crassostrea madrasensis
d. Tridacna maxima
198. The spawning of one species of ……………. induce others to release their
eggs irrespective of their gonadal condition.
199. Traditional pit culture in the intertidal zone is common for …..
a. Lobster culture
b. Crab culture
c. Clam culture
200. As per the notification of Coastal Zone Regulation Act, 1996 ……… prohibits
the coastal aquaculture, particularly shrimp culture.
a. CRZ - I b. CRZ - II
201. Cage culture was first time introduced in India to rear ………..
b. Milk fish
c. Carp
d. Tilapia
Ornamental 131
b. Interferin
c. B- lymphocytes
203. National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development formed in July 1982
by merging Agriculture credit Department of RBI and …………..
a. AR DC b. NC DC
c. SFC d. IFCI
204. India contributes …………… to the global trade in ornamental fish industry.
a. 1% b. 5%
c. 10% d. 115
a. Vitamins A and D
b. Vitamins A and C
c. Vitamins A and B
d. Vitamins A and E
a. Aquaculture b. Pisciculture
c. Vermiculture d. Agriculture
c. Salting d. Chilling
c. Annecic d. Hygienic
a. Fat b. Protein
c. Vitamins d. Minerals
a. Labeo rohita
b. Mystus singhala
c. Pomfret
d. Clarias batrachus
c. Catla ad Magur
a. to increase size
a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Calcium d. Phosphorous
216. Brackish water tidal wetlands in West Bengal where traditional rice-fish
culture is practiced:
a. Bheries b. Gazani
217. In EEC scheme of grading chilled fish to various stages of spoilage, which
among the following grades indicates that the product is unfit for human
consumption?
a. A b. B
c. C d. E
a. Lignin b. Starch
c. Chitin d. Pectin
a. Nauplius b. Megalopa
c. Protozoa d. Mysis
221. The transition larval stage in the life cycle of pearl oyster:
a. Trochophore b. Veliges
c. Umbo d. Pediveliges
a. Y-organ
b. Rimus gland
c. Mandibular organ
d. X-organ
a. Potassium b. Iodine
c. Chloride d. Sodium
225. Which weed among the following is also known as Duck weed?
a. Lemna b. Vallisneria
c. Ipomoea a. Pistia
Ornamental 135
226. Which weed among the following is also known as Water Spinach ?
a. Lemna b. Vallisneria
c. Ipomoea d. Pistia
227. Which weed among the following is also known as Eel grass?
a. Lemna b. Vallisneria
c. Ipomoea d. Pistia
228. Which insect among the following is also known as Giant water bug?
a. Nepa b. Belostoma
c. Ranatra d. Geris
229. Which insect among the following is also known as Giant Scorpion?
a. Nepa b. Belostoma
c. Ranatra d. Geris
230. Which insect among the following is also known as Wter Spider?
a. Nepa b. Belostoma
c. Ranatra d. Geris
a. Hyderabad b. Kochi
c. Chennai d. Mumbai
a. Hyderabad b. Kochi
c. Chennai d. Mumbai
a. 1966 b. 1976
c. 1986 d. 1991
a. Veligar b. Umbo
c. Phylosoma d. Spot
a. Spot b. Umbo
c. a&b d. none
Ornamental 137
a. Petasma b. Thelycum
a. T.N & AP
c. TN & Gujarat
d. AP& Maharastra
a. Rocky b. Sandy
c. Muddy d. Clayey
a. 1 b. 3
c. 4 d. 2
a. Salinity c. Temperature
245. The shape of the testis of the panulurids with transverse connection to
form a shape of H
a. Parallel tubes
b. Longitudinal tubes
c. Perpendicular tubes
d. Circular tubes
138 Fisheries Question Bank
a. GSH b. MSH
c. a & b d. None
a. Internal b. External
c. a & b d. None
a. H b. L
c. C d. T
a. Peptides b. Lipids
c. a & b d. a or b
a. Antennary region
b. Eye stalk
c. Thoracioganglia
d. Maxillary region
a. Cerebral commissure
b. Tricerebral commissure
c. Both a & b
d. Tritoferebral commissure
Ornamental 139
a. Ray fish
c. Penaeids
d. Palemonids
a. Eye stalk
b. Antennary region
c. Maxillary region
d. Both b & c
a. OIH
b. Methyl farnosoate
c. Androgenic hormone
d. X- organ
a. FSH b. LH
a. FSH b. LH
c. Prostaglandin E2 d. Prostaglandin E3
140 Fisheries Question Bank
a. Hatchery b. Farm
a. P. monodon b. P. indicus
c. P. vannamei d. P. semisulcatus
a. Oxytetracycline b. Erythromycin
a. Byssus b. Dorsom
c. Exuviae d. None
a. Parthenogenesis b. Pardogenesis
c. Bisexual d. None
a. Moulting b. Electoejaculation
c. Ablation d. None
a. Electrocauterisation b. Pinching
a. 2-3 b. 5-8
c. 6-7 d. 3-6
c. 7-8days d. 1-9days
a. 0-52days b. 7-8days
a. 520yrs b. 1040yrs
c. 2240yrs d. 200yrs
a. 1900 b. 1964
c. 1984 d. 1950
142 Fisheries Question Bank
a. 1950 b. 1960
c. 1970 d. 1930
a. 2-3 b. 5-8
c. 6-7 d. 3-6
a. 100 b. 72
c. 50 d. 48
a. Selenium b. Molybdenum
a) 50-55% b) 66-77%
c) 80-90% d)40-60%
a) Connective protein
b) Sarcoplasmic protein
c) Myofibrillar protein
d) Troponin
5. Thickness of myofibril
a) 3-4 mm b) 1-2µm
c) 2-3µm d) 1-2 cm
b) ‘L’moro myosin&‘H’moromyosin
a) Rancidity b) Dehydration
a) Sucrose b) Sorbitol
a) Sarcoplasmic protein
b) Myofibrillar protein
c) Stroma protein
d) Antifreeze protein
a) Phospholipids b) Triglycerides
a) Triglycerides b) Waxes
c) Phospholipids d) Steroids
Biochemistry 147
a) Fat b) Triglyceride
c) Waxes d) Phospholipid
a) Fat b) Phospholipid
c) Steroid d) Waxes
a) CnH2n-1 b)CnH2n-3CooH
a) Waxes b) Steroids
c) Fats d) Glycerols
c) Triglyceride d) Cholesterol
24. “Squaline” is a
c) Hydrocarbon d) Wax
148 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Dehydration
b) Oxidation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Denaturation
a) Glyconeogenesis b) Glycolysis
27. The nucleotide degradation in fish muscle produces bitter tasting compound
in
a) AMP b) Inosine
c) Hypoxanthine d) IMP
a) Glycolysis
b) NucleotideDegradation
c) Belly bursting
d) Rancidity
29. The development of black spot in shrimp is due to the presence of an enzyme
a) Hexokinase
b) Polyphenol oxidase(ppo)
c) Phospho lipase
d) Phenolases
Biochemistry 149
a) Tocopherol
a) 50-60mg% b) 30-45mg%
c) 20-30mg% d) 25-35mg%
Biochemistry 151
a) 30-50mg% b) 10-15mg%
c) 20-30mg% d) 25-35mg%
a) Indole b) Homarine
c) Histamine d) TMA
a) 100mg% b) 50 mg%
c) 25mg% d) 75mg%
a) <50µg b)<75µg
c) <25µg d) <100µg
a) <2.5µm b)3-5µm
c) 1-2µm d) >2.5µm
a) 50-60% b) 30-50 %
c) 20-25% d) 100%
a) Glycogen b) Starch
c) Fructose d) Glucose
a) Muscle b) Liver
c) Mitochondria d) a & b
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphoglucomutase
c) Glycogen synthase
d) Uridyl transferase
47. Glucose residues are attached in the 1-4 position of glycogen primer in a
reaction catalyzed by the enzyme
a) Phosphosphorylase
b) Glycogen synthase
c) Glucokinase
d) Pyrophosphatase
a) Glycogenesis b) Glucogenolysis
c) Glyconeogenesis d) Glucolysis
Biochemistry 153
a) Phosphatase b) Phosphorylase
c) Hexokinase d) Transketolase
a) Glucolysis b) Glucogenolysis
a) Cytoplasm b) Mitochondria
c) Liver d) Kidney
a) Lipase b) Hexokinase
c) Lactate d) Alcohol
c) Ethanol d) b & c
154 Fisheries Question Bank
56. Fructose 1,6 biphosphate is split by aldolase into two triose phosphates
c) Glycorate 3 PO4
a) Aldolase
b) Fumerase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Pyruvate decorboxylase
a) 8 ATP b) 2 ATP
c) 10 ATP d) 38 ATP
a) Glycogenesis) b) Glucolysis
c) Glucogenolysis d) Glyconeogenesis
a) Cytopllasm b) Mitochondria
c) Liver d) Muscle
Biochemistry 155
a) Succinyl-co-A b) Fumerate
c) Malate d) Citrate
a) Fumerase b) Aconibase
c) Aconitase d) b & c
a) 24 ATP b) 12 ATP
c) 38 ATP d) 8ATP
a) 24 ATP b) 8 ATP
c) 35 ATP d) 38 ATP
156 Fisheries Question Bank
c) NADH2 d) FAD+
c) Denaturation d) Rigormortism
a) Cytosol b) Liver
c) Mitochondria d) Muscle
a) Gluconeogenesis b)Glucolysis
a) Lipolysis b) Autolysis
c) Lipogenesis d) Glycolysis
Biochemistry 157
a) Antifreeze protein
c) Stroma protein
d) Myofibrillar protein
78. The first stop of oxidation takes place in-------and the next four steps take
place in ----
79. Simplest compound which is used for the synthesis of fatty acids
80. KetoAcyl coA is split into Acyl coA and Acetyl co A by the enzyme
c) Thiolase
a) 7 b) 8
c) 9 d) 10
a) 12 b) 24
c) 36 d)4 8
3. The last devastating tsunami that damaged many of the coastal fishing
villages of India occurred in the year
a) 2004 b) 2005
c) 2006 d) 2007
4. Which one of the following disaster prone events is very difficult to forewarn
a) Cyclone b) Tornados
5. In the year 1969, for the first time in India, Agriculture Refinance Corporation
(earlier establishment of NABARD) sanctioned a marine fishing scheme
through a district level central Co-oerative bank in the state of
a) Karanataka b) Orissa
c) TamilNadu d) Kerala
a) 1982 b) 1972
c) 1992 d) 1962
7. The total number of commercial banks lending finance for the development
of fisheries in India are
a) 101 b) 123
c) 146 d) 157
8. Which of the following banks in India is providing refinance facility for the
development of fisheries sector in India
a) 1992 b) 1982
c) 1972 d) 1962
10. Before sanctioning loan assistance for a fishery project, a bank insists upon
primary and collateral security) The collateral security means
a) Borrower deposits security
b) Borrower deposits a bond
c) A third party deposits security for the borrower
d) All of the above
160 Fisheries Question Bank
11. The control and regulation of fishing and fisheries within territorial waters
of 12 nautical miles in India is under
d) None
a) 1897 b) 1877
c) 1887 d) 1867
13. The total number of maritime states and union territories in India are
a) 9 b) 10
c) 11 d) 12
14. The Maritime Zones of India (Regulation of fishing by foreign vessels) Act
was enacted in the year
a) 1981 b) 1982
c) 1983 d) 1984
15. Marine Products Export Development Authority Act was passed in the year
a) 1971 b) 1972
c) 1973 d) 1974
16. As per the marine fishing regulation acts of union govt) and different govt
of state/union territories, the distance from the seashore earmarked for
operation by artisanal (non-mechanised) fishing vessels is
a) 5-10 Km b) 20-25Km
c) 30-35Km d) 40-45Km
Fish Economics 161
17. The state, which is first, in enacting the Marine fisheries act in India is
a) Kerala b) Maharastra
c) Orissa d) Karnataka
18. The seasonal closure, as a means to regulate fishing along the east coast of
India is observed every year during
a) 1991 b) 1981
c) 1999 d) 1989
20. Turtle Excluder Devices are used to reduce the mortality of turtles in the
fishing by
a) Mumbai b) Kolkata
c) Chennai d) Visakhapatnum
c) ICAR
d) None
162 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) West Bengal
d) Andhra Pradesh
a) 1996 b)1997
c)2000 d) 2005
25. The list of banned antibiotics for shrimp culture in India includes about
a) 10 antibiotics b) 20 antibiotics
c) 30 antibiotics d) 40 antibiotics
26. Out of 12 articles in the code of conduct for responsible fisheries and
aquaculture, the article relating to the development of aquacultrue in
responsible manner is
a) 5th b)7th
c) 9th d)11th
27. The total brackish water area under shrimp culture in India is
a) 14 million ha b) 4 million ha
c) 4 million ha d) None
28. The percentage of shrimp farming population having farm area of 0-2 ha
in India is about
a) 91% b) 61%
c) 31% d) 11%
Fish Economics 163
29. The state, for the first time in India, which translated the code of conduct
for responsible fisheries and Aquaculture in local vernacular language to
create mass awareness, is
30. The first Fisheries College in the year 1969 was established in the state of
a) TamilNadu b) Karnataka
c) Uttaranchal d) Kerala
a) 1961 b)1971
c) 1979 d) 1989
32. Which of the following College of Fisheries in India is offering Post graduate
programme
d) None
164 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Patna b) Bangalore
c) Pondicherry d) Bhubaneswar
a) 1954 b) 1964
c) 1974 d) 1984
a) 25 % b) 50%
c) 75 % d) 95%
c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan Committee
a) England b) Germany
c) Canada d) America
a) 1905 b) 1913
c) 1919 d) 1925
Fish Economics 165
c) IRR d) NPV
a)1991 b)1995
c)1993 d)2001
42. Which of the following is not the method of measuring national income?
a) Horizontal b) Vertical
44. Magnitude of income elasticity of demand is positive and very high for
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Zero d) Infinite
a) Utility b) Scarcity
c) Needs d) Desire
166 Fisheries Question Bank
48. When each member of the population has equally likely chance of being
selected, this is called
b) Quota sampling
d) A snowball sample
a) A datum b) A statistics
c) A parameter d) A population
a) 12 b) 10
c) 14 d) 18
c) two d) one
53. __________ results if you fail to reject null hypothesis when null hypothesis
is actually false
a) Type-I Error
b) Type-II Error
c) Type-III Error
d) Type-IV Error
a) 1972 b) 1974
c) 1986 d) 1993
a) Ministry of Agriculture
c) Ministry of Commerce
d) Ministry of HRD
57. Which act was passed to prohibit use of dynamite and poison in all territorial
waters-?
c) Water Act
a) Latin b) Greek
c) German d) French
a) Vertical b) Horizontal
c) Straight d) None
a) Teaching b) Learning
c) Knowledge d) Seeing
d) None
Fish Economics 169
a) 1952 b) 1965
c) 1978 d) 1960
a) Cochin b) Pondicherry
c) Mandapam d) Mangalore
a) Adoption b) Innovation
c) Diffusion d) Rejection
a) Adivireddy b) G)ray
a) Learning b) Teaching
c) Motivation c) Education
a) A pure science
b) A behavioral science
c) An applied science
a) Agricultural universities
c) Hemant Mehta
d) Prashant Mehta
Fish Economics 171
a) Highly institutionalized
d) None
a) Desire b) Conviction
c) Action d) Satisfaction
a) 1972 b) 1986
c) 2001 d) 1897
a) Innovators
b) Early adaptors
79. __________ are the traditional and last people to adopt a new practice
a) Innovators b) Laggards
80. Which is the organization providing financial support for the fisheries sector?
a) FFDA b) BFDA
c) MPEDA d) NABARD
172 Fisheries Question Bank
81. For the conservation of endangered species which is the most effective
method of extension?
b) Formal education
c) Informal education
d) Ranching programme
a) Ministry of agriculture
b) Ministry of commerce
d) None
a) President of India
b) Director of fisheries
84. The first state to impose the fisheries act was ____________
a) Punjab b) Gujarat
c) Kerala d) Maharashtra
a) 1974 b) 1984
c) 1976 d) 1972
Fish Economics 173
a) Tashildar b) VAO
a) 1908 b) 1907
c) 1910 d) 1911
a) Randomization b) Replication
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) By Indians d) By all
a) Median b) Mode
c) Mean d) Range
c) Aristotle d) Robbins
c) Aristotle d) Robbins
Fish Economics 175
a) 1972 b) 1982
c) 1992 d) 1974
a) 1935 b) 1929
c) 1927 d) 1928
a) 1985 b) 1995
c) 2005 d) None
a) 1969 b) 1963
c) 1968 d) None
a) 1969 b) 1963
c) 1968 d) None
a) Productive b) Unproductive
a) 1930 b) 1935
c) 1934 d) None
a) 1951 b) 1954
c) 1955 d) None
d) None
b) Selected districts
d) None
a) Can be quantified
d) None
a) Returns
b) Repayment capacity
d) None
d) None
a) Even b) Uneven
c) Unequal d) None
a) Europe b) Asia
c) Calvert d) None
c) USA d) None
a) Nepal b) UK
c) India d) None
a) 5000 b) 3410
c) 369 d) None
a) 30 b) 22
c) 31 d) None
Fish Economics 179
a) PACS b) PCARDBs
c) SCARDBs d) None
a) Communism b) Co-operation
c) Capitalism d) None
a) U.S.A. b) England
c) Germany d) None
a) PCARDBs b) PACS
c) RBI d) None
130. The first co-operative societies act was passed in the year
a) 1919 b) 1912
c) 1904 d) None
a) Economics b) Agriculture
133. Marketing is that part of economics which deals with the creation of
a) Time utility
b) Place utility
d) None
134. Terminal markets are those in which the producer is either finally disposed
of direct to consumers or to processor or assembled for
a) Distribution
c) Consumption
d) None
135. Assembling is a
d) None
a) Retailer
b) Consumer
d) None
d) None
d) None
d) None
182 Fisheries Question Bank
143. When price will be more than equilibrium price then there will be
a) No pressure on price
d) None
b) Fixing prices
d) None
145. “As the science which considers the organization and operation of the
farm from point of view of efficiency and continuous profit”, defined by
a) Warren
b) Karl Marx
c) Efferson
d) None
a) Dissimilar decisions
b) Similar decisions
c) Different decisions
d) None
Fish Economics 183
147. At the end of the first stage of production average curve and marginal
cost curve
a) Originate b) Ends
a) Cost concepts
c) Production concept
d) None
c) Contract method
d) None
c) Contract method
d) None
d) None
184 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Same b) Different
a) Diary b) Journal
a) 30% b) 24%
c) 80% d) None
a) 80 b) 43
c) 20 d) None
d) None
d) None
c) Helping in recovery
d) None
a) Medium-term
b) Short-term
c) Long-term
d) None
186 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Up to 9 Years d) None
a) 22 b) 20
c) 31 d) None
a) 87200 b) 8720
c) 739 d) None
c) Urgency of a problem
d) None
a) Change
c) Likely to change
d) None
a) Tertiary data
b) Primary data
c) Newspaper data
d) None
d) None
a) Schedule b) Questionnaire
c) Tables d) None
a) Unknown b) Difficult
a) Schedule b) Questionnaire
c) Tables d) None
188 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Only by employer
d) None
a) Field b) Unit
c) Person d) None
179. Out line is prepared before starting the research work before
d) None
a) Laymen b) Scientist
c) Doctors d) None
a) Authoriative b) Easy
c) Difficult d) None
Fish Economics 189
d) None
c) a& b
d) None
d) None
d) None
190 Fisheries Question Bank
b) Financial position
c) Marketing cost
d) All
195. The actual expenses incurred for bringing goods and services from the
producer to the consumer is called
a) Macro economics
b) Microeconomics
c) Socioeconomics
d) None
d) All
192 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Macroeconomics
b) Socio economics
c) Ergo economics
d) None
a) Elasticity demand
b) Effective demand
c) Derived demand
d) None
201. The demand for some commodities exist only because they are used in
producing other commodities which satisfy human wants
a) Derived demand
b)Effective demand
c) Elasticity demand
d) None
d) None
Fish Economics 193
d) None
a) 1991 b) 1971
c) 1981 d) None
c) a & b
d) None
a) Howard Aiken
c) Charles Babbage
d) None
194 Fisheries Question Bank
210. Memory unit, Arithmetic logic unit and control units together known as
d) None
212. The overall plan and design of various components of a computer system
is referred as
c) Programmable memory
d) None
Fish Economics 195
215. ----------- device receive information from the CPU and present it to the
User in a desired form
a) Input b) Output
c) a & b d) None
217. The software that manager the resources of a computer system & schedules
its operation is called
a) MS – DOS b) Windows 95
a) Fortran b) C++
c) COBOT d) All
a) C++ b) Java
c) Fortran d) None
a) Java b) BASIC
c) COBOT d) None
d) None
a) Internet protocol
c) a & b
d) None
b) Improved quality
c) More Output
d) All
Fish Economics 197
a) Data b) Information
c) Workstation d) None
c) Telecommunication d) None
d) None
198 Fisheries Question Bank
d) None
a) Modem b) Monitor
236. Science is a
a) Knowledge
c) Power
d) None
Fish Economics 199
a) Monitor b) Modem
c) Keyboard d) CPU
d) None
240. The degree of certainty of receiving expected benefits from the adoption
of an innovation is called
a) Observability b) Predictability
c) Trialability d) None
c) Workshop d) None
a) Proposal b) Project
c) a & b d) None
200 Fisheries Question Bank
244. Expression of the ends towards which our efforts are directed are called
a) Objectives b) Projects
c) Results d) None
245. It is the distance in any given direction one expects to go during a given
period of time
a) Aim b) Motivation
c) Goal d) None
c) Performance development
d) None
248. The systematic development of the knowledge, skills and attitudes required
by an individual to perform adequately a given task or job is known as
a) Training b) Teaching
c) Extension d) None
Fish Economics 201
249. The methodology suited to executives and senior officers in dealing with
a complex problem which requires the contributions from senior officers
to solve the same is called
a) Conference b) Symposium
c) Seminar d) None
a) Latin b) French
c) Greek d) None
a) Sensitivity training
b) Laboratory training
c) a & b
d) None
a) Organization Development
b) Organizational Behaviour
d) None
253. The term management derived from French word ménage meaning
c) Housekeeping d) None
202 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Management b) Extension
c) Training d) None
a) Management b) Authority
256. The size to the number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise
is called
a) Co-ordination b) Socialism
c) a & b d) None
a) Budgeting b) Directing
c) Staffing d) None
a) Downward b) Upward
c) Horizontally d) All
Fish Economics 203
a) Community b) Society
c) Committee d) None
a) FDA b) FAO
c) FFDA d) None
Information &
13 Communication Technology
a) Byte b) Bits
2. Expansion of ALU
a) RAM b) ROM
c) FDD d) HOD
a) Monitor b) Printer
c) Keyboard d) Plotter
Information and Communication Technology 205
a) Valves b) Transistors
c) IC’s d) None
a) 1955-1964 b) 1965-1974
c) 1975-1982 d) 1946-1954
8. Abbreviate URL
a) Exporting b) Importing
c) Processing d) Compiling
a) Task bar
b) Recycle Bin
c) ToolBar
d) My Computer
206 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Code b) Colour
c) Computer d) Character
a) Multiprogramming b) Multitasking
c) Time-sharing d) Multiprocessing
13. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform the test
a) Open b) Close
c) New d) Save
15. These servers store & manages files for network users
a) Main b) Authentication
c) Web d) File
a) My Folder b) My documents
c) My Files d) My Text
Information and Communication Technology 207
c) Motherboard d) RAM
19. Computer use the number system, to store data & perform calculations.
a) Binary b) Octal
c) Decimal d) Hexadecimal
a) LAN b) DSL
c) RAM d) USB
14 Statistics
a) N b) S
c) P d) N
c) Stratified d) Sequential
a) t-test b) F-test
a) H0 b) HA
c) HO d) NONE
Statistics 209
a) HO b) HA
c) HO d) NONE
a) Interval b) Attribute
c) Measurement d) Rank
a) 0 and 1 b) -1 and + 1
a) 1.4 b) 2.4
c) 5.6 d) 0.4
a) Histograph b) Ogive
a) 0.4 b) 0.5
c) 0.6 d) 0.7
c) F test d) T test
c) F test d) T test
16. Data that has already been collected by some other investigator or agency
and used by an investigator for his purpose
a) Level of significance
b) Correlation
c) Hypothesis
d) None
Statistics 211
18. It represents the difference between the observed value, and the true value
a) Pictogram b) Cartogram
c) Pie-diagram d) None
c) Pictogram d) None
c) Pie-diagram d) None
a) Scatter diagram
b) Correlation graph
d) All
23. It is the statistical and mathematical study of the size, composition and
spatial distribution of human population
a) Demography
b) Diagnostic error
c) Factorial design
d) None
212 Fisheries Question Bank
c) a & b d) None
c) a & b d) None
26. A statistical device to estimate the value of one variable (x) from another
correlated variable (y)
c) Regression d) None
a) Unit b) Sample
29. Difference between maximum value and the minimum of data is called
a) mean b) Mode
c) Range d) None
a) Mean b) Mode
c) Variance d) None
c) A weapon d) None
33. Hypothesis is a
b) Concept
c) Mechanism
d) None
a) Statistics b) Biostatistics
c) Population d) None
214 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Dispersion b) Precision
c) Variable d) None
39. Variables are those which cannot be measured but can be ordered or ranked
by their magnitude
c) Records d) All
15 Biology of Fishes
a) Microlecithal b) Alecithal
c) Macrolecithal d) Mesolecithal
a) Isolecithal b) Homolecithal
a) Aerophils b) Pelagophils
a) Pelagophils
b) Aerophils
c) Psammophiles
a) Upeneaus b) Hemiramphus
c) Sardinella d) Lethrinus
a) Balistidae b) Coryphaenidae
c) Mullidae d) Mugilidae
a) Sapridae
b) Labridae
c) Centropomidae
d) Serranidae
a) Protandrous hermaphroditism
b) Synchronous hermaphroditism
c) Parthenogenesis
d) None
Biology of Fishes 217
a) Ovoviviparous b) Viviparous
a) Previtellogenesis b) Spermatogenesis
c) Parthenogenesis d) Vitellogenesis
a) Throwing in b) Thrust in
a) Alima b) Velliger
c) Cypris d) Trochophore
a) Mysis b) Nectochaeta
c) Glochidium d) Phyllosoma
a) Alevin b) Glochidium
c) Umbo d) Megolopa
218 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Oreochromis b) Rhodeus
c) Clarias d) Hemirampus
a) Cyprinidae b) Palaemonidae
c) Jenynsidae d) Centropomidae
d) Index of preponderance
a) Empty stomach
b) Regurgited stomach
c) Trace stomach
d) Gorged stomach
Biology of Fishes 219
a) Elasmobranchs b) Clupeids
a) Floating b) Pelagic
a) Eating detritus
b) Eating scale
d) Eating eggs
27. The transparent ribbon or leaf like larvae with large teeth and far back
anus in primitive Teleostomii is
a) Ammocoete b) Leptocephalus
c) Alevin d) Megalopa
a) Elasmobranchii b) Teleostomii
c) Crustaceans d) Molluscs
31. The type of tail fin symmetrical, both internally and externally is called
a) Homocercal b) Heterocercal
c) Proterocercal d) Diphycercal
a) Lt = L∞[1-e-K(t-t0)] b) L∞ = Lt [1-eK(t-t0)]
c) Lt = L∞[e-K(t-t0)] d) L∞ = Lt [e-K(t-t0)]
a) Patronym b) Matronym
c) Tautonym d) Synonym
a) Lamnidae b) Sphyrnidae
c) Sphyraenidae d) Carcharhinidae
a) Rajiformes b) Pristiophoriformes
c) Squatiniformes d) Squaliformes
a) Rajidae b) Dasyatidae
c) Urolophidae d) Gymnuridae
a) Acanthodi b) Sarcopterygii
c) Actinopterygii d) Euselachi
a) Orissa b) Gujarat
c) 10 –20° C d) 5 - 10° C
a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala
56. Caudal fin is confluent with dorsal fin and anal fin in
a) Bothidae b) Cynoglossidae
c) Solidae d) Pleuronectidae
a) Perciformes b) Cypriniformes
c) Beloniformes d) Clupeiformes
a) Sardines b) Ribbonfishes
b) Mackerels d) Perches
59. Which species / group forms the major portion of pelagic fish production
in India?
a) Caranx sp
b) Carangoides sp
c) Decapterus sp
d) Scomberoides sp
Biology of Fishes 225
62. Which seerfish species contributes maximum to the total seerfish production
in India
a) Scomberomorus lineolatus
b) Scomberomorus guttatus
c) Scomberomorus commerson
d) Acanthocybium solandri
c) 4 years
d) 1 year
64. Which state contributes maximum to the total lesser sardine production
in India?
a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala
c) Gujarat d) Maharashtra
65. Species belonging to the genera, Stolephorus and Encrasicholina are called
c) Whitefish d) Herrings
226 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Carangidae
b) Sciaenidae
c) Scombridae
d) Harpodontidae
a) Kerala b) Andhrapradesh
69. Which one of the followings shows the decreasing order of catch of lobster?
a) Sardine b) Anchovy
a) Killai backwater
b) Chilka lake
c) Pulicat lake
d) Hooghly-Matlah estuary
b) Belongs to Haemulidae
d) Only a and b
a) Huso b) Acipenser
c) Huso d) Onchorhynchus
c) Shark fishery
d) Silverbelly fishery
a) Kerala b) Karnataka
c) Mudskipper d) Eel
a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin
d) Haemoerythrin d) None
a) Bivalve b) Cephalopod
c) Gastropod d) All
a) Bivalve b) Cephalopod
c) Gastropod d) All
a) Teleost b) Elasmobranch
c) Lungfish d) Crustacean
89. How many pairs of ostia are present in the heart of fresh water prawn?
a) 3 pairs b) 4 pairs
c) 5 pairs d) 6 pairs
230 Fisheries Question Bank
d) Both a and b
a) Filiform pectinate
b) Phyllobranch
c) Lamelliform
d) Pleurobranch
a) 5 – 7 gill slits
b) Lamelliform gill
c) Parallel flow
a) I maxilliped
b) I maxilliped
c) III maxilliped
d) IV maxilliped
96. How many maturity stages are assigned for continuous spawners?
a) III b) IV
c) V d) VI
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 6
a) 3 b) 4
c) 2.5 d) 2.5 – 4
a) Bivalve b) Gastropod
c) Crustaceans d) Cephalopod
b) Ionic regulation
c) Moulting
a) Sense of hearing
b) Sense of balance
c) Sense of smell
d) Sense of taste
a) Retinulae b) Ommatidium
c) Osphradium c) Ctenidium
a) Chitin b) Conchiolin
c) CaCO3 d) SiO2
a) Epidermis b) Dermis
d) Both a and b
110. Process of violent sweeping of water over the gill lamellae to make them
free from accumulated detritus is
111. The increased facility with which the blood unloads oxygen when its
carbon dioxide tension is increased
112. The bones which connect the gas bladder to the inner ear
a) Supramaxilla b) Vomer
113. Hagfish is a
a) Osmoregulator b) Osmoconfirmer
c) Both a and b d) None
234 Fisheries Question Bank
114. Animals who can maintain the internal osmolarity differences from the
medium in which they are.
a) Osmoregulator b) Osmoconfirmer
d) None
c) Most anterior tubules lost; middle tubules associated with testes &
concentration & multiplication of tubules posteriorly
d) None of these
120. The transmission of the impulse from one neuron to the next in the chain
a) Impulse b) Synapse
c) Signal d) None
a) Cnidoblast b) Nematocyst
c) Ampullae d) Neuromast
123. Fish pituitary hormone which directly regulates the specific enzymatic
reactions in the various body or tissues.
c) Both a and b
d) None
236 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Neurohypophysis
b) Adenohypophysis
c) Both a and b
d) None
a) Neurohypophysis
b) Proadenohypophysis
c) Mesoadenohypophysis
d) Metaadenohypophysis
a) 19 pairs b) 13 pairs
c) 6 pairs d) 9 pairs
a) Cladocera b) Anostraca
c) Ostracoda d) Copepoda
a) Argulus b) Krill
c) Waterflea d) Barnacle
a) Cladocera b) Stomatopoda
c) Ostracoda d) Copepoda
Biology of Fishes 237
a) Antenna
b) Antennule
c) Pleopod
d) Pereopod
a) Macrura
b) Anomura
c) Palinura
d) Natantia
a) Brachyura b) Anomura
c) Astacura d) Palinura
b) Small carapace
c) Rostrum present
b) Anterolateral carapace cut into a teeth with last one enlarged as along
spine
d) None of these
a) Aplacophora
b) Polyplacophora
c) Monoplacophora
d) None
a) Chiton b) Chank
a) Prosobranchia b) Opisthobranchia
c) Pulmonata d) All
a) Archaegastropoda b) Mesogastropoda
c) Neogastropoda d) None
a) Muricidae b) Olividae
c) Vasidae d) Aplysidae
Biology of Fishes 239
a) Veneridae b) Mytilidae
c) Pectinidae d) Pinnidae
a) Pteridae b) Pinnidae
c) Ostreidae d) Mytilidae
a) Gastropod b) Bivalve
c) Cephalopod d) Scaphopod
c) Jaw d) radula
a) Teuthoidea b) Octopoda
c) Coleoidea d) Dibranchiata
a) Lo b) Lt
c) L∞ d) Ln
240 Fisheries Question Bank
d) Paloheimo mthos
a) E = F/Z b) E = M/Z
c) E = Z/F d) E = F x Z
a) 5 - 15 pairs b) 1 pair
c) 5 – 7 pairs d) 5 pairs
a) Protopteridae b) Ceratodontidae
c) Lepidosirenidae d) Polypteridae
a) Acanthodii b) Crossopterygii
c) Actinopterygii d) Neopterygii
a) Protoandrous hermaphrodite
b) Protogynous hermaphrodite
c) Metagonous hermaphrodite
d) Synchronous hermaphrodite
b) Ductus cuvieri
d) Epibranchial artery
a) Plotosidae b) Heteropneustidae
c) Ariidae d) Siluridae
160. The number of fish which grow into the catchable size range in unit of
time is
b) Absolute recruitment
161. A reproductive gulid where eggs of the fishes are hidden on a beach is
a) Psammophil b) Aeropsammophil
c) Phylolithphil d) Pelagophil
162. A fish species having the gas bladder closed with no connection to the gut is
a) Physoclist b) Phyostome
a) Hydrostatic organ
c) Respiratory organ
c) Physiological weakness
165. Alizarin is
d) An egg preservative
a) Channiformes
b) Megalopiformes
c) Perciformes
d) Gonorhynchiformes
a) Amia calva
b) Elops machnata
c) Latimeria chalumnae
d) Osteoglossum bicirrhosum
a) Myxiniformes
b) Petromyzontiformes
c) Salmoniformes
d) Gaterosteiformes
171. Fishes which regularly migrate between the sea and freshwater (or
vice versa) at some stage in their life cycle but not for the purpose of
reproduction.
a) Diadromous b) Potamodromous
c) Amphidromous d) Catadromous
173. A type of suspension where the upper jaw is connected directly to the
chondrocranium is
a) Amphistylic b) Hyostylic
c) Autostylic d) Craniostylic
a) Paratype b) Holotype
c) Neotype d) Allotype
Biology of Fishes 245
175. The ability of the organisms to maintain body fluids at a rather constant
osmotic pressure despite changes in their environment is called
c) Osmoregulation d) Homeostsis
a) Gujarat b) Kerala
c) Maharastra d) Karnataka
a) 1200km b) 1220km
c) 8129km d) 6350km
a) 372km b) 8118km
c) 200km d) 1000km
c) P. monodon d) P. semisulcatus
246 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 57 b) 88
c) 77 d) 34
a) 31 b) 51
c) 71 d) 77
a) Japan b) Australia
c) Indonesia d) Peru
187. Donax sp is a
a) Shrimps b) Fish
c) Plankton d) Bivalves
a) Trawler b) Vallam
c) Coracle d) Catamaran
196. The first fishes from upper Cambrian (490 million years BC) period are
known as_________.
a) Placoderms
b) Ostracoderms
c) Acanthodians
d) Colacanth
a) Harpodon nehereus
b) Synodus saurus
c) Atropus atropus
d) Silago sihama
a) Trilobed b) Bilobed
c) Rounded d) Lunate
a) American crayfish
b) Mantis shrimp
d) Krill
a) Penaeus semisulcatus
b) Penaeus indicus
d) Penaeus japonicus
Biology of Fishes 249
c) Prawn d) Lobster
a) Terebra b) Conus
c) Xancus d) Babylonia
a) b=3 b) 3
209. ________ scales are developed from the secretory activity of the both dermis
and epidermis.
a) Placoid b) Cycloid
c) Ctenoid d) Non-placoid
a) Aspiration b) Respiration
c) Circulation d) Urination
a) 108% b) 106%
c) 109% d) 105%
212. _________ fish eyes have lid like nictitating membranes which helps in
cleaning the surface of the cornea.
a) Shark b) Whale
a) Process of spawning
b) Enlargement of shell
d) Fattening of shellfishes
Biology of Fishes 251
c) Crab d) Euphuciacea
a) Species identification
b) Estimation of fecundity
d) Aging
a) Gonadal maturation
b) Reproduction
c) Moulting
d) Pituitary secretion
219. __________ are responsible for the sense of touch, hearing and position.
a) Electroreceptors b) Acoustics
c) Mechanoreceptors d) Radioreceptors
252 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Squalene b) Prolactin
c) Ambergris d) Triglicerides
221. Ammonia produced in the liver of the fish is converted into a non-toxic
form in the blood called _____
c) Creatine d) Creatinine
222. Animals that maintain an osmotic difference between their body fluids
and the surrounding environment are considered as ________.
a) Osmoregulators b) Osmohydrants
c) Osmoconformers d) Osmogradients
224. In edible oysters, the _______ larva changes into spat after 14-19 days.
a) Glochidium b) Trochophore
c) Veliger d) Pediveliger
a) Nauplius b) Zoea
c) Trochophore d) Mysis
a) 1950 b) 1952
c) 1960 d) 1962
Biology of Fishes 253
a) a direct b) an indirect
a) Asymptotic length
c) Length of fish
a) F b) M
c) Z d) G
a) Biomass b) Population
a) Catadromous migration
b) Anadromous migration
233. The Institute responsible to carry out research and developmental work
in Inland fisheries sector in India is.
a) CIFE b) CIFT
c) CMFRI d) CICFRI
a) Straight line
b) Curvilinear
c) Direct
d) No relationship
a) MEY b) Y
a) Logistics models
b) Analytical models
c) Exploratory surveys
d) Holistic models
a) 20C b) 50C
c) 10C d) 30C
240. The apparent force resulting from rotation of earth, which causes wind
deflection, is known as ________.
a) SEASAT-A b) TOPEX
c) INSAT-A d) INSAT-B
242. Hydrostatic pressure in the sea increases by _________ per meter depth.
a) 1bar b) 10mbar
c) 1decibar d) 10decibar
a) Marine Engineering
b) Chemical oceanography
c) Biological oceanography
d) Physical oceanography
256 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Diatoms
b) Dinoflagellates
c) Cocolithophores
d) Ceratium
245. The ________zone is the productive zone of the sea and its extent varies
with the availability of light.
a) Dysphotic b) Euphotic
c) Aphotic d) Abyssal
a) Malvan b) Sunderbans
c) Jamnagar d) Tuticorin
a) 2002 b) 1992
c) 2005 d) 1998
Biology of Fishes 257
a) Renibacterium salmonarium
b) Flexibacter columnaris
c) Vibrio anguillarum
d) Aerinibsa saknibucuda
a) Pseudomonas b) Flexibacter
c) Aeromonas d) Edwarsiella
a) Protozoans b) Wssv
a) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
b) Vibrio anguillarum
c) Vibrio cholera
d) Aeromonas salmonicida
258 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Aeromonas hydrophila
b) Pseudomonas sp
c) Yersinia ruckeri
d) Mycobacterium sp
a) Cestodes b) Nematodes
a) MBV b) BP
c) WSSV d) HPPV
a) Myxosoma cerebralis
b) Pseudomonas fluorescens
c) Achyla hoferi
d) Leptolignia marina
a) Tricodina b) Myxosporidia
c) Aeromonas d) Vibrio sp
a) Branchiomyces b) Bacteria
a) Aeromonas b) Pseudomonas
a) Pseudomonas b) Aeromonas
c) Ichtyopthrius d) Gyrodactylus
a) Miracidium b) Nauplius
a) Vit C deficiency
b) Vit B deficiency
c) Vit A deficiency
d) Calcium deficiency
a) O2 b) Co2
c) So2 d) NH3
a) Low salinity
b) Low alkalinity
c) High turbidity
a) Trypanasoma b) Tricodina
c) Microsporidian d) Amylodinium
a) Bothriocephalus b) Diphyllopthrium
c) Ticodina d) Ligula
a) Zoothamnium b) Epistylis
c) Costia d) Vorticella
272. Gram negative bacteria differs from gram positive bacteria in _________
a) Lernea b) Sacculina
c) Artemia d) Cypris
Biology of Fishes 261
a) Lernea b) Argulus
c) Glochidia d) Costia
a) Ectoparasite
b) Endoparasite
c) Viral diseases
d) Bacterial diseases
b) Enteric disease
c) Runt disease
a) Haemolysis b) Hyperplasia
c) Histolysis d) Hemorrhage
a) Arginine b) Urotensin
c) Cortisol d) Thyroxine
a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy
c) Atrophy d) Neoplasia
262 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy
c) Atrophy d) Neoplasia
a) RNA
b) DNA
a) ELISA b) Immunodot
284. The first report of EUS outbreak in India was in the year_________
a) 1988 b) 1991
c) 1990 d) 1993
285. The first report of WSSV outbreak in India was in the year_________
a) 1984 b) 1992
c) 1994 d) 1996
Biology of Fishes 263
a) Iron b) Magnesium
c) Calcium d) Sodium
a) Antifungal protein
b) Antiviral protein
c) Antibacterial protein
a) Kidney b) Heart
c) Liver d) Thymus
a) Antibodies b) Vaccines
c) Probiotics d) None
264 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Specificity b) Memory
a) CIFAX b) KMnO4
c) OTC d) NONE
a) CIFE b) CIBA
c) CIFA d) CMFRI
a) Lobsters b) Crab
c) Shrimp d) Fish
a) IgE b) IgM
c) IgA d) IgG
a) CIFE b) CCMB
c) CIFT d) CMFRI
a) Saproegniasp b) Branchimyces sp
c) Achyla sp d) Exophila sp
a) MBV b) TSV
c) WSSV d) IHHNV
a) 10 ppm b) 5 ppm
c) 20 ppm d) 2 ppm
302. The common medium employed for fish cell line is ________
a) TCBS b) MEM
c) TSA d) None
a) Bacteria b) Virus
306. Chronic soft shell syndrome in shrimps is caused due to the deficiency
of _______
a) Ca & P b) Fe & Cu
c) Mg &Mn d) Ca & Fe
310. The most common fungus that attack the fry and fingerlings ________
a) Saprolegnia parasitica
b) Branchiomyces species
c) Aspergillus sp
d) Tricodina sp
a) Pyknosis b) Apoptosis
c) Karyorexi d) Karyolysis
a) Virus b) Bacteria
c) Fungus d) None
a) HHNBV b) RV-PJ
c) SEMBV d) All
a) 1990 b) 1983
c) 1980 d) 1974
a) Ammonia b) Nitrate
c) Nitrite d) All
318. Fishes belong to the order Myxiniformes are commonly called as_____
a) Lungfishes b) Lampreys
319. The type of tail in which the upper and lower lobesare same in size is
known as___________
a) Homocercal b) Heterocercal
c) Emarginated d) Truncate
a) Salmon b) Catfish
c) Stingray d) Mackerel
a) Terminal b) Pointed
c) Subterminal d) Superior
a) Stenophagus b) Monophagus
c) Euryphagus d) Microphagus
a) Heme
b) Oxyhaemoglobin
c) Globin
d) Methemoglobin
Biology of Fishes 269
a) Pristidae b) Rajidae
c) Torpedinidae d) Squalidae
a) Rajiformes b) Torpediniformes
c) Squaliformes d) Hexanchiformes
a) Notopterus b) Sardine
c) Tuna d) Horsemackerel
a) Elopiformes b) Anguilliformes
c) Clupeiformes d) Perciformes
a) Superior b) Inferior
c) Subterminal d) Terminal
a) Placoid b) Cycloid
c) Ctenoid d) Ganoid
270 Fisheries Question Bank
334. Among the crustaceans the most dominant representative group in the
Indian fishery_______
a) Crab b) Prawn
c) Lobster d) Bivalve
a) Pernaindica b) Pernaviridis
c) Modiolusspp. d) Pinusnigreum
a) Sepia b) Loligo
c) Octopus d) Prawn
a) Tigerprawn b) Bananaprawn
c) Brownprawn d) Flowerprawn
Biology of Fishes 271
a) Petasma b) Thelycum
a) Haemoglobin b) Erythrocruorin
c) Haemocyanin d) Bloodlymph
341. Taxonomy which deals with the interspecific variations and their
revolutionary relationship
a) Alphataxonomy b) Betataxonomy
c) Gammataxonomy d) Classicaltaxonomy
a) Terebra b) Conus
c) Xancus d) Babylonia
a) Cold-blooded
b) Warm blooded
a) Plankton b) Nekton
c) Benthos d) Detritus
346. Planktivores, filter the food particles from the water by adaptations
known as_________
a) Gillfilaments b) Gilllamellae
a) Spiralvalve b) Gizzard
a) Theliver b) Thepancreas
c) Spleen d) Midgutgland
a) Liver b) Bonemarrow
a) Pyloricstomach b) Stomachproper
a) Circulus b) Radulus
c) Focus d) Annulus
Biology of Fishes 273
a) b =3 b) b>3
a) Whales b) Barracudas
c) Tuna d) Sharks
a) Simultaneous b) Protandrous
c) Protogynous d) Bisexual
a) Alimental b) Gametic
c) Climatic d) Wandering
a) Sight
c) Within freshwater
a) Internal b) External
a) Gutcontent analysis
b) Reproductive analysis
b) Points method
c) Displacement method
a) Direct relationship
b) Inverse relationship
c) No relationship
d) Positive relationship
a) Condition factor
b) Pondrel index
c) Curvature parameter
d) Growth factor
c) Time of birth
367. Scales are developed from the secretory activity of the both dermis and
epidermis
a) Placiod b) Cycloid
c) Ctenoid d) Non-placoid
276 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Placoid b) Non-placoid
c) Cycloid Ctenoid
a) Flaps b) Teeth
c) Sting d) Barbels
a) Notopterus b) Wallago
c) Baracudda d) Clarias
371. The________ is the temporary storage organ for the secretion of liver
a) Physostomus
b) Physoclistous
c) Physostatis
d) Physoglotous
a) Pericardial b) Peretonium
c) Neurocranium d) Cardial
Biology of Fishes 277
a) Olfactory b) Optic
c) Sight d) Humoral
a) Smell b) Vision
c) Taste d) Sense
a) White b) Green
377. The main blocks of which the muscles are made up of are known as_____
378. Science dealing with the form and structure of an organism is called as_____
a) Physiology b) Morphology
c) Anatomy d) Taxonomy
379. Which species of penaeid shrimp spend their whole life in the sea______
a) P.monodon
b) P.merguiensis
c) Parapenaeopsis stylifera
d) M.affinis
278 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Process of spawning
b) Enlargement of shell
a) 10 b) 11
c) 09 d) 13
a) 10 ppt b) 15 ppt
c) 13 ppt d) 20 ppt
a) P.monodon
b) P.semisulcatus
c) P.vannamei
d) P.indicus
Biology of Fishes 279
a) Stage I b) Stage II
387. Small solid mass of nervous tissue containing numerous cell bodies________
a) Nerve b) Ganglion
c) Commisure d) Nervecord
a) Closed b) Open
c) Partlyclosed d) Partlyopen
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 1
a) Urea b) Ammonia
a) Ca b) CaCO3
a) Pen b) Cuttlebone
a) Amblypharyngodon
b) Ctenopharyngodon
c) Acrossocheilus hexagonalepis
d) Hypopthalmicthys
a) >500ha b) 1000-5000ha
c) <500ha d) <1000ha
a) Volcanic activity
b) River activity
c) Glacial activity
d) Tectonic activity
Biology of Fishes 281
a) Brahmaputra b) Ganga
c) Narmada d) Hooghly
c) Inhabitants of sea
402. Which of the following exotic fish is introduced in India from Italy______
c) Ctenopharyngodonidella d) Gambusiaaffinis
404. Globally as per FAO, major inland fishing zones of the world are
divided into_______
a) 19 zones b) 8 zones
c) 17 zones d) 27 zones
282 Fisheries Question Bank
405. The marshy delta area of Hooghly matlah estuary is known as__________
a) Hooghlyarea b) Sundarforest
406. Which estuary lies between Cuttack and Puri district of Orissa?
c) Cauvery d) Mahanadi
a) Tsangpo b) Sangpo
c) Bihar d) WestBengal
411. In the year 1957 strains of the common carp were brought into the
country from_____
a) China b) Nepal
c) Japan d) Thailand
Biology of Fishes 283
a) 0-20degree b) 5-20degree
c) 10-12degree 10-15degree
414. Which of the following country always leads in inland fish production__
a) India b) China
c) Japan d) Thailand
416. The most important work on Indian fishes was contributed by:____
a) Engel b) Holden
c) Hamilton d) Nicolson
417. Temperate fish stocks differs from tropical fish stocks with respect to
b) Ease of aging
a) Y b) C
c) B d) Y’
a) h b) H
c) G d) None
c) Both A & B
a) m b) N
c) M d) Z
a) Kolivala b) Rampani
c) Castnet d) Ringnet
Biology of Fishes 285
a) 1970 b) 1967
c) 1977 d) 1957
428. First CMFRI station was established in the year 1947 at _________
a) Madras b) Cochin
c) Mandapam d) Karwar
a) 1950 b) 1952
c) 1960 d) 1962
a) 1000-1500m b) 1500-2000m
c) 200-1000m d) >2000m
a) Epiphytes b) Seagrass
434. Which state ranks first in the total marine fish production among the
maritime states of India______
a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra
c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu
435. The most popular method of fishing in the Lakshadweep for skipjack
tuna is by________
436. These adjacent to the territorial sea and having together a width of
notmore than 24 miles is known as________
a) Asymptotic length
c) Length of fish
438. The weight of the fish stock, or some of its defined portion is called as___
a) Stock b) Biomass
a) Microbial b) Enzymatic
c) Chemical d) Physical
2. During ………., 12000 Franks were won by Nicolas Appert for canning?
a) 1795 b) 1895
c) 1595 d) 1695
a) 1-2 mm b) 2-3 mm
c) 6-9 mm d) 10-13 mm
a) 35 b) 40
c) 60 d) 80
Canning And Packaging Technology 289
5. Can is washed in
a) Mahrastra b) Kerala
a) 35 b) 40
c) 60 d) 80
a) 10 b) 20
c) 25 d) 30
12. …………. is the best method of making the base plate of a Can?
13. What is the thickness of tin coating on the food contact side in
differential coating method?
a) 11.2 mm b) 5.6 mm
14. What is the thickness of tin coating on the external surface side in
differential coating method?
a) 11.2 mm b) 5.6 mm
a) 180 b) 280
c) 100 d) 80-85
a) PP b) Aluminum
c) PES d) PE
a) PP b) Aluminum
c) PES d) PE
a) PP b) Aluminum
c) PES d) PE
23. Fish is a
24. Lactobacillus is a?
a) 10⁰ C
c) 0.21 MIN
a) 10⁰ C
c) 0.21 MIN
31. It is an injury of can in which pressure inside the cans is equal to the
atmospheric pressure. When such cans are hit on the table, the can end
flips out and become convex.
c) Flipper d) Springer
32. It is an injury of can in which one end of can remains permanently convex
and if the end is pressed down the other end flips out.
c) Flipper d) Springer
a) Curd b) Adhesion
35. Struvite is
37. ………… is a small metal irregularities in the double seam in one more V shape.
a) Vee b) Panel
c) Seam d) Peak
c) Flipper d) Peaks
41. The double seam at the juncture with body seam will contain ….. ………. no.
of metal layers, if notching and edging are not done
a) 12 b) 14
c) 7 d) 11
a) Nylon b) Surlyn
c) PVC d) Terrycot
a) Lock seam
b) Soldered structure
c) Welded structure
d) Mechanical structure
46. The seam measurement called …………… contains all the metallic layers of
double seam
a) LDPE b) LLDPE
50. The bigger cans with high amount of head space may experience
a) Flipper b) Paneling
c) Bruising d) Rusting
a) 400 b) 500
c) 600 d)100
a) Alcohol b) Acids
c) Pressure d) Bases
a) Strength b) Force
c) Stability d) Power
a) < 4% b) 5-10%
c) 10-15% d) >15%
a) 10% b) 12%
c) 20% d) 24%
a) Decking b) Timber
c) Refrigeration d) Trawling
a) Heavy timber
c) Soft timber
60. This requires very strong and hard timber to resist decay and insect attack
a) Hull b) Deck
c) Knees d) All
17 Craft Technology
a) 1968 b) 1958
c) 1988 d) 1957
c) Orissa d) Karnataka
c) Orissa d) Karnataka
a) Maharastra b) Gujarat
c) Goa d) Kerala
7. ……..is the type of boat in which whole family lives in the boat at the time
of fishing?
a) Satpati b) Dhonies
c) Kolamaram d) Adhirampatnam
8. In which state of India Botali and Nava boat is used in the fishing operation?
9. In which state of India Batchari and Chot boat is used in the fishing operation?
a) Swamps b) Reservoirs
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 7
a) 5.8m b) 7.5m
c) 6.8m d) 7.8m
a) Teak b) Shisham
c) Semul d) Aini
a) Teak b) Shisham
c) Semul d) Aini
a) Teak
b) Shisham
c) Semul
d) Aini
a) Teak b) Shisham
c) Semul d) Aini
Craft Technology 301
c) Avoid Sapwood
18. Tangential shrinkage for the timber used in boat building should be?
a) >4% b) <4%
c) >5% d) <5%
a) 18-20% b) 8-10%
c) 35-40% d) 25-30%
20. Kiln method of Seasoning is also used to remove ……&…… from the wood?
a) 10-20⁰ C b) 40-85⁰ C
c) 180-200⁰ C d) 100-150⁰ C
a) Coaltar Creosote
25. Timber has to be seasoned to …..% moisture for non pressure process and
to ….% moisture for pressure process?
b) 15% and 25 %
c) 20% and 25 %
d) 25% and 15 %
a) 5 b) 4
c) 3 d) 2
27. Lowry and Rueping are which type of methods of timber treatment?
a) Presseure Process
a) Surface application
b) Soaking
a) Surface application
b) Soaking
a) 1.56 b) 7.84
c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6
31. 1st Material to replace wood in the boat building material is?
a) Iron b) Aluminum
c) FRP d) Steel
a) 1878
b) 1857
c) 1858
d) 1879
304 Fisheries Question Bank
33. …. type of boat building materials is also known as the Marine alloys?
a) Ferrocement b) FRP
c) Aluminium d) Steel
35. Among the following which is the correct example of Marine Borers?
a) Toredo b) Martesia
a) 3 b) 2
c) 4 d) 5
a) Mahogany b) Oak
c) Teak d) Elm
39. A joint in which ends are labelled and the entire surface remains continuous
is called as …
a) Stem b) Stern
a) Keel b) Trim
c) Sheer d) Camber
a) Keel b) Trim
c) Beam d) Camber
a) Sheer b) Trim
c) Beam d) Camber
a) 1968 b) 1958
c) 1858 d)1878
306 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5
c) >1<2.5 d) None
a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5
c) >1<2.5 d) None
50. For the semi displacement hull Froude’s Number should be?
a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5
c) >1<2.5 d) None
a) Freight Tonnage
b) Net Tonnage
c) Gross Tonnage
d) Deadweight Tonnage
52. Among the following which is the most widely used fish detection / fish
finding Instrument?
a) Sonar
b) Net Sonde
c) Radar
d) Echo Sounder
Craft Technology 307
54. Among the following which is a type of echo sounder developed to find out
the precise position of a pelagic trawl?
a) Sonar
b) Net Sonde
c) Radar
55. Acoustic link Transducer and Cable link Transducer are two distinct forms
of which fish finding instrument?
a) Sonar
b) Net Sonde
c) Radar
56. …… Wood contains oxalic acid and produces vinegar like smell at the time
of cutting?
a) Teak b) Pine
c) Oak d) Iroko
57. A triangular piece of wood which connects the stem and keel is called as?
c) Tuticorin d) Catamaran
a) 15 b) 16
c) 20 d) 18
60. ….. boat popularly known as the Gal boat used along the coast of Maharastra
upto ratnagiri for gill net?
a) 1.56 b) 7.84
c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6
a) 1.56 b) 7.84
c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6
a) 1.56 b) 7.84
c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6
a) Stem b) Stern
a) Stem b) Stern
a) Stem b) Stern
67. It is the capacity of ship to carry the cargo, stores, fuel, passengers etc.?
68. Line drawn on vessel when the loaded ship floats is known as?
1. Ideal Stowage height of fish & ice should not be more than
a) 0.5m b) 1 m
c) 1.5 m d) 2.0 m
2. There should be atleast ……… space for the airspace between the bottom
board and the floor of the fish hold.
a) 5cm b) 10cm
c) 15cm d) 20cm
a) Freezing b) Cooling
a) 1:1 b) 2:1
c) 1:2 d) 3:1
Fish Freezing Technology 311
a) Freezing b) Chilling
c) Cooling d) Stowage
a) Half
b) Double
c) Quadruples
d) Independent of temperature
c) CFC d) HCFC
c) CFC d) HCFC
c) CFC d) HCFC
312 Fisheries Question Bank
c) CFC d) HCFC
c) CFC d) HCFC
a) Brine b) Ammonia
c) CFC d) HCFC
a) R717 b) R118
c) R760 d) R729
a) R717 b) R118
c) R760 d) R729
16. Which is the most widely used refrigerant in fish processing plant?
c) CFC d) HCFC
17. Which is the most inflammable refrigerant used in fish processing plant?
c) CFC d) HCFC
Fish Freezing Technology 313
c) CFC d) HCFC
a) -1⁰C b) -1.98 ⁰C
c) -5⁰C d) 18⁰C
c) Possible d) All
a) Freezing zone
d) All
22. It is a condition attained by liquid where its temperature falls below its
freezing point without crystallization.
a) Freezing b) Cooling
a) 0⁰C
b) -50⁰C
c) -5⁰C
d) -1.8⁰C
314 Fisheries Question Bank
25. Which of the following ice has the maximum cooling effect-
26. Which of the following ice has the maximum surface area-
27. Which of the following ice has the minimum surface area-
c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg
a) Pink b) Yellow
c) Black d) Red
a) Pink b) Yellow
c) Black d) Red
Fish Freezing Technology 315
a) Eutectic temperature
b) Cryohydric temperature
c) Super freezing
d) Both A &B
c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg
c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg
a) 10 min b) 20 min
c) 30 min d) 60 min
40. The time required to freeze the material in plate freezer is-
a) 10 min b) 20 min
c) 30 min d) 60 min
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) VPF b) HPF
43. ………… freezers was developed for freezing the whole fish at sea on board
of the fishing vessel?
a) VPF b) HPF
a) VPF b) HPF
a) VPF b) HPF
46. ………..freezers are the most advanced technology for the freezing of fish?
a) VPF b) HPF
a) Rotary freezer
b) HPF
a) Rotary freezer
b) HPF
c) Cryogenic freezers
a) 198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C
c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C
a) -198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C
c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C
a) -198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C
c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C
53. Conversion of ice directly into vaour witout passing through liquid stage
is known as the?
a) Deliqification
b) Liquification
c) Evaporation
d) Sublimation
54. Which is the most commonly used salt in preparing the brine?
a) Potassium chloride
b) Sodium chloride
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sodium iodide
a) Ammonia b) Freon 12
c) CFC d) HCFC
Fish Freezing Technology 319
c) Both
d) None
c) Thawing d) Defrost
60. During Fish freezing cycle almost all the water is frozen at
a) 0⁰C b) -50⁰C
c) -20⁰C d) -1.8⁰C
19 Fish Gear Technology
a) Cotton b) Ramie
c) Manila d) Coir
a) Cotton b) Ramie
c) Manila d) Coir
a) Cotton
d) Coir
Fish Gear Technology 321
a) Cotton b) Ramie
c) Manila d) Coir
a) 100 b) 200
c) 300 d) 400
a) Rope b) Fibre
a) PA b) PES
c) PVC d) PVA
a) PA b) PES
c) PVC d) PVA
322 Fisheries Question Bank
a) PP b) PE
c) PES d) PVA
16. ………..is the maximum force applied to a specimen causing it to the rupture
or break?
19. H. Staudinger has got the Nobel Prize for the development of synthetic
fibre in the year?
a) 1943 b) 1953
c) 1963 d) 1968
a) Rope b) Fibre
a) Braiding b) Plaiting
c) Both d) Weaving
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
Fish Gear Technology 325
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
34. Range of radio buoy which is used in Tuna long line extends upto?
a) 50 km b) 100 km
c) 150 km d) 200 km
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
a) 2 b) 25
c) 4 d) 12
a) TEX b) DENIER
39. Which among the following is most widely used Yarn Numbering system?
a) TEX b) DENIER
a) 0.111 b) 0.222
c) 0.333 d) 0.444
a) Head b) Foot
c) Selvedeges d) Knot
a) Head b) Foot
c) Selvedeges d) Knot
a) Head b) Foot
c) Selvedeges d) Knot
a) Baiting b) Creasing
a) Baiting b) Creasing
a) Baiting b) Creasing
a) Baiting b) Creasing
a) Tailoring b) Mounting
C) Reeving d) Setting
50. It is the method of spreading / spacing the meshes of the netting on the
head line?
a) Tailoring b) Mounting
c) Reeving d) Setting
51. It is the process of fitting necessary ropes and accessories on the hand line?
a) Tailoring b) Mounting
c) Reeving d) Rigging
a) Thimble b) Shackle
53. ……..is used as a connecting link or the device for fastening parts together?
a) Thimble b) Shackle
a) Thimble b) Shackle
a) Thimble b) Shackle
a) Thimble b) Shackle
c) Crown d) Stock
c) Crown d) Stock
c) Crown d) Stock
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
Fish Gear Technology 329
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
a) Eye b) Head
c) Shank d) Barb
a) American b) Japanese
c) Portugese d) Norwegian
a) 14 b) 15
c) 16 d) 18
71. Technique of catching fish with hand lines and ripping hooks?
a) Pilking b) Jigging
a) Floats b) Sinkers
a) Floats b) Sinkers
a) Lint b) Fluke
c) Armors d) Fluke
80. Which has the highest resistance to acids among the synthetic fibres ?
a) PA b) PES
c) PVC d) PVA
c) Europe d) Norway
332 Fisheries Question Bank
a) PA6.6 b) PES
c) PVC d) PVA
a) 7 b) 8
c) 9 d) 10
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
a) Barbed b) Barbless
c) Both d) None
a) Grapnel b) Patent
c) CQR d) Admirality
a) PP b) PE
c) PES d) PVA
a) Triangular b) Round
c) Oval d) traight
a) Triangular b) Round
c) Oval d) Straight
a) 1st b) 2nd
c) 3rd d) Last
a) 0.4-0.5 b) 0.6
c) 0.7 d) 0.8
a) 0.4-0.5 b) 0.6
c) 0.7 d) 0.8
a) Reeving b) Stapling
c) Norselling d) Rigging
95. What is the portion of Thimble where an eye or hook or shackle is fitted
on a block?
a) Neck b) Head
c) Crown d) Score
334 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Mending d) All
a) 210/6/3 b) 20/0/3
c) 21/0/3 d) 210/20/3
a) 210/6/3 b) 20/0/3
c) 21/0/3 d) 210/20/3
a) 0.4-06% b) 4-6%
c) 40-60% d) 12-20%
Navigation and
20 Seamenship
a) Log
b) Compass
c) Sextant
d) Echo sounder
a) Fishing vessel
c) Sailing vessel
d) Seaplanes
a) Compass north
b) Geographical north
c) True north
d) Magnetic north
336 Fisheries Question Bank
4. Half the are of great circles running from pole to role are called
a) None of these
b) Rhumblines
c) Latitudes
d) Meridians
a) Use of anchors
d) Use of tugs
a) Beached b) Stranded
c) Moored d) Anchored
7. Reference direction is
c) Aground d) Aboard
c) Stern d) Aft
Navigation and Seamenship 337
c) Whart d) Bouy
12. According to IMCO, which of the following vessel is not considered as vessel
engaged in fishing
a) Trolling b) Lining
a) Yellow b) Red
14. Which of the following errors will be frimed when index mirror and horizon
glass are nor parallel to each other
a) Sextant
b) Log
c) Echosounder
b) Earth’s magnetism
c) Notices to mariners
d) Nautical almanac
18. Three letter signals starting with the letter ‘M’ are concerned with
a) Transducer b) Transmitter
a) Charts b) Practice
a) Variation
b) Collimation error
c) Deviation
d) None of these
a) SONAR
b) RADAR
c) Echosounder
a) Equator
b) Greenwich Meridian
c) 90E longitude
d) None of these
a) Depth sounding
b) Terrestrial objects
c) Navigational aids
27. A position established at a specific time with high degree of accuracy is called
a) DR b) Fix
a) Rain b) Mist
a) Green b) White
31. EPIRB is a
a) Safety b) Urgency
c) 20 HZ - 20 KHZ d) 20 HZ – 2000HZ
a) Piloting b) DR
c) SONAR d) EPIRB
38. Magnavox satellite navigation M X 1102 is well suited for fishing vessels
as it provides constant and precise position data, is a
c) Sonar d) Radar
a) 1935 b) 1937
c) 1945 d) 1947
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
Product Development &
21 Quality Control
a) W-E b) N-S
c) S-N d) E-W
a) 5⁰C b) 10⁰C
c) 15⁰C d) 20⁰C
a) Moisture content b) RH
a) Air speed
b) Air Temperature
c) Both A & B
a) Air speed
b) Air Temperature
c) Both A & B
c) Hygrometer d) Hydrometer
344 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 0.91 b) 0.85
c) 0.80 d) 0.75
a) 0.91 b) 0.85
c) 0.80 d) 0.75
a) 0.91 b) 0.85
c) 0.80 d) 0.75
a) 0.91 b) 0.85
c) 0.80 d) 0.75
a) 0.60 b) 0.65
c) 0.80 d) 0.75
a) CMFRI b) CIBA
c) CIFT d) CIFNET
a) Cambodia b) China
c) Japan d) Scotland
Product Development and Quality Control 345
a) Halophilic b) Halophobic
c) Halotolerant d) None
a) Halophilic b) Halophobic
c) Halotolerant d) None
21. …………. bacteria can tolerate salt concentration above 5% and below 15%.
a) Halophilic b) Halophobic
c) Halotolerant d) None
a) <30⁰ C b) <-30⁰ C
c) 50-80⁰ C d) -18⁰ C
a) <30⁰ C b) <-30⁰ C
c) 50-80⁰ C d) -18⁰ C
a) Phenolic b) Benzopyredene
c) Xylenol d) Furans
Product Development and Quality Control 347
a) Phenolic
b) Benzopyredene
c) Xylenol
d) Furans
a) Salted product
b) Smoked product
c) Fermented product
d) Marinated product
a) Squalene b) Surimi
a) 0.1% b) 0.2%
c) 0.3% d) 0.4%
a) Squalene b) Surimi
a) Squalene b) Surimi
37. …………is a highly saturated isoprenoid which is isolated from Shark liver oil.
a) Squalene b) Surimi
c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
42. ……… is a metabolic product obtained from the intestinal tract of Sperm
Whale.
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) Tuna b) Halibut
c) Cod d) Herring
46. …….. fish has low oil and high vitamin potency?
a) Cod b) Hake
c) Haddock d) Tuna
a) Maharastra b) Karnataka
b) Surimi
c) Fish ensilage
d) Fish Hydrolysate
350 Fisheries Question Bank
49. …….. has 0.75% Fat, 85% Protein with Tasteless, Colourless&Odourless
characteristics.
50. …….. has 3% Fat, 71% Protein with Fishy odour characteristics.
a) T. Imai b) KoikichiMikimoto
c) Forbes d) Hardwelson
a) T. Imai b) KoikichiMikimoto
c) Forbes d) Hardwelson
53. ………. is a liquid product made by the action off enzymes, acids and bacterias.
a) Squalene b) Surimi
54. “Isinglass” is a
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6-7
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
59. Which is the best suited fish for making the superior quality of isinglass.
a) Tuna b) Haddock
c) Cod d) Hake
60. The cleaned, desalted, air dried and hardened swimbladder is called as
a) Skin b) Bones
a) Methionine b) Leucine
c) Lysine d) Tryptophane
352 Fisheries Question Bank
63. ………….. is a lustrous substance found on the epidermal layer of the skin &
deposited over the scale.
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) Squalene b) Ambergris
a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 1.6 d) 2.0
66. ……. fish scales are the principal source of pearl essence.
a) Tuna b) Haddock
c) Cod d) Herrings
67. What is the maximum moisture level permitted in the export of shark fin
rays?
a) <10% b) <20%
c) <30% d) <40%
68. Which fin in the shark contribute to minimum number of fin rays?
a) Caudal b) Dorsal
c) Pectoral d) Pelvic
a) Collagen b) Chitosan
c) GlucosmineHCl d) Chitin
Product Development and Quality Control 353
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) Japan b) China
c) India d) Cambodia
a) HolothuriaScabra b) Holothurianobilis
c) Holothuriaedulis d) All
a) Round b) Circular
c) Conical d) Cylindrical
a) Tuna b) Sardine
a) Tuna b) Sturgeon
c) Salmon d) Catfishes
a) Japanese product
b) Chinese product
c) Vietnamese product
d) Indian product
d) All
Product Development and Quality Control 355
a) 30% b) 40%
c) 50% d) 60%
a) Frying b) Boiling
c) Cooking d) All
a) Mumbai b) Kolkata
c) Cochin d) Veraval
86. Heavier load of bacteria is reported when the fish is caught in the……………
a) 2 ppm b) 5 ppm
c) 10 ppm d) 20 ppm
c) Gelora d) Kanten
c) Gelora d) Kanten
356 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Gelora d) All
c) Gelora d) Kanten
109. …………. is preferable and is better source of radiation for food purpose?
a) Cobalt b) Caesium
c) Carbon d) Fluorine
c) Pasteurization d) Appertization
Product Development and Quality Control 359
111. What is the ratio of maximum to minimum absorbed dose ideally used
in food irradiation?
a) 2:3 b) 3:2
c) 1:2 d) 2:1
112. Among the following which has the highest penetration power?
a) 220 nm b) 240 nm
c) 260 nm d) 280 nm
115. The process of extending the shelf life through irradiation is known as?
a) Radurization b) Radicidation
c) Radappertization d) All
116. The process of reducing the number of viable non spore forming pathogenic
bacteria is known as?
a) Radurization b) Radicidation
c) Radappertization d) All
a) Radurization b) Radicidation
c) Radappertization d) All
360 Fisheries Question Bank
118. What is the minimum amount of protein required by a human per day is
a) 5 gm b) 10 gm
c) 20 gm d) 30 gm
119. Among the following which causes sweet taste of meat after the degradation
of nucleotides?
a) ATP b) ADP
c) AMP d) IMP
120. Among the following which causes bitter taste of meat after the degradation
of nucleotides?
a) ATP b) ADP
c) AMP d) Hx
a) 0 b) 10-20
c) >25 d) >30
a) 0 b) 10-20
c) >25 d) >30
a) 0 b) 10-20
c) >25 d) >20
a) 103-105/cm2 b) 104-106/cm2
126. The amount of bacterial load present in the gut of fish is?
a) TMAO b) TMA
c) Histamine d) Hstidine
a) < 10 b) < 5
c) 0 d) <15
a) > 10 b) > 5
c) >15 d) >20
a) Bulking b) Shelving
c) Boxing d) All
a) 1:1 b) 1:2
c) 2:1 d) 3:1
362 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1-2 mm b) 2-3 mm
c) 4-5 mm d) 6-9 mm
136. Cold storage temperature for lean fishes recommended by IIR is?
a) -18 ⁰ C b) -20 ⁰ C
c) -22 ⁰ C d) -24 ⁰ C
139. For larger varieties of fishes the ratio adopted for salting (salt : fish) is____
a) 3:1 b) 1:10
c) 1:3 d) 4:1
140. In ______ method, pieces of Garcinia gambogea is mixed along with fish
and salt during curing
144. _______ method of fish meal production is more suitable for batch Operation
a) Wet rendering
b) Dry rendering
c) Par boiling
d) Spray drying
364 Fisheries Question Bank
146. Flesh of the most fish constitutes _______% of its total weight
a) 20-30 b) 25-35
c) 50-55 d) 30-40
147. Salt derived from the evaporation of seawater and salt takes are
called _______
a) Solar salt
c) Rock salt
d) Seawater salt
a) 35-40oC b) 50oC
c) 60-80oC d) 70oC
149. Smoking done at higher temperature range of ______ is called hot smoking
a) 35-40oC b) 50oC
c) 60-80oC d) 70oC
a) PAH b) Phenolic
c) Organic d) Inorganic
Product Development and Quality Control 365
a) Corona discharge
b) Gamma radiation
c) Electrical discharge
d)Radiation
c) Dry fish
a) Shigella
b) Lactobacillus
c) Listeria
d) Escherichia
a) Teichoic acid
b) Peptidoglycan
c) N-acetyl glucosamine
d) Lipopolysaccharide
a) Patent b) Label
c) Scales d) Muscle
a) WilhemKuhne b) B. Franklin
a) Desmin b) Nevulene
c) Parvalbumin d) Paramyosin
a) Nevulene b) Connectin
160. ............... is the no. of gram equivalent weight of the reagent containing
in 1.0 litre of solution
a) molarity b) molality
c) normality d) mole
161. ............... is the no. of gram molecular weight of the reagent containing in
1.0 litre of solution
a) molarity b) molality
c) normality d) mole
a) 5-10 ml b) 10-15 ml
c) 20-25 ml d) 30-35 ml
a) Positive b) Negative
d) All of these
166. Parvalbumin is a
d) muscle of bivalves
168. Titin is a
a) oxidized b) reduced
c) brown d) yellow
a) yellow b) brown
c) green d) blue
c) Desmin d) Titin
a) holoenzyme b) zymogen
174. Which protein is responsible for muscle contraction and gel formation
a) Prolamine b) Glutelin
c) Globulin d) Albumin
Product Development and Quality Control 369
a) Protein b) Carbohydrate
a) TMA b) DMA
a) 20 mg/100mg b) 20mg/100gm
c) 50mg/100mg d) none
c) sharks
d) smaller fishes
a) triacylglycerol
b) phospholipid
c) both
d) None
370 Fisheries Question Bank
a) EPA b) DHA
a) EFA b) PUFA
a) measurement of peroxide
c) measurement of malonaldehyde
d) measurement of glycerol
a) Ethyl form
b) Propyl form
c) Methyl form
d) Sulphate form
Product Development and Quality Control 371
a) 30 ppm b) 50 ppm
189. Green sick oyster occur due to high level of ............. content
a) Zn b) Pb
c) Cu d) Cd
a) methionine b) histidine
c) cysteine d) leucine
191. Zwitter ion is the condition where the pH of an amino acid has ............ charge
a) positive b) negative
c) neutral d) none
c) at higher pH d) neutral Ph
a) astaxanthin b) leukotriene
c) squalene d) ambergris
194. Patulin is a
a) sardine b) messel
c) oyster d) tuna
a) boiled b) broiled
c) bonetto d) anchovies
199. Best suited tropical fish species for surimi production in India is
a) alaskapollock
c) carps
d) eels
a) polyaeronated hydrocarbon
a) methionine
b) tryptophan
c) tyrosine
d) histidine
a) cysteine b) lysine
a) methionine b) tryptophan
c) tyrosine d) isoleucine
a) FPC b) ambergris
a) anchovies b) sardine
a) deaminated b) deodorized
c) deacetylated d) dephosphorylated
a) tuna b) mackerel
c) sardine d) anchovies
a) A.K.Shriever b) P.Murray
a) rectangular b) round
a) rectangular b) round
a) rectangular b) round
a) thermophilic b) mesophilic
c) psychrotrophic d) psychrophilic
216. Which of the following method of heat transfer generally takes place in
case of canning
a) convection b) conduction
c) radiation d) all
a) sterilization
b) microbial sterilization
c) commercial sterilization
d) statistical sterilization
219. Which of the following bacteria is known for Flat sour spoilage in canned
food
a) Bacillus coagulans
b) B. Stearothermophilus
c) B. Polymyxa
d) B. Macerans
376 Fisheries Question Bank
220. Which of the following bacteria is known for producing both acid & gas
in canned foods
a) Bacillus coagulans
b) B. Stearothermophilus
c) B. Polymyxa
d) B. Subtilis
221. Which of the following bacteria is known for swelling in canned foods
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Cl. nigrificans
c) Cl. thermosacharolyticum
d) B. Macerans
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Cl. nigrificans
c) Cl. thermosacharolyticum
d) B. Macerans
223. The time required to reduce the no. of spores by one logarithm cycle is
called
a) Z-value b) D-value
c) F-value d) none
a) high b) low
a) Z-value b) D-value
c) F-value d) none
228. The time required to kill a particular bacteria at a particular temp is called
a) Z-value b) D-value
c) F-value d) none
229. As per 12D concept if the initial spore count is 1,then the final count after
sterilization will be
a) 1 b) 1012
c) -10 d) 10-12
a) 0.19 b) 0.23
c) 0.28 d) 0.31
231. SHP in can is generally measured at ............... part from the bottom
a) ½ b) 1/3
c) 2/3 d) ¼
378 Fisheries Question Bank
232. As per FAO, IAEA, WHO the maximum recommended radiation limit in
food is
a) 5KGY b) 10KGY
c) 15KGY d) 20KGY
a) radurization b) radicidation
c) radappertization d) none
a) 1.5 b) 2.5
c) 4.0 d) 5.5
a) radurization b) radicidation
c) radappertization d) none
c) 10-14KGY d) 20-50KGY
237. If raw fish is canned without blanching the drained weight will be
a) increase b) reduce
a) 2-3 mm b) 5-7 mm
c) 6-9 mm d)12-16mm
Product Development and Quality Control 379
a) panelling b) bulging
c) corroding d) leakage
240. During can filling if the solid portion do not immerse properly in liquid
medium then ............... problem may arise
241. A can with a minute leak which permit only air to move in or out but not
microbes to enter is called.................
a) clinch b) flipper
c) springer d) breather
242. A can with one end or both end bulge, while pressing one end by finger
leads to bulging in another end is called...............
a) flipper b) breather
243. Which pathogenic bacteria has shown carrier stage in its life cycle for
spreading disease
a) staphylococcus b) vibrio
c) salmonella d) shigella
244. Which type of botulism toxin is associated with fish & fishery products
a) type C b) type D
c) type G d) type E
380 Fisheries Question Bank
245. The microbial species present during low temperature spoilage is____
a) Pseudomonas b) Micrococcus
c) Bacillus d) Aspergillus
a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas
c) Flavobacterium d) Aeromonas
a) Psycrophiles b) Thermopiles
c) Mesophiles d) Psycrotrops
248. How many calories are absorbed when 1 kg of ice melt equivalent to
latent heat__________
a) 5 b) 144
c) 80 d) 318
249. The processing technique commonly used for Bombay duck is ___________
a) Canning b) freezing
c) smoking d) drying
250. Name the traditional method of fish processing and preservation ________
a) Drying b) canning
c) freezing d) irradiation
c) chitin d) factice
Product Development and Quality Control 381
a) Polysaccharide b) polyphosphate
a) Moisture % b) Salt %
a) Shark b) tuna
a) Autolysis b) pseudomonas sp
a) Marinating b) drying
c) canning d) freezing
a) Kjeldhal b) Fiske
c) Winkler’s d) none
a) Kerala b) Gujarat
a) Starch b) glycogen
c) Triglycerides d) glycine
a) 16-20 b) 20-25
c) 10-15 d) 2-8
a) Trimethylamine b) histamine
c) ammonia d) glucosamine
a) Cl4 b) CO2
c) CH4 d) CH3COOH
Product Development and Quality Control 383
c) permanganate d) cobalt
c) nucleotide d) glucose
a) Bombay b) Chennai
c) Howrah d) Delhi
b) prevents rancidity
c) kills bacteria
a) Sea snakes
b) puffer fish
c) jelly fish
d) Bombay duck
384 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Milk b) wheat
c) Fish d) fruits
a) Dried squid
d) none
a) Halophilic bacteria
b) Tyrosinases enzyme
c) Fat oxidation
d) None
279. The quality and taste of the preserved fish will be high ____________
a) Shark
b) Sperm whale
c) Blue whale
d) cuttle fish
a) 3.5 b) 4.5
c) 5.5 d) 6.5
283. ATP synthesis takes place when electrons are transferred from ____
a) FAD to CoQ
b) Cyt c1 to Cyt c2
284. The non protein nitrogen matter involved in the bitter taste of fish____
a) TMAO b) Glycine
c) Hypoxanthine d) Creatinine
a) Phenol b) Alanine
c) Astaxanthin c) Leucotriene
a) Mitochondria b) Ribosomes
c) Cytoplasm d) Nucleus
a) Indole b) Glucose
c) Vit C d) Arginine
a) Starch b) Agar
c) Vit C d) Arginine
a) ATP b) GTP
c) IMP d) ADP
c) 5 ppm d) 10 ppm
a) 15 b) 12
c) 38 d) 2
a) 9.5 b) 9.3
c) 9.1 d) 9.2
a) 90 b) 75
c) 85 d) 95
a) Pectin b) Carrageen
c) Chitin d) Gelatin
388 Fisheries Question Bank
c) 1.5 micromoles/gram
a) Freezing b) Desiccation
c) Chilling d) Thawing
a) Hydration b) Heating
c) Dehydration d) freezing
a) Cold store
c) Processing hall
d) Freezers
4. The first civilization to harvest winter’s ice and store it in summer months
a) Indians b) Japanese
c) Chinese d) Americans
390 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Thermodynamics b) Hydrodynamics
a) Power b) Energy
7. Capacity to work
a) Power b) Energy
a) 80 kcal/kg b) 45 kcal/kg
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Hydrodynamic d) Thermodynamic
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) Low temperature
c) High temperature
13. Ammonia is
c) Explosive d) Flammable
a) Burnt b) Colorful
c) Explode d) Inactive
c) Explosion d) Flame
a) High b) Low
a) Flammable
b) Explosive
c) Odourless
a) NH3 b) SO2
c) CO2 d) Cl
a) SO2 b) NH3
c) H2 d) Cl
a) Toxic b) Explosive
a) Color b) Odor
a) N2 b) SO2
c) CO2 d) NH3
a) NH4 b) NH3
c) CO2 d) SO2
a) F22 b) F11
c) F21 d) F12
a) F22 b) F11
c) F21 d) F12
a) F11 b) F12
c) F13 d) F21
a) F11 b) F12
c) F22 d) F21
a) F21 b) F22
c) F13 d) F11
c) No vacuumzone
d) Zero pressurezone
394 Fisheries Question Bank
31. Mode of heat transfer between liquid and gases are known as
a) Conduction b) Convection
c) Radiation d) None
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
a) R11 b) R12
c) R717 d) R718
a) R11 b) R12
c) R717 d) R718
c) Condenser d) None
c) condenser d) None
Fish Refigration 395
38. The nominal distance through which a piston moves from TDC to BDC or
vice versa is called
a) Stroke b) Pitch
c) a & b d) None
39. The ratio between the total volume and the clearance volume is called
c) a & b d) None
d) a & b
42. The quantity of heat extracted from a cold body or space to be cooled in a
given time is called
d) None
396 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 3 to 5% b)3 to 6%
c) 3 to 8% d) None
a) 3 to 5% b) 3 to 6%
c) 3 to 8% d) None
a) Enthalpy b) Entropy
a) Enthalpy b) Entropy
a) Density b) Radiation
c) Liquidity d) None
a) Conduction b) Convection
c) Radiation d) All
1. In situ cyonservation is
c) Both d) None
3. Antibodies are?
a) Lipoprotein b) Glycoprotein
c) Lipopolysaccharides d) Steroids
a) Antigen b) Antibody
a) Monomer b) Dimer
c) Tetramer d) Pentamer
a) Ig A b) Ig M
c) Ig G d) Ig W
7. Vaccines are,
a) Antibody b) Immunosuppressant
c) Antigen d) Hormone
a) Water vapour
b) Carbon di oxide
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
a) Rising of temperature
a) IUCN b) UNICEP
c) WHO d) ICZEP
Miscellaneous 401
c) Extinct d) Vulnerable
a) Globulin
b) Albulin
a) Iron b) Copper
c) Chromium d) Aluminium
a) 1929 b) 1919
c) 1939 d) 1963
a) Threonine b) Tryptophan
c) Cysteine d) Arginine
a) Lungs b) Liver
c) Kidney d) Stomach
a) Right b) Left
c) Clockwise d) Any
a) 2 Feb b) 1 Feb
c) 3 Feb d) 2 Jan
a) T-7 b) TTC
a) T-7 b) TTC
c) Mac Conky d) BP
a) TCBS b) KI
a) BSA b) HEA
c) SCB d) All
a) T-7 b) TTC
c) Mac Conky d) KF
a) T-7 b) KI
a) T-7 b) TTC
a) CMFRI b) CIFA
c) CIFRI d) CIFT
32. Which institute has recently launched Mobile fish vendor trolley?
a) CIFA b) CMFRI
c) CIFRI d) CIFT
33. Which fisheries institute has recently achieved success in breeding and
hatchery management of milk fish?
a) CIFA b) CMFRI
c) CIBA d) CIFT
a) Kerala b) Gujarat
a) Pinctada fucata
b) Pincatada margaritifera
c) Pinctada maxima
d) None
a) Pinctada fucata
b) Pincatada margaritifera
c) Pinctada maxima
d) None
Miscellaneous 405
a) Pinctada fucata
b) Pincatada margaritifera
c) Pinctada maxima
d) None
a) Kerala& Goa
d) Karnataka& Maharastra
a) Kerala b) Gujarat
a) Kerala b) Gujarat
a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha
c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha
a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha
c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha
406 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha
c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha
a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha
c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha
a) 351 b) 251
c) 750 d) 700
a) 5 b) 14
c) 44 d) Innumerable
a) 5 b) 14
c) 44 d) Innumerable
a) 5 b) 14
c) 44 d) Innumerable
b) Chilka lake
c) Ashtamundi lake
d) Vemabanad lake
a) 4 & 3 b) 3 & 4
c) 3 & 2 d) 2 & 3
54. National Ganga river basin authority was formed in the year?
a) 1981 b) 1998
c) 1984 d) 2009
408 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 0.1 b) 0.33-1.08
c) 3.51- 7.56 d) 1
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) All
a) 50-100 b) 100-200
c) 250-800 d) 1000-2000
a) 1985 b) 1984
c) 1992 d) 1993
a) 1985 b) 1984
c) 1992 d) 1993
c) 4 d) 5
Miscellaneous 409
a) Ponds b) Oceans
c) Swamps d) Reservoirs
63. Pen culture on a regular basis has not been practiced anywhere in India
except the.
c) Tungabhadra reservoir
d) All
a) Snow trout
b) Common carp
c) Bola
d) Brown trout
a) 25 b) 20
c) 15 d) 35
c) Pengba d) Rohu
a) 5.35 L b) 6.35 L
c) 5.15 L d) 6.15 L
410 Fisheries Question Bank
68. For drawing the egg sample out Catheter is applied at...........
a) 30⁰ b) 45⁰
c) 60⁰ d) 90⁰
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6
a) 9% saponin
b) 6% saponin
c) 9% rotenone
d) 6% rotenone
a) Nepa b) Beetle
c) Notonecta d) Ranatra
a) 1 Kg b) 1.5 Kg
c) 2 Kg d) 2.5 Kg
74. …………………aerators are proven to be ideal for water depth of about 1-1.5m.
a) Turbine aerator
b) Paddle wheel aerator
c) Aspirator aerator
d) Air diffuser
a) Kaveri b) Tapti
c) Krishna d) Godavari
a) Kaveri b) Tapti
c) Krishna d) Godavari
c) Krishna d) Godavari
412 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Kaveri b) Tapti
c) Krishna d) Godavari
a) China b) Taiwan
c) Japan d) Malaysia
a) 1994 b) 1995
c) 1996 d) 1993
a) 8 b) 9
c) 10 d) 11
a) Branchiomyces
b) Saprolegnia
c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis
d) Aeromonas
a) Branchiomyces
b) Saprolegnia
c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis
d) Aeromonas
Miscellaneous 413
a) Branchiomyces
b) Saprolegnia
c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis
d) Aeromonas
a) Branchiomyces
b) Saprolegnia
c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis
d) Ichthyophonus hoferi
a) Branchiomyces
b) Saprolegnia
c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis
d) Aeromonas
90. C ÷ 2d is
a) Hanging coefficient
b) Hanging value
c) Hanging ratio
d) All
91. √1-E^2 is
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
Miscellaneous 415
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
a) Combodia b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Japan
a) China b) Rome
c) Japan d) Combodia
a) China b) Rome
c) Egypt d) Combodia
a) 5 Kg b) 10 Kg
c) 20 Kg d) 30 Kg
a) Gobidae b) Pomacentridae
c) Siganidae d) Synganthidae
416 Fisheries Question Bank
d) All
a) India b) Pakistan
c) China d) Bangladesh
a) Tibet, China
c) Himachal pradesh
d) Kangra of HP
a) Tibet, China
c) Himachal pradesh
d) Kangra of HP
a) Tibet, China
c) Himachal pradesh
d) Kangra of HP
Miscellaneous 417
a) Tibet, China
c) Himachal pradesh
d) Kangra of HP
d) Kangra of HP
a) Tibet, China
c) Himachal pradesh
d) Kangra of HP
a) Tibet, China
c) Gangotri (UK)
d) Kangra of HP
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) Talakaveri, Karnataka
d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) Talakaveri, Karnataka
d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) Talakaveri, Karnataka
d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) Satpura range
d) Amarkantak hills
a) Kerala b) Assam
a) Kerala b) Assam
a) Kerala b) Assam
124. Which state has maximum number of women engaged as fish vendors.
a) Kerala b) Maharastra
c) Bangkok d) Italy
c) Bangkok d) Italy
c) Bangkok d) Italy
420 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Japan b) China
c) Bangkok d) Italy
c) Bangkok d) Italy
c) Chamberian d) S L Hora
c) Chamberian d) S L Hora
134. “Priapium” is a
a) Bilobed b) Trilobed
c) Both d) None
a) Pristis b) Pristophorus
a) Pristis b) Pristophorus
a) Teleost b) Agnathans
a) Teleost b) Dipnoi
d) All
422 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 500m b) 1000m
c) 1500m d) 2000m
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
Miscellaneous 423
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) PPD b) RPD
c) PI d) None
a) Mullet b) Mackerel
c) Karimeen d) Rohu
a) Lab lab
b) Phytoplankton
c) Zooplankton
d) Benthos
a) 12 b) 10
c) 9 d) 8
424 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1990 b) 1991
c) 1992 d) 1993
a) Mangur b) Singhi
c) Rohu d) Nain
a) n<30 b) n>30
c) n=30 d) All
a) 2years b) 3 years
c) 5 years d) 6 years
a) Copper sulphate
b) Sodium nitrate
c) Cuprous oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5
c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
426 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
a) Beas b) Ravi
c) Chenab d) Sutlej
a) Use b) Form
c) Person d) A & B
a) Ergasilus b) Saprolegnia
a) Cochin b) Mangalore
c) Veraval d) Goa
a) Sturgeon b) Turtle
c) Shark d) Squid
a) 18 b) 9
c) 27 d) 12
181. FAO has classified Major Marine fishing zones into ……………….zones
a) 18 b) 9
c) 27 d) 12
428 Fisheries Question Bank
182. FAO has classified Major Inland fishing zones into ……………….zones
a) 18 b) 9
c) 27 d) 12
a) 1 ng/Kg b) 1
a) 1981 b) 1983
c) 1985 d) 1990
a) Cryptophagy b) Cryophagy
c) Lepidophagy d) Carcinophagy
186. “Pisces” is a
187. “Chondricthyes” is a
188. “Actinopterygii” is a
a) Super class b) Class
c) Sub class d) Sub division
Miscellaneous 429
189. “Teleostei” is a
190. “Elopomorpha” is a
a) 1-14 b) 7
c) 10-14 d) All
a) 1-14 b) 7
c) 10-14 d) All
a) 1-14 b) 7
c) 10-14 d) All
197. Fishes which hide their eggs in the shells of living bivalves.
a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils
c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils
198. Fishes which hide their eggs in the soil outside the water.
a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils
c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils
199. Fishes which hide their eggs in the soil inside the water.
a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils
c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils
a) Salmon b) Trout
a) Salmon b) Trout
a) Salmon b) Trout
a) Salmon b) Trout
a) Salmon b) Trout
c) Eel d) Petromyzon
c) Crab d) Petromyzon
a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus
a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus
a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus
a) 800 Km b) 1600 km
c) 2600 km d) 1900 km
Miscellaneous 433
a) 800 Km b) 1600 km
c) 2600 km d) 1900 km
a) 7118 Km b) 7129 Km
c) 8129 km d) 1900 km
a) 200 nm b) 220 nm
a) 1.22 b) 0.56
c) 0.86 d) 0.60
a) 1.22 b) 0.56
c) 0.86 d) 0.60
a) 1.22 b) 0.56
c) 0.86 d) 0.60
434 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1.24 m Ha b) 0.50 m Ha
c) 3.93 m Ha d) 0.60 m Ha
a) 1.24 m Ha b) 0.50 m Ha
c) 3.93 m Ha d) 0.60 m Ha
a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha
c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha
a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha
c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha
a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha
c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha
a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha
c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha
230. Total number of pig required for integrated fish culture having a pond
of 2 ha
a) 10-20 b) 30-40
c) 60-80 d) 120-160
Miscellaneous 435
a) 29 b) 39
c) 429 d) 439
a) 29 b) 39
c) 429 d) 439
a) 435 b) 465
c) 479 d) 489
a) 435 b) 465
c) 479 d) 489
c) 8 d) 6
c) 8 d) 6
436 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 4 b) 5
c) 8 d) 6
a) Sinistral b) Dextral
c) Both d) None
a) 1 Nautical mile
b) 2 Nautical mile
c) 3 Nautical mile
d) 4 Nautical mile
a) Earth b) Jupiter
c) Neptune d) Venus
a) Wind direction
b) Wind velocity
c) Wind humidity
d) Wind temperature
Miscellaneous 437
a) 1897 b) 1899
c) 1914 d) 1913
246. Indian marine fisheries regulation act was implemented in which year?
a) 2002 b) 2003
c) 2004 d) 2005
a) 1976 b) 1975
c) 1986 d) 1974
a) 1994 b) 1981
c) 1991 d) 2004
a) 1994 b) 1981
c) 1991 d) 2004
a) 1994 b) 1981
c) 1991 d) 2004
438 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 1994 b) 1981
c) 1991 d) 2004
a) 2003 b) 2005
c) 2006 d) 2004
a) 2003 b) 2002
c) 2006 d) 2004
a) 1982 b) 1972
c) 1976 d) 1986
a) Bamboo tray
b) Apiary
c) Vermibox
d) Poultry farm
a) Vitamins A and D
b) Vitamins A and C
c) Vitamins A and B
d) Vitamins A and E
Miscellaneous 439
a) Aquaculture b) Pisciculture
c) Vermiculture d) Agriculture
c) Salting d) Chilling
c) Annecic d) Hygienic
a) Fat b) Protein
c) Vitamins d) Minerals
a) Labeo rohita
b) Mystus singhala
c) Pomfret
d) Clarias batrachus
440 Fisheries Question Bank
c) Catla ad Magur
a) to increase size
a) Nitrogen b) Potassium
c) Calcium d) Phosphorous
266. Brackish water tidal wetlands in West Bengal where traditional rice-fish
culture is practiced:
a) Bheries b) Gazani
a) Lignin b) Starch
c) Chitin d) Pectin
a) α Tocopherol acetate
b) α Tocopherol propionate
c) β Tocopherol acetate
d) β Tocopherol propionate
a) metazoan b) bacterial
c) protozoan d) viral
a) Nauplius b) Megalopa
c) Protozoa d) Mysis
274. The transition larval stage in the life cycle of pearl oyster:
a) Trochophore
b) Veliges
c) Umbo
d) Pediveliges
442 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Sodium thiosulphate
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sodium hypochlorite
d) Sodium silicate
a) Y-organ
b) Rimus gland
c) Mandibular organ
d) X-organ
c) Furunculosis
d) Haemorrhagic septicemia
a) Shrimps b) Carps
280. In EEC scheme of grading chilled fish to various stages of spoilage, which
among the following grades indicates that the product is unfit for human
consumption?
a) A b) B
c) C d) E
a) Chemical hazard
b) Physical hazard
c) Biological hazard
d) None of these
282. Which among the following freezing methods makes undesirable quality
changes in fish?
b) Quick freezing
c) Cryogenic freezing
d) Double freezing
a) -1 to -5 ⁰C b) -5 to -10 ⁰C
c) Ammonia d) Sorbitol
a) D-value b) TDT
c) z-value d) TDP
287. Cobb Test is used for testing the following parameter of a packaging
material:
a) Tear resistance
b) Water absorbtiveness
c) Bursting strength
d) Puncture resistance
288. The packaging material with the highest cushioning property amongst
the following:
a) Paperboard
c) Corrugated fibreboard
a) heating-cooling time
c) retort temperature
a) Hormone treated
b) Hybridized
d) None
a) Volume of milt
c) Sperm motility
a) Anaphase b) Telophase
c) Metaphase d) Interphase
c) Colchicine d) Glycosteroid
c) Mitochondria d) Ribasomes
c) Pleotropism d) Epitasis
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) Zero
301. Fatty acids are represented by the formula R-COOH, where R stands for
a) Alkaloid group
b) Aldehyde group
c) Alkyl group
d) None
Miscellaneous 447
a) Gymnosperm plant
a) Poecilia formosa
b) P.reticulata
c) P.latipina
d) P.mexicana
a) Protandrous hermaphrodite
b) Protogynous hermaphrodite
c) Synchronous hermaphrodite
d) Gonochoristic fish
305. _________________ fish lay eggs in the mantle cavity of F/W mussel
a) Oryziaslatipes
b) Puntius gonionotus
c) Rhodeussericeus
d) Loricariaparva
a) Salmon b) Trout
a) Indus b) Ganges
c) Brahmaputra d) Mahanadhi
a) Lagoon b) Bhery
a) Bashabanda b) Bheels
c) Jheels d) Pokkali
a) Carp b) Mullet
c) catfish d) milkfish
a) Hilsa b) Eel
c) Salmon d) Rohu
a) Oyster b) Mussel
c) Snail d) Clam
Miscellaneous 449
a) Pomfret b) Mackerel
c) Anchovy d) Mackerel
318. 0xygen depletion will occurs in ponds due to high density of_____________
c) Bacteria d) Macrophytes
a) Channastriatus b) C.marulius
c) C.punctatus d) C.gachua
450 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Cyprinidae b) Anguilidae
c) Claridae d) Sygnathidae
a) Rastrelligerkanangurta b) Rachycentroncanadum
c) Dicentrachuslabrax d) Latescalcarifer
a) Singhi b) Molly
c) Gambusia d) Loach
a) Unio sp b) Pila sp
c) Pinctadasp d) ostreasp
c) Maharashtra d) Gujarat
327. Transparent juvenile of eel assembles from the river known as_________
a) Somatostatin b) Ecdysone
c) Prolactin d) Progesterone
b) Informal education
c) Formal education
d) Ranching programme
a) 1956 b) 1961
c) 1976 d) 1971
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D
a) Intensive system
b) Cage culture
c) Integrated farming
d) Pen culture
a) Pond culture
b) Rack culture
d) Cage culture
a) Portunuspelagicus
b) Scylla tranquberica
c) Portunussanguinolentus
d) Ucaannulipus
a) Ompakpabda
b) lariasbatrachus
c) Mystusseengahala
d) Heteropneustesfossilis
Miscellaneous 453
b) RNA virus
d) Bacteriophage
a) Dactylogyrus
b) Gyrodactylus
c) Argulus
d) Costia
a) Gyrodactylus b) Dactylogyrus
c) Lernae d) Costia
a) Navicula b) Nitzchia
c) Chlorella d) Microcystis
a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin
c) Haemoerythrin d) Carboxyglobin
c) Rohu d) Magur
454 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Vibrio cholera
b) Clostridium sporogenus
c) Clostridium botulinium
d) Clostridium tetani
a) DNA b) Mitochondria
c) ADP d) ATP
a) E.coli
b) Vibrio cholera
c) Listeria monocytogenus
d) Pseudomonas spp.
a) Demethylation b) Deacetylation
c) Demineralisation d) Dechlorinatin
c) Scat d) Discus
355. Which instrument is used to find out the freshness of the fish?
a) Spectrophotometer
b) Freshiometer
c) Torrymeter
d) None of these
c) W. Bengal d) Karnataka
456 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Twisted
b) Braided
c) Knotless
d) Braided-cum-twisted
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Uttaranchal
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Hariyana
c) Thiobarbutyric acid
a) Heparin b) Terepenoid
c) Chondroitin d) Cumarin
a) Marsupenaeusjaponicus
b) Feneropenaeusmerguensis
c) Penaeussemisulcatus
d) Penaeusmonodon
Miscellaneous 457
a) Detritus b) Periphyton
a) Adhesive b) Demersal
a) Mean b) Median
c) Variance d) Mode
a) Ammonia b) Superphosphate
a) Argulus
b) Sagittarius
c) Trichodina
d) Lernaea
a) Tamil Nadu
c) Orissa
a) India
b) West Bengal
c) Bangladesh
a) Killer whale
b) Sperm whale
c) Blue whale
d) Seine whale
a) Tex
b) Denier
c) Metric
a) Horizontal opening
c) Vertical opening
d) Both B & C
a) 1:1 b) 1:2
c) 1:3 d) 1:4
a) BHA b) BHT
c) Vitamin d d) Polyphosphate
c) 8 bites d) 1024 MB
377. Which river has its source near the lake Mansarovar in Tibet?
a) CO2 b) SO2
c) O2 d) N2O
383. Wet Bundh Breeding of fishes is famous in which of the following states
a) Kerala b) Maharashtra
386. When was the pearl fishery stopped in the Gulf of Mannar?
a) 1945 b) 1967
c) 1956 d) 1961
a) July 10 b) September 7
c) November 1 d) November 21
388. At what temperature will the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales give the
same reading?
a) –20 0 b) 17.80
c) 00 d) - 40 0
d) Corialis force
a) Thigmotaxis b) Rheotaxis
c) Kinesis d) Tropism
a) Biomass
b) Biosphere
c) Biome
d) Biocoenosis
462 Fisheries Question Bank
c) 1958 d) 1947
a) 1976 b) 1974
c) 1960 d) 1962
a) Macrobrachiumrosenbergii b) M. malcolmsonii
c) M.rebae d) M.sibagaye
a) Thailand b) Italy
c) Philippines d) France
a) Nitrosomonas b) Nitrobactor
a) Gonadotrophin b) Gonopodium
c) Clasper d) Mixopterigia
398. The nitrogen fixing symbiotic blue green alga present in aquatic fern
a) Azollapinnata b) Nitrosomonas
c) Anabaenaazollae d) Nostac
Miscellaneous 463
a) India b) China
a) Bangkok b) USA
a) Mystus seenghala
b) Anabas testudineus
c) Wallago attu
d) Ctenopharyngodon idella
464 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Clarias batrachus
b) Ictaturus punctatus
c) Mystus seenghala
d) Lates calcarifer
406. Ipomea is
a) Submerged weed
b) Marginal weed
c) Emergent weed
d) Floating weed
a) Etroplus suratensis
b) Liza tade
c) Chanos chanos
d) Rhinomugil corsula
a) Bighead carp
b) Grass carp
c) Silver carp
d) Common carp
a) Kerala b) Orissa
412. To achieve high production, carp grow-out ponds are to be stocked with
a) Spawn b) Fry
c) Fingerling d) Yearling
a) Karatella b) Argulus
c) Navicula d) Paranopsis
a) Hydrilla b) Ipomea
c) Azolla d) Lemna
a) Pituitary b) Hypothalamus
a) Aristotle b) Fan Li
c) Mikimoto d) Li Fang
466 Fisheries Question Bank
a) Nitrogen b) Potassium
c) Phosphorus d) Sulphur
a) Deficiency of nutrients
c) Low pH
d) Hardness of water
a) Temperature b) pH
c) Salinity d) Hardness
a) >5mgL-1 b) >10mgL-1
c) >20mgL-1 d) >30mgL-1
a) 1905-06 b) 1904
a) Bhimtal b) Achebal
c) Lonavla d) Avalanche
428. The best method to get maximum fertilization for trout is by stripping
c) Sikkim d) Manipur
a) Gobindsagar b) Indrasagar
c) Ukai d) Hirakud
a) Duck b) Redd
c) Chanos d) Tilapia
a) Ist b) IInd
c) 7th d) 10th
a) Chanos chanos
b) Lates calcarifer
c) Mahseer
d) Rainbow trout
a) As a feed
b) As a fertilizer
c) As a fish toxicant
a) Moina b) Dophnia
a) Nauplius b) Protozoea
c) Mysis d) Post-larva
a) CIFA b) CIBA
c) CMFRI d) NBFGR
a) Rohu b) Catla
a) Moina b) Cyclops
c) Infusoria d) Rotifers
a) Chlorination b) U.V.radiation
a) Notonecta b) Nepa
a) Mahseer b) Catla
c) Rohu d) Puntius
Miscellaneous 471
a) MEY b) MSY
c) fmsy d) Yield
450. As per the basic concept of logistic model, is the effort goes on increasing
the CPUE goes on
a) Decreasing b) Increasing
a) F+M b) M
c) F-M d) M2
a) 2 b) 2.5
c) 3 d) 4
a) 1950 b) 1952
c) 1958 d) 1960
a) 1986 b) 1990
c) 1985 d) 1980
a) 1989 b) 1991
c) 1992 d) 1985
472 Fisheries Question Bank
456. The code of conduct for Responsible Fisheries was adopted by the FAO
Conference in
a) 1990 b) 1994
c) 1995 d) 1998
a) 20th January
b) 21st November
c) 15th March
d) 10th January
b) Swimming
c) Feeding at bottom
d) Breeding
a) Satpati b) Wahan
a) Steel b) Ferrocement
c) Wood d) Aluminium
c) Belly d) Square
466. Ropes that connect the wings to other board in a trawl net are
a) Stromateidae b) Clupeidae
c) Trichiuridae d) Carangidae
a) Carotin b) Astaxanthin
b) Hormonal stimuli
c) Heinz bodies
a) Auxis b) Katsowanis
c) Thennus d) Euthynus
a) Caranyidae b) Sciaenidae
c) Polynemidae d) Scombridae
a) Fertile
b) Sterile
c) Normal
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
c) Wright d) Mendel
a) Heterosis b) Epistasis
a) ICMR b) CSIR
c) ICAR d) ACIAR
a) Knowledge b) Skill
a) Form b) Function
a) Shark b) Tuna
a) Lactose b) Glucose
c) Galactose d) Glycogen
a) 60% b) 55%
c) 50% d) 45%
a) Salmonella b) Shigella
c) E. coli d) Clostridium
Miscellaneous 477
487. Insulin is
c) A prostagland d) A hormone
488. Beach-de-mer is
a) -5oC b) –2oC
c) –1⁰C d) 0oC
491. Cutting a strip of flesh from the fish parallel to the line of the backbone
is called
a) Filleting b) Gibbing
c) Nobbing d) Steaking
a) Fish b) Milk
c) Beef d) Prawn
a) npq b) np
494. The correlation coefficient between two variable always lies between
a) -1 & +1 b) -1 x 0
c) 0 & +1 d) None
495. For testing the equality of two samples variances, the test used is
a) t-test b) F-test
c) Z-test d) 2 – test
496. For testing the significance of the correlation coefficient from abivariate
data of size 12 the degrees of freedom is
a) 11 b) 10
499. Combinations of goods which yield the same level of satisfaction to the
consumer is
a) Indifference curves b) Isoquants
c) Isocost line d) Expansion path
a) AO b) WHO
a) 945 b) 1947
c) 1972 d) 1981
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Rome, Italy
c) land, Switzerland
d) Bangkok, Malaysia
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Rome, Italy
c) Gland, Switzerland
d) Bangkok, Malaysia
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Rome, Italy
c) Gland, Switzerland
d) Bangkok, Malaysia
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Rome, Italy
c) Gland, Switzerland
d) Bangkok, Malaysia
480 Fisheries Question Bank
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
a) ISO-9001 b) ISO-9002
c) ISO-9003 d) ISO-9004