Sec : SR AIIMS S60 & MPL NEET CUMULATIVE TEST -3 Date :08-04-20

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI, CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS SUPER60 & NEET MPL DATE: 08-04-20
SUB: CHEMISTRY NEET CUMULATIVE TEST - 3 Max. Marks :720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-

Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. If the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in (1) Rb

the nth orbit in a hydrogen is equal to 2 π a 0 (2) Na
(3) Mg
n
(a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of is (4) Li
z
5. For a first order reaction, graph is plotted
(1) 1.0
between log(a-x) on y-axis and time on x-
(2) 0.75 axis.True statement is
(3) 0.40 (1) It has positive y-intercept and negative
(4) 1.50 slope.
2. The correct order of atomic radii is (2) It has negative y-intercept and positive
(1) Ce > Eu > Ho > Gd slope.
(2) Gd > Ce > Eu > Ho (3) It is a straight line passing through
(3) Eu > Ce > Gd > Ho origin.
Ho > Gd > Eu > Ce (4) It is a straight line parallel to x-axis
(4)
6. The element with Z = 120 (not yet
3. The magnetic moment of an octahedral
discovered) will be an/a
homoleptic Mn (II) complex is 5.9 BM. The
(1) Transitional metal
suitable ligand for this complex is
(2) Inner transitional metal
(1) CN − (3) Alkaline earth metal
(2) en (4) Alkali metal
(3) CO 7. The amphoteric hydroxide is

(4) Br − (1) Ca ( OH )2
4. A metal on combustion in excess air forms (2) Be ( OH )2
X. X upon hydrolysis with water yeilds H2O2 (3) Sr ( OH )2
and O2 along with another product. The
(4) Mg ( OH )2
metal is
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8. Longest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum is (3) -200
observed in _____ series (4) -1400
(1) Lyman 15. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-
(2) Pfund centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6 respectively
(3) Balmer are
(4) Bracket (1) 2 and 4
9. The element that usually does not show (2) 2 and 1
varible oxidation states is (3) 2 and 2
(1) V (4) 4 and 2
(2) Ti 16. Incorrect about solution of alkali metals in
(3) Sc liquid ammonia
(4) Cu (1) Dilute solutions are blue in colour
10. The correct option with respect to the Pauling (2) Dilute solutions are para magnetic
electronegativity values of the elements is (3) Conduction is due to ammoniated
(1) C > Pb electrons and ammoniated cations
(2) Al > Ga (4) They are very good oxidizing agents
(3) P >S 17. A compound of formula A2B3 has the ccp
(4) Be > B lattice. Which atom forms the ccp lattice and
11. The number of bridging CO lingand(s) and Co what fraction of tetrahedral voids is occupied
– Co bond(s) in Co 2 ( CO ) respectively are by the other atoms?
8
(1) ccp lattice – A,
(1) 0 and 2
2
(2) 2 and 0 tetrahedral voids – B
3
(3) 4 and 0
(2) ccp lattice – B,
(4) 2 and 1
12. The relative stability of + 1 oxidation state of
1
tetrahedral voids – A
group 13 elements follow the order 3
(3) ccp lattice – B,
(1) Al < Ga < Tl < In
(2) Tl < In < Ga < Al 2
tetrahedral voids – A
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl 3
(4) ccp lattice – A,
(4) Ga < Al < In < Tl
13. Colour exibhited is not due to charge transfer 1
tetrahedral voids – B
phenomenon in 3
(1) KMnO4 18. The difference in the number of unpaired
(2) K2CrO4 electrons of a metal ion in its high – spin and
(3) K2MnO4 low – spin octahedral complexes is two. The
(4) K2Cr2O7 metal ion is
14. 3.55g of chlorine gas releases 35KJ of energy (1) Fe2 +
Co2+
by gaining electrons.Electron gain enthalphy
(2)
of chlorine is_____KJ
(1) -350 (3) Mn 2 +
(2) -175 (4) Zn 2 +
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19. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate 25. The total number of isomers for a square
in acidic medium, the number of electrons planar complex [ Mabcd ] are
involved in the overall reaction are (1) 3
(1) 6 (2) 8
(2) 3 (3) 16
(3) 10 (4) 4
(4) 4 26. Consider the following reduction processes
20. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is Zn 2+ + 2e− → Zn; E 0 = −0.76V
Ca 2+ + 2e− → Ca, E 0 = −2.87V
– 13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state
+
of He ion in eV is
(1) −6.04 Mg 2+ + 2e− → Mg, E 0 = −2.36V
(2) −27.2 Ni 2+ + 2e− → Ni, E 0 = −0.25V
(3) −54.4 The reducing power of the metals increases
(4) −3.4 in the order
21. Bond order is 2.5 in (1) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni
Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
N +2
(2)
(1)
(3) Zn > Mg > Ni > Ca
(2) N2
(4) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni
(3) O +2 27. Activation energy depends on
(4) O2 (1) catalyst
(2) temperature
22. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge
(3) nature of reactants
(
lengths ( a ≠ b ≠ c ) and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 900 ) (4) both 1 and 3
28. Highest oxidation state is exibhited by the
(1) Tetragonal
element belonging to the group
(2) Hexagonal
(1) 15
(3) Monoclinic (2) 17
(4) Triclinic (3) 16
23. The type of hybridisation and number of lone (4) 18
pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF4 29. The metal that forms nitride by reacting
respectively are directly with Nitrogen of air is
(1) sp3d and 1 (1) K
(2) sp3d and 2 (2) Cs
(3) Li
(3) sp3d2 and 1
(4) Rb
(4) sp3d3 and 2
30. The transitional element that has lowest
24. The metal used in X – ray tube window is
enthalpy of atomisation is
(1) Cs (1) Zn
(2) Na (2) Cu
(3) Ca (3) V
(4) Be (4) Fe
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31. Two metals A and B have ccp and bcc 36. Polar molecule among following is
arrangements respectively.The ratio of (1) CH3Cl
edgelengths of A and B is 2:1.Assuming they (2) CCl4
have same density , the ratio of their (3) CH4
molecular masses is (4) SiCl4
(1) 2 : 1
37. Which of the following shows both
(2) 1 : 3
Schottkey and Frenkel defects
(3) 1 : 2
(1) KBr
(4) 4 : 1
(2) NaCl
32. Equivalent conductance and specific
conductance of weak monobasic acid are 103 (3) AgBr
mho.cm2.eq-1 and (4) AgCl
10-1 mho.cm-1.molarity of solution is 38. When 10g of a mixture containing NaHCO3
(1) 0.1M and Na2CO3 is subjected to calcination,
(2) 1M volume of CO2 liberated at S.T.P is
(3) 10M 1.12L.Weight of Na2CO3 in the mixture is
(4) 0.2M (1) 1.6g
33. The colour of K 2Cr2O7 changes from red (2) 5g
orange to lemon yellow on treatement with (3) 3.2g
aqueous KOH because of (4) 4.8g
(1) The reduction of CrVI to CrIII 39. Which among the following is incorrect
(2) The formation of Cr ( OH )3 combination ?
(3) The conversion of dichromate to (1) XeF6---- sp3d3 ---- distorted
chromate octahedral
(4) The oxidation of KOH to K2O2
(2) XeO4 ----- sp3 in 3rd excited state ----
34. I: Samarium is steel hard
-- Pyramidal
II:Actinoids show variable oxidation states
(1) I and II are false (3) XeO2F2 ---- sp3d in 3rd excited state -
(2) I is false,II is true ---- distorted trigonal bipyramidal
(3) I and II are true (4) XeF4 ----- sp3d2 in 2nd excited state -
(4) I is true,II is false -- square planar
35. The formation of O2 [ PtF6 ] is the basis of 40. 50% of a reaction is completed in 16 min,
the formation of Xenon fluorides. This is under similar conditions 75% of the reaction
because is completed in 48 min. Order of the reaction
(1) O2 and Xe have comparable sizes will be
(2) Both O2 and Xe are gases (1) 3
(3) O2 and Xe have comparable ionisation (2) 1
energies (3) 2
(4) O2 and Xe have comparable
(4) 0
electronegativities
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41. The shape of BrO3− ion according to VSEPR r2
r1
theory will be
(1) Trigonal planar
(1) Size of the bubbles remains unchanged
(2) Trigonal pyramidal
(2) Larger bubble bursts instantly
(3) See-Saw
(3) Air flows from larger bubble into the
(4) Square planar
smaller one
42. All the following have same number of
(4) Air flows from smaller bubble into the
significant figures except
larger bubble
(1) 4.008
47. In a vessel two insoluble liquids are filled as
23
(2) 6.022 × 10 shown in the figure. The effective refractive
(3) 7555 index of the combination for normal view is
(4) 0.0034
43. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode will
4
µ1 =
be highest when it is in contact with ____M 3 8 cm

KCl 3
µ2 = 6 cm
(1) 0.01 2

(2) 1 (1) 1.33

(3) 0.1 (2) 1.5
(4) 0.2 (3) 1.67
44. I: ( A → B ⇒ E a = 16kcal ) (4) 1.4
48. A car starts from rest travelling with constant
II: ( C → D ⇒ E a = 20kcal )
acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10th
The temperature coefficient of
second of its journey is 19m, what will be the
(1) II>I
acceleration of car?
(2) II=I
(1) 4 m/s2
(3) II<I
(4) Data insufficient (2) 3 m/s2
45. The coordination number of the barium ions (3) 2 m/s2

Ba +2 in Barium fluoride ( BaF2 ) is 8, then (4) 1 m/s2

49. In the figure, an ideal fluid flows through a
the coordination number of fluoride ions
tube of uniform cross section. If V and P
( F− ) is represent velocity and pressure respectively
B
(1) 8
(2) 6 A

(3) 4 (1) VA > VB

(4) 2
(2) PA < PB
46. Two soap bubbles of different radii are
(3) PA = PB
connected to each other as shown. Choose
the most appropriate alternative (4) VA = VB

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50. In a standing wave particles at the positions incidence i at AB for which the refracted ray
A and B, have a phase difference of through diagonal face goes undeviated is
A

A B
i
(1) 0
B C
π
(2) (1) 0°
2
(2) 30°
5π
(3) (3) 45°
6
(4) 90
(4) π
54. As shown in figure, by combining together
51. If waves are originating from a point source,
copper and steel wires of same length and
then amplitude (A) at a distance (r) from the
same diameter, a force F is applied at one of
source are related as
their end. The combined length is increased
(1) A ∝ r
by 2 cm. The wires will have
(2) A ∝ r2
1 F
(3) A∝
r Fe Cu
1 (1) Same stress and same strain
(4) A∝
r2 (2) Different stress and different strain
52. A capacitor of capacitance C and resistance R (3) Different stress and same strain
are joined in series and connected by a (4) Same stress and different strain
source of frequency ω . Power dissipated in 55. A transverse wave pulse is generated at lower
the circuit is end of a hanging rope of uniform linear mass
density and length L. Time taken by pulse to
 2 1 
(1)  R + 2 2  travel from lower end to the ceiling is
ω C
V 2R
(2)
 2 1 
 R + 2 2 
ω C
V L
(3) (1)
 2 1  g
 R + 2 2 
ω C
L
1 (2) 2
R2 + g
(4)
ω 2C2
L
V2 (3)
53. Figure shows a right angle isosceles prism of 2g
glass of refractive index 1.414. The angle of 3l
(4)
g
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56. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 (1) 2 m
in vacuum coalesce under isothermal (2) 50 cm
condition. The resulting bubble has radius R (3) 5 mm
such that (4) 5 cm
r1 + r2 60. In a Young’s double slit experiment, fourth
(1) R=
2 bright fringe is formed at a distance x from
(2) R = r12 + r22 central fringe. The distance between it and
second dark fringe on the same side of
r1 − r2
(3) R= central maximum is
2
3x
rr (1)
(4) R= 12 8
r1 − r2
11x
57. A beam is incident on a tube containing two (2)
convex lenses of focal length 15 cm and 20 8
cm as shown. If the diameter of incident 13x
(3)
beam is 10 cm, find the diameter of final 8
beam 5x
(4)
8
θ
61. A particle starts with velocity v0 at at time
t=0 and is decelerated at a rate proportional
40 to the square root of its speed at time t with
(1) cm constant of proportionality α . The total time
3 for which it will move before coming to rest
20 is
(2) cm
3 (1) v0
50 3
(3) cm 2
3 v0
(2)
25 α
(4) cm 3
3 2
2v0
58. Which of the following plots may represent (3)
the variation of reactance of a series LC α
combination? 2 v0
III
I (4)
α
Reactance

II
f
Frequency 62. A thin rod of length is placed along the
IV 3
principal axis of a concave mirror of focal
(1) I length f, such that its image which is real and
(2) II elongated, just touches the rod. Then the
(3) III magnification of the rod is
(4) IV 3
(1)
59. The diameter of aperture of an astronomical 2
telescope is 1.22 m. What should be 2
(2)
minimum separation between two objects at 3
distance 10 km from the telescope to observe 1
(3)
them distinctly (take wavelength of light to 2
be 5000 Å)? (4) 2
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63. Identify the figure, which correctly represent 3h
the given wave function at t = 0 ? (3)
4
y = 2 3 sin π ( 2x − 3t ) 27h
y (4)
2√ 3
64
x 67. Ten tunning forks are arranged in increasing
(1) order of frequency in such a way that any
y
2 3
two consecutive tunning forks produces 4
3
x
beats/s. The highest frequency is twice that
−2 3 of the lowest. Possible highest and lowest
(2)
y
2 3 frequencies (in Hz) are
3
x (1) 80 & 40
−2 3
(3) (2) 100 & 50
y
(3) 44 & 22
2√ 3

–3
x (4) 72 & 36
–2√ 3 68. A thin transparent plate of refractive index µ
(4)
64. If an alternating voltage is given by e = e1 + and thickness t is placed on the path of one of
e2 sin ω t ,then the root mean square value of the interfering beam in Young’s double slit
the voltage is given by experiment. If D is distance of screen from
e22 the slits and d is the separation between the
(1) e12 + slits, then fringe pattern will shift
2
e12 + e2 2 D
(2)
(1) ( µ − 1) towards the slit which is
2 d
covered
(3) e12 + e22
D
e1e2 (2) ( µ − 1) towards the slit which is not
(4) d
2 covered
65. Two different letters, one red & other violet
D
are covered with two hemispherical paper (3) ( µ − 1)t towards the slit which is
d
weights of refractive indices 2 and radius
covered
R. If the letters are at the centre of the
hemisphere then D
(4) ( µ − 1)t towards the slit which is
(1) Red letter will shift more d
(2) Both will shift by same distance not covered
(3) Violet letter will shift more 69. Two projectiles A and B are projected with
(4) There will be no shift
same speed at angles 30° and 60° to
66. A ball is released from certain height h
reaches ground in time T. Where will it be horizontal, then choose the wrong statement?
3T (symbols have their usual meaning)
from the ground at time ?
4 (1) RA = RB
9h (2) HB = 3HA
(1)
16
7h (3) 3 TB = TA
(2)
16 (4) All of these
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 y1 y2
70. In a series LCR circuit, the source frequency
f is varried, but the current is kept
µ = 1.2
unchanged. Which of the following curves
shows changes of VC and VL with µ = 1.5

frequency? (1) nλ
VC VL λ
(i) V VL (ii) V VC (2) (2n + 1)
2
f f
3λ
(3)
2
VC (4) Both (2) & (3)
(iii) V VL (iv) V VL
74. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.02
VC
%, when subjected to a normal uniform
f f
(1) (i) pressure of 5 × 106 N/m2. The Bulk modulus
(2) (ii) of its material is
(3) (iii) (1) 1 × 1011 N/m2
(4) (iv) (2) 2 × 1010 N/m2
71. The potential energy U between the atoms in (3) 2.5 × 1010 N/m2
a diatomic molecule as a function of the
(4) 1 × 1013 N/m2
distance x between the atoms is shown in
75. A train moves towards a stationary observer
figure. The atoms
with speed 40 m/s. The train sounds a whistle
U
and its frequency registered by the observer
B
is f1. If the trains’s speed is reduced to 20
O x
A C m/s, the frequency registered is f2. If the
speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio of
(1) Attract each other when x is between A f1
and B is
f2
(2) Attract each other when x is between B
and C 15
(1)
(3) Attract each other when x is at B 16
(4) Repel each other when x is at B 1
(2)
72. In a resonance tube two successive positions 2
of resonance are obtained at 15 cm and 48 (3) 2
cm. If the frequency of the fork is 500 Hz, 16
(4)
then the velocity of sound is 15
(1) 330 m/s 76. If breaking force and breaking stress for a
(2) 300 m/s given wire are x and y. Breaking force &
(3) 1000 m/s breaking stress for another wire of same
(4) 360 m/s material and double the thickness are,
73. What should be path difference between (1) 4x, 4y respectively
wave y1 and y2 to have constructive (2) x, 4y respectively
interference? (3) x, y respectively
(4) 4x, y respectively
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77. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 passes 81. A particle is projected in such a way that,
through three polarizers such that taking point of projection as origin,
transmission axes of the first and second y = 8t – 5t2 and x = 6t. What is the range of
polarizer makes angle 60° with each other projectile?
and the transmission axis of the last polarizer (1) 48 m
is crossed with that of the first. The intensity (2) 4.8 m
of final emerging light will be (3) 9.6 m
(4) 24 m
I0
(1) 82. The separation between the object and the
16 screen is 100 cm. There are two positions of
I0 the lens for which image is formed on the
(2)
8 screen itself and the separation between the
3I0 two positions of the lens is 60 cm. The focal
(3) length of the lens is
32
(1) 10 cm
3I0
(4) (2) 13 cm
8 (3) 16 cm
78. Two different types of rubber are found to (4) 18 cm
have the stress-strain curves as shown. Then 83. A cubical block of side 1m of specific
gravity K(K > 1) is placed at the bottom of a
Stress

Stress

A B vessel containing water. Normal force (in

Strain Strain
newton) by the stands of the vessel on the
(1) A is suitable for shock absorber block is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(2) B is suitable for shock absorber
(3) B is suitable for car tyres
(4) None of these
79. A spherical ball of radius r is dropped from a (1) 104 (K + 1)
height. falling vertically in air with speed v.
(2) 104 (K – 1)
The air drag acting on the ball is proportional
(3) 103 (K + 1)
to
(1) vr (4) 103(K– 1)
84. The diagram shows portion of a transverse
v
(2) wave travelling in +x direction. Choose the
r correct option
r y
(3) B
v A C
x
1 D E
(4)
vr (1) Point D has acceleration in negative
80. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a y direction
beam of yellow light. What happens if the (2) Point C has acceleration in negative
yellow light is replaced by red light? x direction
(1) No change (3) Point A and point C have velocities in
(2) Diffraction bands become narrower opposite directions
(3) Diffraction bands become broader (4) Point A and point E have velocities in
(4) Diffraction bands disappear opposite directions
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85. A particle starts with initial velocity is 89. Two identical sources of sound S1 and S2
(2iˆ + ˆj) m/s. Uniform acceleration produce intensity I0 at a point P equidistant
( − ˆi + 3j)
ˆ m/s2. What is y component of from each source. If intensity of S1 is
velocity at the instant when x component of reduced to 64 % of initial value, then
velocity becomes zero?
resultant intensity at P would be
(1) 5 m/s
(1) 0.25I0
(2) 7 m/s
(2) 0.01I0
(3) 6 m/s
(3) 0.81I0
(4) 10 m/s
(4) 0.64I0
86. A bar is subjected to axial forces as shown.
90. Stress-strain curves for two materials A and B
Find the total elongation in the bar. (E is the
are shown. If two rods of equal areas, lengths
modulus of elasticity of the bar and A is its
l and 3l, made of materials A and B
area of cross-section)
3F F respectively are equally strained, potential
2F
energies stored in the rods are in the ratio
l l
A
Fl

Stress
(1) B
AE 30º
2Fl 30º
(2) Strain
AE
3Fl (1) 1 : 3
(3) (2) 3 : 1
AE
4Fl (3) 1 : 1
(4) (4) 9 : 1
AE
87. A lens is cut from the optical centre along the 91. Downstreaming processing includes
principal axis and the two parts of the lens (1) Insertion of foreign gene into the host
are placed sideways as shown in figure. Then (2) Extraction of desired polynucleotide
the new focal length of the combination (3) Extraction & purification of
recombinant protein
(4) Marketing of the expressed protein
92. Which of the following act as a cutter on a
specific palindromic polynucleotide
(1) Remains the same sequence?
(2) Becomes double (1) DNase
(3) Becomes half (2) RNase
(4) Becomes triple (3) Hind II
88. The X and Y co-ordinates of a particle are (4) Protease
 π 93. Which of the following biomes is
x = A sin ω t and y =2 A sin  ω t +  , then characterized by highest mean annual rainfall
 2
and mean annual temperature
the motion of the particle is
(1) Coniferous forest
(1) Circular
(2) Temperature forest
(2) Parabolic
(3) Tropical forest
(3) Rectilinear
(4) Glass land
(4) Elliptical clockwise
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94. Which of the following is not a limitation of 100. A patient is suspected to be suffering from a
ecological pyramids bacterial disease, however the number of
(1) It does not accommodate a food web bacteria in the patient’s body is very less.
(2) It is not given any place to saprophytes Which method can help you to detect these
(3) It does not take into account of pathogens in the laboratory ?
omnivores (1) Hybridoma technology
(4) It does not accommodate a simple food (2) Polymerase Chain Reaction
chain (3) Somatic hybridization
95. The DNA molecule to which the gene of (4) DNA fingerprinting
interest is integrated for cloning is called 101. For inserting of DNA into host using a gene
(1) Template gun, the DNA is wrapped around
(2) Carrier microparticles of
(3) Transformer (1) Platinum or silicon
(4) Vector (2) Silver or Rhodium
(3) Gold or Tungsten
96. Choose the correct match w.r.t pBR322
(4) Zinc or copper
(1) rop – reduced osmotic pressure
102. Which of the following is unrelated to
(2) ampR—antibiotic resistance gene
genetic engineering ?
(3) EcoR I – Selectable marker
(1) Molecular scissors
(4) ori– Original restriction enzyme
(2) Molecular swivel
97. Which of the following cells during
(3) Molecular glue
spermatogenesis is normally diploid
(4) Molecular probe
(1) Spermatid
103. The total number of teeth in the milk
(2) Secondary spermatocyte
dentition of human being is
(3) Spermatozoan
(1) 32
(4) Primary spermatocyte (2) 18
98. Find out the incorrect statement (3) 24
(1) MTP (Amendment) Act was inacted by (4) 20
government of India in 2017 104. The maximum volume of air a person can
(2) Indian population crossed 1.2 billion in breathe in after a forced expiration is
May 2011 (1) Inspiratory capacity
(3) According to 2011 census, the growth (2) Expiratory capacity
rate in India was less than 2 percent (3) Vital capacity
(4) The world population is rocketed to (4) Total lung capacity
about 7.2 billion in the year 2000 105. Consider the following (i- iv) & select the
99. How many of the following are features of a correct option having suitable vectors in
‘probe’ used in molecular biology genetic engineering
ss DNA, ds RNA, Oligonucleotide, i) Plasmodium ii) Bacteria
Complimentary to template, radiolabelled iii) Bacteriophage iv) Plasmid
(1) Three (1) i, iii & iv only
(2) One (2) iii & iv only
(3) Four (3) i & iv only
(4) Five (4) i & iii only

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106. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial (3) Diplococcus pneumoniae &
interaction, ‘ − ’ sign to detrimental and ‘o’ Staphylococcus pneumonia
sign to neutral interaction, then the (4) Pseudomonas putida &
population interaction represented by ‘ − ’, Staphylococcus pneumonia
‘ − ’ refers to 111. The difference between primary follicle and
(1) Predation secondary follicle of oogenesis
(2) Competition (1) Primary follicle contain diploid cell
(3) Amensalism while secondary follicle contain haploid
(4) Commensalism cell
107. The GM crop made as Glyphosate resistant is (2) Primary follicle contain primary oocyte
actually while secondary follicle contain
(1) Pathogen resistant secondary oocyte
(2) Herbicide resistant (3) Cell in the primary follicle undergo
(3) Biofortified meiosis – I while that of secondary
(4) Water stress resistant follicle perform meiosis – II
108. The below pyramid does not illustrate (4) Primary follicle contains a layer of
granulosa while secondary follicle
contains many layers of granulosa cells
112. Which of the following option contains
venereal diseases without any exception
(1) Trichomoniasis, Chlamydiasis and
Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhoea, Filaria and Malaria
(3) Genital herpes, Genital Warts and
(1) Pyramid of number in grassland Chikungunya
(2) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic (4) AIDS, SCID and HBV
ecosystem 113. Which one of the following is most
commonly used cloning vector ?
(3) Pyramid of energy in forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in parasitic food (1) pBR322
chain (2) Cosmid
109. Which of the following is not among current (3) SV40
applications of biotechnology? (4) BAC
(1) Molecular farming 114. Flavr savr tomatoes remain fresh for a longer
(2) Bioremediation duration because
(3) Molecular diagnosis (1) Activity of enzyme polygalacturonase,
(4) Biomagnification that inhibit fruit ripening is enhanced
(2) Expression of the gene that code for
110. Two microbes found useful in genetic
enzyme polygalacturonase is blocked
engineering are
(3) Enzyme polygalacturonase supresses
(1) Pseudomonas denitrificans &
the activity of proteins that cause fruit
Clostridium butylicum
ripening
(2) Escherichia coli & Agrobacterium
(4) None of the above
tumefaciens

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115. The first transgenic cow called _________ 121. The logistic population growth is expressed
produced human protein enriched milk. The by the equation
milk contained the human protein called dt K−N
________ (1) = Nr  
dN  K 
(1) Meagen, tissue plaminogen activator
dN  N−K
(2) Rosie, alpha lactalbumin (2) = rN  
(3) Polly, clotting factor VIII
dt  N 
dN
(4) Morgan, growth hormone (3) = rN
116. The movement of food from duodenum to dt
dN  N
stomach is prevented by (4) = rN  1 − 
(1) Cardiac sphincter dt  K
(2) Pyloric sphincter 122. If 800J is the NPP at producer level. Then
(3) Oddi sphincter how much energy will be the NSP of snake
(4) Ileo caecal sphincter Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
117. Best suited soil for plant growth is → Hawk
(1) Loam soils (1) 80 J
(2) Sandy soils (2) 8 J
(3) Clayey soils (3) 0.8 J
(4) Colluvial soils (4) 0.08 J
118. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by 123. Spongy tissue & less developed root system
plants like is present in
(1) Azolla (1) Halophytes
(2) Typha (2) Xerophytes
(3) Salvania (3) Mesophytes
(4) Vallisneria (4) Hydrophytes
119. The feature not observed in xerophytic leaves 124. Which of the following options correctly
(1) Leathery surface represent the sequence of communities in
(2) Waxy cuticle succession on land ?
(3) Large surface area (1) Plankton → Submerged → Floating
(4) Sunken stomata stage → Marsh meadow → Climax
120. Match the following (2) Lichen → Mosses → Annual grass →
List – I List – II Shrubs → Trees
A) Residual volume I) 1100 ml (3) Plankton → Floating stage →
B) Expiratory capacity II) 1600 ml Submerged → Marsh meadow →
C) Inspiratory reserve III) 3000 ml Scrub → Forest
volume (4) Mosses → Lichen → Perennial grass
D) Functional residual IV) 2300 ml → Annual grass → Trees
capacity 125. Which of the following hormones are
A B C D produced in women only during pregnancy
(1) I II IV III (1) Cortisol, prolactin and thyroxine
(2) I II III IV (2) hCG, GnRH and hPL
(3) IV III II I (3) hCG, hPL and relaxin
(4) III IV I II (4) hPL, hCG and inhibin

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126. Proliferative phase of menstrual cycle is 131. The magnitude of osmotic potential is same
characterized by as that of pressure potential in a
(1) Breakdown of endometrial lining of the (1) Flaccid cell
uterus (2) Turgid cell
(2) Primary follicle in the ovary grow to (3) Plasmolysed cell
become a graafian follicle (4) Partly turgid cell
(3) Rupture of graafian follicle and release 132. The continuity of cytoplasm from one cell to
of ovum its neighbouring cells is established by
(4) Secretion of progesterone for the (1) Leucoplast
maintenance of endometrium (2) Apoplast
127. Active transport is characterized by (3) Chloroplast
(1) Requirement of metabolic energy (4) Symplast
(2) Involvement of special membrane 133. What will be the pO 2 and pCO 2 in the
proteins atmospheric air compared to those in the
(3) Highly selective alveolar air
(4) More than one option is correct (1) pO 2 lesser, pCO 2 higher
128. Read the following and choose the incorrect
(2) pO 2 higher, pCO 2 lesser
statements
a) The translocation in phloem is (3) pO 2 higher, pCO 2 higher
unidirectional where as in the xylem it (4) pO 2 lesser, pCO 2 lesser
is bidirectional 134. Figure below is a diagrammatic
b) Absorption of water by dry seeds is an representation of response of organisms to
example of imbibitions abiotic factors. What do (A), (B) and (C)
c) Water loss from plants in liquid state represent respectively
through stomata is called transpiration
(1) All a, b, & c
(2) Only a
(3) Only a & c
(4) Only b & c
129. Insulin is injected but not administered
orally, because
(1) Insulin is bitter in taste A B C
(2) Insulin is digestable (1) Catla Corvus Camel
(3) Insulin causes allergy (2) Cirrhinus Cuscuta Camel
(4) Insulin causes peptic ulcer (3) Chelone Chameleon Camel
130. The enzyme that is not present in Pancreatic (4) Columba Calotes Camel
juice is 135. Hormone acting as antitranspirant is
(1) Trypsinogen (1) Auxin
(2) Chymotrypsinogen (2) Gibberellin
(3) Pepsinogen (3) Cytokinin
(4) Procarboxy peptidase (4) Abscissic acid
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136. Which of the following transpiration is 141. Statement-I : Amniocentesis for sex
absent in grass leaves ? determination is banned legally to check the
(1) Cuticular transpiration increasing menace of female foeticides
(2) Lenticular transpiration Statement-II : Down syndrome and
(3) Stomatal transpiration Haemophilia can be detected by
(4) All the above
amniocentesis
137. Match the following
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true
List – I List – II
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is
I) Accumulation of dark
A) Leaching false.
amorphous substance
II) Soluble inorganic (3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is
B) Catabolism nutrients go down into true.
soil horizon (4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false
III) Breakdown of 142. Which of the following is incorrect
C) Humification detritus into smaller enzymatic reaction in human digestion
particles (1) Peptones 
Trypsin
→ Dipeptides
IV) Degradation of
(2) Starch 
Amalyse
D) Fragmentation detritus into simpler
→ Disaccharides
Lipase
inorganic substances (3) Fats → Diglycerides
A B C D (4) Nucleic acids 
Nucleases
→ Nucleosides
(1) I II III IV 143. PEP case & RuBP carboxylase both enzymes
(2) II IV III I
are present in same chlorenchymatous cells
(3) II IV I III
but participate in path of carbon fixation
(4) IV II III I
during night & day time respectively in
138. If for some reason, the vasa deferentia in the
human reproductive system get blocked, the (1) All C4 plants
gametes will not be transported from (2) All C3 plants
(1) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct (3) CAM plants
(2) Seminiferous tubules to vasa efferentia (4) Both 1 & 2
(3) Rete testis to epididymis 144. Cell organelles involved in photorespiration
(4) Seminiferous tubules to Rete testis are
139. Pressure potential is negative in (1) Peroxisome, Chloroplast, Mitochondria
(1) Pure water (2) Peroxisome, ER, Chloroplast
(2) Turgid cell (3) Glyoxysome, Peroxisome, Centrosome
(3) Roots during night
(4) Golgi apparatus, Chloroplast, Vacuole
(4) Xylem vessels
145. The rate of diffusion of gases in human
140. Which is incorrect about guttation ?
respiration is influenced by all the following
(1) Water is given out in the form of
droplets except
(2) Guttation occurs in all plants (1) Solubility of the gases
(3) Water given out is impure (2) Thickness of the membrane
(4) Guttation occurs during warm, humid (3) Partial pressure of gases
night (4) Availability of ATP
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146. “No two species can occupy the same niche A B C
indefinitely for the same limiting resources”. (1) Grasshopper Frog Hawk
The above statement is stated by (2) Snake Grasshopper Hawk
(3) Man Cow Sparrow
(1) Georgii F.Gause
(4) Frog Goat Man
(2) Joseph Connell
150. The female external genitalia includes all the
(3) Robert Mac Arthur
following except
(4) David Tilman
(1) Mons pubis
147. The correct sequence of events during light (2) Vagina
reaction is (3) Clitoris
a. Photolysis of water (4) Hymen
b. Electron transport 151. Chemiosmotic hypothesis stated by Mitchell
c. Absorption of chlorophyll explains the synthesis of
d. Excitation of chlorophyll (1) NADH
(1) a → b → d → c (2) ATP
(2) d → a → b → c (3) NADPH
(4) FADH2
(3) c → d → b → a
152. Besides optimum wavelength of light, H 2O
(4) a → c → d → b
148. When longer wavelength of red light alone ADP & NADP non cyclic photo
phosphorylation requires
is provided continuously, inhibition of CO2
(1) DCMU
fixation is observed due to
(2) CMU
(1) Non availability of sufficient ATP (3) NADP reductase
(2) Non availability of sufficient NADPH 2 (4) O2
(3) Non functioning of cyclic photo 153. Which of the following contraceptives
phosphorylation protect the user from contracting STDs?
(4) Unavailability of ADP (1) Condoms
149. Identify the likely organisms (A), (B) and (C) (2) Intrauterine devices
in the given foodweb (3) Emergency contraceptives
(4) Oral contraceptive pills
B Lizard
154. Which of the following substances are
absorbed from small intestine by facilitated
Grass Rabbit C transport with the help of carrier proteins
(1) Glucose and amino acids
Mouse
(2) Fructose and fatty acids
A (3) Glycerol and nucleotides
(4) Amino acids and nucleosides
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155. The only 5 carbon compound in kerb’s TCA 160. Energy equivalent of a FADH2 is
cycle (1) 4 ATPs
(1) Is formed after decarboxylation of (2) 38 ATPs
succinic acid (3) 2 ATPs
(2) Participate as important metabolite in
(4) 36 ATPs
nitrogen assimilation
161. The net primary productivity is equal to
(3) Undergoes oxidative decarboxylation
(1) GSP – R
to form isocitric acid
(4) Is oxalosuccinic acid (2) GPP – R
156. Which of the following is not likely to (3) NSP – R
happen during normal inspiration (4) GTP – R
(1) Contraction of external intercostal 162. Match the following
muscles List – I List – II
(2) Increase in the volume of thoracic I) Blastocyst A) Chorionic villi
chamber in dorso ventral axis
II) Morula B) Ampulla region
(3) Decrease in intra pulmonary pressure to
III) Fertilisation C) 8 – celled stage
less than the atmospheric pressure
(4) Relaxation of muscles of diaphragm IV) Placenta D) Implantation

157. In the process of respiration largest amount I II III IV

of energy is liberated during (1) A B C D
(1) Glycolysis (2) C D A B
(2) Fermentation (3) B A D C
(3) Anaerobic respiration (4) D C B A
(4) Kreb’s TCA cycle
163. When electrons move along ETC during
158. In a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies,
aerobic respiration in mitochondria
the natality and mortality in a week is 10 and
(1) ATPS are used in transport of electrons
4 individuals respectively. What is the ‘r’
(2) pH of matrix increases
value of that population.
(1) 0.10 (3) pH of inter membrane space increases
(2) 0.25 (4) ATPs are synthesized towards
(3) 0.15 intermembrane space
(4) 0.20 164. Delay in flowering in plants is caused by
159. Link reaction during aerobic respiration is an which set of elements
example of (1) Fe, Mn, Mo
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) N, S, Mo
(2) Oxidative decarboxylarion
(3) Ca, Mg, K
(3) Reductive amination
(4) N, K, S
(4) Transphosphorylation

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165. GIFT differs from IVF because GIFT 170. Name the respiratory disorder in which
involves difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due
(1) In vivo fertilization to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(1) Asthma
(2) Fusion of one sperm and only one egg.
(2) Emphysema
(3) In vitro fertilization
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Direct injection of sperm into the ovum
(4) Bronchitis
166. Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and
171. By the end of second month of pregnancy
calories in infants less than a year in age (1) The foetus develops limbs and digits
results in (2) The foetus shows first movements
(1) Kwashiorkar (3) The foetus eyelids get separate
(2) Osteomalacia (4) The foetus body covered with fine hair
(3) Marasmus 172. Select the wrong statement.
(1) ICSI is a procedure in which a sperm is
(4) Nyctalopia
directly injected into the ovum in the
167. Glutamic acid can undergo A to form 17
laboratory.
other amino acids, also the substitution of B
(2) Infertility cases due to low sperm
part of this acid by another NH 2 radicle counts in the ejaculates could be
forms glutamine corrected by artificial insemination
A B technique.
(1) Transamination Hydroxyl (3) A standard test tube baby programme
involves in vitro fertilization followed
(2) Transamination Carboxyl
by embryo transfer
(3) Reductive amination Hydroxyl
(4) GIFT is aimed to help female who can
(4) Reductive amination Carboxyl
produce ovum, but cannot provide
168. Optimum range of micronutrient in per Kg of
suitable environment for fertilisation
dry matter falls and further development
−1
(1) < 10m mole gm 173. Soybean roots export fixed nitrogen as
(1) Asparagine
(2) < 10m mole Kg −1
(2) Glutamine
(3) > 10m mole gm −1 (3) Ureides
−1
(4) > 10m mole Kg (4) Ammonia
169. Nitrifying bacteria 174. How many of following are mineral trace
elements ?
(1) Are chemoautotrophs
C, H, O, B, S, Cl, Zn
(2) Oxidises nitrate to nitrite
(1) 6
(3) Symbiotic (2) 4
(4) Heterotrophic (3) 5
(4) 3
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175. Formation of mitotic spindle, meristematic 179. The elements that are actively mobilised
activity & differentiation in tissue are within the plants
retarded indirectly in deficiency of. a. Are exported to young developing
(1) Copper tissues
(2) Sulphur b. Show deficiency symptoms first in
(3) Boron older leaves
(4) Potassium c. Are N, P, K like elements
176. The ‘foetal ejection reflex’ by the fully (1) Only a is correct
developed foetus and placenta triggers the (2) a, b, c are correct
release of (3) Only b,c are correct
(1) Progesterone from the maternal ovary (4) Only a & c are correct
(2) Relaxin from the maternal corpus 180. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
luteum transport of gases in humans
(3) hCG from the maternal part of placenta (1) 20 – 25 percent CO 2 - RBC
(4) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary (2) 70 percent CO 2 - Carbamino
177. Which of the following gives the defined
haemoglobin
action of contraceptive?
(3) 97 percent O 2 - RBC
Prevents
(1) Nirodh (4) 3 percent O2 - Plasma
spermatogenesis
Surgical
(2) High reversibility
methods
Makes cervix hostile
(3) LNG – 20
to the sperms
Lactational Hyposecretion of
(4)
amenorrhea prolactin

178. Find out the incorrect match regarding the

cell type and their secretion
(1) Chief cells – Pepsinogen
(2) Neck cells – Mucus
(3) Paneth cells – Lysozyme
(4) Oxyntic cells – Vitamin B12

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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI, CHANDIGARH
SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL NEET CUMULATIVE TEST – 3 KEY Date : 08-04-20

CHEMISTRY
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1 5) 1 6) 3 7) 2 8) 2 9) 3 10) 1

11) 4 12) 3 13) 3 14) 1 15) 4 16) 4 17) 2 18) 2 19) 3 20) 1

21) 1 22) 4 23) 3 24) 4 25) 1 26) 2 27) 4 28) 4 29) 3 30) 2

31) 4 32) 1 33) 3 34) 3 35) 3 36) 1 37) 3 38) 1 39) 2 40) 3

41) 2 42) 4 43) 1 44) 1 45) 3

PHYSICS
46) 4 47) 4 48) 3 49) 4 50) 4 51) 3 52) 2 53) 4 54) 4 55) 2
56) 2 57) 1 58) 4 59) 3 60) 4 61) 2 62) 1 63) 1 64) 1 65) 4
66) 2 67) 4 68) 3 69) 3 70) 1 71) 2 72) 1 73) 4 74) 3 75) 4
76) 4 77) 3 78) 2 79) 1 80) 3 81) 3 82) 3 83) 2 84) 3 85) 2
86) 4 87) 3 88) 2 89) 3 90) 3

BOT:- 91,92,95,96,99,101,102,105,107,109,110,113,114,117,118,119,123,124,127,128,131,132,135,
136,139,140,143,144,147,148,151,152,155,157,159,160,163,164,167,168,169,173,174,175,179.
ZOO: 93,94,97,98,100,103,104,106,108,111,112,115,116,120,121,122,125,126,129,130,133,134,137,
138,141,142,145,146,149,150,53,154,156,158,161,162,165,166,170,171,172,176,177,178,180

BIOLOGY
91) 3 92) 3 93) 3 94) 4 95) 4 96) 2 97) 4 98) 4 99) 3 100) 2

101) 3 102) 2 103) 4 104) 3 105) 2 106) 2 107) 2 108) 2 109) 4 110) 2

111) 4 112) 1 113) 1 114) 2 115) 2 116) 2 117) 1 118) 4 119) 3 120) 2

121) 4 122) 3 123) 4 124) 2 125) 3 126) 2 127) 4 128) 3 129) 2 130) 3

131) 2 132) 4 133) 2 134) 1 135) 4 136) 2 137) 3 138) 1 139) 4 140) 2

141) 1 142) 4 143) 3 144) 1 145) 4 146) 1 147) 3 148) 2 149) 2 150) 2

151) 2 152) 3 153) 1 154) 1 155) 2 156) 4 157) 4 158) 3 159) 2 160) 3

161) 2 162) 4 163) 2 164) 2 165) 1 166) 3 167) 1 168) 2 169) 1 170) 1

171) 1 172) 4 173) 3 174) 4 175) 3 176) 4 177) 3 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2