AIBE Mock Subject Wise

Unacademy AIBE Mock Test
S. No. Subject Q. No.
1. Constitution 1, 4, 10, 17, 25, 26, 35, 41, 55, 65
2. IPC 2, 11, 20, 38, 43, 53, 54, 57
3. CrPC 6, 21, 36, 56, 58, 62, 73, 74, 77, 91
4. CPC 9, 19, 37, 60, 75, 80, 92, 95, 96, 99
5. Evidence 5, 18, 39, 46, 59, 78, 79, 93
6. Arbitration Act 15, 47, 48, 81
7. Family Law 14, 16, 24, 42, 44, 49, 50, 51
8. Public Interest Litigation 30, 40, 52, 76
9. Administrative Law 28, 34, 94
10. Professional Ethics and cases of 29, 82, 83, 97

professional misconduct under BCI rules
11. Company Law 33, 63
12. Environmental Law 31, 64
13. Cyber Law 3, 66
14. Labour & Industrial Law 32, 67, 68, 71
15. Law of Torts including MV Act & 7, 8, 27, 69, 70

Consumer Protection Law
16. Law related to Taxation 12, 61, 72, 84
17. Law of contract, SRA, Property Laws, N.I. 13, 23, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90
Act
18. Land Acquisition Act 98, 100
19. Intellectual Property Laws 22, 45
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AIBE Mock Test
Constitution Of India
1. The Concept of 'Curative' Petition was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in the case of
(1) Rupa Ashok Hura V/S Ashok Hura, AIR 2002 SC 1771
(2) M.C. Mehta V/S Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1087
(3) Krishna Swami V/s Union of India, (1992) 45 CC 605
(4) Sheela Barse V/s Union of India, (1986) 35 CC 5962
Ans. [1]- The Curative Petition is the last chance available for the protection from the compensation of
injustice in the court after the review petition is dismissed or has been exhausted. It is a concept that
evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the matter of Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr.
[2022].
4. The item ‘Education' belongs to the:

(1) Union List
(2) State List
(3) Concurrent List
(4) Residuary Subject
Ans. [3]- Education is a subject mentioned under Concurrent list. Which means both centre and states
have right to legislate on subject of education in India.
10. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled
to be –
(1) An accused
(2) A witness
(3) A witness against himself
(4) Hostile witness
Ans. [3]- The right against self-incrimination is incorporated in clause (3) of article 20 of the Constitution
i.e. no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
17. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?

(1) Quo Warranto
(2) Mandamus
(3) Habeas Corpus
(4) Certiorari
Ans. [3]- The writ of ‘Habeas corpus’ is issued to prevent the illegal detention of a person and to secure
his/her release in such case, therefore, habeas corpus protects the “personal freedom” of a person.
25. Which of the following is a fundamental right that a foreign national residing in India enjoys?
(1) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
(2) The right to carry on a business.
(3) The right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(4) The right against deprivation of personal liberty.
(5) The right to reside in any part of India.
Ans. [4]- Foreigners enjoy fundamental rights guaranteed under Art.14, 20 & 21.
26. From which of the following countries, the Constitution of India has borrowed the 'Power of
Judicial Review'?
(1) Canada
(2) United Kingdom
(3) USA
(4) Ireland
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Ans. [3]- The Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and spirit. India has borrowed certain features
like fundamental rights, judicial review, independence of judiciary, functions of president and vice-
president and impeachment of the President from the U.S.A.
35. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of Transformative Constitutionalism' in the case of
(1) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
(2) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation (2010)
(3) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
(4) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)
Ans. [1]- Transformative constitutionalism often includes an endorsement of justiciable socio-economic
rights and substantive equality. The Supreme Court of India in Navtej Singh Johar, has undoubtedly
change the status quo and the current societal beliefs by virtue of transformative constitutionalism while
upholding constitutional morality over and above the morality of the majority society.
41. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) Charan Singh
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Morarji Desai
Ans. [4]- Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights in 1978 by the 44th
constitutional amendment. However, its deletion does not mean that we do not have the right to acquire,
hold and dispose of the property. Citizens are still free to enjoy this right. But now it is just a legal right
and not a Fundamental Right.
55. Supremacy of law, Equality before law, and predominance of legal Spirit are the basic principles of
doctrine of
(1) Colorable Legistaltion;
(2) Doctrine of 'Separation of Powers'
(3) Doctrine of 'Rule of Law'
(4) Doctrine of ‘Excessive delegation'
Ans. [3]- The doctrine of rule of law has been described as supremacy of the law. This means that where
there is rule of law no person can be said to be above the law.
65. A State passes a legislation making it mandatory for all persons riding two-wheelers within the
State to wear helmets. This rule extends not only to the driver, but also to any passenger on a two-
wheeler. A two- wheeler rider, A, challenges the legislation on the ground that it violates A's
fundamental right under Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution of India to move freely throughout
the territory of India. Will the challenge succeed?
(1) Since the rule that makes helmets for two-wheeler riders does not exist in other States, it is arbitrary
and unreasonable. As such, it violates the fundamental right under Article 19(1)(d) and must be
struck down.
(2) The safety of persons riding two- wheelers cannot be said to be in the interest of the 'general public'.
Moreover, wearing a helmet affects the safety only of those riding the two-wheeler, and nobody else,
including the other persons on the road. Hence, the rule that makes helmets compulsory will be
struck down.
(3) The rule that makes helmets compulsory is a reasonable restriction on the right under Article 19 (1)
(d), and moreover, is in the interests of the general public. Therefore, the challenge will not succeed.
(4) The rule that makes helmets compulsory, if struck down, would affect the right to carry on any
occupation-trade, or business of the helmet manufacturers, and therefore, cannot be struck down.
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(5) The rule that makes helmets compulsory is a reasonable restriction on the right under Article 19
(1)(d), but it must be imposed by the Central Government for it to be valid. Hence, the rule will be
struck down.
Ans. [3]- Art.19(1)(d) provides for right to move freely throughout the territory of India. But, Art.19(2)
imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by 19(1)(d).
IPC
2. A obtains property from Z by saying "Your child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death
unless you send us Rs. 10,000/-. This offence is -
(1) Robbery
(2) Extortion
(3) Dacoity
(4) None of the above
Ans. [2]- Sec.383 deals with the offence of extortion. Extortion means forcing someone for giving you
something through threats.
11. De minimus non curat lex implies

(1) Every person is liable for his own acts
(2) Trifling acts do not constitute an offence
(3) Necessity knows no Jaw
(4) Nothing is an offence which is done in private defense
Ans. [2]- Sec.95 is based on the maxim de minimis non curat lex i.e. the law does not take trifles into
account.
20. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under

(1) Section 503 to 506
Ans. [1]- Sec.503-506 deals with the offence of Criminal intimidation. It protects against any physical
injury or any injury to the reputation of the individual or any other individual of importance.
38. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in
imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal
conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely
to search-A has committed an Offence under
(1) Section 256 of IPC
(2) Section 192 of IPC
(3) Section 195 A of IPC
(4) Section 201(a)of IPC
Ans. [2]- Sec.192 deals with fabricating false evidence. Refer illustration c of sec.192.
43. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
(1) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
(2) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
(3) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource
located in India.
(4) All of the above
Ans. [4]- Section 3 and 4 of IPC deals with extra territorial jurisdiction. A particular crime is considered
to be extra territorial in nature when it happens in a particular country but the trial takes place in some
other country.
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53. 'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z', intending to cause and knowing that he
is likely to cause damage to 'Z's' crop. 'A' has committed:
(1) Mischief
(2) Criminal trespassing
(3) Criminal breach of trust
(4) Extortion
Ans. [1]- Sec.425 deals with the offence of Mischief. Refer illustration h of sec.425. Sec.426 provides
punishment for the said offence which is imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend
to three months, or with fine, or with both.
54. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means
such an agreement is designated as:
(1) Abetment by conspiracy
(2) Abetment by Aid
(3) Criminal conspiracy
(4) Abetment
Ans. [3]- Sec.120A deals with the offence of Criminal conspiracy. Criminal conspiracy is an agreement
between two or more persons to commit an illegal act.
57. Rupan Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
(1) Wrongful restraint
(2) Wrongful confinement
(3) Outrage the modesty of a woman
(4) Maintenance to the divorced woman
Ans. [3]- Sec.354 deals with the offence of assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her
modesty. This is famously known as “The Butt Slapping Case”. This was one of the most criticised high
profiled cases.
CrPC
6. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by
the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
(1) Section 162
(2) Section 164
(3) Section 163A
(4) Section 165
Ans. [2]- Sec.164 provides for the recording of confessions and statements.
21. “Provisions of Section 195 of the Code are mandatory and non-compliance of it would initiate the
prosecution and all other consequential orders.” In which case the Court upheld so
(1) C. Muniappan vs. State of Tamilnadu
(2) Kishun Singh vs. State of Bihar
(3) State of Karnataka vs. Pastor P. Raju.
(4) None of the above.
Ans. [1]- Sec.195 provides for prosecution for contempt of lawful authority of public servants, for
offences against public justice and for offences relating to documents given in evidence.
36. The police officer executing the warrant may use adequate force to access the place where search
is to be conducted when—
(1) A free ingress is not possible
(2) The occupant of the place is a hardened criminal and there is possibility to escape
(3) The area is in such a nature that problem may arise at any time
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(4) One of these
Ans. [1]- As per sec.100(2),If free ingress into such place cannot be obtained, the officer or other person
executing the warrant may proceed in the manner provided by sub-section (2) of section 47.
56. Is there any maximum period for which an under-trial can be detained under Section 436 A of the
Cr.P.C.,
(1) Yes, half of the Maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
(2) No period is prescribed
(3) Court can decide
(4) Maximum 90 days
Ans. [1]- Sec.436A provides maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner can be detained.
58. If a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, the High Court shall Order the execution
of the sentence
(1) To be postponed.
(2) If thinks fit commute the sentence to imprisonment for life.
(3) Sent for medical assistance
(4) Non- Judicial mandate of powers.
Ans. [2]- As per sec.416, if a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, the High Court shall,
commute the sentence to imprisonment for life.
62. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders
for a period not more that-
(1) 6 months
(2) 1 year
(3) 2 years
(4) 3 years
Ans. [4]- As per sec.110, an Executive Magistrate mayrequire security for keeping good behaviour from
habitual offenders for a period not more than 3 years.
73. The question whether a Statement was recorded in the course investigation is a
(1) question of law
(2) question of fact
(3) mixed question of law and fact
(4) question of law or of fact depends on facts and circumstances
Ans. [2]- As per sec.162, omission to state a fact or circumstance in the statement 162(1) shall be a
question of fact.
74. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment

(1) Not exceeding seven years
(2) Exceeding seven years
(3) For life
Ans. [1]- As per sec.29(1), Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except a
sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
77. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an
accused without warrant?
(1) Section 40
(3) Section 42
(2) Section 41
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(4) Section 37
Ans. [2]- Sec.41 provides the circumstances in which the police may arrest without warrant.
91. Under Section 239 CrPC, the Magistrate can

(1) Frame charges against the accused person
(2) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless
(3) Open trial for evidence
(4) Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
Ans. [2]- Sec.239 provides that if, upon considering the police report and the documents sent with it
under section 173 and making such examination, the Magistrate considers the charge against the
accused to be groundless, he shall discharge the accused, and record his reasons for so doing.
CPC
9. Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC
(1) Can be taken at any stage of the proceedings
(2) should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid
(3) can be taken in appeal or revision for the first time
(4) either (1) or (3)
Ans. [2]- O.1 R.13 provides that all objections on the ground of non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties shall
be taken at the earliest possible opportunity.
19. Omission to give notice under Order XXI Rule 22 will

(1) Render the execution null and void
(2) Render the execution irregular
(3) Render the execution voidable
(4) Not affect the execution
Ans. [1]- To give show cause notice under Order XXI Rule 22 is a mandatory requirement which must be
fulfilled unless court considers that the issue of such notice would cause unreasonable delay or would
defeat the ends of justice.
37. A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and C at Delhi. A, B and C being together at Allahabad, B and
C make a joint promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may sue B and C:
(1) At Allahabad where the cause of action arises.
(2) At Calcutta, where B resides.
(3) At Delhi, where C resides.
(4) All of the above.
Ans. [4]- Sec.20 deals with the other suits to be instituted where defendants reside or cause of action
arises. Illustration b of sec.20 provides this instance.
60. Section 10 of the CPC provides for

(1) Stay of the suit
(2) Summoning witness
(3) Examination of witness
(4) Sentencing the judgement
Ans. [1]- Sec.10 deals with the Stay of suit. It deals with the conditions required to apply the principle of
res sub judice. The purpose behind this rule is to prevent multiplicity of cases in courts. It is also sought
to prevent the plaintiff from getting two separate decisions from different courts in his favour or two
contradictory judgements.
75. The word "case" used in Section. 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and
(1) It means any state of facts juridically considered
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(2) It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to
the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
Ans. [3]- Sec.115 deals with the Revision. The Supreme Court has set the controversy at rest by holding
that the expression ‘case’ is a word of comprehensive importance, it includes civil proceedings other
than suits, and is not restricted by anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in
a civil court.
80. A suit may be dismissed under order IX

i) Where the summons is not served upon the defendant in consequence of the plaintiff’s failure
to pay costs for service of summons (Rule 2)
ii) Where neither the plaintiff not the defendant appears (Rule 3)
iii) where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fail for 7 days to apply for fresh summons
(Rule 5)
iv) Where on the date fixed for hearing in a suit only defendant appears and he does not admit
the plaintiff's claim. (Rule 8)
Codes:
(1) I, II and II.
(2) I, III and I.
(3) II, II and IV.
Ans. [4]- O.9 deals with the appearance of parties and consequence of non-appearance. Rule 2, 3, 5 & 8
of O.9 provides the instances in which suit may be dismissed.
92. State of U.P. Vs. Nawab Hussain,1977 SCR (3) 428 relates to:
(1) Res subjudice.
(2) Res judicata.
(3) Constructive res judicata
(4) Deemed res judicata
Ans. [3]- Sec.11 Explanation IV deals with theConstructive res judicata. It is anartificial form of res
judicata and provides that if a plea could have been taken by a party in a proceeding between him and
his opponent, he should not be permitted to take that plea against the same party in a subsequent
proceeding with reference to the same subject-matter.
95. Under Section 16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local
jurisdiction is -
(1) Where the property is situated
(2) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
(3) Both (1) and (2)
Ans. [1]- As per sec.16, a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court the local limits of
whose jurisdiction the property is situate.
96. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if :

(1) He is a minor
(2) He is an opposite party in the suit
(3) He has not given consent in writing
Ans. [4]- O.32 R.4 provides who may act as next friend or be appointed guardian for the suit. As per R.4,
any person who is of sound mind and has attained majority may act as next friend of a minor or as his
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guardian for the suit provided that the interest of such person is not adverse to that of the minor. Further,
it provides that no person shall without his consent in writing be appointed guardian for the suit.
99. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with
(1) Interpleader suit
(2) Interlocutory Order
(3) Restitution Order
(4) Attachment Order
Ans. [1]- Sec.88 R/w O.XXXV deals with the Interpleader suit. When the plaintiff on behalf of the claimant
filed a suit for choosing the actual owner of the property then it is called an interpleader suit.
Evidence
5. Which of the following judgement is irrelevant under section 43 of Indian evidence act
(1) Judgement of an insolvency court
(2) Judgement of criminal court
(3) Judgement of matrimonial court
(4) Judgement of probate court
Ans. [2]- Sec.43 provides that Judgments, orders or decrees, other than those mentioned in sections 40,
41 and 42, are irrelevant, unless the existence of such judgment, order or decree, is a fact in issue, or is
relevant under some other provision of this Act.
18. The question is whether A murdered B. Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near
the place where the murder as committed, are relevant facts under
(1) Sec. 7
(2) Sec. 6
(3) Sec. 8
(4) Sec. 11
Ans. [1]- Sec.7 deals with the facts which are the occasion, cause or effect of facts in issue. Refer
illustration b of sec.7.
39. Leading questions can be asked during-

(1) Re-examination
(2) Examination-in-chief
(3) Cross-examination
(4) None of these
Ans. [3]- As per sec.143, leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.
46. Pakala Narayan Swami vs. Emperor is a leading case on

(1) Dying Declaration
(2) Confession
(3) Accomplice
(4) Expert witness
Ans. [1]- Pakala Narayana Swami vs King Emperor clarifies the principles for identifying a confession and
a dying declaration. Sec.32(1) deals with the dying declaration.
59. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after
dissolution of marriage, he/she has been born within
(1) 180 days
(3) 280 days
(2) 270 days
(4) 300 days
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Ans. [3]- As per sec.112, person who was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his
mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother remaining
unmarried, shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man.
78. A statement made by an accused person before the trial begins, by which he admits to have
committed the offence, but which he repudiates at the trial is known as-
(1) Extra-judicial confession
(2) Judicial confession
(3) Retracted confession
(4) Voluntary confession
Ans. [3]- A retracted confession is a statement made by an accused person before the trial begins, by
which he / she admits to have committed the offence, but which he/she repudiates or rejects at the trial.
79. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication-

(1) Was made during marriage with promise of confidentiality.
(2) Was made during marriage, even without promise of confidentiality.
(3) Was made before marriage with promise of confidentiality.
(4) Is made after marriage.
Ans. [2]- Sec.122 deals with the communications during marriage. Under this section, it is irrelevant
whether the communication was sensitive or confidential in nature or not. Any conversation or
communication between a husband and wife is privileged no matter what the means of communicating
was.
93. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act

(1) By the opinion of Experts
(2) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
(3) After police verification
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Ans. [4]- Sec.45 and 47 deals with the proving of hand writing. Sec.45 provides expert opinion and sec.47
provides for the opinion of person acquainted with the handwriting.
Arbitration Act
15. The conciliation proceedings-
(1) Can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings.
(2) Can be used as evidence only in Arbitral proceedings.
(3) Can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator.
(4) Cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings.
Ans. [4]- As per section 81 of the Act, there is no admissibility of proceedings as evidence in other judicial
proceedings. It says that, The parties shall not rely on or introduce as evidence in arbitral or judicial
proceedings, whether or not such proceedings relate to the dispute that is the subject of the conciliation
proceedings.
47. Which one is a Foreign Award-

(1) An award in a arbitration where at least one party in non-Indian
(2) An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration
(3) An award passed in a arbitration where both the parties are non- Indian
Ans. [2]- Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with foreign awards based on New York and
Geneva conventions. An arbitral award is said to be a foreign award if it has a foreign element in it or
has one or more of the following factors:
a) If the award is made in a foreign country.
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b) If the subject matter of the arbitration agreement involves international transaction that is it is
related to international trade, commerce, investment, etc.
c) Where atleast one of the parties to arbitration agreement is a foreign national.
d) If the award is made in accordance with the foreign law.
48. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals

(1) The Arbitration Act, 1940,
(2) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
(3) the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
Ans. [4]- As per sec.85, The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937 (6 of 1937), the Arbitration
Act, 1940 (10 of 1940) and the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961 (45 of 1961) are
hereby repealed.
81. What is the maximum duration within which fast track arbitration must be completed-
(1) 6 Month
(2) 12 Month
(3) 18 Month
(4) 24 Month
Ans. [1]- Fast Track Arbitration was introduced in India by the Arbitration and Conciliation Amendment
Act 2015, to expedite the process of arbitration in India and it does not run by ordinary rules and
regulations. In India, the concept of fast track arbitration means that the proceedings shall end within 6
months and there is no provision for oral proceedings, instead of written pleadings suffice the matter.
Family Law
14. Mubarat under Muslim law refers to
(1) Divorce at the instance of Wife
(2) Cruelty
(3) Ila
(4) Dissolution of marriage with mutual consent
Ans. [4]- The literal meaning of the word Mubarat is ‘obtaining release from each other.’ It is said to take
place when the husband and wife, with mutual consent and desire, obtain release and freedom from
their married state.
16. Natural guardian of an adopted son under the Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956 is
(1) Original father
(2) Original mother
(3) Adoptive father
(4) None of the above.
Ans. [3]- As per sec.7 of Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, the natural guardianship of an adopted son
who is a minor passes, on adoption, to the adoptive father and after him to the adoptive mother.
24. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance

(1) Son who is a minor
(2) Daughter who is not married
(3) Grand parents
(4) An illegitimate son
Ans. [4]- Muslim Father is under the obligation to maintain his legitimate child until he attains the
puberty age, the father is not under a duty to maintain the illegitimate child.
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42. Talak-e-tafwiz is -
(1) Talak by delegation
(2) Triple Talak
(3) Talak by agreement
(4) Improper Talak
Ans. [1]- Talaq-e-tafweez is one of the most important forms of divorce under Muslim Law because it
gives to Muslim women a right to divorce their husband without going to court of law. In this form of
divorce a Muslim male can delegate his power of repudiation of marriage to a third person or to his wife
also.
44. which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be
legitimate?
(1) Section 11
(2) section 13 (a)
(3) Section 12
(4) Section 16
Ans. [4]- Sec.16 deals with the Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages. It provides that
notwithstanding that marriage is null and void under section 11, any child of such marriage who would
have been legitimate if the marriage had been valid, shall be legitimate.
49. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the Law of Mitakshara has been incorporated
(1) Section 8
(2) Section 7
(3) Section 9
(4) Section 6
Ans. [4]- Under the traditional concept of Mitakshara Coparcenary as well as under pre-amendment
Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, son of a coparcener would become coparcener by birth and
would get an interest in the coparcenary property by birth.
50. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
(1) Must be a Hindu only
(2) A Hindu or Jew
(3) May be Hindu or Christian
Ans. [1]- Sec.10 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act provides condition regarding persons who
may be adopted.
51. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in 2017 declared pronouncements of talaq
three times at a time by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?
(1) Shayara Bano V/s Union of India
(2) Shassnim Ara V/S State of U.P
(3) Baitahira V/S Ali Hasan
(4) Danial latifi V/S Union of India
Ans. [1]- This was seen in the case of Shayara Bano vs Union Of India And Ors ((2017) 9 SCC 1). The
Supreme Court held that the practice of talaq-e-biddat or instantaneous triple talaq is unconstitutional.
Public Interest Litigation

30. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved
(1) Basic future and Basic structure doctrine
(2) Public Trust doctrine
(3) Separation of power doctrine
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(4) Public Interest doctrine
Ans. [2]- Kamal Nath was a landmark case in Indian environmental law. In the case, the Supreme Court
of India held that the public trust doctrine applied in India.
40. In Which Country was the concept of PIL Originated

(1) United Kingdom
(2) USA
(3) India
(4) Australia
Ans. [2]- The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s.
In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups or
interests.
52. Misuse of mechanism of PIL means

(1) filing PIL for protection of private interest
(2) filing PIL for oblique motive
(3) filing PIL only for publicity
Ans. [4]- In public interest litigations , misuse comes in various forms. Publicity, private interest, political
rivalry, or other oblique motives can be a motive for its misuse. The tragedy is that it retards the flow of
justice delivery system.
76. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court
(1) Any public-spirited person
(2) NGO or Association with public spirit
(3) Group of public-spirited persons who have no personal interest
(4) All the above
Ans. [4]- A Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a petition that can be filed by any member of the public for
any matter of public interest, for redress of public wrong or injury.
Administrative Law
28. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of
(1) Doctrine of Ultravires
(2) Malafides
(3) Exclusion of Judicial Review
Ans. [4]- There are three kinds of Control given under Delegated Legislation:
a) Parliamentary or Legislative Control
b) Judicial Control
c) Executive or Administrative Control
34. The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from-

(1) French administration
(2) British Administration
(3) Swedish Administration
(4) German Administration
Ans. [3]- Ombudsman was borrowed from Swedish, where it means "representative,". Sweden became
the first country to appoint an independent official known as an ombudsman to investigate complaints
against government officials and agencies.
Page - 13
94. Rule of Law is defined by
(1) Jeremy Bentham
(2) Sir John Salmond
(3) A .V. Diecy
(4) Prof. Aristotle
Ans. [3]- The theory of rule of law was propounded by A.V. Dicey.
Professional Ethics and cases of professional misconduct under BCI rules

29. Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to-
(1) Justice Abbot Parry
(2) Justice Heward
(3) Justice Bhagawathy
(4) Justice Grey
Ans. [1]- Judge Abbot parry in his book “The Seven Lamps of Advocacy” called these important
characteristics of advocacy as “seven lamps of advocacy” and listed them as honesty, courage, industry,
wit, eloquence, judgment and fellowship.
82. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by
(1) Section 25
(2) Section 33
(3) Section 35
Ans. [3]- Sec.35 of Advocates Act provides punishment for Advocates for misconduct.
83. Which is the correct state statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer
(1) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott'
(2) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
(3) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
Ans. [4]- In the legal profession, a lawyer must obey to professional codes for fair dealing with the client
and uphold the self-possession. The Indian government has established a statutory body known as The
Bar council of India under the Advocate Act,1961.
97. On being aggrieved by the order of state Bar Council, one can appeal to
(1) High Court
(2) Supreme Court
(3) Bar Council of India
(4) Indian Law Commission
Ans. [3]- As per sec.37 of Advocates Act, any person aggrieved by an order of the disciplinary committee
of a State Bar Council made under section 35 or the Advocate-General of the State may, within sixty days
of the date of the communication of the order to him, prefer an appeal to the Bar Council of India.
Company Law
33. Provisions regarding Corporate Social Responsibility are incorporated in the Companies Act, 2013
under
(1) Section 101
(2) Section 111
(3) Section 135
(4) Section 235
Page - 14
Ans. [3]- The Companies Act, 2013 provides for CSR under section 135. Thus, it is mandatory for the
companies covered under section 135 to comply with the CSR provisions in India. Companies are
required to spend a minimum of 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years as CSR.
63. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives

(1) Certification of incorporation
(2) Letter of intent
(3) Occupation certificate
Ans. [1]- Only on receiving both the certificate of incorporation and the certificate of commencement of
business,private company can commence business.
Environmental Law
31. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, came into force on
(1) 18th Nov., 1986
(2) 19th Nov., 1986
(3) 20th Nov., 1986
(4) 21st Nov., 1986
Ans. [2]- Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 came into force on 19-11-1986.
64. Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is mandatory under

(1) Indian forest act
(2) Air act
(3) Wildlife protection act
(4) Environment protection act
Ans. [4]- Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a tool used to assess the significant effects of a
project or development proposal on the environment. EIA is mandatory under Environment protection
Act.
Cyber Law
3. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature
(1) Chapter III
(2) Chapter IV
(3) Chapter IX
(4) Chapter IX and X
Ans. [1]- Sec.5 of Chap.3 of I.T. Act deals with the legal recognition of digital signatures.
66. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the

(1) Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(2) State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
(3) Central Government
(4) Central Government in consultation with Controller of Certifying Authority
Ans. [1]- The selection of Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall be made by the Central
Government.
Labour & Industrial Law

32. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is -
(1) Industrial peace and economic justice
(2) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
(3) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.
Page - 15
Ans. [4]- The main aim of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is to maintain a balance between labour and
industry welfare by ensuring industrial peace and harmony.
67. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948

(1) Who has completed 17 years
(2) Who is less than 18 years of age
(3) Who is more than 15 years but less than 18 years of age
(4) None of these
Ans. [3]- As per sec.2(b) of Factories Act 1948, “adolescent” means a person who has completed his
fifteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year.
68. Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labor dispute to
(1) Internal Labor Department
(2) Bureau of Labor Relations
(3) Public Sector Labor - Management Council
(4) Department of Labor
Ans. [2]- Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labor dispute to Bureau of
Labor Relations.
71. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, if the employer terminates services of an individual workman
any dispute/difference arising out of such, termination shall be deemed to be:
(1) Industrial dispute
(2) Individual dispute
(3) Both individual and industrial dispute
(4) None of these
Ans. [1]- As per sec.2A of Industrial Disputes Act, where any employer discharges, dismisses, retrenches,
or otherwise terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute or difference between that
workman and his employer connected with, or arising out of, such discharge, dismissal, retrenchment
or termination shall be deemed to be an industrial dispute.
Law of Torts including MV Act & Consumer Protection Law

7. Who is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?
(1) Owner of the vehicle
(2) State Government
(3) Driver
(4) Insurance Company
Ans. [1]- As per sec.140 of M.V. Act, where death or permanent disablement of any person has resulted
from an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle or motor vehicles, the owner of the vehicle
shall, or, as the case may be, the owners of the vehicles shall, jointly and severally, be liable to pay
compensation.
8. Vicarious liability includes

(1) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
(2) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
(3) Liability of the partners for each other tort
(4) all of the above
Ans. [4]- Vicarious liability, or imputed liability, is indirect liability for the actions of a another person,
such as a subordinate or child. An employer can be held liable for the unlawful actions of an employee,
such as harassment or discrimination in the workplace.
Page - 16
27. The Latin word 'Injuria Sine Damnum' Literally means:
(1) Infringement of legal right without damages.
(2) Damages without Infringement of legal right.
(3) Both A & B
Ans. [1]- Injuria sine damno is a violation of a legal right without causing any harm, loss or damage to
the plaintiff and whenever any legal right is infringed, the person in whom the right is vested is entitled
to bring an action.
69. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

(1) Possession of driving licence while
(2) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
(3) Revoking driving licence if drunk drive is detected
(4) State government's power to control the road transport
Ans. [4]- Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides power to State Government to control road
transport.
70. Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, defect is meant by any fault, imperfection
or Shortcoming in ………….. in relation to the goods
(1) Quality and Quantity
(2) Potency
(3) Purity or Standard
Ans. [4]- Income is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act as-
Consumer Protection Act 1986 provides that “defect” means any fault, imperfection or shortcoming in
the quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard which is required to be maintained by or under any law
for the time being in force or under any contract, express or implied, or as is claimed by the trader in any
manner whatsoever in relation to any goods.
Law related to Taxation

12. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under
(1) Wealth Tax
(2) GST
(3) Income Tax Act, 1961
(4) Finance Act, 1992
Ans. [3]- A PAN is a unique identifier issued to all judicial entities identifiable under the Indian Income
Tax Act, 1961. The income tax PAN and its linked card are issued under Section 139A of the Income Tax
Act.
61. "Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax

(1) Goods and Services Tax
(2) Excise duty and customs duty
(3) Income tax and gift tax
Ans. [3]- A direct tax is paid by an individual or organization to the entity that levied the tax. Direct taxes
include income taxes, property taxes, and taxes on assets.
72. In case of a co-operative society the maximum amount on which income tax is not chargeable is
(1) 50,000 (2) 30,000
(3) 20,000 (4) Nil
Ans. [4]- There is no threshold limit for taxability of income in case of a co- operative society.
Page - 17
84. Income is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act as-
(1) Profits and gains
(2) Dividends
(3) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
Ans. [4]- Section 24 of the Income Tax Act deals with the deductions from income from house property.
Law of contract, SRA, Property Laws, N.I. Act

13. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee
(1) Concurrence of three parties fairies.
(2) Surety's distinct promise to answerable
(3) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
(4) Existence of only one contract
Ans. [4]- Sec.126 of Contract Act provides for contract of guarantee.
23. Which of the following does not come under the 'immovable property' as per the T.P. Act?
(1) Sales of a ceiling fan.
(2) Right to claim maintenance.
(3) Right relating to lease
(4) Easementary right.
Ans. [1]- Immovable Property-Not defined under Transfer of Property Act. As per Section 3, immovable
property does not include standing timber, growing crop and grass.
85. What kind of property is transferable?

(1) Pension.
(2) Public office.
(3) Right to re-entry
(4) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law.
Ans. [4]- Sec.6 of Transfer of Property Act provides what kind of property may be transferred.
86. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer

(1) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(2) when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
(3) when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
Ans. [2]- Sec.4 of Contract Act, communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer,
when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
87. What is true of perpetual injunction

(1) It is a judicial process
(2) preventive in nature
(3) the thing prevented is a wrongful act
Ans. [2]- As per sec.37 SRA, perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing
and upon the merits of the suit.
88. Section 14A inserted by THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to
(1) Power of the Courts to engage experts
(2) Establishment of Special Court
(3) Expeditious disposal of case
Page - 18
(4) Specific performance with regard to contracts
Ans. [1]- Sec.14A SRA deals with the power of the Courts to engage experts.
89. The liability under Section 138 of the negotiable instruments act 1881 is
(1) Strict liability
(2) Vicarious liability
(3) Both 'A and B'
Ans. [1]- The liability under Section 138 of the negotiable instruments act 1881 is strict liability.
90. Cheque bouncing cases charged under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trained by
(1) Bank Tribunal
(2) Consumer Forum
(3) Magistrate Court
(4) Sessions Court
Ans. [3]- Sec.142 N.I. Act provides that no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial
Magistrate of the first class shall try any offence punishable under section 138.
Land Acquisition Act

98. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means
(1) Useful for residential purpose
(2) Useful for commercial purpose
(3) Useful for cultivation
(4) Useful for industrial purpose
Ans. [3]- Sec.3 of Land Acquisition Act provides that ‘arable land' means land fit for cultivation, whether
in fact cultivated or not; and includes garden land.
100. The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are-

(1) An Act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for public purposes and for industry.
(2) An Act to amend the law for the purchase of land for public purpose and for business.
(3) An Act to amend the law for the possessions of land for public purpose and for manufacturing.
(4) An Act to amend the law for the Acquisition of land for public purposes and for Companies.
Ans. [4]- Objective of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is to amend the law for the Acquisition of land for public
purposes and for Companies.
Intellectual Property Laws

22. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999 defines the meaning of
(1) Licence (2) Trade Mark
(3) Registration (4) Cancellation
Ans. [2]- Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999 defines the meaning of Trade Mark.
45. Which condition is not required to be satisfied by an invention to be patentable matter under
Patent Act
(1) Novelty subject
(2) Inventive steps
(3) Distinctiveness
(4) Usefulness
Ans. [3]- Patents shall be granted for any inventions which are susceptible of industrial application
(utility), which are new and which involve an inventive step (non-obvious).
Page - 19

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Unacademy AIBE Mock Test

S. No. Subject Q. No.

1. Constitution 1, 4, 10, 17, 25, 26, 35, 41, 55, 65

2. IPC 2, 11, 20, 38, 43, 53, 54, 57

3. CrPC 6, 21, 36, 56, 58, 62, 73, 74, 77, 91

4. CPC 9, 19, 37, 60, 75, 80, 92, 95, 96, 99

5. Evidence 5, 18, 39, 46, 59, 78, 79, 93

6. Arbitration Act 15, 47, 48, 81

7. Family Law 14, 16, 24, 42, 44, 49, 50, 51

8. Public Interest Litigation 30, 40, 52, 76

9. Administrative Law 28, 34, 94

10. Professional Ethics and cases of 29, 82, 83, 97

11. Company Law 33, 63

12. Environmental Law 31, 64

13. Cyber Law 3, 66

14. Labour & Industrial Law 32, 67, 68, 71

15. Law of Torts including MV Act & 7, 8, 27, 69, 70

16. Law related to Taxation 12, 61, 72, 84

18. Land Acquisition Act 98, 100

19. Intellectual Property Laws 22, 45

4. The item ‘Education' belongs to the:

17. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?

11. De minimus non curat lex implies

20. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under

74. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment

91. Under Section 239 CrPC, the Magistrate can

19. Omission to give notice under Order XXI Rule 22 will

60. Section 10 of the CPC provides for

80. A suit may be dismissed under order IX

96. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if :

39. Leading questions can be asked during-

46. Pakala Narayan Swami vs. Emperor is a leading case on

79. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication-

93. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act

47. Which one is a Foreign Award-

48. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals

24. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance

Public Interest Litigation

40. In Which Country was the concept of PIL Originated

52. Misuse of mechanism of PIL means

34. The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from-

Professional Ethics and cases of professional misconduct under BCI rules

63. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives

64. Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is mandatory under

66. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the

Labour & Industrial Law

67. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948

Law of Torts including MV Act & Consumer Protection Law

8. Vicarious liability includes

69. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

Law related to Taxation

61. "Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax

Law of contract, SRA, Property Laws, N.I. Act

85. What kind of property is transferable?

86. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer

87. What is true of perpetual injunction

Land Acquisition Act

100. The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are-

Intellectual Property Laws

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