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All India Mock CLAT 01 (2022)

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 1

Novak Djokovic is used to winning because of his skills. On Monday, the world's best male tennis
player won on
a technicality after a judge ordered Australia's government to reinstate his visa and
allow him to play in the
Australian Open even though he has not been vaccinated against Covid-19.
Like most technicalities, this one,
too, could be overturned. If Australia's immigration minister still
decides to revoke Mr Djokovic's visa, it would ban
him from entering the country for three years. That
could prove to be devastating for many tennis lovers - and the
Australian Open's sponsors. Yet,
allowing Mr Djokovic to stay and play risks sending a dangerous message at a
time disinformation
and conspiracy theories continue to undermine the global fight against the pandemic. Australia
requires visitors to be vaccinated against the coronavirus. But it issued a visa to Mr Djokovic offering
an exemption
because the Serbian star had recently tested positive for Covid-19 and, so, presumably
had adequate antibodies.
When Mr Djokovic landed in Australia though, he was told to leave and then
placed under detention at a hotel for
refugees. The judge eventually decided that the Australian
government's mixed signals meant the winner of 20
Grand Slams had been treated unfairly.

Australia's confused response is embarrassing for its federal government ahead of a key election.
More importantly,
it will embolden anti-vaccine campaigners, allowing them to portray a superstar who
earned $34 million in 2021
as the victim of a conspiracy. Mr Djokovic is a vocal critic of vaccine
mandates and has argued that individuals
must be allowed to choose whether or not to take the shot.
But while personal liberties are important to protect,
they cannot be allowed to serve as cover for
behaviour that is dangerous for others - including millions of
unvaccinated or immune-compromised
people. The day after December 16, when Mr Djokovic claimed he tested
positive, he was
photographed with young tennis players. That was not an unforced error: he then attended
multiple
public events over the next few days without a mask, exposing others to the virus. He is not the only
popular public figure who has refused to accept the science on vaccines. Some, such as the iconic
singerguitarist,
Eric Clapton, and the rapper, Nicki Minaj, have actively peddled falsehoods. Mr
Clapton has refused to
perform at venues that require vaccination. If celebrities with millions of
followers keep serving fault after fault,
governments must step in to remind them that they are not
immune from either the virus or from rules meant for
everyone.
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Q 1. 30268274  Why might the Australian Government ban Djokovic from playing in the Australian
Open?

a)  He was recently tested positive for COVID.

b)  Although he had adequate antibodies, it presented a risk for players and staff.

c)  He didn't take a COVID vaccine nor does he support it.


d)  He was vocal against anti-vaxxers.

Q 2. 30268274  Explain the following phrase as stated in the given passage:


"The judge eventually decided that the Australian government's mixed signals meant the winner of 20
grand
slams had been treated unfairly."

a)  The government has allowed Djokovic to enter the country but has put him in detention.

b)  The government has been promoting anti vaxxers and this would certainly promote that.

c)  The government issued a visa to Djokovic in spite of being COVID positive.

d)  All of the above.

Q 3. 30268274  Which of the following is an antonym of 'embolden'?

a)  Hearten b)  Encourage c)  Daunt d)  Galvanisé

Q 4. 30268274  Which of the following cannot be concluded from the 2nd /last paragraph?

a)  
Many people who follow them blindly will not get vaccinated especially in a time of crisis like COVID-
19.

b)  Djokovic, although tested Covid 19 positive, preferred to attend public events.

c)  
Government should step in and prevent these celebrities from promoting anti vaccine agendas
especially
when millions remain unvaccinated.
d)  None of the above.

Q 5. 30268274  What type of a passage is this?

a)  Fiction b)  Historical c)  Popular Culture d)  Opinion piece

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 2

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There has been a renewed debate on the wealth tax in a number of countries. The debate has been
ignited by the
growing inequality and excessive expenditure incurred by the State due to the economic
crisis caused by the
Covid-19 pandemic. Various reports have highlighted how the pandemic has led
to increased inequality and
unequal income distribution amongst different classes. According to
Oxfam's The Inequality Virus report, India's
billionaires increased their wealth by 35 per cent while 25
per cent of the population earned just Rs 3,000 as
income.

The justification for the imposition of the wealth tax in India is based on economic, constitutional and
social
welfare arguments that focus on progressive taxation as a way of improving equality and
economic mobility. But
some economists also affirm that a wealth tax adversely impacts economic
efficiency, distorts market functions
and hardly helps in addressing inequality.

The concept of wealth taxation emerged as a way of progressive taxation that taxes individuals
according to their
ability to pay and allows the government to raise revenue in a manner that limits
economic inequality. This has
been the underlying argument in the existing literature on wealth tax
because income tax by itself is not sufficient
to account for the excessive wealth possessed by
individuals. Income here refers to a measure of net receipts
from market transactions or imputed
income benefits from self-provided services, whereas wealth refers to
financial and non-financial
assets that can be valued at their prevailing market prices and are marketable. A basic
justification for
taxing wealth periodically is that if a taxpayer has acquired wealth over a period, his ability to pay is
greater than someone with the same income but no wealth. Taxpayers having parental wealth,
accumulated over
time in the form of movable and immovable assets, enjoy greater capital income.
Such wealth accumulation
allows for creating better opportunities by way of parental stock of wealth
and also affects labour income mobility.

The general rule is that taxpayers must be taxed according to their ability to pay monetary tax.
Taxpayers with
greater wealth by way of savings, it is argued, have a greater ability to pay compared
to a spender who has
exhausted his wealth. However, this line of reasoning is often objected to by the
scholars who oppose wealth tax
on the ground that it treats wealth-savers and wealth-spenders
differently. This argument can be countered with
the help of relative economic theory. Unequal
distribution of economic resources and market power lead to an
unequal division of social and political
power. The theory highlights how wealth inequality creates social hierarchies
and justifies taxing
savers and spenders differently. This is because with wealth comes social capital, which
allows
individuals to prioritize their choices by exerting their market power. Those with lesser capital are
restrained
from exercising their choice because of the paucity of economic resources. Moreover, the
link between political
power and contributive capacity allows the super-rich to influence the policies
drafted by the State which, in turn,
helps them multiply their wealth.

While a progressive income tax can be one way of taxing based on one's ability to pay, it is insufficient
when it
comes to the distribution of resources. The most compelling argument in favour of a wealth tax
is that it furthers
the constitutional goal of equality. The right to equality of opportunities is one of the
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founding principles of most


Constitutions, including that of India. If wealth tax is structured properly, it
could help expand the horizon of equality
based on the principle of ability to pay.
Q 6. 30268274  The passage can be described as:

a)  A critique of inequality b)  A critique of the taxation regime in India

c)  A critique of wealth tax d)  


An overview of the evolution of the taxation
system in India

Q 7. 30268274  The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements:

a)  The concept of wealth tax has gained momentum under the present government.
b)  Wealth tax in India could never be entirely implemented.

c)  There has been a unanimous agreement among scholars on the imposition of wealth tax.

d)  Wealth tax can prove to be instrumental in creating an egalitarian society.

Q 8. 30268274  Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate synonym of 'affirm' as used
in the passage?

a)  Rescind b)  Aver c)  Repudiate d)  Rebuff

Q 9. 30268274  In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

a)  State policies can be manipulated in order to augment wealth.

b)  State policies can never be tampered with by anyone.

c)  State policies have always favoured the rich and wealthy businessmen.

d)  State policies are usually manipulated before elections to suit the needs of the ruling party.

Q 10. 30268274  Out of the following options, which one is correct in the light of the passage?

a)  The Indian Constitution is drafted in such a manner that it promotes inequality.

b)  The Indian taxation regime owes its origins to the colonial period and so, is exploitative in nature.
c)  Inherited properties can give rise to a greater capital income.

d)  Greater capital income is usually observed among male citizens of India.

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 3

The World Economic Forum's The Global Risks Report 2022 highlights a number of problems that
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plague nations
- from threats of infectious diseases to those adversely affecting cyber security, climate
change to the digital
divide, the accumulation of economic debts to the erosion of social cohesion.
The Global Risks Report also lists
India's major risks: the fracturing of interstate relations, mounting
debt crisis, failure of technology governance,
deep digital division and widespread youth
disillusionment. The risks are hardly exhaustive in characterizing the
full extent of the troubles facing
the nation. Many pundits had boastfully claimed that the demographics of a young
population would
benefit India in terms of an abundance of youthful energy and an ability to generate income and
innovations through their engagement with new technology. That has not been the case. There are
numerous
reasons for this. To begin with, the access to quality education has been uneven for most of
India's youth. College
graduates and school drop-outs abound, but according to most employers, they
are unemployable. Their technical
skills, ability to communicate, interpersonal capabilities and general
awareness about the world are below par.

Jobs are also scarce. The ones available are for a handful who are fortunate enough to have received
a good
education. With hardly any jobs around, and given the shrinking space of traditional
livelihoods, the youth face a
bleak future. Technology also divides. Not everyone has access to
computers or are reasonably well-versed in
basic software. Most young people have smartphones,
but they are used merely to watch films, play games or
send texts. The demographic dividend has
actually become a demographic tax. These young people are available for political exploitation: they
are easily swayed by powerful leaders. They are given some loose cash to play
around with. Their
propensity for violence and irrational anger stem from a sense of helplessness, a disillusionment
about life. For a nation, this bodes ill.

The young generation is supposed to take up the battles against climate change, social cleavages,
and the
growth of economic inequalities. The few who are lucky migrate to greener pastures. The
remaining ones feel
trapped. Economic and social crises intertwine to produce political fragmentations
that divide people.
Q 11. 30268274  Why according to most employers, Indian youth is unemployable?

a)  They are college graduates. b)  They are largely school dropouts.

c)  They don't have access to quality education. d)  Their employment skills are below par.

Q 12. 30268274  Which of the following cannot be seen as India's major risks according to The Global
Risks Report?

a)   b)   c)   d)  All of them.


Huge number of debts. Failure in Governance. Digital divide between
youth.

Q 13. 30268274  Which of the following means the exact opposite of "disillusionment"?

a)  Disappointment b)  Cynicism c)  Contentment d)  Disenchantment

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Q 14. 30268274  Which of the following can be referred from the last paragraph of the passage?

a)  The young generation are more concerned about rights and tend to ignore their duties.

b)  
The young generation is under a lot of pressure as they are trapped under an unbalanced economic
and
social crisis.

c)  
Sense of unity is lost among the youth as they are only tools in the hands of political powers that
dictate
direction to them.

d)  All of them.

Q 15. 30268274  How according to the author, technology creates a divide among the young
generation?

a)  
Absence of jobs can be seen as a reason behind not being able to purchase technical devices like
computers and smartphones
b)  Most of the poor people do not have money to recharge their data regularly.

c)  Most of the youth do not know how to use a computer or have access to basic software

d)  Absence of quality teachers everywhere can be seen as a reason.

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 4

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was glaringly silent on the smuggling of exotic animals - from
chimpanzees to
macaws - which has seen a steep rise in India. The amendment regulates such trade
in line with international
conventions like CITES, to which India is a party.

But most of the proposed changes raise serious concerns. This column will focus on a few key ones.
The bill
weakens premier institutions like the State Board for Wildlife, headed by the chief minister. For
all their emphasis
on clearing projects within protected areas, some state boards like Karnataka and
Maharashtra have been proactive
in expanding the PA networks. It is now proposed to establish a
'standing committee' of the SBWL, to be headed
by the forest minister, effectively rendering the SBWL
defunct. This was the case with the National Board for
Wildlife too. It dilutes the gravitas of the SBWL,
reducing it to a body meeting with the sole purpose of allowing
damaging projects within PAs, as is
happening with the NBWL's standing committee.

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The NBWL is the only national-level statutory policymaking body for the conservation of forests and
wildlife. It has
47 members, including top government officials and independent members with
expertise in conservation. The
bill proposes to include the Niti Aayog in the NBWL. Ordinarily, this
would be welcome - it is vital that the premier
think-tank factor in wildlife concerns in the country's
development plans. The problem is that many of the Niti
Aayog's development proposals are in direct
conflict with the NBWL's conservation mandate. A case in point is
the mega development plan for
Great Nicobar, which will destroy the island's pristine forest and coast including
the nesting habitat of
the Giant Leatherback Turtle and the endemic Nicobar megapode. Being on the board gives
the Niti
Aayog undue influence on the NBWL's decisions.

Another major concern is that the Central government could potentially declare animals listed in
Schedule II as
vermin, virtually stripping them of legal protection and opening the floodgates to hunt,
trap and trade species
including increasingly rare ones like hyenas, Indian fox, jackals, martens,
sparrows and parakeets. As there is no
systematic process or assessment to declare a species
vermin, it could lead to population declines and grave
ecological consequences. Similarly, the listing of
species lacks any robust scientific studies to assess which
species need greater protection.
Consequently, a number of species are not listed under Schedule I or II, and
faunal groups like
reptiles, amphibians, invertebrates and bats are severely underrepresented. I would also question
the
use of the term 'vermin' for wildlife in a law central to its conservation. It communicates the
government's
intent and such derogatory terminology sends the wrong message.
Q 16. 30268274  What can be seen as the main purpose of the author behind this passage?

a)  He is concerned about inherent weaknesses of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

b)  The proposed changes in The Wildlife Protection Act

c)  
The Central Government taking over the role of the state government weakening the very purpose of
the
Act.

d)  
The increase in the number of chimpanzees and macaws trafficked should lead to re-evaluation of the
Act.

Q 17. 30268274  According to the new bill which of the following is false?

a)  It involves omission of the Niti Aayog from SBWL.

b)  
It takes away the power of important institutions led by Chief Ministers of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

c)  More forest land now may be used for urban development.

d)  All of the above.

Q 18. 30268274  Which of the following explains the controversial term used in the bill 'vermin'
correctly?

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a)  Animals used for husbandry. b)  Animals that are rendered endangered.

c)  Animals that are believed to be harmful. d)  Animals that have lost their ecosystem.

Q 19. 30268274  Why is the author unhappy with the inclusion of Niti Aayog?

a)  Niti Aayog being on the board, will interfere with the decisions made by the NBWL.

b)  Niti Aayog will dilute the situation regarding protecting endangered animals.

c)  Niti Aayog's mandate will be in direct conflict with NBWL's conservation directives.

d)  All of the above.

Q 20. 30268274  Which is a synonym of the word, 'derogatory' as used in the passage?

a)  Important b)  Pejorative c)  Effervescent d)  Uncritical

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 5

No one can say how many years ago the kite industry started in Metiabruz but everyone knows
snatches of how
it evolved. Says Reza, who is in his sixties, "When my father got into the business of
making and selling kites in
1964, the tradition already existed. If the kite industry had to be taken to
the next level, wherein kites could be
exported, then it was important to improve the quality of bamboo
used."

The bamboo that grows in Bengal is heavy and stiff. It does not bend easily and only adds to the
weight of the
kites. The Assam bamboo is hollow, and the sticks are narrower and more flexible in
nature. So, Reza's father
started sourcing Assam bamboo.

The paper comes from Delhi and Mumbai. "It is of a very fine quality and mostly made in the paper
mills of
Mumbai," says Javed, when he finally looks up from his work. He slaps glue on the paper and
then with his thumb
and forefinger fix the triangle-shaped tail onto it with a big tap followed by many
small taps.

Pure cotton thread comes from Bareilly in Uttar Pradesh. "Once the glue dries, the kites have to be
framed with
very fine but sturdy cotton thread. Or else the kite will tear easily when it goes up in the
air," explains Javed.

The job of framing the kite with thread is done by women. He adds, "They do it at home and send it
back to us. It
is a very fine and delicate art. We depend on the women to finish it with their nimble
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fingers."

But the manjha makers are missing from the scene. "You will not find anyone now. They have all gone
away to
Ahmedabad," says Reza. It seems, lately, kite traders find it cheaper to hire artisans from
Metiabruz, take them to
Gujarat and make the kites there. "Assembling in Metiabruz and then
transportation adds to the cost," he says.

But the manjha comes from China, no? Newspaper reports are replete with references to the killer
"Chinese
manjha". Kaif says, "There is nothing called Chinese manjha. The chemical polish is one
and the same that is
used on cotton threads. Only the thread is different."

He brings out small reels of thread - strong, fine and shiny - in green, blue, black, brown... "This is
nylon. It is
strong and will give a tough time to kites strung on regular cotton thread. This will not break
easily and in fact never
with the chemical polish on it," he adds.

Q 21. 30268274  From the passage it can be inferred that:

a)  Metiaburuz is the historical hub of kite making. b)  Metiaburuz's kite industry started in the 60's.

c)   d)  Metiaburuz is a hub of unorganised labour.


Metiaburuz's kite industry's evolution can be
traced.

Q 22. 30268274  It is evident that to improve the quality of kites,

a)  Better quality of raw materials is required. b)  Better quality of labour is required.

c)  More effort from women is required. d)  Gujarati artisans are required.

Q 23. 30268274  Which of the following is true about kite making labour?

a)  To make the perfect kite, some raw materials need to be imported.

b)  The more states are involved in the process of making kites, the better is the quality.

c)  Both men and women play cardinal roles in creation of a kite.

d)  The chemical polish on the thread is best done by the Chinese.

Q 24. 30268274  The word 'replete' is the synonym of

a)  Empty b)  Filled c)  Satiate d)  Pitty

Q 25. 30268274  Which of the following is a consequence of migration based on the reading of the
passage?

a)  Loss of culture. b)  Loss of business. c)  Loss of tradition. d)  Loss of heritage.

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Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage ? 6

"Who do you think you are kidding Mr Hitler/... If you think old England's done..." - the lyrics of a
popular war-time
ditty encapsulate the tensions around European identity at a time of mass migration
across the Continent. Hostility
to immigrants, particularly those from non-European cultural
backgrounds, the former British prime minister,
David Cameron, had observed was driven by the
apparent failure of multiculturalism. Cameron's speech coincided
with the rise of the English Defence
League, whose masked, masculine members proclaimed a crusade against
Muslims across England.
This appealed particularly to the children of Irish immigrants in Britain's industrial towns.
The irony of
the children of migrants rallying against recent migrants was apparently lost on Guramit Singh Kalirai,
once a prominent spokesperson for the English Defence League, himself of Indian origin.

Before Sadiq Khan, whose parents had moved to London from Pakistan, was elected as the Labour
Party's
mayor of London, Lutfur Rahman, an independent politician of Bangladeshi-origin, had been
elected mayor of the
East London borough of Tower Hamlets. Critics and opponents, particularly the
Labour Party, had alleged that
Rahman was both corrupt and an Islamic extremist.

Immigration, a sensitive issue, has influenced the implosion of the Labour Party and had played a part
in the
decimation of France's Socialist Party. Beyond Khan as mayor of London, left-wing politics
could not withstand
the resurgence of English nationalism, normalized by Cameron and glorified by
Boris Johnson. The elevation of
Priti Patel, the United Kingdom's home secretary of Gujarati descent
and Rishi Sunak, of Punjabi heritage, indicated
how Asian voters in Britain had abandoned the Labour
Party. Prime Minister Boris Johnson carefully and deliberately
courted Indian voters, apparently
shaping political outcomes in a number of parliamentary constituencies across
London, southern
England and the Midlands.

In their defection from the Labour Party, Indian voters followed in the footsteps of Jewish Britons, who
had abandoned
the Labour leader, Jeremy Corbyn, after it was alleged that Corbyn had mollycoddled
anti-Semites and associated
with the outlawed Palestinian militant group, Hamas. The fact that Khan,
London's first Muslim mayor, had defeated
the Conservative parliamentarian, Zac Goldsmith, a Jewish
politician, only exacerbated Jewish alienation from
the Labour Party, depriving Britain's Opposition of
middle-class supporters as well as generous donors. Business
groups have traditionally been hostile
towards the Labour Party, but Jewish and Asian businesses had once
bankrolled Tony Blair and
Gordon Brown's 'New Labour'.
Q 26. 30268274  Which of the following can be inferred about Sadiq Khan's election as mayor of
London?
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a)  He has been widely accused of corruption and extremism.

b)  He has a task to battle bigotry and racism.


c)  It is a factor that has led to loss of Jewish support to the Labour Party.

d)  He has assiduously courted voters of Indian origin.

Q 27. 30268274  Which of the following is a correct antonym of 'decimation'?

a)  Construction b)  Devastation c)  Admiration d)  Ideation

Q 28. 30268274  According to the passage, which of the following is the reason that influences the
English Defence League?

a)  Asian voters. b)  Anti-Semitism. c)  Islamic extremism. d)  


Anti Muslim sentiments.

Q 29. 30268274  The passage can be termed as:

a)  An abstract. b)   c)  An opinion piece. d)  A political manifesto.


A summary of an essay.

Q 30. 30268274  Which of the following best describes the purpose of the passage?

a)  To enumerate reasons behind the Labour Party's electoral losses.


b)  To show how the conservatives fought against multiculturalism.

c)  To show how the English Defence League ushered in a new era of British politics.

d)  To answer disturbing questions about Anti-Semitism in Britain.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge


Passage ? 1

In a cabinet meeting convened on January 19, the CPI (M)-led Left Democratic Front (LDF)
government in Kerala
promulgated an ordinance to make certain amendments to the Kerala
Lokayukta Act, 1999. The state government
reportedly made no mention of the ordinance in the
cabinet brief it issued later. However, it did eventually come to
light and has now raised a furore in the
state. According to reports, the proposed ordinance - Kerala Lok Ayukta
(Amendment) Ordinance,
2021 - has provisions, inter alia, to cut down the powers of the anti-corruption agency to
merely
advisory in nature and relax the qualification of the Lokayukta.

The Lokayukta is an autonomous anti-corruption agency formed to keep a check on corruption in the
government.
It is an Ombudsman type of institution "to investigate the grievances of the public about
administrative wrongs and
excesses."

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The state Congress and BJP charged that the proposed ordinance was an attempt to undermine the
powers of
the ombudsman, that is Lokayukta, and facilitate corruption in the government. Former
Opposition leader and
Congress veteran Ramesh Chennithala alleged that the CPI(M), which had
campaigned for strengthening anticorruption
measures through systems like Lokpal, is now trying to
clip the wings of the state Lokayukta. Appealing
to Governor Arif Mohammed Khan to not give assent
to the ordinance, Opposition leader VD Satheesan sent a
letter saying the move was to "water down"
the powers of the Lokayukta.

Q 31. 30268274  Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Lokpal and Lokayukta
in India?

a)  
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and
Lokayukta
for States.
b)  These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.

c)  
They perform the function of an "ombudsman" and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain
public functionaries and for related matters.
d)  All of the above

Q 32. 30268274  In 1809, the institution of ombudsman was inaugurated officially in____________.

a)  Greece b)  Norway c)  Finland d)  Sweden

Q 33. 30268274  The first state in India to introduce the institution of Lokayukta through The
Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas
Act in 1971 is_____________.

a)  Karnataka b)  Maharashtra c)  Andhra Pradesh d)  Uttar Pradesh

Q 34. 30268274  "India Against Corruption movement" led by_____________.

a)  Arvind Kejriwal b)  Anna Hazare c)  Prashant Bhushan d)  Yogendra Yadav

Q 35. 30268274  Who among the following was appointed as the first Lokpal of India?

a)  K.G.Balakrishnan b)   c)  H.L. Dattu d)  T. S. Thakur


Pinaki Chandra Ghose

Passage ? 2

The Government of India announced the Padma Awards ahead of Republic Day 2022 and, in a bid to
reach across
the political divide, picked Congress leader Ghulam Nabi Azad and CPI (M)'s [1] for the
Padma Bhushan. Also on
the award list were the country's Covid vaccine makers, leaders of US tech
giants Google and Microsoft, and the
late General [2], the first Chief of Defence Staff who, with his
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wife and 12 others, was killed in a helicopter crash


last month.

Azad, ex-J&K chief minister and former Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha, thanked the
Government for
recognising his sacrifices although he was a "hardcore Congressman". But [1], in line
with his party's policy, said
in a statement: "If I have been given Padma Bhushan, I refuse to accept it."
A total of four Padma Vibhushans, 17
Padma Bhushans and 107 Padma Shri awards have been
conferred this year.

[2], former UP CM [3], Hindustani Classical vocalist [4] and Radheshyam Khemka of Gita Press have
been named
for the Padma Vibhushan. Apart from [2], [3] and [4] have been conferred the award
posthumously.

The overall Padma list of 128 also includes Tata Sons chairman N Chandrasekaran, Microsoft CEO
Satya Nadella,
Google CEO Sundar Pichai, Serum Institute of India's Cyrus Poonawalla, Bharat
Biotech's Krishna Ella and
Suchitra Ella and Tokyo Olympics gold medallist Neeraj Chopra.

Chandrasekaran, Nadella, Pichai, the Ellas and Poonawalla have been conferred the Padma
Bhushan. The Ellas
are the founders of Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech that, in collaboration with
the ICMR, introduced India's first
indigenously developed Covid vaccine. Covaxin is the only vaccine
currently being administered to the adolescent
population.

Poonawalla is the chairman of the Cyrus Poonawalla Group, which includes the largest vaccine
manufacturer in
the world, Serum Institute of India (SII) - 140 crore doses of Covishield have been
administered in India's Covid
vaccination drive.

Q 36. 30268274  What is the name of the former Chief Minister of West Bengal who refused to accept
the Padma Bhushan
whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a)  Jyoti Basu b)   c)   d)  Naresh Chandra


Buddhadeb Siddhartha Shankar
Bhattacharjee Ray

Q 37. 30268274  What is the name of India's first Chief of Defence Staff who was posthumously
conferred the Padma
Vibhushan whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a)   b)  Sarath Chand c)  Bipin Rawat d)  Dalbir Singh Suhag


Birender Singh Dhanoa

Q 38. 30268274  What is the name of former Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh who was posthumously
conferred the Padma
Vibhushan whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

a)  Vir Bahadur Singh b)  Narayan Datt Tiwari c)   d)  Kalyan Singh


Bhagat Singh Koshyari

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Q 39. 30268274  What is the name of Hindustani Classical vocalist who was posthumously conferred
the Padma Vibhushan
whose name has been redacted with [4] in the passage above?

a)  Prabha Atre b)  Hirabai Barodekar c)  Kishori Amonkar d)  Bhimsen Gururaj

Q 40. 30268274  Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding the Padma awards?

a)  Padma awards were instituted in 1954 along with Bharat Ratna.

b)  
The awardees do not get any cash reward but a certificate signed by the President apart from a
medallion
which they can wear at public and government functions.

c)  
All nominations received for Padma awards are placed before the Padma Awards Committee, which
is
constituted by the President of India every year.
d)  
There is no provision for seeking a written or formal consent of the recipient before announcement of
the
award.

Passage ? 3

For many years, the Hunga Tonga-Hunga Ha'apai volcano poked above the waves as a pair of narrow
rocky isles,
one named Hunga Tong and the other Hunga Ha'apai. An eruption in 2014 built up a third
island that later connected
the trio into one landmass. And when the volcano awoke in December, the
uninhabited island at the peak's tip
slowly grew as bits of volcanic rock and ash built up new land.

Then came the catastrophic eruption on January 15. As seen in satellite images, only two tiny
outcrops of rock
now betray the beast lurking beneath the waves. But whether it happens in weeks or
years, the volcano will rise
again.

This cycle of destruction and rebirth is the lifeblood of volcanoes like Hunga Tonga-Hunga Ha'apai,
which is just
one of many that dot the Kingdom of Tonga. Still, the tremendous energy of this latest
explosion, which NASA
estimated to be equivalent to five to six million tons of TNT, is unlike any seen
in recent decades. The eruption sent
a tsunami racing across the Pacific Ocean. It unleashed a sonic
boom that zipped around the world twice. It sent
a plume of ash and gas shooting into the
stratosphere some 19 miles high, with some parts reaching as far as 34
miles up. And perhaps most
remarkable, all these effects came from only an hour or so of volcanic fury.
Q 41. 30268274  The Tonga Islands occur along the____________.

a)  Red Line b)  Ocean Fire c)  Ring of Fire d)  Death Line

Q 42. 30268274  Which of the following statements is/are true?

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a)  
A volcano is an opening or rupture in the earth's surface that allows magma - which comes out as hot
liquid and semi-liquid rock - volcanic ash and gases to escape.

b)  The volcanic hotspots are places which are found where Earth's tectonic plates come together.
c)  A volcanic eruption is when lava and gas are released from a volcano - sometimes explosively.

d)  All of the above

Q 43. 30268274  Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Ring of Fire?

a)  
The Ring of Fire is a Pacific region home to over 50 volcanoes, including all of the world's four most
active volcanoes.
b)  It is also sometimes called the circum-Pacific belt.

c)  Around 90% of the world's earthquakes occur in the Ring of Fire.


d)  
It stretches along the Pacific Ocean coastlines, where the Pacific Plate grinds against other, smaller
tectonic plates that form the Earth's crust.

Q 44. 30268274  Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in the Indian subcontinent located
in the_______________.

a)  Western Ghats b)  Andaman Sea c)  Eastern Ghats d)  Himalaya Mountains

Q 45. 30268274  Which of the following instruments measures the magnitude of the energy released
during the Earthquake?

a)  Mercalli Scale b)  Richter Scale c)  Seismograph d)  Spectometer

Passage ? 4

On January 18, Indonesia's Parliament adopted a law to move the country's capital from Jakarta to a
new city
called '[1],' which will be erected on the jungle-clad Borneo Island. Concerns over Jakarta's
long-term viability
prompted the decision.

President [2] first announced the proposal to relocate Indonesia's capital in 2019, citing the need to
address the
country's massive environmental concerns as well as redistribute wealth. However, the
relocation to the jungle
state of East Kalimantan in Borneo has raised its own environmental worries
as the enormous project gets
underway.

Since the country's independence in 1949, Jakarta has served as Indonesia's capital. President [2]
first announced
in August 2019 that the capital will be relocated from Jakarta, on the island of Java, to
East Kalimantan, on the
island of Borneo, approximately 2,000 kilometres northeast of Jakarta across

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the Java Sea.

Visitors to Jakarta will corroborate the city's myriad woes, which include overpopulation, pollution, and
possibly
one of the world's most congested roadways. One major source of concern regarding the
city's long-term viability
was the fact that the metropolis, which has a population of over 10 million
people, is situated on a marsh on the
Indonesian island of Java and has been progressively sinking.

According to studies, the city may collapse completely by 2050, and flooding is a common
occurrence. However,
environmentalists have cautioned that the capital's decision might harm
ecosystems in the region, where mining
and palm oil plantations are already threatening rainforests
that are home to endangered Borneo species.
Q 46. 30268274  On January 18, Indonesia's Parliament adopted a law to move the country's capital
from Jakarta to a new
city called '[1],' which will be erected on the jungle-clad Borneo Island. Which of
the following has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a)  Bandung b)  Makassar c)  Manado d)  Nusantara

Q 47. 30268274  Who is the current President of Indonesia whose name has been redacted with [2] in
the passage above?

a)   b)  Joko Widodo c)  Jusuf Kalla d)  Ma'ruf Amin


Susilo Bambang
Yudhoyono

Q 48. 30268274  Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Indonesia?

a)  It is a country in Southeast Asia and Oceania between the Indian and Pacific oceans.

b)  It is the most populous Muslim-majority country.

c)  Indonesia is a presidential, constitutional republic with an elected legislature.

d)  The Indonesia dollar is the official currency of it.

Q 49. 30268274  Name the Indian state which has recently withdrawn the proposed three capitals bill
in the state legislative
assembly.

a)  Uttar Pradesh b)  Madhya Pradesh c)  Maharashtra d)  Andhra Pradesh

Q 50. 30268274  Recently, Gairsain was declared as the summer capital of _________.

a)  Uttarakhand b)  Himachal Pradesh c)  Sikkim d)  Arunachal Pradesh

Passage ? 5

Giving a big push to digital transactions in areas with poor internet connectivity, the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI)
has allowed offline mode of payments using any channel or instrument like cards, wallets
or mobile devices. The
new framework is applicable with immediate effect, the RBI said.
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According to the RBI, transactions are subject to a limit of Rs 200 per transaction and an overall limit
of Rs [1] for
all transactions until balance in the account is replenished. An offline digital payment
means a transaction which
does not require internet or telecom connectivity. Under this new
framework, such payments can be carried out
face-to-face (proximity mode) using any channel or
instrument like cards, wallets and mobile devices. Such
transactions would not require an [2] AFA, the
RBI said.

"Since the transactions are offline, alerts (by way of SMS or e-mail) will be received by the customer
after a time
lag. Balance replenishment can only occur in an online mode," the central bank said. The
RBI said offline mode of
payment can be enabled only after obtaining specific consent of the
customer. Customers will enjoy protection
under the provisions of circulars limiting customer liability
issued by Reserve Bank, as amended from time to time.

"Offline transactions are expected to give a push to digital transactions in areas with poor or weak
internet or
telecom connectivity, particularly in semi-urban and rural areas," it said. However,
replenishment of used limit
should be allowed only in the online mode with [2] AF(a)

"The issuer shall send transaction alerts to users as soon as transaction details are received. There is
no compulsion
to send alert for each transaction. However, details of each transaction should be
adequately conveyed. The
acquirer shall incur all liabilities arising out of technical or transaction
security issues at merchant's end," the RBI
said.
Q 51. 30268274  According to the RBI, transactions are subject to a limit of Rs 200 per transaction
and an overall limit of Rs
[1] for all transactions until balance in the account is replenished. Which of
the following has been redacted
with [1] in the passage above?

a)  Rs 1,000 b)  Rs 2,000 c)  Rs 10,000 d)  Rs 20,000

Q 52. 30268274  What is the full form of AFA which has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a)  Additional Factor of Authentication b)  Aadhar Factor of Authentication

c)  Anytime Factor of Authentication d)  Additional Feature of Authentication

Q 53. 30268274  Which of the following is/are the significance of the offline mode of payments?

a)  
Offline transactions are expected to give a push to digital transactions in areas with poor or weak
internet
or telecom connectivity, particularly in semi-urban and rural areas.
b)  It can be enabled only after obtaining the specific consent of the customer.

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c)  
The customers will continue to enjoy protection under the provisions of circulars limiting customer
liability
and will have recourse to the Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme for grievance
redress.
d)  All of the above

Q 54. 30268274  Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding the National Payments
Corporation of India
(NPCI)?

a)  
It is the specialised division of Reserve Bank of India which is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of
Finance.

b)  It was created by RBI for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.

c)  It was founded in 2000.

d)  It is a not-for-profit organisation registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.

Q 55. 30268274  What is the difference between BHIM and UPI?

a)  UPI is the platform while BHIM is a separate mobile wallet app.


b)  
UPI is a real-time payment system that helps in the instant and quick transfer of funds between two
bank
accounts, whereas the BHIM App is the application through which the transfer can be done.
c)  Both (a) and (b)

d)  None of the above

Passage ? 6

The Centre does not agree to conclusions drawn by Reporters Without Borders about press freedom
in India for
various reasons, including very low sample size and little or no weightage to fundamentals
of democracy, the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting told Lok Sabha.

In a written reply to a question on India being ranked at [1] out of 180 countries in the World Press
Freedom Index,
compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders this year, information and
broadcasting minister Anurag
Thakur said the adoption of the methodology by the publisher of the
report is "questionable and non-transparent".

"The World Press Freedom Index is published by a foreign non-government organisation, Reporters
Without
Borders. The government does not subscribe to its views and country rankings. It does not
agree to the conclusions
drawn by this organisation for various reasons, including very low sample
size, little or no weightage to fundamentals
of democracy, adoption of a methodology which is
questionable and non-transparent, lack of clear definition of
press freedom, among others," he said.

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According to Reporters Without Borders, India has been listed under countries considered "bad" for
journalism
and is among the most dangerous places in the world for journalists. Among India's
neighbours, Nepal is ranked at
106, Sri Lanka at 127, and Myanmar, before the military coup, features
at 140. However, Pakistan and Bangladesh
secured 145 and 152 ranks on the index, respectively.

The report also specifically called out Prime Minister Narendra Modi as a head of government who
has tightened
"his grip on media". With "four journalists killed in connection with their work in 2020,
India is one of the world's
most dangerous countries for journalists trying to do their job properly", the
report observed. The I&B minister
asserted that the government is committed to ensure right to
freedom of speech and expression enshrined under
Article [2] of the Constitution of India.
Q 56. 30268274  What is the India rank in the World Press Freedom Index 2021, compiled and
published by Reporters
Without Borders which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a)  122 b)  132 c)  136 d)  142

Q 57. 30268274  Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has been redacted with [2]
in the passage above?

a)  Article 19 b)  Article 20 c)  Article 21 d)  Article 32

Q 58. 30268274  Which of the following countries topped the World Press Freedom Index 2021 for the
fifth year in a row,
compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders?

a)  Finland b)  Denmark c)  New Zealand d)  Norway

Q 59. 30268274  Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding the World Press Freedom
Index?

a)  It is published annually by Reporters Without Borders since 2012.

b)  It measures the level of media freedom in 180 countries.

c)  
It is based on an evaluation of media freedom that measures pluralism, media independence, the
quality
of the legal framework and the safety of journalists.
d)  It also includes indicators of the level of media freedom violations in each region.

Q 60. 30268274  The World Press Freedom Day (WPFD) is an annual celebration of press freedom,
observed every
year on____________.

a)  3 March b)  3 April c)  3 May d)  3 June

Passage ? 7

The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the funding and
implementation
of Ken-[1] inter-linking of rivers project. The total cost of Ken-[1] link project has been
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assessed at Rs.44,605
crore at 2020-21 price levels. The Union Cabinet has approved central
support of Rs.39,317 crore for the project,
covering grant of Rs.36,290 crore and loan of Rs.3,027
crore. The project will pave the way for more interlinking
of river projects in India and also showcase
to the world our ingenuity and vision.

This project involves transfer of water from the Ken to the [1] River through the construction of
Daudhan Dam and
a canal linking the two rivers, the Lower Orr Project, Kotha Barrage -and Bina
Complex Multipurpose Project. The
project will provide an annual irrigation of 10.62 lakh ha, drinking
water supply to a population of about 62 lakhs and
also generate 103 MW of hydropower and 27 MW
solar power. The Project is proposed to be implemented in 8
years with state of the art technology.

The Project will be of immense benefit to the water starved Bundelkhand region, spread across the
states of
Madhya Pradesh and [2]. This project will provide enormous benefits to the districts of
Panna, Tikamgarh, Chhatarpur,
Sagar, Damoh, Datia, Vidisha, Shivpuri and Raisen of Madhya
Pradesh and Banda, Mahoba, Jhansi & Lalitpur of
[2].

The project is expected to boost socio-economic prosperity in the backward Bundelkhand region on
account of
increased agricultural activities and employment generation. It would also help in arresting
distress migration from
this region. This project also comprehensively provides for environment
management and safeguards. For this
purpose a comprehensive landscape management plan is
under finalization by Wildlife Institute of India.
Q 61. 30268274  The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved
the funding and
implementation of Ken-[1] inter-linking of rivers project. Which of the following rivers
has been redacted with
[1] in the passage above?

a)  Betwa b)  Koshi c)  Gandhak d)  Gomati

Q 62. 30268274  The Ken-[1] inter-linking of rivers project will be of immense benefit to the water
starved Bundelkhand region,
spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh and [2]. Which of the
following states has been redacted with
[2] in the passage above?

a)  West Bengal b)  Uttar Pradesh c)  Maharashtra d)  Telangana

Q 63. 30268274  On 22nd March 2021, a historic agreement was signed between the Union Minister
of Jal Shakti and the
Chief Ministers of Madhya Pradesh and [2] to implement the first major centrally
driven river interlinking
project in the country. Who is the current Union Minister of Jal Shakti?

a)  Kailash Choudhary b)   c)  Asokh Chawla d)  Radha Mohan Singh


Gajendra Singh
Shekhawat

Q 64. 30268274  Parliament may by law under article __________provide for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with
respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-
State river or river valley.
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a)  Article 262 b)  Article 263 c)  Article 264 d)  Article 252

Q 65. 30268274  Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Project is the first interlinking irrigation project in India
which connects Godavari
River to ___________River.

a)  Mahanadi River b)  Periyar River c)  Krishna River d)  Ganga River

Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 1

The story so far: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has approached the Supreme Court against
a Bombay
High Court order granting bail to advocate and activist Sudha Bharadwaj. In its bail order,
the court has asked the
NIA Court to decide the conditions for her release on December 8. While she
was given 'default bail', eight others
were denied the benefit in the same case. The case highlights the
nuances involved in a court determining the
circumstances in which statutory bail is granted or
denied, even though it is generally considered "an indefeasible
right".

Also known as statutory bail, this is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete
investigation within
a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody. This is enshrined in
Section 167(2) of the Code of
Criminal Procedure where it is not possible for the police to complete an
investigation in 24 hours, the police
produce the suspect in court and seek orders for either police or
judicial custody. This section concerns the total
period up to which a person may be remanded in
custody prior to filing of charge sheet. For most offences, the
police have 60 days to complete the
investigation and file a final report before the court. However, where the
offence attracts death
sentence or life imprisonment, or a jail term of not less than 10 years, the period available is
90 days.
In other words, a magistrate cannot authorise a person's judicial remand beyond the 60-or 90-day
limit.At
the end of this period, if the investigation is not complete, the court shall release the person "if
he is prepared to and
does furnish bail".

The 60- or 90-day limit is only for ordinary penal law. Special enactments allow greater latitude to the
police for
completing the probe. In the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, the
period is 180 days.
However, in cases involving substances in commercial quantity, the period may be
extended up to one year. This
extension beyond 180 days can be granted only on a report by the
Public Prosecutor indicating the progress made
in the investigation and giving reasons to keep the
accused in continued detention, under NDPS Act.
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(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'When can an individual get statutory bail?',Editorialin The
Hindu, published
on December 5, 2021)
Q 66. 30268274  Atmaram is arrested. The judge sends him to 57 days of judicial custody. Uptill
midnight of 57th day, the
police are not able to complete the investigation. Decide.

a)  Atmaram will be acquitted. b)  


Atmaram will not be granted bail under any
circumstance.
c)   d)  Atmaram will be sent to police custody.
Atmaram will be released from judicial custody
through bail.

Q 67. 30268274  Manoj is arrested on charges of murdering his brother, Ishan. The maximum
sentence for murder under
Indian Penal Code is 'death by hanging'. How many days can Manoj be
put up in judicial custody?

a)  Manoj cannot be kept in judicial custody beyond a period of 60 days.

b)  Manoj cannot be kept in judicial custody beyond a period of 90 days.

c)  Manoj cannot be kept in judicial custody beyond a period of 180 days.


d)  Manoj cannot be kept in judicial custody beyond a period of 365 days.

Q 68. 30268274  Jay is arrested for stocking 'LSD' a narcotic drug, which is banned under the NDPS
Act. He is sent to judicial
custody giving time to police to gather evidence against him and file a full-
proof charge-sheet. In which case
can his judicial custody be for upto 1 year duration?

a)  If Jay stocks 'LSD' in commercial quantities.


b)  If the public prosecutor files a report giving reasons for detaining Jay for a longer period.

c)  Both (a) and (b) together.

d)  Both (a) and (b) individually.

Q 69. 30268274  Rahul is arrested for theft. Under Indian Penal Code, he may be awarded a
sentence of imprisonment from
6 months to 5 years. Decide.

a)  Rahul cannot be sent to judicial custody at all.

b)  Rahul will be imprisoned for 5 years and not any term less.

c)  Rahul will be imprisoned for 6 months and not any term more.

d)  Rahul can be sent to judicial custody for maximum of 60 days only.

Q 70. 30268274  Madhav is arrested on charges of rape. He is sent for 90 days in judicial custody as
per the law. The police
are able to gather all the evidence but not able to file a written charge sheet

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which is a mandatory requirement


for completion of investigation. The court grants bail to Madhav on
furnishing a bond of Rs. 10,000. Madhav
refuses. What are the likely consequences?

a)  Madhav will have to marry the girl he raped.

b)  Madhav will be convicted of rape charge.

c)  Madhav will get bail even on refusal to furnish the bail amount.

d)  Madhav will be denied the bail right.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 2

Right to equality has two aspects - equality before law and equal protection of law. Articles 14 to 18 of
Indian
Constitution deal with 'Right to Equality'. Equality is not rudimentary equality but means equal
treatment among
equals. The law should provide equal opportunities to all similarly placed. Every
person has equal rights and
cannot be discriminated on grounds of religion, caste, race, sex or place
of birth.

Reasonable classification or positive discrimination is allowed under Indian legal jurisprudence


provided there is
an intelligible differentia i.e., a difference capable of being understood between the
positively discriminated and the
others and such differential treatment must have rational nexus to the
object sought to be achieved by such
positive discrimination.
Q 71. 30268274  Bharat Heavy Electronic Ltd. (BHEL) is a government owned public sector
undertaking (PSU). It invites
applications for the post of manager with certain qualifications besides
that the applicant must be only from
the 'xx', 'yy' or 'zz' caste. Decide.

a)  BHEL is a PSU and is free to select its manpower of whatever kind it prefers.
b)  
Empirical research has shown that persons of caste 'xx', 'yy' and 'zz' are best endowed with
managerial
traits.
c)  BHEL is discriminating on basis of caste.

d)  BHEL is not discriminating on basis of caste.

Q 72. 30268274  Tamanna Garments is a premier garments manufacturing industry located in Vellore,


Tamil Nadu. It is owned
by three partners - Lakshmi, Vasavi and Mallika. It has vacancies in its sewing
department. It publishes a job
advertisement inviting person who have minimum 2 years sewing
experience. Only person who are born in
Tamil Nadu are eligible to apply. Decide.

a)  Tamanna Garments is not discriminating based on place of birth


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b)  Tamanna Garments is discriminating based on place of birth.

c)  Tamanna Garments is a private enterprise and therefore Article 15 will not apply to it.

d)  People of Tamil Nadu are more adept in sewing compared to persons of other states.

Q 73. 30268274  Ganga is a primary school teacher in a semi-urban area. A new student, Pratap, is
admitted to school.
Pratap lost both his parents during COVID and is now being taken care of by his
maternal uncle, Rajiv.
Pratap couldn't study for the last 6 months owing to his family situation. Ganga
in order to make Pratap
come in equal terms with other students, calls him for extra classes to clear
the past missed classes.
Ganga does not charge anything for this Decide.

a)  
Ganga is a great teacher. If India has few more such good teachers, our nation would beat America.

b)  Ganga is bound to charge money from Pratap or Rajiv.


c)  Ganga's action is violative of equality as she is giving extra classes to Pratap.

d)  Ganga's action is not violative of equality as Pratap is lagging behind his class-mates.

Q 74. 30268274  Gandhinagar National Law University (GNLU) has a student council which consists
of a President and other
members who are directly elected through secret ballot by students each
year. In an attempt to foster
women empowerment, GNLU proposed the reservation of seat of
'President' for only 'woman' candidate
amongst students without giving any reason for such decision.
Decide.

a)  There is no intelligible differentia behind positive discrimination made by GNLU.


b)  There is an intelligible differentia behind GNLU's reservation of seat for 'woman' candidate.

c)  
All National Law Universities should have some seats in their respective students' council reserved for
women.

d)  GNLU has set an exemplary example of women's political empowerment.

Q 75. 30268274  The condition of women, in general, in the villages of the Indian state of Chhattisgarh
is pitiable. They are not
encouraged to study, married off a couple of years after hitting puberty. They
have to bear a child soon after
marriage. Teenage pregnancy and child-birth is risky for both mother
and the child and results in death in 3
out of 10 cases of such deliveries. Owing to this, the
government of Chhattisgarh, proposes free bicycle and
30 kgs of free ration every month to every girl
between ages of 10 to 18 years living in rural areas of the state.
Provided such girl goes to school
regularly and marries only after completing 18 years of age. Decide.

a)  The step taken by Chhattisgarh government is not legally sound.

b)  The special benefits given to the village girls of Chhattisgarh is legally valid.

c)  The government of Chhattisgarh must be rewarded with Nobel Prize.

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d)  Other states with similar problem should also implement such schemes.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 3

The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021, which seeks to raise the age of marriage
for women to
21 years, amends the definition of child to mean "a male or female who has not
completed twenty-one years of
age".Itover-rides personal laws of Hindus, Christians, Muslims and
Parsis, as well as the Special Marriage Act,
1954.The Lok Sabha has referred this Bill to the Standing
Committee after MPs demanded a deeper scrutiny and
wider consultations.

The Majority Act, 1875, defines the age of majority as ""the age of eighteen years and not before",
and as 21 years
if a guardian is appointed. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 a person should have
attained the age of majority in
order to be able to enter into a contract. The law to punish sexual
crimes against children, the Protection of
Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 too
recognises a child as someone under the age of 18 and
thereby implies that the age of consent for
sex is also 18 years. The law that deals with juvenile offenders (or
children in conflict with law) and
children who need care and protection, that is, the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection) Act, 2015
does the same.

Under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), 2009 that guarantees access
to education,
a child is someone between the ages of six to 14 years. Whereas under the anti-child
labour law or the Child
Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, which prohibits the
engagement of children in all
occupations and bans adolescents in hazardous occupations, a child is
"a person who has not completed his
fourteenth year of age" and an adolescent means "a person who
has completed his fourteenth year of age but has
not completed his eighteenth year".

(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Amendments to marriage age contradict other laws', Article
in The
Hindu, published on December 23, 2021)
Q 76. 30268274  A man, X, aged 15 years commits a sexual crime against a girl aged 17 years.
Choose the most appropriate
option.

a)  
The man is a child under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act while the girl is an adult under
the
POCSO Act.

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b)  
The man is an adult under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act and the girl is also an adult
under the POCSO Act.
c)  
The man is an adult under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act while the girl is a child under
the
POCSO Act.
d)  
The man is a child under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act while the girl is a child under
the
POCSO Act.

Q 77. 30268274  Bhawna, a girl aged 16 years, wants to go to school but her parents cannot afford
her fees. She contracts
with a local moneylender who gives her the tuition fees at the rate of 25
percent annual interest. Choose the
most appropriate option.

a)  
Bhawna will be covered under the Right to Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act but cannot
enter into a valid contract with the moneylender.
b)  
Bhawna will not be covered under the Right to Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act. She
cannot enter into a contract with the moneylender.
c)  
Bhawna cannot enter into a Contract with the moneylender as he is charging an exorbitant sum of
interest.
d)  
Bhawna will be covered under the Right to Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act and she
can
enter into a contract with the moneylender.

Q 78. 30268274  Presume the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021 is passed in both
houses of the Parliament
and becomes a law. Sujata, a girl aged 19 years, marries Anmol, a boy aged
34 years. Decide.

a)  The marriage is a child marriage as Sujata is under 21 years of age.

b)  The marriage is a child marriage as there is 15-year age difference between the spouses.
c)  The marriage is not a child marriage as Sujata is above 18 years of age.

d)  The marriage is not a child marriage as Anmol is above 18 years of age.

Q 79. 30268274  Ajit, aged 10 years, is employed at a tea stall as 'waiter'. He does not make tea but
only serves it to the
customers. He is paid a monthly salary for the same besides two-time meal. He is
happy with what he is
doing. Decide.

a)  Ajit cannot be employed in any form of occupation.

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b)  Ajit cannot be employed in tea stalls as it is a hazardous enterprise.

c)  Ajit can be employed in tea stall as he is enjoying it.


d)  Ajit can be employed in tea stalls as he gets a monthly salary and two-time meal.

Q 80. 30268274  Salman, aged 19 years, goes to a Samsung showroom and purchases a mobile
phone. He pays the 50%
price and promises to pay the balance in monthly installments. The
showroom owner agrees provided
Salman signs a written contract promising the same. Salman does
accordingly. Decide.

a)  Salman cannot enter into any contract as per the Majority Act.

b)  Salman cannot be forced to pay the balance amount as he has already paid the 50% price.

c)  Salman is bound to pay the balance amount.

d)  
The showroom owner cannot force Salman to pay the balance amount as this would spoil his
goodwill.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 4

Nationality is the status of natural persons or individuals who are attached to a state by the tie of
allegiance. In other
words, nationality denotes the relationship between an individual and the state.
When we say 'national' we refer to
the 'international' status of an individual whereas 'citizen' is the
'municipal' or 'national' status of an individual.
Nationality can be begot by two ways - by birth, that is,
being born in that country; and by blood lineage, that is,
when one's biological parents are born in that
country. There are other ways also by which nationality can be
acquired. One such way is by
naturalization that is by having stayed in a country for a specified period. Such
period varies from
country to country. Another way is by cession, that is, when a state cedes its territory to another
state,
the 'former' state nationals acquire the nationality of the 'latter' state.

Nationality can also be lost. Some of the ways of losing it are - by deprivation and by renunciation. In
deprivation,
nationals obtain employment in another state without the permission of their original state,
in which case, they can
be deprived of nationality of their home state. In renunciation, as the name
suggests, the national renounces the
nationality of his 'home' state and generally takes nationality of
another state. In some situations, it may happen
that while the individual has acquired the nationality
of another state, he still continues to enjoy the nationality of his
home state. Such situations are
referred to as 'double nationality'. In some other cases, it may happen that a
person loses nationality

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of his home state while not being able to acquire citizenship of another state. Such
situations are
referred to as 'statelessness'.
Q 81. 30268274  Liza was born in Mexico. Pyarelal was born in a ship when his parents were
travelling from India to Mexico.
His parents are Indian citizens. Decide.

a)  Pyarelal is a Mexican national as the ship was destined for there.

b)  Pyarelal is an Indian national as his parents were born in India. Liza is a Mexican national.

c)  Pyarelal is an Indian national as the ship commenced its journey from India.

d)  Pyarelal and Liza are both stateless.

Q 82. 30268274  Wasim in a Saudi Arabian national. He studied in Qatar and got a job right after
completing his studies in
Qatar itself, without travelling back to Saudi Arabia. He has been staying in
Qatar for the last 20 years. The
Qatar law provides that anyone who stays continuously for over 10
years can get Qatar nationality. Decide.

a)  Wasim cannot get Qatar nationality.

b)  Wasim can get Qatar nationality only after bribing the officials.

c)  Wasim can get Qatar nationality.


d)  Wasim will be deported back to Saudi Arabia

Q 83. 30268274  Kabir, an Indian, got a job in a law firm in New York. He settled there. He married a
local girl and purchased
a house there. He renounced his Indian nationality and took American
nationality successfully. Decide.

a)  Kabir is at present Indian national. b)  


Kabir is at present both Indian and American
national.

c)   d)  Kabir is at present American national.


Kabir is at present neither Indian nor American
national.

Q 84. 30268274  Jaspreet, an Indian national, got a lucrative job in NASA in Houston, USA. He got
American nationality without
leaving the Indian nationality. He was living a lavish lifestyle but was
somehow not happy. He always felt a
vacuum in his life. He longed to go back to India where his
parents and school friends were. He felt himself
to be selfish to be working for a foreign space agency,
when his home country needed space scientist.
Unable to stop the call of his conscience, he went
back to India and joined ISRO. It was a less paying job
than NASA but more fulfilling. Jaspreet is now
living a more content life. Decide.

a)  
Jaspreet's case proves that in life there are some things which money cannot buy. Legally his case
falls
under 'double nationality'.

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b)  We need more people like Jaspreet to make India a global super-power.

c)  
Brain drain is a major issue in contemporary India and youngsters should have pride in their own
motherland and work for its upliftment.
d)  Jaspreet though a patriot, is stateless, legally speaking.

Q 85. 30268274  Kalpana got married to her college boyfriend, Rajeev who had renounced Indian
nationality and settled in
Australia. She also renounced Indian citizenship and left for Australia and
started living with Rajeev. Kalpana
applied for Australian citizenship which she will get only after
having lived in Australia for 2 continuous years.
Decide.

a)  Rajeev loses his Australian nationality the moment he marries a non-Australian national.

b)  Kalpana is presently an Australian national.

c)  Kalpana is presently an Indian national.


d)  Kalpana is presently 'stateless'.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 5

Recently you might have seen many news relating to NDPS Act, especially when it comes to the
celebrities, such
as Rhea Chakraborty, Aryan Khan, (son of Shah Rukh Khan) and many others, and
the fight of them getting
bail.What is drug addiction? And why do we need to control or regulate it?
Drug is a chemical substance that
affects the structure or functioning of a living organism, i.e., it
causes changes in the working of mind and body.Drug
Addiction is a disease, in which a person loses
his ability to control usage of drugs and takes it repeatedly leading
to addiction, which then ultimate
affects a person's brain and behavior.

First of all, what we need to know is what it is extent of the Act, so Section 1 of NDPS Act, tells the
short title, extent
and commencement like any other Act, which is, this Act applies to Whole of India,
and also its extent not only
citizens in India but All Citizen whether they are outside India as well as to
All Persons on ships and aircrafts
registered in India. If a person is found to be dependent on drug he
will be considered as addict under NDPS Act,
and such drug could be charas, ganja, any mixture of
them, opium etc.Section 8 of NDPS Act, puts prohibition on
operations such as cultivation of cannabis
or coca plants and also prohibits its manufacturing, possession, sale,
purchase as well as puts
prohibition on import or export from any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance but has
exceptions to
it for medical and scientific purposes. Under Section 35 of NDPS Act, the court shall presume the

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existence of culpable mental state of the accused but it shall be a defense for the accused to prove
the fact that he
had no such mental state with respect to the Act charged as an offence in the
prosecution.

(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Making a case for decriminalisation', Editorial published in
The Hindu,
December 15, 2021)
Q 86. 30268274  Manpreet was going on a bachelor's party to Bangkok along with the organizer 'soon
to be married' Raghav.
Joseph and Rajbir were also with them. Manpreet took cannabis along with
him in the Indian registered ship.
Enroute during a routine search, Manpreet was apprehended.
Decide presuming all the four persons are
Indian citizens.

a)  Manpreet is liable under the Indian Penal Code.

b)  
Manpreet is not liable under the NDPS Act as the ship was not in India when the search was
conducted.
c)  Manpreet is liable under the NDPS Act.

d)  Raghav is liable and not Manpreet under the NDPS Act.

Q 87. 30268274  Meghali's mother is a victim of domestic violence. Meghali is very introvert. She
does not have any friends.
Unable to mentally tolerate this, she starts taking 'charas' which
temporarily gives her a 'forgetful' and a
'pleasant' experience but as soon as the effect wanes away,
she feels more devastated, guilty, broken and
alone. She has been taking 'charas' for over a year
regularly and cannot leave this habit. Decide.

a)  Meghali will be sent to counselling under the NDPS Act.


b)  Meghali will be labelled 'addict' under the NDPS Act.

c)  Meghali will be sentenced to imprisonment for her remaining life.

d)  
Meghali should make friends. She should have shared her ordeal with someone mature whether in
relatives or friends. Perhaps she may have got a workable solution.

Q 88. 30268274  Yogesh grew cannabis in the boys-hostel's courtyard of National Law University,
Bhopal. Decide.

a)  Yogesh will be liable under the NDPS Act.


b)  Yogesh will not be liable under the NDPS Act.

c)  Yogesh is only a student and therefore, cannot be treated as an adult.

d)  
Cannabis should be legalized in all colleges so that students are able to pacify themselves from the
hectic workload of studies.

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Q 89. 30268274  Gabriel Pharma conducted research on the beneficial effects of 'bhang' (a derivate
from cannabis plant) for
patients suffering from 'acute ulcerative colitis'. The government gave a
license to manufacture a drug using
'bhang' in micro-quantities. Decide.

a)  Gabriel Pharma is liable under the NDPS Act.


b)  The government officials are liable under NDPS Act for encouraging a banned drug.

c)  Both the government as well as Gabriel Pharma will be punished by the Supreme Court.

d)  The cultivation of cannabis will be exempted from NDPS Act.

Q 90. 30268274  Neeraj is arrested with large quantities of psychedelic drugs which he was receiving
through a disguised
courier in Delhi. He had paid for it through cryptocurrencies to avoid being
detected. Decide.

a)  Neeraj will be given a legal representation of his choice.

b)  The prosecutor will have to prove that Neeraj has a guilty mind.

c)  Neeraj has to prove that he did not have a guilty mind.


d)  Neeraj cannot be arrested without an arrest warrant.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 6

Nothing is an offence which is caused by accident or misfortune. Provided that there is no human fault
involved;
there is no criminal intention or knowledge; the act was a lawful act, in lawful manner and by
lawful means; and
proper care and caution was being taken.

An act is justified and provides immunity from criminal prosecution provided that the act was in good
faith with no
criminal intention and it was for the benefit of the injured party.
Q 91. 30268274  Ramalinga is cutting wooden logs with his well-maintained hatchet. The head of the
hatchet flies and hits a
nearby boy, Shamu. Shamu is injured. Decide.

a)  Ramalinga's act is justified as it was for the benefit of Shamu.


b)  Ramalinga cannot get the benefit of accident as his hatchet was not well maintained.

c)  Ramalinga will not be liable as the hatchet hit the boy in an unforeseeable accident.

d)  Ramalinga is liable to pay for the medical expenses of the Shamu's injury.

Q 92. 30268274  Bhuvan plans to rob a house. He purchases a rope to climb the outer boundary.
When he was climbing, the
rope broke and Bhuvan fell on Lokesh, a passerby. Lokesh dies due to the

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impact. Bhuvan is injured but


survives. Decide.

a)  Bhuvan is liable as he was doing an illegal act. b)  Bhuvan is not liable as it was an accident.

c)   d)  
Bhuvan is not liable as the rope was not of good Bhuvan is liable as he could not have foreseen
quality. the accident.

Q 93. 30268274  Sindoori had a car which is supposed to be serviced every 10,000 Kilometers or 1
year whichever is earlier.
Sindoori went to Hong Kong and returned after 2 years. Her car was lying
unused all this while. While driving,
she hits a pedestrian, Santhosh, due to brake failure. Decide.

a)  Sindoori is liable as she did not have an Indian driving license.


b)  Sindoori is liable as she did not service her car as per the laid down procedure.

c)  Sindoori is not liable as the brakes failed.

d)  Sindoori is not liable as the car had not crossed 10,000 Kilometers.

Q 94. 30268274  Priyanka was jogging on a road with her EarPods on a Sunday evening. A truck was
passing at a very high
speed on the same road behind Priyanka without its headlight on. Manish saw
this and pushed Priyanka
towards the side. Priyanka gets injured but saved from being hit by the
truck. Decide.

a)  Manish is not liable as he loved Priyanka and cannot see her being hit by a truck.
b)  Manish is not criminally liable as his act was for the benefit of Priyanka.

c)  Manish is liable criminally as he pushed Priyanka which caused injury to her.

d)  Manish is liable for molesting as he touched Priyanka without her consent.

Q 95. 30268274  Vanshika hated Kajol as Kajol got married to Vanshika's love, Promoth. Ajay, aged 2
years was a child born
out of the wedlock between Kajol and Promoth. Vanshika envied Ajay. One day
Vanshika went to meet
Promoth at his home. Ajay was playing with a lighter which caused a spark
resulting in Ajay's clothes
catching fire. Vanshika ran towards Ajay, picked him up and threw him in a
nearby deep well. The fire was
doused but Ajay dies of drowning. Decide.

a)  Vanshika is liable and cannot take the exemption.

b)  Vanshika is not liable as she threw Ajay in the well to douse the fire.

c)  Vanshika is not liable as she loved Promoth and cared for his child.
d)  Vanshika is not liable as it was an accident.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

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Passage ? 7

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act or FCRA, 2010 regulates foreign donations and ensures
that such
contributions do not adversely affect internal security. First enacted in 1976, it was amended
in 2010, when a slew
of new measures were adopted to regulate foreign donations. The FCRA is
applicable to all associations, groups
and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. It is
mandatory for all such NGOs to register under the
FCRA, initially valid for five years that can be
renewed subsequently if it complies with all norms.

Registered associations can receive foreign contribution for social, educational, religious, economic
and cultural
purposes. Filing of annual returns, on the lines of Income Tax, is compulsory. In 2015, the
Ministry of Home Affairs
(MHA) notified new rules, which required NGOs to give an undertaking that
the acceptance of foreign funds is not
likely to prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India
or impact friendly relations with any foreign state
and does not disrupt communal harmony. It also said
all such NGOs would have to operate accounts in either
nationalised or private banks which have
core banking facilities to allow security agencies access on a real time
basis.

Members of legislatures, political parties, government officials, judges, media persons are prohibited
from receiving
any foreign contribution. However, in 2017 the MHA through the Finance Bill route
amended the 1976-repealed
FCRA law paving the way for political parties to receive funds from the
Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a
foreign company where an Indian holds 50% or more
shares.The Act also made Aadhaar a mandatory identification
document for all the office-bearers,
directors and other key functionaries of an NGO and capped the administrative
expenses at 20% of
the total foreign funds received - earlier, the upper limit was 50%. The amendment also barred
sub-
granting by NGOs to smaller NGOs who work at the grass roots level. The changes implied that every
renewal
process is as good as a fresh registration.

(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'How will the foreign funding for charity issue be resolved?',
Article
published in The Hindu, December 29, 2021)
Q 96. 30268274  Diljale' is an NGO registered in Punjab. It gets half of its monetary budget from
Canada. The funds are used
to foster 'Khalistani' sentiment among illiterate and unemployed youths
of Punjab to demand a separate
'Sikh' nation. Decide.

a)  Members of 'Diljale' will be barred from Indian citizenship.

b)  Major office bearers of 'Diljale' will be arrested and prosecuted.


c)  Foreign funds of 'Diljale' will be seized.

d)  
The state of Punjab will publish information in major dailies about the anti-national character of
'Diljale'.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
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Q 97. 30268274  'Loving Brotherhood' is an NGO registered under FCRA in India. It uses Rs. 50
Lakhs out of the 20 crores
foreign donations towards organizing a peaceful rally for protection of trees
from urbanization. Decide.

a)  Foreign funds of 'Loving Brotherhood' will not be stopped.


b)  Only citizens have a right to rally in India.

c)  The government will have to accept the NGO's demand or else our future generations will suffer.

d)  'Loving Brotherhood' can file a public interest litigation to stop felling of trees.

Q 98. 30268274  'Bal Vikas Sansthan' is an NGO registered in Bhilai district of Chhattisgarh. It works
in educating tribal
children in the district to connect them to the mainstream. All its operations are
limited to the district and it
manages its entire funding from local donors. Decide.

a)  It is mandatory to register 'Bal Vikas Sansthan' under FCRA.

b)  'Bal Vikas Sansthan' need not be registered under FCRA.

c)  'Bal Vikas Sansthan' need to be registered under FCRA to get donation from Indian government.
d)  The local Member of Parliament has to donate 50% of his funds to the NGO.

Q 99. 30268274  'Missionaries for Charity' is an NGO registered in India having branches worldwide. It
is registered under
FCRA. On the occasion of Christmas, it organizes free meals for poor children of
all faiths - Hindus,
Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Parsis, etc. Decide.

a)  The government of India must finance 20% of the NGO's expenses.


b)  More such NGO must come up in India to fight severe malnutrition among kids.

c)  The FCRA license of the NGO will not be cancelled.

d)  The FCRA license of the NGO may be cancelled as it is promoting communal disharmony.

Q 100. 30268274  An NGO registered in India receives 90% of its funds from Pakistan. The NGO
gives cash rewards to poor
Muslim youths in India, who work for its objective. The aim of the NGO is
the incite Indian Muslims to demand
a separate country within India exclusively for Muslims. Decide.

a)  Such anti-national NGO members must be hanged to death.

b)  The members of the NGO will be sent back to Pakistan.


c)  Indian Muslims love their homeland and will voluntarily not join such anti-national NGO's.

d)  The foreign funding of the NGO will be stopped and appropriate action taken.

based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage ? 8

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Unreasonable interference with a person's body or comfort; or use or enjoyment of his property is
called nuisance.
A nuisance can be an act or an omission causing any kind of annoyance. Nuisance is
generally a continuing wrong
as against a temporary or one-off incident.

Nuisance if of two kinds - public and private. Public nuisance is when there is unreasonable
interference with a
right common to general public whereas private nuisance concerns a single or a
few individuals. There are certain
defences available against acts of nuisance. Statutory right is one
such defence, that is, when a nuisance is
caused by an act done under the authority of a statute.
Q 101. 30268274  Narada opened a flour mill in a residential colony. He worked till late at night,
sometimes even upto 2 am. The
loud noise and vibrations produced disturbed the neighbours on
either side, Mr. Joseph and Mr. Ibrahim.
Decide.

a)  Narada has right to profession under Article 19 of the Constitution.

b)  Mr. Joseph and Mr. Ibrahim can file a case of nuisance against Narada.
c)  It is normal to people nowadays to sleep by 2 am. So, it cannot be unreasonable interference.

d)  Narada has to shift his business somewhere else.

Q 102. 30268274  Tarun was gifted a wedding ring by his wife. It slipped into the toilet and drained
out. He got the entire
drainage dug up on the main road during peak office hours. Many people were
disturbed and took a detour
as the entire road was blocked for over 4 hours. Decide.

a)  Tarun is liable for public nuisance.


b)  Tarun is liable for private nuisance and not public nuisance.

c)  Tarun is not liable as this was the only way to get back the ring.

d)  
Tarun's acts show how much he loves his wife. Tarun is the ideal husband every Indian girl looks for.

Q 103. 30268274  Madhav was playing football with his friends in a garden. Madhav hit the ball very
hard and it flew out of the
park into Mr. Gupta's house, breaking a costly flower vase. This happened
thrice during the game damaging
the exquisite flower garden of Mr. Gupta. Decide.

a)  Mr. Gupta should not keep costly flower vases outside his house.

b)  Madhav is not liable for nuisance.

c)  Madhav is liable for public nuisance.


d)  Madhav is liable for private nuisance.

Q 104. 30268274  Praneet brought a new set of speakers. He tested it during evening with full
loudness for a few seconds and
then reduced the volume instantly. Decide.

a)  Praneet is not liable for nuisance. b)  Praneet is liable for nuisance.

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c)   d)  None of the above.


The speaker manufacturer is liable for nuisance.

Q 105. 30268274  Kavita was highly superstitious. She was told by a bogus Godman that if she paints
her house entirely black,
she will remain youthful even in old age. She does accordingly. Sukriti,
Kavita's neighbour, feels disgusted
watching her neighbour's black-house every day. Decide.

a)  Kavita is liable for nuisance. b)  


Sukriti must report about the Godman in the
police station.
c)  Kavita is not liable for nuisance. d)  Sukriti should purchase house elsewhere.

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage ? 1

After a prolonged hiatus, Sri Lanka may soon resume its search for a political solution to its ethnic
problem. An
indication of this came from the recent admission of President Mahinda Rajapaksa that
his government is open to
dialogue on the implementation of the 13th amendment to the constitution.

Devolution of powers to the north and east provinces, as enshrined in the amendment of 1987, has
long become
a litmus test of the government's sincerity in giving the Tamil minority its rightful dues.
Although the Rajapaksa
regime has held elections to the northern provincial council, and the province
now has its own elected government
run by the Tamil National Alliance, the implementation of the
13th amendment is hardly complete. The central
government is unwilling to part with control over land
and police, powers that ought to have gone to the provincial
council as per the amendment. Tamil
parties see this as a breach of promise while the government insists that it
cannot give the north
powers that other provincial councils do not enjoy. Talks have been jeopardized by the refusal
of the
TNA and other opposition parties to be part of the parliamentary select committee that is, given the
ruling
party's political heft in parliament, dominated by the United People's Freedom Alliance. It goes
without saying that
decades of mistrust have vitiated the atmosphere. While the TNA allies are hell-
bent on proving the 13th
amendment's inadequacies and the government's insincerity before the
international community, the Rajapaksa
government looks at the effort as evidence of the community's

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enduring separatist tendencies.Caught in the


tussle, the 13th amendment seemed destined to die an
inglorious death till Mr Rajapaksa's recent assurance. The
TNA has welcomed the move by
expressing its willingness to re-join negotiations with the government.

But noble intentions alone are not enough to drive the issue out of the crevice it has fallen into. The
government
ought to understand that a major reason behind the Tamils' sense of powerlessness is
the militarization in the
north and its dogged refusal to look at army excesses during the 2009 war.
Q 106. 30268274  Which of the following can be termed as a reason behind Tamils' sense of
helplessness as per the given
passage?

a)   b)  Militarisation in the north.


Delegation of powers to the north and east c)  Implementation of the 13th amendment.
provinces.
d)  Separatist idea of the government.

Q 107. 30268274  Which of the following can be seen as the main agenda of the TNA allies?

a)  To prove that they are separatists. b)  To sit in a dialogue with the president

c)  To prove the 13th amendment is inadequate. d)  


To prove that the government is hell-bent on
militarisation.

Q 108. 30268274  The Sri Lankan government _______________ with handing over the control of
land and police to the provincial
councils.

a)  Strongly agrees b)  Strongly disagrees c)  Is nonchalant d)  None of the above

Q 109. 30268274  Read the following conclusions and select the correct option:

I. Decades of mistrust between the government and the opposition parties have delayed the
application of
the 13th amendment.

II. Rajapaksa's recent assurance has finally made the opposition understand the implications of the
amendment.

a)  I is true b)  II is true c)   d)  Both I and II are true


Both I and II are false.

Q 110. 30268274  "But noble intentions alone are not enough to drive the issue out of the crevice it
has fallen into."

Which of the following steps the Government should adopt to negate this statement?

a)  The alliance between the TNA and other political parties should be stopped.

b)  The government should look into the problems of the Tamils residing in Sri Lanka.

c)  
The government should implement the 13th amendment by hook or by crook so that it becomes easy
for
them to control the northern provinces.
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d)  None of them.

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage ? 2

Lady Doctors by Kavitha Rao is a compilation of brief biographical sketches of women in late-19th and
early-20th
century India who studied and practised medicine to the extent possible while battling
difficult circumstances. It
reads more or less like a mere who's who of 'lady doctors' and does not go
beyond the narrative inherent in the
sources that it uses. Rao does not offer an interpretation, or even
an imaginative retelling, of the material she uses
to access the lives and the labour of these
remarkable women and the book ends up being a desultory read as a
result. There is nothing
unpredictable about the telling of the stories of these women, virtually all of whom confronted
conservative husbands with grotesquely regressive views on women's roles and responsibilities.
Some of these
women battled extreme hardships even as they forged unusual relationships, and most
showed grit and commitment
to their chosen line of study and work. The author makes no attempt
whatsoever to contextualize the stories and
retells them in line with whatever is already known.
Admittedly, this is a general book for an interested readership,
but even so, to talk about women and
education, especially medical education, without any references to the
complex social context in
which these women operated, whether with encouragement or its opposite, empties the
exercise of all
charge.
Q 111. 30268274  What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?

a)  The book is a failure since they failed to convey the history of medicine in India.
b)  The book is failures since the struggle of these pioneers remain decontextualized.

c)  The book is a failure since we fail to learn the history of medical education in India.
d)  The book is a failure since there is no history of social change that is shown.

Q 112. 30268274  As per the passage, which of the following could have made the book much more
richer in content?

a)  The book should have shown the women doctors' families as supportive.

b)  
The book should have shown how much the women had to oppose their orthodox husbands' whims to
become doctors.
c)  The book should have shown who had been the women doctors in a chronological order.

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d)  
The book should have shown the socio-cultural barriers these doctors overcame to become doctors.

Q 113. 30268274  Which of the following notions of successful biographical writing according to the
author of the passage is
evident here?

a)  Analytical interpretation based on historical material available on the subject.

b)  Offer brief narrative sketches about the subject of the biography.

c)  
The biographer must show that they are very much in tune with the material available on the subject.
d)  The biography must not be surprising to the readers so as not to alienate them from the subject.

Q 114. 30268274  Which of the following is a valid conclusion drawn from the last line of the passage?

a)  Writing about women in India is futile if you do not show their familial background.

b)  Writing about women of India breaking educational barriers without any social context is futile.
c)  Writing about women doctors in India without mentioning their friends and foes is futile.

d)  
Writing about women doctors of India without first mentioning the state of medicinal education is futile.

Q 115. 30268274  Which of the following if true will weaken the statement, 'Rao does not offer an
interpretation, or even an
imaginative retelling, of the material she uses to access the lives and the
labour of these remarkable women
and the book ends up being a desultory read as a result.'

a)  By adding flavour to the source materials, a more varied readership could have been achieved.

b)  An imaginative retelling can make history much more attractive to readers who are innocent of it.
c)  Imaginative retelling of a historical source can make facts look opinionated.

d)  
By showing the labours in an imaginative fashion the author could have made the hardships relatable
for
contemporary readers.

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage ? 3

The ongoing Covid surge across countries has catalysed a debate on how far governments can go in

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mandating
individual vaccination to limit collective health risks. Western democracies are the site of
heated debates, with
three arms of the state weighing in. In the US, the Supreme Court overturned a
federal government vaccine
mandate for large companies but upheld it for healthcare workers. Among
other examples, French lawmakers
have upheld a tighter vaccine pass for access to some public
settings such as restaurants and trains. And in
Canada's Quebec province, the government
announced it will introduce a special tax on the unvaccinated.

The data is unambiguous: vaccines lower the risk of hospitalisation and death. In India, Delhi's data
between
January 9 and 12 showed that 72% of the 97 Covid deaths were among the unvaccinated. In
normal times,
governments need to tilt on the side of individual choice. However, in the case of a
respiratory pandemic, the
choice to avoid vaccination can impede another individual's mobility and
livelihood. To illustrate, governments
often restrict mobility to manage the pressure on the healthcare
infrastructure. The data now shows that unvaccinated
people are more likely to be hospitalised, which
means that their choice has consequences for others.

This is one reason why France moved from an earlier phase when either vaccination or a negative
Covid test was
adequate to one where only vaccination is accepted - it's a strong disincentive against
remaining unvaccinated,
but it doesn't mandate vaccination. Given the nature of the disease and the
human and economic toll it has taken,
limiting collective risks has to be prioritised over individual
choice. Vaccination need not be mandatory but the
unvaccinated cannot expect the same privileges if
they pose a risk to the freedom and livelihood of others. Choices
have consequences and vaccination
cannot be an exception to this.
Q 116. 30268274  Which of the following is true in reference to the phrase,

"Western democracies are the site of heated debates..."?

a)  
Federal government's vaccine mandate for healthcare workers overturned by the US Supreme court.
b)  In France, one has to get vaccinated to enter public places like trains and restaurants.

c)  
The constant feud between the state governments and the Central Government delaying vaccination.
d)  In Canada's Quebec, the vaccinated people are given special tax redemption.

Q 117. 30268274  Which of the following weakens the author's argument?

a)  People are getting vaccinated to understand the implications of hospitalisation.


b)  Unvaccinated people are the ones who are suffering the most due to COVID-19.

c)  
The government has put a lot of pressure on the healthcare industry to vaccinate the unvaccinated
quickly.
d)  None of them

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Q 118. 30268274  Which of the following Inferences are true/false?


I. It is compulsory in France to get vaccinated.

II. According to the author, vaccination should be mandatory.

a)  I is true b)  II is true c)  Both are true d)  Both are false

Q 119. 30268274  Which of the following instances should support the author's argument?

a)  Movie halls should allow only vaccinated people.

b)  People should get vaccinated or else shouldn't be allowed to leave the house.
c)  Airplanes and Rail stations should have vaccination counters.

d)  Unvaccinated people should be left untreated as they chose not to get vaccinated.

Q 120. 30268274  Which of the following sequences is true as far as the given passage is concerned?

a)   b)   c)   d)  


Inference, examples, Judgement, examples, Fact, inference, Examples, inference,
judgement inference examples judgement

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage ? 4

At first, Discord was only popular with other gamers. But more than six years later, driven in part by
the pandemic,
it has exploded into the mainstream. While adults working from home flocked to Zoom,
their children were
downloading Discord to socialise with other young people through text and audio
and video calls in groups known
as servers.

Citron, 37, said he grew up playing video games on Long Island, nearly failed to graduate from Full
Sail University
in Florida because he spent so much time playing World of Warcraft and went on his
first date with his future wife
at an arcade.

"At least he tries to put something new into the market," said Serkan Toto, a gaming analyst in Japan,
adding that
Citron's reputation was "like a geek, in a good sense".

Discord is split into servers - essentially a series of chat rooms similar to the workplace tool Slack -
which facilitate
casual, free-flowing conversations about gaming, music, memes and everyday life.

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The company's biggest shift occurred early in the pandemic. In June 2020, Citron and his co-founder
and chief
technology officer, Stanislav Vishnevskiy, wrote a blog post acknowledging that Discord had
moved beyond video
games and was working to become more accessible to all. Months earlier, the
company had changed its motto
from "Chat for gamers" to "A new way to chat with your communities
and friends," a nod to its wider audience.

That transition has come with growing pains. Discord has faced the same thorny questions as other
social media
companies about regulating speech, safeguarding against harassment and keeping
young people safe.

Discord allows people to chat using fake names, and the task of ensuring that people follow its
community standards
is largely left up to the organisers of individual Discord servers. That gives the
platform a "Lord of the Flies" feel,
with groups of young people forming online societies and deciding
their own rules.
Q 121. 30268274  Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

a)  Discord is one of the predominant modes of virtual communication for younger people.

b)  Discord is the only mode of communication for gamers.


c)  Discord is becoming a dating space for younger people affected by the pandemic.

d)  Discord is a safe space for smugglers dealing in alternative currencies.

Q 122. 30268274  Which of the following can be inferred about Citron?

a)  Citron is a marketing professional. b)  


Citron's personal life is a mess due to video
games.
c)  Citron is the co-founder of Discord. d)  Citron is of Japanese origin.

Q 123. 30268274  Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

a)  
By becoming mainstream, Discord is opening itself up to the usual problems social media platforms
face.

b)  By becoming mainstream, Discord is eating into markets as diverse as Zoom.

c)  
By becoming mainstream, Discord is creating a safe space for fraudsters who are taking refuge
behind
anonymity.
d)  By becoming mainstream, Discord has made the life of the server organisers hellish.

Q 124. 30268274  Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the above passage?

a)  Discord in its current iteration caters to a varied crowd.

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b)  Regulation of speech is a commonplace factor in maintaining social media platforms.

c)  Identities can be inauthentic in Discord.


d)  Social media leads to social outcasts.

Q 125. 30268274  Which of the following can be deduced about '"Lord of the Flies" feel'?

a)   b)  When young people form their own kingdom.


When young people gang up against other c)  When young people become social outcasts.
generations.
d)  
When young people overcome oppressive social
values.

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage ? 5

It was Barack Obama's favourite toy. Now it is effectively dead. Last week, Blackberry announced that
it would
stop supporting services on its once wildly popular mobile phones. It is the final act of the
company's shift to a
future where it wants to focus on software. With its unique QWERTY keypad,
BBM messaging facility and a clean,
metallic look, the Blackberry was - for several years - the hand-
held smartphone of choice for celebrities, politicians,
editors and other public figures. At the peak of its
success in 2011, the phone sold 50 million units and held 20 per
cent of the world's and half of the
United States of America's smartphone market. There is a perfect narrative arc
to its demise, which
has coincided with Apple's stunning $3 trillion valuation. For it is Apple's iPhones, sans
buttons, only
touchscreens, and a powerful design-led marketing campaign that dethroned the Blackberry to
emerge as the go-to smartphone for the elite. Yet, the ultimate winner is no one company: it is Charles
Darwin's
theory of evolution, with fresh proof that the survival of the fittest works in the world of
technology just as effectively
as it does in the animal kingdom. That is true for industries, companies
and countries alike - and, at times, in
counterintuitive ways.

The steam engine revolutionized transportation and trade. Then aviation dented the halo of the
railways. But with
modern electric trains becoming a more sustainable travel option than planes,
young people in many countries
are, once again, embracing rail transport. General Motors,
Volkswagen and other automobile biggies are promising
electric vehicles. From the gramophone to
audio cassettes to compact discs and now streaming, the music
industry has undergone regular
upheavals every few years. Data storage has gone from large physical devices to
the cloud. Walmart,
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the biggest brick-and-mortar supermarket chain ever, is playing catch-up with Amazon by
investing in
online retail - one need not look further than its acquisition of Flipkart for evidence. And Silicon Valley
is
no longer the only Galapagos of innovation. China, derided as a copycat just some years ago, is
today the leader
in many cutting-edge technologies that the West is trying to emulate - whether it is
viral social media apps like
TikTok, the world's biggest fintech firms, or creative e-commerce
companies.
Q 126. 30268274  Which of the following can be seen as a reason behind the downfall of Blackberry?

a)  Apple and its' unique features juxtaposed with a unique market strategy.

b)  Apple being a 3 trillion dollars company.


c)  No one wants to use a qwerty keyboard anymore.

d)  
Globalisation didn't have a positive impact on BlackBerry as it failed to sell products outside of the US.

Q 127. 30268274  According to the author, which of the following strengthens the argument stated in
the passage?

a)  Human beings are not subjected to change.


b)  Evolution is the only way to improve on existing life according to Darwin.

c)  
Apple has overtaken blackberry because it provides a more modern and a fitted version of Mobile
phones.

d)  None of the above.

Q 128. 30268274  Which of the following Inferences are true or false?


I. Flipkart's acquisition of Walmart is a revolutionary incident.


II. China has transformed their reputation of being an impersonator to a creator.

a)  I is true b)  II is true c)  Both are true d)  Both are false

Q 129. 30268274  What kind of a passage is this?

a)  Fictional b)  Historical c)  Opinionated d)  None of the above

Q 130. 30268274  The author ______ with the fact that human beings should not welcome new things
so readily as it often
leads to loss of jobs.

a)  Strongly agrees b)  Strongly disagrees c)  Is nonchalant d)  None of the above

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
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answers the question.

Passage ? 6

Remote work gave many people more hours in the day for personal use, but at the same time turned
the workday
into a 24/7 endeavour, with emails, texts and Zoom calls occurring at odd and often
unpredictable times. Working
parents who lacked child care options or had to help children with online
schoolwork during the day may have
resorted to late-night or early-morning hours to get their own
work done with minimal interruptions. They essentially
became shift workers with erratic sleep
schedules. Others lost sleep pondering whether their jobs were worth the
stress and how they might
reshape their working lives going forward.

And for thousands, the death of a loved one from Covid-19 has resulted in long-lasting difficulty falling
asleep and
staying asleep long enough to feel rested. A study from 2019 by researchers at
Northwestern Medicine and Rice
University found that grieving spouses who reported sleeping poorly
had high levels of chronic, bodywide
inflammation, which can increase their susceptibility to heart
disease and cancer.

Persistent fatigue may be the main complaint of sleep-deprived people. But beneath the surface,
growing evidence
indicates that disrupted or insufficient sleep can have widespread damaging
impacts on their physical and mental
health. Sleep deprivation increases the risk of developing heart
disease, high blood pressure, stroke and type 2
diabetes. It muddies clear thinking, depletes energy,
and increases irritability.

Even those who sleep soundly but for fewer than the commonly recommended seven or eight hours a
night may
not be as medically well off with short sleep cycles as they think.

For example, a major study suggests that middle-aged people who are chronically short on shut-eye
face an
increased risk of developing dementia in their later years.
Q 131. 30268274  As per the passage which of the following is not a challenge for working remotely?

a)   b)   c)   d)  Sleep deprivation.


A healthy work-life An uninterrupted work Dedicating more time to
balance. flow. work.

Q 132. 30268274  "Others lost sleep pondering whether their jobs were worth the stress and how they
might reshape their
working lives going forward." In the context of the given statement which of the
following weakens the
dangers of working remotely?

a)  People are unable to continue working away from office in this atmosphere.

b)  Hierarchy under similar stress have seriously considered how to ease burden on employees.

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c)  
Extra time spend staring at electronic devices are forcing employees to suffer from unpredictable
mood
swings.
d)  People are quitting their jobs and looking at small business ventures.

Q 133. 30268274  Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

a)  Overworking to achieve goals will have consequences in life.

b)  People overlook the importance of sleep in their pursuit of fame.


c)  Remote working has lead to unhealthy sleeping pattern in professionals.

d)  School children's educational burden is starting to strain working parents.

Q 134. 30268274  Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?

a)  Loss of a close one can lead to chronic loss of sleep.

b)  Dementia sets in when people do not sleep for seven hours every day.

c)  Upholding mental health is dependent on sleeping properly.


d)  People who have children are bad sleepers.

Q 135. 30268274  "Even those who sleep soundly but for fewer than the commonly recommended
seven or eight hours a night
may not be as medically well off with short sleep cycles as they think." In
the context of the statement which
of the following strengthens the passage's central theme?

a)  Ideal sleep makes one function ideally.


b)  Too much sleeping reduces time to be productive throughout the day.

c)  Sleeping at stretch for eight hours reduces thinking time for the individual.

d)  Working out heavily can balance sleep deprivation.

Mathematics
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

Mr.Dev drives a car from 8:00 AM to 6:00 PM on a particular day. He starts at a speed of 30 km/h and
drives at a
constant speed but he increases the speed by 2 km/h after every hour. Along his way
when the time is around
11:30 AM, he crosses a bridge in 2 minutes. Dev crosses a church at 1:30
PM. When the time is 2:15 PM the car
travels alongside a railway line and a train approaches in the
opposite direction and he crosses the train in
9 seconds.
Q 136. 30268274  What is the length of the bridge that Dev crosses at 11:30 AM?

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a)  1.8 km b)  1.5 km c)  1.2 km d)  1.6 km

Q 137. 30268274  What is the total distance covered by the car from 12 noon to 4:00 PM?

a)  160 km b)  164 km c)  172 km d)  180 km

Q 138. 30268274  If the length of the train that approaches in the opposite direction is 285 m, then
what is the speed of the
train?

a)  72 km/h b)  54 km/h c)  48 km/h d)  90 km/h

Q 139. 30268274  How far from his starting point is the place where Dev crosses the church?

a)  180 km b)  165 km c)  170 km d)  190 km

Q 140. 30268274  What is the average speed of the car during the total journey?

a)  38 km/h b)  39 km/h c)  40 km/h d)  41 km/h

Directions for questions 141 to 145: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

There are three hospitals - X, Y and Z - in a city, each having separate wards for Covid patients and
non-Covid
patients. The ratio of the number of Covid beds to non-Covid beds in Hospital Z is 2 : 3.
The number of Covid beds
in Hospital X and Hospital Y is respectively 25% more and 25% less than
the Covid beds in Hospital Z. The
average number of Covid beds in the three hospitals is 200. The
ratio of the number of non-Covid beds in Hospital
Y and Hospital Z is 11 : 12 respectively. The total
number of beds in Hospital X is 350.
Q 141. 30268274  What is the difference between the total number of beds in Hospitals Y and X?

a)  50 b)  65 c)  75 d)  80

Q 142. 30268274  Which of the following has the maximum number of beds?

a)   b)   c)   d)  


Hospital Y Non-covid Hospital X Covid ward Hospital Z Covid ward Hospital Z Non-Covid
ward ward

Q 143. 30268274  If the hospital charges Rs.5,000 per day for a Covid bed and the Covid ward in
Hospital Z is 45% full. Then
what is the revenue generated per day from the covid ward in Hospital Z?

a)  Rs.4.25 lakh b)  Rs.4.5 lakh c)  Rs.3.75 lakh d)  Rs.5 lakh

Q 144. 30268274  What is the ratio of the number of non-Covid beds in Hospital X and the number of
Covid beds in Hospital Y?

a)  3 : 4 b)  10 : 11 c)  2 : 3 d)  5 : 7

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Q 145. 30268274  What percentage of the total beds in all three hospitals is dedicated to Covid
patients approximately?

a)  45% b)  37% c)  51% d)  47%

Directions for questions 146 to 150: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The pie chart given below shows the distribution of workers in five different departments of a company
whereas
the table shows the number of skilled workers in each department. The total number of
workers in all five
departments put together is 5000.

Q 146. 30268274  What is the total number of unskilled workers in departments B, C and D together?

a)  1420 b)  1350 c)  1270 d)  1250

Q 147. 30268274  In which department is the total number of unskilled workers less than the total
number of skilled workers?

a)  D b)  C c)  B d)  E

Q 148. 30268274  The number of unskilled workers in which two departments are equal in number?

a)  A and E b)  B and C c)  D and E d)  A and C

Q 149. 30268274  What is the ratio of the total number of skilled workers and total number of unskilled
workers in departments
D and E respectively?

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a)  17 : 21 b)  19 : 21 c)  15 : 19 d)  20 : 23

Q 150. 30268274  If 20% of the skilled workers and 30% of the unskilled workers from department C
get a pay hike of at least
10%, then what percentage of the total workers in department C get less
than 10% pay hike?

a)  73.5% b)  65.8% c)  77.3% d)  75.3%

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