Clat Mock Prime 10

Prime Mock 10 (CLAT) 2022
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

In its final phase, India's Covid vaccination project is wrestling with a new challenge. About 10.4 crore people,
more than a tenth of those who have taken the first shot, have skipped their appointment with the second dose.
Experts believe that vaccine hesitancy, misplaced fears of side effects or complacency fostered by the incorrect
belief that a single dose provides a strong shield against the virus could be the reasons for this omission - a
serious one given that it's now well-established that the vaccines offer optimum immunity only after the second
jab is administered and a growing body of scholarly literature testifies to the indispensability of complete
inoculation
for herd immunity. Governments at every level must, therefore, make renewed efforts to convince
people to
complete the regimen.

The first dose of the vaccine prepares the immune system to fight the virus and the second dose cements the
protection. Several countries have had to carry extensive information campaigns to get this Covid-vaccination
precept through to the general public. States in the US, for example, have run TV, radio and digital ads and
officials
have used social media to convey the importance of the second dose. Indian officials, healthcare
professionals
and frontline workers, who have so far done a commendable job in combating vaccine hesitancy,
must now scale
up their public awareness endeavours to tackle the new challenge. However, going by the
experience from other
parts of the world, such drives may not be enough. Countries, where a substantial section
of the population has
received at least one jab, are now resorting to disincentives for those opting out of
inoculation. Canada, for
instance, has asked federal government employees to declare their full vaccination by
Friday. Passengers above
12 in the country must show their vaccination status on trains, domestic airlines and
marine transport. A swab
test is mandatory for people who are not fully inoculated for inter-state travel in several
parts of India as well. But
these norms are not always implemented with the stringency required to have the
desired effect.

Last week, the day after India reached the milestone of 100-crore shots, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
concluded
his congratulatory speech on a note of caution. The virus continues to be amongst us, he said. It's a
measure of
the PM's social capital that such cautionary messages have struck a chord with the people at critical
times during
the pandemic. If need be, he shouldn't desist from using this goodwill to impress on the people the
importance of
the second dose - for their own protection and that of their acquaintances and country people.

(431 words)
Q 1. 30554132 What is the rationale behind the use of the 'disincentives' in the second paragraph?
a)
To indicate the failure of incentives for taking the second dose of the vaccine, and the promotion of
punitive measures for achieving the same.
b)
coercive measures for achieving the same.
c)
dissuasive measures for achieving the same.
d)
Draconian measures for achieving the same.
Q 2. 30554132 Which of the following is not a reason for the unwillingness shown by people in India
towards taking the
second dose of the vaccine?
a) Simple reluctance to take the second dose. b) Concerns related to side-effects.
c) Delusion that the first dose is adequate. d) Phobia about side-effects.
Q 3. 30554132 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given passage?
a)
It is a measure of a leader's social capital to elicit cooperation from his people in the time of a global
disaster.
b) Herd immunity is impossible without the administering of both doses of the vaccine.
c)
Some countries have made it mandatory for people above the age of 12 to show their vaccination status
on trains, local airlines and marine transport.
d) Close to 90% of the Indian population have had both doses of the vaccine.
Q 4. 30554132 Which of the following words can substitute the word 'regimen' at the end of the first
paragraph?
a) Process b) Hegemony c) Jurisdiction d) Domination
Q 5. 30554132 Who among the following is most unlikely to be the writer of this piece?
a) Newspaper Columnist b) c) Journalist d) Entomologist

Healthcare Professional

Passage – 2

Support for the national cricket team or its players is not a litmus test for patriotism. People who
allegedly celebrated
the victory of Pakistan against India in a key T20 cricket World Cup match on
October 24 are reportedly facing the
brunt of the state. All of them are allegedly Muslims. In Rajasthan, a
young female schoolteacher has been
terminated by a private school and the police have charged her
under IPC Section 153B for 'imputations, assertions
prejudicial to national integration'. In Jammu and
Kashmir, the police have registered two cases against unknown
persons under the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA) and other sections. In Uttar Pradesh, three students
from J&K have been
charged under IPC Sections 153A (promoting enmity between groups), 505 (creating or
publishing
content to promote enmity) and, later, Section 124A, sedition. The wisdom, propriety or acceptability of
celebrating Pakistan's victory is beside the point. From moral, tactical, and practical perspectives, this
sweeping
policing is unwise. No democracy, least of all a country of India's size and diversity, can
demand unyielding
uniformity and conformity from its population, on all questions and at all times. It is
very unlikely that any of these
charges will stand judicial scrutiny, but that only makes this spectacle a
ridiculous distraction for the stretched
and hassled law enforcement system. Only one outcome is
certain. Far from enforcing national integration as the
purported, misguided aim of this heavy-handed
police action is, it will only brew more resentment and social
disharmony apart from derailing young
lives.

An unremitting loyalty test of citizens can be a self-defeating pursuit for a country like India that has
international
presence and global ambitions. Most of the sports teams around the world have members
of foreign origin.
Infusion of toxic hyper-nationalism in sports is bad and undesirable in such a world;
more so for India. Had all this
been on account of an unspoken link between cheering for the national
cricket team and support for a united India,
the police would have also charged those who mercilessly
and shamelessly trolled Mohammed Shami, a Muslim
in the Indian cricket team. True, it would have been
wonderful for the Indian cricket team to enjoy the unqualified
support of the entire nation, but, surely,
there is no reason to charge those who support another team with a grave
charge as sedition. The Indian
state looks silly now, and the whole episode bodes ill for cricket, and the country.

(406 words)
Q 6. 30554132 The author's primary warning is that this action across the country will:
a) demand unyielding uniformity and conformity from its population, on all questions and at all times
b)
will stand judicial scrutiny, but that only makes this spectacle a ridiculous distraction for the stretched
law enforcement system
c) only brew more resentment and social disharmony apart from derailing young lives
d) All of the above
Q 7. 30554132 Which of the following examples will strengthen the idea of the passage?
a)
People of Indian origin live around the world, and often follow Indian sports diligently and passionately
b)
There are U.S. citizens who chant victory for India at gatherings in their home countries addressed by
the
Indian Prime Minister
c)
There are British and Australian citizens of Indian origin who support India over their home country
during sporting events.
d) All of the above
Q 8. 30554132 It can be inferred that the author is requesting Indian state to be more:
a) Benevolent b) Disingenuous c) Welcoming d) Sedate

Q 9. 30554132 Which of the following two statements is expressing identical or at least similar ideas?
I. It is unlikely that any of these charges will stand judicial scrutiny, but that only makes this spectacle a
ridiculous distraction for the stretched law enforcement system

II. An unremitting loyalty test of citizens can be a self-defeating pursuit for a country like India that has
global ambitions

III. The Indian state looks silly now, and the whole episode bodes ill for cricket, and the country
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 10. 30554132 The author would describe the whole scenario as:
a) Circus b) Spectacular c) Thrilling d) Eerie

Passage – 3

Even as India and China engage in talks, the current state of tension is likely to continue. China passing
a new
border law amid a continuing stalemate in negotiations with India sends a clear signal to New Delhi
that Beijing is
in no mood to quickly end the 18-month-long crisis along the LAC. The law, which will take
effect on January 1,
designates the responsibilities of various agencies in China, from the military to
local authorities, in guarding the
frontiers. India has reacted sharply, telling China that it must not use
legislation as a "pretext" to formalise the
PLA's actions since last year to unilaterally alter the LAC. While
the law says Beijing will negotiate with its neighbours
to settle its borders, India reminded China that the
legislation will have little bearing on the India-China boundary
as both sides are yet to resolve the
boundary question. Responding to India's concerns, the Chinese Foreign
Ministry said the law would not
affect the implementation of existing agreements. The legislation also has
implications for the only other
country China has unresolved land borders with - Bhutan - calling for continuing
efforts to develop
border areas. Among those efforts is the on-going construction of frontier villages, including in
disputed
areas.

The Chinese side may justify the law as an "internal" matter akin to India's abrogation of Article 370 and
the
creation of a Union Territory in Ladakh, which China strongly opposed because it included Aksai
Chin, but there is
one crucial difference. The new Chinese legislation, first proposed in March, came
almost a year into the LAC
crisis. It followed the PLA's amassing of two divisions of troops in forward
areas in the summer of 2020, in
contravention of the four past border agreements, and essentially gives a
stamp of approval to those moves. If
both New Delhi and Beijing at least appear to be in agreement that
the legislation will not affect past agreements,
the fact is those understandings are already in tatters. The
last round of LAC talks, held on October 10, ended
with both sides trading accusations. Indeed, the new
law underlines that China increasingly sees little space for
compromise as far as its frontiers are
concerned. Even as India and China continue negotiations, the law is the
latest signal that the current
state of affairs along the border, marked by continuing deployments by both sides in
forward areas and a
build-up of infrastructure, is likely to continue over the longer term.

(409 words)
Q 11. 30554132 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) China and India have border dispute regarding the Akshai Chin area
b) India, Bhutan and China, all have on-going border issues with each other
c) India justifies creation of Article 370 and abrogation of Ladakh UT as a internal matters
d) India is building frontier villages and roads on border areas which are under dispute
Q 12. 30554132 Which of the following is the main reason for the author to think that the current state of tension
is likely to
continue?
a) Skirmishes have continued at various places along the LAC
b) China is legalizing and formalising its unilateral border action

c) Multiple round of talks have not yielded a results yet
d) Past understandings are not being adhered to by China
Q 13. 30554132 What is the main agenda of the law, vis-a-vis guarding the territorial boundaries?
a) To define the nature and scope of discussion with other countries
b) To identify the nature and scope of responsibility of all agencies
c) To identify the nature and scope of military involvement in disputes

d) To identify the nature and scope of political intervention in security matters
Q 14. 30554132 Which of the following is true about the Indo-China border dispute?
a) There were verbal agreements in place which both sides respected

b) Lot of infrastructure development has taken place at LAC for many years
c) Both sides have heavy military presence at key points along LAC
d) There does not exist any scope of compromise or discussion
Q 15. 30554132 Which of the following arguments have been made by India and China in context of the law
referred to in the
passage above?

I. It will not affect past agreements

II. It will not have a bearing on India-China dispute

III. It is an internal matter of china

Passage – 4

In the previous year, the allocations for MGNREGS were increased by Rs. 50,000 crores to meet the demand for
work, with the Revised Estimates for spending for the scheme going up to Rs. 1,11,500 crore. MGNREGS was a
life-saver for the poor, especially migrant labourers, following the sudden lockdown announced by the Union
government. In this year's Budget, the Finance Minister allocated Rs.73,000 crore for the scheme, which was
higher than the previous year's absolute number in Budget allocations, but this amounted only to 2.1% of the
Budget expenditure, the lowest outlay in those terms in the last six years. By October-end, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh had utilised more than 130% of their respective allocations for the
scheme,
indicating the extent to which rural workers depend on the scheme even in relatively better-off States.
Clearly, the
Union government has underestimated the demand for work under the scheme, which even if it
involves arduous
and menial labour has accounted for a large chunk of rural employment at a time when the
economy suffered a
steep contraction due to the effects of the pandemic.

In response to a report, officials in the Rural Development Ministry accused States of "artificially" creating
demand,
but this has not been borne out from ground reports which continue to indicate rising demand for work
and wages
in rural India; civil society activists claim that some workers have been turned away by officials
despite the
demand for work because of the paucity of funds. The Union Government must ensure that the
allocation is
adequate for wage payments to be done and for demand to be met in the remaining months of this
financial year.
The utility of MGNREGS as a scheme that alleviates distress has never been in question. From acting as an
effective substitute in the absence of crop and weather insurance in aiding poor farm households and helping to
provide wages during agrarian crises, to being an avenue for employment during the economic crisis induced by
the pandemic and the response, MGNREGS has turned out to be a salve for farm workers and labourers. Delays
in wage payments could also result in a decline in rural consumption, which plays a vital role in stimulating the
economy. Besides the scheme's utility in distress, it also has the potential, if works are upgraded suitably, to
continue to improve rural development and infrastructure. The Union Government must consider this during
allocations and not be conservative in its outlay or remain unmindful of the overall potential of the scheme.

(421 words)
Q 16. 30554132 What explains the apparent anomaly in the statement "In this year's Budget, the Finance
Minister allocated
Rs. 73,000 crores for the scheme, which was higher than the previous year's absolute number
in Budget
allocations, but this amounted only to 2.1% of the Budget expenditure, the lowest outlay in those terms
in
the last six years"?
a) Total increase in the Budget expenditure is double of that of the increase in scheme outlay
b) Percentage increase in the Budget expenditure is more than that of the percentage increase in scheme
outlay
c) Total allocation for the scheme last year was less than 2.1% of the total Budget expenditure of this year
d) Total allocation for the scheme last year was more than 2.1% of the total Budget expenditure of the last
year
Q 17. 30554132 Consider the statement "By October-end, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Himachal
Pradesh had
utilised more than 130% of their respective allocations for the scheme, indicating the extent to which
rural
workers depend on the scheme even in relatively better-off States." Which of the following is definitely true?
a) These are the four richest states in the country
b) States can utilize more than the allocated funds in the scheme
c) Highest number of rural workers are in these four states
d) Due to pandemic, rural workers are completely dependent on the scheme
Q 18. 30554132 In the passage, MNREGA has not been described as:
a) Insurance against crop failure b) scheme that alleviates distress
c) avenue for employment during the economic crisis d) salve for farm workers and labourers
Q 19. 30554132 Which of the following captures the main essence of the passage?
a)
Lowered outlay for rural guarantee scheme has led to used up allocation by states and wage delays in
rural
areas
b)
Lowered outlay for rural guarantee scheme will affect economic recovery and development of rural
infrastructure
c)
Lowered outlay for rural guarantee scheme has led to resentment in states amid charges of creation of
artificial
demand
d) Lowered outlay for rural guarantee scheme has affected rural employment aggravating the pandemic
crisis
Q 20. 30554132 Which of the statements is definitely true as per the passage?
a) The allocations for the scheme was increased by approx 80%, in the previous year
b) The total allocated Budget expenditure this year is definitely more than 36.5 lakh crores
c) The total allocated Budget expenditure this year is definitely more than 30 lakh crores
d) All of the above

Passage – 5

The decision by ASEAN to exclude Myanmar's military junta from its annual summit held on October 26-28 is a
major setback for the Generals' attempts to gain regional legitimacy for their brutal regime. Ever since it seized
power by toppling the democratic government of Aung San Suu Kyi in February, the junta has unleashed a reign
of terror claiming an estimated 1,000 lives. Ms. Suu Kyi, who had been the State Councillor for five years from
2015 heading the quasi-democratic government, has been in detention since the coup and is facing absurd
charges such as "illegally owning walkie-talkies". Thousands of others were arrested by the military, notorious for
its reprisal of democratic protests in the past. But this time, the crisis seems much worse. Months after the
seizure of power, the junta, led by Gen. Min Aung Hlaing, is still struggling to restore order. If in the past the
National
League for Democracy (NLD), Ms. Suu Kyi's party, had upheld non-violence even in the face of
repression, this
time, NLD leaders have called for a "revolution". The remnants of the old regime have formed a
National Unity
Government, which claims to be the true representative of Myanmar. In cities, protests slid into
armed fighting
between pro-democracy protesters and security personnel, while in the jungles, anti-junta groups
joined hands
with rebels for military training. The situation was so grave that the UN Special Envoy warned this
month that
Myanmar had descended into a civil war.

One of the regional groupings with some leverage over the junta is ASEAN. In April, Gen. Min Aung Hlaing was
invited to Jakarta for emergency talks with ASEAN members. The bloc asked him to immediately end violence,
start the reconciliation process and allow a regional special envoy to meet with all stakeholders, including Ms.
Suu Kyi. None of these requests was met. Most recent reports suggest that the junta has been systematically
torturing political prisoners. A special envoy was appointed as part of the ASEAN plan, but he was not allowed to
meet Ms. Suu Kyi. Regime violence, political crises and strikes and counter-attacks by protesters have all pushed
Myanmar to the brink of collapse. According to the UN, some three million people are in need of life-saving
assistance because of "conflict, food insecurity, natural disasters and COVID-19". Still, the Generals do not show
any signs of compromise and are not even ready to talk with the NLD.

(402 words)
Q 21. 30554132 Which of the following was a demand put up by the ASEAN bloc to Gen. Min Aung Hlaing?
a) To request the revolutionaries and protestors to stop violence

b) To start a process of participative discussion leading to consensual outcome
c) Appoint a special regional envoy who will meet all the parties affected
d) All of the above
Q 22. 30554132 The author accuses the junta of all of the serious misdeeds except:
a) Toppling democratically elected government b)

Brutal regime, a reign of terror, with reprisals and
deaths
c) systematically torturing political prisoners d) Breach of commitments made to ASEAN
Q 23. 30554132 Which of the following is true about NLD?
a) It has always been a strong advocate of shunning violence of all kind
b) It was the sole party in government with complete democratic entitlement
c) It has resorted to fighting in cities and allied with rebels in jungles for military training
d) It claims to be the true custodian of the democratic authority of Myanmar
Q 24. 30554132 Which of the following will best reflect the main idea of the passage?
a) The Myanmar junta should end the violent suppression of democratic protests and restore democracy
b)
The international community should continue to put pressure on the junta and urgently start a reconciliation
process
c) Violence might allow junta to hold on to power for now, but that is not sustainable.
d) Continuing violence could cause regional isolation of the regime, which could worsen the crisis.
Q 25. 30554132 Which of the following will not be an apt description of the situation in the Myanmar?
a) Internal strife b) National emergency c) Military repression d) Sectarian conflict

Passage – 6

In its latest keynote address on 13 June, Apple announced that its ecosystem's messaging service will support
handwritten messages. An elegantly drawled out "Thank you" was used to illustrate the point. In November 2015,
when the tech giant released its iPad Pro, it also launched with it the Apple Pencil. "Completely familiar. Entirely
evolutionary," read its caption.

This is exactly what Bengaluru-based calligraphist K.C. Janardhan believes. "When we were kids, we used to
write on a slate and balapa (slate-pencil or dust-free chalk). This (iPad Pro and the Pencil) is exactly like that.
People used to scratch on walls, then clay tablets and cuneiform, then papyrus, and then paper. The mediums
and implements can change-the act of writing will remain." In February, Janardhan opened to public his personal
collection of over 600 rare pens, and 2,500 nibs (some in dainty unopened pastel boxes), various inks and
inkwells, and rare and old manuals and journals on the art of the written letter. Amassed over a period of 30
years,
his collection is housed in Bengaluru's bustling Fort area, on the top floor of Janardhan's narrow century-
old
home. Called J's La Quill, the museum/exhibit was inaugurated this February by Lorenzo Angeloni, the Italian
ambassador to India.

Epileptic as a child, Janardhan kept at his handwriting practice despite training as a company secretary. In the
year 1993, he also convinced the Passport Authority of India to let him write his details out in his passport. This
was before digital printing had become necessary due to security concerns, he says. The passport is now long
expired but remains a prized possession. The floor in which J's La Quill is located also doubles up as the space
in which Janardhan conducts handwriting lessons. He has been teaching for 25 years now, and his current class
is a motley group of about nine people. The youngest student is 12 years old and eager to hone his presentation
skills while the oldest is close to 45, and is interested in learning about lettering.

Incidentally, Colombian Nobel Prize winner Gabriel Garcia Marquez used the computer's keys to his advantage.
In this 1990 interview to LA Times' Anthony Day and Marjorie Miller, the writer says that the computer "has saved
him (Marquez) from his own perfectionist tendencies, which had become yet another means of stalling. When he
wrote on a typewriter, he insisted that each page be flawless: no erasures, blotches or crossed-out letters. 'I
considered a typing mistake an error of creation,' he says."

(415 words)
Q 26. 30554132 The ________ in the expression "Completely familiar. Entirely evolutionary" refers to the
experience being
___________:
a) Irony, old yet new b) Contrast, known yet unknown
c) Dilemma, Pleasant yet unpleasant d) Conundrum, tinged with a feeling of déjà vu
Q 27. 30554132 Which of the following can be inferred from Gabriel Marquez's preference for computer over a
typewriter/
hand written documents?
a) Computer drafted documents appear flawless as compared to typewritten documents
b) Computer drafted documents allow possibility of editing
c) Gabriel Marquez doesn't have a good handwriting
d) Being a perfectionist makes him a faster writer
Q 28. 30554132 The last paragraph can be described as all of the following except:
a) An interesting anecdote about a great author b) Contrary to the idea of the rest of the passage
c) An unexpected twist in the argument d) An illustration of the fragilities of great men
Q 29. 30554132 The tone of the passage is:
a) Conversational b) Pedantic c) Anecdotal d) Nostalgic
Q 30. 30554132 Which of the following is true about Janardhan's students?

a) The class has huge age and social class divergence b)
Different students have different reasons for learning
c) All of them have artistic tendencies d) They have been learning for many years
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

The world's largest trade deal - which includes China and excludes the U.S. - will come into force in January next
year. It comes as Australia and New Zealand announced they have ratified the agreement.

The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership or RCEP was signed last year by [1]Asia-Pacific countries.
The countries are the 10 members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations and five of their largest trading
partners China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.

Australia said in a statement that its ratification - together with New Zealand's - paved the way for the deal to
enter
into force on [2], and allowed RCEP to reach a "milestone." New Zealand confirmed its ratification in a
separate
statement. RCEP will be in force 60 days after a minimum of six ASEAN members and three non-
ASEAN signatories
ratify the agreement.

ASEAN countries that have ratified the deal so far are Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Singapore, Thailand and
Vietnam,
according to the website of Australia's Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade. In addition to Australia
and New
Zealand, other countries outside ASEAN that have also ratified RCEP are China and Japan.
Q 31. 30554132 The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership or RCEP was signed last year by [1] Asia-
Pacific
countries. How many countries are there in the RCEP which has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) 15 b) 16 c) 20 d) 25
Q 32. 30554132 As on 2 November 2021, the RCEP deal has been ratified by six ASEAN and four non-ASEAN
signatories.
The trade pact is projected to enter force on [2], which of the following has been redacted with [2] in
the
passage above?
a) 1 January 2022 b) 1 March 2022 c) 1 April 2022 d) 1 January 2023
Q 33. 30554132 The RCEP conceived at the 2011 ASEAN Summit in Bali, Indonesia, while negotiations formally
launched
during the 2012 ASEAN Summit in Cambodia. The treaty was signed on 15 November 2020 at the
virtual
ASEAN Summit hosted by ___________.
a) China b) Japan c) Laos d) Vietnam
Q 34. 30554132 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding why India did not join RCEP
agreement?
a)
India withdrew from the RCEP largely because of concerns it would open it up to American goods amid
an
already wide trade imbalance with American, and the failure of the agreement to adequately open up
to services.
b) India was concerned about a "possible circumvention" of rules of origin.
c)
India had also reportedly expressed apprehensions on lowering and eliminating tariffs on several products
like
dairy, steel etc.
d)
To deal with the imminent rise in imports, India had been seeking an auto-trigger mechanism, however,
other
countries in the RCEP were against this proposal.
Q 35. 30554132 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the RCEP?
a) RCEP covers a market of 30% of the world's population.
b) RCEP covers a market of 30% of global GDP.
c)
RCEP is also larger than other regional trading blocs such as the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement
(USMCA) and the European Union.
d) None of the above
Passage – 2

The Nobel Prize for Physics 2021 was awarded one half jointly to Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann and
the
other half to [1]. It was awarded for their groundbreaking contributions to the understanding of complex
physical
systems.

Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann were cited for their work in "the physical modeling of Earth's climate,
quantifying variability and reliably predicting global warming".

[1] was cited for his work in "the discovery of the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems from
atomic to planetary scales."

The panel said Mr. Manabe and Mr. Hasselmann "laid the foundation of our knowledge of the Earth's climate and
how humanity influences it".

After the announcement, [1] said that "it's very urgent that we take very strong decisions and move at a very
strong
pace" in tackling climate change. "It's clear for future generations that we have to act now," he added.
Q 36. 30554132 The Nobel Prize for Physics 2021 was awarded one half jointly to Syukuro Manabe and Klaus
Hasselmann
and the other half to [1]. Who among the following recipients has been redacted with [1] in the
passage
above?
a) Ragnar Sohlman b) Rudolf Lilljequist c) Giorgio Parisi d) Erik Lindberg
Q 37. 30554132 Name the Indian-American astrophysicist who was awarded the 1983 Nobel Prize for Physics
with William

(a) Fowler for "theoretical studies of the physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of
the
stars".
a) b) c) Meghnad Saha d) Har Gobind Khorana
Venkatraman Subrahmanyan
Ramakrishnan Chandrasekhar
Q 38. 30554132 The first person and the only woman to win the Nobel Prize twice is
a) Andrea Ghez b) Marie Curie c) Maria Goeppert Mayer d) Donna Strickland
Q 39. 30554132 The first Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to physicist Wilhelm Rontgen in recognition of the
extraordinary
services he rendered by the discovery of ______________.
a) X-rays b) Radio waves c) Gama rays d) Beta rays
Q 40. 30554132 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Nobel Prizes?
a)
The Nobel Prizes are five separate prizes that, according to Alfred Nobel's will of 1895, are awarded to
"those
who, during the preceding year, have conferred the greatest benefit to Mankind."
b)
Alfred Nobel was a Swedish chemist, engineer, and industrialist most famously known for the invention
of
dynamite.
c) Nobel Prizes were first awarded in 1906.
d)
In 1968, Sveriges Riksbank funded the establishment of the Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of
Alfred
Nobel, to also be administered by the Nobel Foundation.
Passage – 3

India was re-elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the 2022-24 term and vowed to
continue to work for the promotion and protection of human rights through "Samman, Samvad and Sahyog".

"India gets re-elected to the @UN_HRC (2022-24) for a 6th term with overwhelming majority. Heartfelt gratitude
to the @UN membership for reposing its faith in India (sic)," India's Permanent Mission to the UN tweeted.

The UN General Assembly elected by secret ballot Argentina, Benin, Cameroon, Eritrea, Finland, Gambia,
Honduras,India, Kazakhstan, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Montenegro, Paraguay, Qatar, Somalia, UAE and
the USA.

The US joined the cohort more than three years after the Trump administration quit the [1]-member body over
what it called chronic bias against [2] and a lack of reform.

The United States, which was unopposed, received 168 votes in the secret ballot by the 193-member General
Assembly. It begins a three-year term on 1 January - pitting Washington against Beijing and Moscow, who began
council terms this year.

China and some of its allies including Belarus and Venezuela have taken advantage of the US absence from the
council to push through joint statements supporting Beijing's actions in Hong Kong, Xinjiang and Tibet, and
denouncing "human rights violations" in Western countries, including against indigenous Canadians. The council
is made up of [1] member states. For years, the body has been criticized for allowing authoritarian governments
to
take part.
Q 41. 30554132 At present, how many members are there in the United Nations Human Rights Council
(UNHRC) which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 36 b) 47 c) 54 d) 69
Q 42. 30554132 The US joined the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) more than three years after
the Trump
administration quit the [1]-member body over what it called chronic bias against [2] and a lack of
reform.
Which of the following countries has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) South Korea b) Taiwan c) UK d) Israel
Q 43. 30554132 The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is an _____________within the United
Nations system
responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe.
a) b) c) d)

Inter-governmental body Intra-non-governmental NGO under United Nations International Statutory
body body
Q 44. 30554132 The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) replaced the former United Nations
Commission on
Human Rights. The Council was created by the United Nations General Assembly on
_____________.
a) 15 March 2004 b) 15 March 2006 c) 15 March 2008 d) 15 March 2010
Q 45. 30554132 The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) investigates allegations of breaches of
human rights in
United Nations member states, and addresses thematic human rights issues of which of the
following?
a) Freedom of association and assembly b) Women's rights
c) LGBT rights d) All of the above
Passage – 4

The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) concluded with nearly 200 countries agreeing
with the [1] Climate Pact to keep the target of limiting global warming to [2]. For the first time, the conference
agreed to accelerate efforts towards the phase-down of coal power.

The text of the pact includes 'phase-down of unabated coal power' and 'inefficient fossil fuel subsidies,' as well as
'mid-century net-zero.' This language has never been included in UN text before.

Under the U.K. presidency and with the support of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
UNFCCC) Secretariat, delegates forged agreements that strengthen collective climate action.

Climate negotiators ended two weeks of intense talks with a consensus on urgently accelerating climate action.
The [1] Climate Pact, combined with increased ambition and action from countries, means that [2] remains in
sight and scales up action on dealing with climate impacts.

Finance was extensively discussed throughout the session, and there was consensus on the need to increase
support to developing countries. The members welcomed the call to at least double finance for adaptation. The
duty to fulfill the pledge of providing $100 billion annually from developed to developing countries was also
reaffirmed.
A process to define the new global goal on finance was launched.

COP26 also saw a record finance raising effort for the Adaptation Fund of over $350 million, thrice the previous
highest. Contributions to the Least Developed Country Fund reached $600 million.

"We can now say with credibility that we have kept [2] alive. But, its pulse is weak, and it will only survive if we
keep our promises and translate commitments into rapid action. I am grateful to the UNFCCC for working with us
to deliver a successful COP26," said [3], U.K. President, COP26.
Q 46. 30554132 The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) concluded with nearly 200
countries agreeing
with the [1] Climate Pact to keep the target of limiting global warming to [2]. Which of the
following has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) London Climate Pact b) Glasgow Climate Pact c) Paris Climate Pact d) Scotland Climate Pact
Q 47. 30554132 The 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) concluded with nearly 200
countries agreeing
with the [1] Climate Pact to keep the target of limiting global warming to [2]. Which of the
following has been
redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) 1.5°C b) 2.5°C c) 3.0°C d) 4.0°C
Q 48. 30554132 Who is the President of COP 26 whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage
above?
a) Richa Sharma b) Alok Sharma c) Johnson Boris d) Joe Biden
Q 49. 30554132 On India's behalf, Prime Minister Narendra Modi presented five commitments from India
towards climate
action at COP26. Which of the following commitments is Not correct?
a) India will get its fossil energy capacity to 1000 gigawatt (GW) by 2030.
b) India will meet 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
c) India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now onwards till 2030.
d) By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than 45 per cent.
Q 50. 30554132 Recently, the Economic Survey for 2021 had revealed that India would require around
______________between 2015 and 2030 to fight climate change.
a) $106 billion b) $306 billion c) $506 billion d) $206 billion
Passage – 5

India will support "all efforts" to restart the peace process between Israel and Palestine, Foreign Secretary Harsh
Vardhan Shringla conveyed to the UN Security Council meeting on Monday which also witnessed tabling of an
important resolution on Afghanistan.

"Given our long-standing and firm commitment to the establishment of a sovereign, independent and viable state
of Palestine, within secure, recognised and mutually agreed borders, living side by side with Israel in peace and
security, India will remain fully supportive of all efforts to restart the peace process," Mr. Shringla said. India's
presidency of the UNSC ended 0n August 31after a month during which the Taliban takeover of Afghanistan
dominated the agenda of the topmost UN organ.

Later in the session, a resolution on Afghanistan drafted by the United Kingdom and France was taken up for
discussion and possible voting. The draft resolution seeks protection of civilians and security guarantees for
humanitarian access. The text reflects international concerns about the security situation in Afghanistan and its
capital Kabul. The humanitarian access mentioned in the draft resolution is aimed at ensuring that people who
are willing to leave Afghanistan will be allowed to do so under secure circumstances beyond August 31, the
deadline for the U.S. troops to withdraw from the country.

It is understood that the resolution will be used to enforce a window of evacuation for foreign nationals who
continue to remain stuck in Kabul. Apart from India and the U.S. many other countries have been unable to
evacuate their nationals or allied Afghan personnel. At least 180 Hindu and Sikh Afghans remain in Kabul amid
indications
that the Taliban have delayed granting permission to them to travel abroad.

The resolution can also be used to force the Taliban to adhere to some of the basic international humanitarian
norms. The Taliban have been demanding to take up the issue of representation on behalf of Afghanistan at the
UN. But experts here believe it is likely that a discussion on the Taliban's right to represent Afghanistan at the UN
will get "pushed" till the group allows full evacuation of foreigners and others willing to leave Afghanistan.
Q 51. 30554132 In 1917, Ottoman Empire fell after World War 1 and the UK got control over Palestine. The land
was inhabited
by a Jewish minority and Arab majority. Which of the following declarations was issued after Britain
gained
control with the aim of establishing a home for the Jews in Palestine?
a) The Balfour Declaration b) The Jerusalem Declaration
c) The London Declaration d) The Palestine Independent Declaration
Q 52. 30554132 Which of the following areas was/were captured by the Israeli forces in the year 1967?
a) Syrian Golan Heights b) Gaza Strip c) d) All of the above

Egyptian Sinai Peninsula
Q 53. 30554132 The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the organs of the United Nations and is
charged with
the maintenance of international peace and security. Its powers do not include which of the
following?
a)
The establishment of peacekeeping operations and drawing international borders among the sovereign
countries.
b) The establishment of international sanctions.
c) The authorization of military action through Security Council resolutions.
d) It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to member states.
Q 54. 30554132 Reform of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) encompasses five key issues. Which of
the following
is Not one among them?
a) The question of the veto held by the five permanent members
b) The size of an enlarged Council and its working methods.
c) There is also a proposal to admit more permanent members.

d) There is a proposal to withdraw China's permanent membership in the council.
Q 55. 30554132 Why should India be given a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?
a) India was among the founding members of United Nations.
b)
It is the second largest and a one of the largest constant contributor of troops to United Nations
Peacekeeping
missions.
c)
It has been a member of UNSC for 7 terms and a member of G-77 and G-4, so permanent membership
is a
logical extension.
d) All of the above
Passage – 6

Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situation Fund (PM-CARES Fund), a charitable trust
under the law, has told Delhi High Court that the trust's fund is not a fund of the Government of India and its
amount does not go in the Consolidated Fund of India.

The submission was made in response to a petition seeking that PM-CARES Fund be declared as 'The State'
under Article [1] of the Constitution. The plea contends that citizens of the country are aggrieved that a fund set
up by the Prime Minister and with trustees like the PM and ministers of Home, Defence and Finance has been
declared to be a fund over which there is no government control.

Pradeep Kumar Srivastava, an Under Secretary at the PMO told the court he functions in the trust on an
honorary basis and that the trust functions with transparency and its funds are audited by an auditor who is a
Chartered Accountant from the panel prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

"To ensure transparency, the audited report is put on the official website of the trust along with the details of
utilisation of funds received by the trust," the reply said.

The petition filed by Samyak Gangwal states that the PM-CARES Fund was formed by the Prime Minister in
March 2020 for a noble purpose of extending assistance to the citizens in wake of [2] and huge donations were
received by it. However, the plea said, a copy of the trust deed was released by the PM-CARES Fund on its
website in December 2020, according to which it is not created by or under the Constitution or by any law made
by Parliament.
Q 56. 30554132 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Article 1 b) Article 11 c) Article 12 d) Article 13
Q 57. 30554132 PM-CARES Fund was formed by the Prime Minister in March 2020 for a noble purpose of
extending assistance
to the citizens in wake of [2], which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the
passage above?
a) Covid-19 pandemic b) Cyclones and disasters c) Outbreak of Dengue d) All of the above
Q 58. 30554132 Who is the Chairman of the PM CARES Fund?
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India c) Vice President of India d) Union Home Minister
Q 59. 30554132 The minimum donation accepted for the PM CARES Fund is
a) Rs.10 b) Rs.100 c) Rs.500 d) Rs.1000
Q 60. 30554132 Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was created during the Prime Minister of
____________.
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Indira Gandhi c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Passage – 7

Tokyo Olympics 2020 gold medallist [1], veteran woman cricketer [2], India football team captain [3] and
historymaking Paralympic stars (from Avani Lekhara to Pramod Bhagat) shared the spotlight as an
unprecedented 12 sportspersons were presented with India's highest sporting honour - the Major Dhyan Chand
Khel Ratna - by President Ram Nath Kovind in Delhi. [1] became the only second individual gold medalist from
India at the Olympics
and the first-ever in Athletics.

Ravi Kumar, who won a silver medal in wrestling at the Tokyo Olympics, also received the Major Dhyan Chand
Khel Ratna. Lovlina Borgohain (Boxing), Sreejesh PR (Men's Hockey) and Manpreet Singh (Men's Hockey), who
also brought laurels to the country during the quadrennial event in Tokyo, received the prestigious award.

Among other sporting disciplines,[2], the captain of the Indian women's cricket team (ODIs and Tests), as well as
India men's football team captain [3] were among the ones who received the Khel Ratna award in the ceremony.

[3] became the first footballer to be bestowed the award, a well-deserved recognition for keeping pace with the
likes of Lionel Messi in scoring international goals.

Paralympic gold-winners Avani Lekhara (Shooting), Sumit Antil (Athletics), Pramod Bhagat (Badminton), Krishna
Nagar (Badminton),Major Dhyan Chand Manish Narwal (Shooting) were also given the Khel Ratna.

Along with 12 Khel Ratnas, India this year has [4] Arjuna awardees. The long list this year was a result of the
historic medal hauls at the Olympics (7) and Paralympics (19). The event is traditionally held on [5] every year to
commemorate the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
Q 61. 30554132 What is the name of Tokyo Olympics 2020 gold medallist awarded with Major Dhyan Chand
Khel Ratna
award whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Bajrang Punia b) Saina Nehwal c) Neeraj Chopra d) PV Sindhu
Q 62. 30554132 What is the name of Indian cricketer awarded with Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award
whose name has
been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Jhulan Goswami b) Harmanpreet Kaur c) Mithali Raj d) Smriti Mandhana
Q 63. 30554132 What is the name of Indian football team player awarded with Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna
award whose
name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) Sunil Chhetri b) Bhaichung Bhutia c) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu d) Sandesh Jhingan

Q 64. 30554132 How many people have received the Arjuna award this year which has been removed with [4] in
the passage
above?
a) 25 b) 35 c) 40 d) 45
Q 65. 30554132 The National Sports Day is celebrated every year on [5] to commemorate the birth anniversary
of hockey
legend Major Dhyan Chand. Which of the following has been removed with [5] in the passage above?
a) August 29 b) September 29 c) October 29 d) November 16
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

In Indian Penal Code, Abetment is defined under section 107 as:

Abetment of a thing - A person abets the doing of a thing, who: -

a. Instigates any person to do that thing; or

b. Engages with one or more other person or persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or
illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing; or

c. Intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

In comprehensive way under Indian Penal Code, abetment can be defined as, a person becomes liable as an
abettor if he instigates another to commit a crime or engages in a conspiracy with another to commit a crime and
some act is done in furtherance of such conspiracy or if he intentionally aids another in order to facilitate the
commission of a crime. The term 'abet' in general usage means to assist, advance, aid, conduct, help and
promote. The word 'abet' has been defined as meaning to aid; to assist or to give aid; to command, to procure, or
to counsel; to countenance; to encourage; induce, or assist, to encourage or to set another one to commit.

The term 'abetment' in criminal law indicates that there is a distinction between the person abetting the
commission of an offence (or abettor) and the actual perpetrator of the offence or the principal offence or the
principal offender. Abettor is a person who abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or
the commission of
an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law. of committing an
offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

Abetment by instigation- The word 'instigate' literally means to goad, urge forward, provoke, incite, or encourage
to do an act and a person is said to instigate another when he actively suggests or stimulates him to the act by
any means, or language, direct or indirect, whether it take the form of express solicitation or of hints, insinuation
or
encouragement or a willful misrepresentation or willful concealment of a material fact. Advice amounts to
instigation only when intended to actively suggest or stimulate the commission of an offence. Mere acquiescence
does not amount to instigation. Thus, the word denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or unadvisable
action or to stimulate or incite. Presence of mens rea, therefore, is the necessary concomitant of instigation. It is
common knowledge that the words uttered in a quarrel or in a spur of the moment cannot be taken to be uttered
with mens rea required to constitute instigation as they are uttered in a fit of anger and emotional state.

In Jamuna Singh v. State of Bihar, the offence of abetment is complete when the alleged abettor has instigated
another or engaged with another in a conspiracy to commit the offence. It is not necessary for the offence of
abetment that the act abetted must be committed
Q 66. 30554132 D was madly in love with C. C was in love with A. D was jealous of A and wanted to get rid of
him. One E gave
D the address of a place where he can procure weapons and also told to mention his name to
avail a
discount. D brought a pistol from the said place and killed A. Is E liable for abetment in the given case?
a)
E is not liable for abetment as he did not instigate or motivate D to commit the offense but only helped
him with
the address.
b) E is liable for murder and not abetment as his actions led to the death of A.
c) E is liable for abetment to murder as he assisted D in procuring the weapon of crime knowingly.
d)
E is not liable for abetment as he did not have the intention nor motivation to hurt A. Intention and motivation
are
relevant.
Q 67. 30554132 Raju was a soldier in the Indian army. Suresh, a neighbor of Raju informed him that his wife
Priya was
having an extramarital relationship with one Rakesh. He claimed that he had seen Priya going to
Rakesh's
house every night. Actually, Priya went to Rakesh's house to tutor his daughter and Suresh was aware
of the
same but lied just for fun. In a fit of anger Raju killed Priya. Is Suresh liable for abetment to murder?
a) Suresh is liable for abetment to murder as his lie was the reason behind the commission of the act.
b)
Suresh is not liable for abetment to murder as his intention was not to abet Raju to commit a crime or
furtherance
of a crime.
c) Suresh is liable irrespective of his intention as the action took place as a direct consequence of his
words.
d)
Suresh is not liable as he did not give the weapon to Raju. Had he provided the weapon he would have
been
held liable.
Q 68. 30554132 A B and C were good friends and watched the 5th season of Money Heist. They were so
impressed and they
thought of conducting a heist of their own. They went in search of a professor and met one R
who was their
professor at college. They told R regarding their plan. Professor R gave them a sketch of an
underground
path to the nearby bank. A B and C broke into the bank very same night using the sketch and looted
the
treasury. Is Professor R liable for abetment to theft?
a) Professor R is not liable as he did not have the intention of helping them to steal the treasury.
b)
Professor R is not liable as the required conditions of abetment under section 107 of the IPC are not
being
fulfilled.
c) Professor R is liable as he should have foreseen the happening of a bank theft by the kids.
d) Professor R is liable as he conspired with A B and C in breaking into a bank which is an offense of
abetment.
Q 69. 30554132 In which of the following situations has abetment by instigation taken place?
a)
One D, a former felon, was telling the stories of his heists to children. Ten years later the kids used the
same trick
to commit a theft.
b)
R asked B, a 15-year-old kid to pull down the handbrake of a car which was parked in a busy place. The
kid did
the same and it led to serious injury to a number of by passers.
c) D was asked the way to Union Bank by one C. D guided C. C went there and committed theft.
d)
M told N that 'Be so powerful in life, people should be scared of you and respect you at the same time".
Motivated
by this, N bombed Raj Bhavan and killed many.
Q 70. 30554132 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a) The word 'instigate' literally means to goad, urge forward, provoke, incite, or encourage to do an act.
b)
In Jamuna Singh v. State of Bihar, it was held that the offence of abetment is complete when the alleged
abettor
has instigated another or engaged with another in a conspiracy to commit the offence.
c)
Abettor is a person who abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the
commission of
an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law.
d) Presence of mens rea, is not necessarily concomitant of instigation in all situations.

Passage – 2

According to the Indian Contract Act 1872, proposal is defined in Section 2 (a) as "when one person will signify to
another person his willingness to do or not do something (abstain) with a view to obtain the assent of such
person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal or an offer."

The person making the offer/proposal is known as the "promisor" or the "offeror". And the person who may accept
such an offer will be the "promisee" or the "acceptor". The offeror will have to express his willingness to do or
abstain from doing an act. Only willingness is not enough. Or simply a desire to do/not do something will not
constitute an offer. An offer can be positive or negative. It can be a promise to do some act, and can also be a
promise to abstain (not do) some act/service. Both are valid offers

There can be many types of offers based on their nature, timing, intention, etc. Let us take a look at the
classifications of offers.

General Offer - A general offer is one that is made to the public at large. There are not any specified parties. So
any member of the public can accept the offer and be entitled to the rewards/consideration. Say for example you
put out a reward for solving a puzzle. So if any member of the public can accept the offer and be entitled to the
reward if he finishes the act (solves the puzzle.)

Specific Offer- A specific offer, on the other hand, is only made to specific parties, and so only they can accept
the said offer or proposal. They are also sometimes known as special offers. For example, A offers to sell his
horse to B for Rs 5000/-. Then only B can accept such an offer because it is specific to him.

Cross Offer- In certain circumstances, two parties can make a cross offer. This means both make an identical
offer to each other at the exact same time. However, such a cross offer will not amount to acceptance of the offer
in either case. For example, both A and B send letters to each other offering to sell and buy A's horse for Rs
5000/ -. This is a cross offer, but it will be considered as acceptable for either of them.

Counter Offer- There may be times when a promise will only accept parts of an offer, and change certain terms of
the offer. This will be a qualified acceptance. He will want changes or modifications in the terms of the original
offer. This is known as a counteroffer. A counteroffer amounts to a rejection of the original offer.
Q 71. 30554132 R proposed to B that if he did not participate in the annual horse-riding competition of the
village, he would
give him 1000 rupees. R asked for the favour as he wanted his son to win the race and B was
better than his
son. Is there a proposal in the given case?
a) There is no proposal in the given case as there was no willingness to do something by R in the given
case.
b)
There is a proposal in the given case as R was asked to abstain from doing something which also
amounts to a
proposal.
c)
There is no proposal in the given case asking a sportsman not to participate is illegal and illegal agreements
do
not amount to contracts.
d) This was a casual talk and hence there is no proposal or acceptance in the given scenario.
Q 72. 30554132 A put up a board near his house stating that "land for sale; 1 acre- 5 lakhs". Is there an offer in
the given case,
if so what type of offer is this?
a) There is no offer in the given case as it is a classified proposal.
b) There is an offer in the given case and it is a general offer.
c) There is an offer in the given case and it is a universal offer.
d) There is no offer in the given case as it is a sale proposal.
Q 73. 30554132 B approaches A and asks 'Will you buy my car for a sum of 1 lakh rupees?' In turn A replies 'I
will not buy your
car for 1 lakh rupees, but will buy it for a sum of 80 thousand rupees'. What phenomena is taking
place in the
current scenario?
a) There is an offer and a counter offer in the given case.
b) There is an offer and a rejection of an offer in the given case.
c) There is an offer and an acceptance of the offer in the given case.

d) There is no contractual obligation arising in the given case.
Q 74. 30554132 A wanted to buy C's house and sent a letter requesting B to sell his house. B wanted to sell his
house and
thought A to be a good customer and wrote to A asking to buy his house. Is there a valid contract in
the given
case?
a) There is a valid contract in the given case as proposal and acceptance has taken place simultaneously.
b) There isn't a valid offer but a valid acceptance in the given case.
c) There is a cross offer in the given case and this does not give rise to a valid contract.
d) There is a valid counter offer in the given case and it does give rise to a valid contract.
a) A specific offer is only made to specific parties, and so only they can accept the said offer or proposal.
b)
According to the Indian Contract Act 1872, proposal is defined in Section 2 (b) as "when one person will
signify to
another person his willingness to do or not do something (abstain) with a view to obtain the
assent of such
person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal or an offer."
c) The person making the offer/proposal is known as the "promisor" or the "offeror"
d) None of the above.

Passage – 3

Essentials of a valid offer under Indian contract act are as follows-

(i) Offer must create Legal Relations- The offer must lead to a contract that creates legal relations and legal
consequences in case of non-performance. So a social contract which does not create legal relations will not be
a valid offer. Say for example a dinner invitation extended by A to B is not a valid offer.

(ii) Offer must be Clear, not Vague- The terms of the offer or proposal should be very clear and definite. If the
terms are vague or unclear, it will not amount to a valid offer. Take for example the following offer - A offers to sell
B fruits worth Rs 5000/-. This is not a valid offer since what kinds of fruits or their specific quantities are
not
mentioned.

(iii) Offer must be Communicated to the Offeree- For a proposal to be completed it must be clearly
communicated to the offeree. No offeree can accept the proposal without knowledge of the offer. The famous
case study regarding this is Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt. It makes clear that acceptance in ignorance of the
proposal does not amount to acceptance.

(iv) Offer may be Conditional- While acceptance cannot be conditional, an offer might be conditional. The
offeror can make the offer subject to any terms or conditions he deems necessary. So A can offer to sell goods to
B if he makes half the payment in advance. Now B can accept these conditions or make a counteroffer.

(v) Offer cannot contain a Negative Condition- The non-compliance of any terms of the offer cannot lead to
automatic acceptance of the offer. Hence it cannot say that if acceptance is not communicated by a certain time it
will be considered as accepted. Example: A offers to sell his cow to B for 5000/-. If the offer is not rejected by
Monday it will be considered as accepted. This is not a valid offer.
(vi) Offer can be Specific or General- As we saw earlier the offer can be to one or more specific parties. Or the
offer could be to the public in general.

(vii) Offer may be Expressed or Implied- The offeror can make an offer through words or even by his conduct.
An offer which is made via words, whether such words are written or spoken (oral contract) we call it an express
contract. And when an offer is made through the conduct and the actions of the offeror it is an implied contract.
Q 76. 30554132 Kamran Akmal wanted to sell his land. He put up a board "LAND SALE-ONLY NICE FOR
PEOPLE LIMITED
AMOUNT" Is there a valid proposal in the given case?
a) There is a valid proposal in the given case as Kamran has expressed his willingness to sell the land.
b) There is no valid proposal as 'proposals must be clear and unambiguous' which is not the case here.
c) There is no valid proposal in the offer that has not been communicated to the offeree.
d) There is a valid general offer in the given case.
Q 77. 30554132 Tinku was in 5thstd. Once Tinku forgot to bring his pencil to class. He borrowed a pencil from
Rinku. Tinku as
an appreciation and as gratitude told Rinku that he will get him a Cadbury tomorrow. Tinku failed
to bring the
chocolate the next day. Was there a contract and has Tinku failed to perform his side of the contract?
a) Yes there was a contract and Tinku failed to perform his side of the contract that is bringing Cadbury.
b) No there was no contract as there was no intention of creating legal obligation.
c) Even though there was no intention, all the essentials have been fulfilled and there is a contract.
d) There is no contract as the offer of Cadbury chocolate was not explicitly accepted by Rinku.
Q 78. 30554132 D wrote a letter to B stating that he wants to buy B's Mercedes. He also wrote failing to reply to
the letter
meant B had accepted the proposal and was willing to sell the car. B failed to reply to the letter. Has the
offer
been accepted in the given case?
a)
The offer has not been accepted in the given case as D should wait sometime before enforcing the
acceptance.
b) The offer has not been accepted as there cannot be a negative condition in a proposal.
c) The offer has not been accepted as the car belongs to B and he can sell it to whomever he is pleased
with.
d)
There is an acceptance as the offer clearly mentioned the condition of binding acceptance in case of
non-reply.
Q 79. 30554132 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above-given passage?
a) The offeror has to make an offer through his words expressly, implied offers are not valid.
b) The terms of the offer or proposal need not be very clear and definite.
c) There can never be a conditional offer, it should be definite and binding.
Q 80. 30554132 D offered to sell his house to A. But also suggested that the house shall be sold only when an
advance
payment of 5 lakhs was done. Is it a valid offer?
a) It is not a valid offer as a negative condition cannot be present in an offer.
b) It is a valid offer as an offer can be conditional.

c) It is a valid offer as in case of specific offers conditions can be made.
d) It is an invalid offer as the offeror is having arbitrary powers and is violative of article 14 of the constitution.

Passage – 4

In Blyth v. Birmingham Water Works Co, Negligence was defined as the omission to do something which a
reasonable man would do or doing something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.

It can be characterized in three forms-

Nonfeasance: It means the act of failure to do something which a person should have done. For example, failure
to carry out the repairs of an old building when it should have been done.

Misfeasance: It means the act of not doing an action properly when it should have been done properly. For
example, Doing the repairs of an old building but doing so by using very poor-quality materials creates a major
probability of a collapse which injures people.

Malfeasance: It means the act of doing something which should not have been done in the first place itself. For
example, using products that are not allowed and combustible to carry out the repairs of an old building,
therefore, converting the building into a firetrap leading to an accident.

To commit the tort of negligence, there are primarily 6 main essentials that are required. An act will be
categorized as negligence only if, all the conditions are satisfied namely -

Duty of care- It is one of the essential conditions of negligence in order to make the person liable. It means that
every person owes a duty of care to another person while performing an act. Although this duty exists in all acts,
but in negligence, the duty is legal in nature and cannot be illegal or unlawful and also cannot be of moral, ethical
or religious nature.

Duty must be towards the plaintiff- A duty arises when the law recognizes a relationship between the defendant
and the plaintiff and requires the defendant to act in a certain manner toward the plaintiff. It is not sufficient that
the defendant owed a duty of care towards the plaintiff but it must also be established which is usually
determined by the judge.

Breach of duty to take care- It's not enough for a plaintiff to prove that the defendant owed him a duty of care but
he must also establish that the defendant breached his duty to the plaintiff. A defendant breaches such a duty by
failing to exercise reasonable care in fulfilling the duty. In other words, the breach of a duty of care means that the
person who has an existing duty of care should act wisely and not omit or commit any act which he has to do or
not do as said in the case of Blyth v. Birmingham Water Works Co, (1856). In simple terms, it means non-
observance of a standard of care
Q 81. 30554132 Which of the following is not an example of negligence?
a) D drove at 120 kms per hour on a crowded road with a school and hospital nearby and hit an old lady.
b)
B kept a 15 kg pot in a window which was facing the pathway. The pot fell and injured a passerby named
Raushan.
c)
Z forgot to unlock his car. One R, a mischievous kid came and opened the car and took down the hand
brake.
The car moved and injured one A.
d) A who was not a rowing instructor went to guide C is rowing and C was injured.
Q 82. 30554132 D was working as a Pistol checker in ASD industries. His duty was to check whether the Pistols
were
working properly. Once D skipped 5 pistols while checking and one of those skipped pistols was bought by
one R. While trying the Pistol it blasted in his hand and he severely injured his hand. Is D liable for negligence
in
the given case?
a) There was negligence from the part of D which can be characterized under Misfeasance.
b) There was negligence from the part of D which can be characterized under Malfeasance.
c) There was no negligence from the part of D as the action was remote and unexpectable
d)
There was no negligence from the part of D as the blasting of the pistol was not a direct consequence of
his duty.
Q 83. 30554132 D was over-speeding in his bike in a crowded area. He met with an accident and died on the
spot. One B
who was 8 months pregnant witnessed the accident and the blood shed that was all over the place.
This
amounted to a nervous shock and she gave a stillbirth. Now B is seeking compensation from the family
members of D for the negligence of D. Decide.
a) D shall be liable for negligence as his act of over speeding has caused B to give a stillbirth.
b)
D shall not be held liable as his act has not directly affected B and not all the requirements of negligence
are
being fulfilled.
c) All the requirements of negligence are being fulfilled and D owed a duty of care towards the plaintiff.
Q 84. 30554132 Which of the following is an example for negligence of Malfeasance in the given list?
a) A was asked to construct a building with best quality cement. He in turn used the cheapest available.
b) Z was asked to bring the ambulance to the hospital at the earliest. He in turn took a coffee break in
between.
c)
C entered a chemical lab. The lab instruction had provided not to bring any combustible items. Z brought
along a
lighter because of which half the lab burned.
d)
L was asked to test drive a car. While test driving a requirement of maximum speed test had to be done.
L
skipped the test which led to an accident in the final presentation.
Q 85. 30554132 Ajit was driving on the wrong side while Amit was crossing the road. Amit was wearing
Bluetooth music set
and was not expecting any car on his side. Amit was injured and the music set was
irreparably damaged.
Choose the correct statement:
a) Amit can recover for injury as well as loss of Bluetooth music set.
b) Amit can only recover for the injury caused.
c) Amit cannot recover as he was contributing to the negligence.
Passage – 5

Both as an advocate for women's rights before the Court and then as member of that Court, Justice Ginsberg
consistently asserted that a woman's right to seek an abortion was grounded in the wrong part of the
Constitution. She always maintained that it would have been much better grounded, and therefore better
guaranteed, as an equal protection right instead of as a privacy right. To understand the root of Justice
Ginsberg's fear, one must look back beyond the reproductive freedom cases of the mid-twentieth century to the
earlier discovery by the Supreme Court of a liberty interest in the freedom to contract.

In 1905, the Court decided in Lochner v. New York that a state could not limit the number of days or hours that
bakers worked- even for health reasons. To do so would infringe the individual's freedom to contract their labor.
The Court found this individual liberty interest to be a substantive due process right located in the 14th
Amendment. What evolved into a conservative anti-New Deal Court continued to assert Lochner's progeny to
stave off many of FDR's initiatives until the dice were finally cast against them. Reversing course in 1934, the
Court decided in Nebbia v. New York that the state could indeed regulate a dairy market, followed in 1937 by
West Coast Hotel v. Parrish signaling the end of the Lochner era by disclaiming an unfettered freedom to
contract. But it wasn't until
1955 that Lochner was officially overturned in Williamson v. Lee Optical and the liberty
interest in the freedom to contract was put to rest - 50 years later. Consequently, with respect to discovering new
individual rights in the Constitution that are not locked into specific text, as the Court giveth, so too can the Court
taketh away.

If the fate of Lochner taught anything, it taught that when the Court locates a right in a liberty interest stemming
from substantive due process, it is building a house on theoretical sand. Yet, in 1965 the Court began
construction of a new house upon the rubble of Lochner. In Griswold v. Connecticut, a privacy right was found for
married couples to use contraceptives in their own homes as a liberty interest stemming from substantive due
process. Griswold's progeny ultimately led in 1973 to Roe, where the Court took this privacy right to encompass a
woman's decision to seek an abortion. Perhaps sensing this infirmity, Justice Sandra Day O'Connor in 1992
declined in Planned Parenthood v. Casey to use the word privacy in upholding this right, yet nevertheless
replaced Roe's
strict scrutiny standard with a lower undue burden test on state actions limiting abortions.

Now, nearly 50 years after Roe, if five conservative justices decide in the Mississippi case to aim their arrow not
at the edges of Casey, but to shoot over the heads of all the reproductive rights cases and strike at the heart of
Griswold, the privacy right as a liberty interest will collapse just as the freedom to contract as a liberty interest
collapsed. Roe will be as dead as Lochner and for the same reasons. Justice Ginsberg foresaw this. She argued
that considering a woman's right to seek an abortion as part and parcel of a woman's right to gender equality,
guaranteed by the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, would anchor it in constitutional text in a way
that Griswold and Roe do not.
Q 86. 30554132 What was the idea of justice Ginsberg regarding women's abortion?
a)
Justice Ginsberg felt that women's abortion would have been much better grounded, and therefore better
guaranteed, as an equal protection right instead of as a privacy right.
b)
Justice Ginsburg felt Women's right of abortion should never be included in the constitution and it should
be
maintained under a separate statute.
c)
Justice Ginsburg asserted that Roe V. The Wade judgement was used by American courts as a precedent
in a
negative manner.
d) Justice Ginsburg championed the women's right for total freedom of abortion and menstrual hygiene.
Q 87. 30554132 How did the principle establish in the case of Lochner v. New York waned?
a)
The legal principle of Lochner's case soon became outdated and archaic leading to rejection of the
precedent in a
number of cases.
b)
The Court in Nebbia v. New York and West Coast Hotel v. Parrish reversed the decision of Lochner v.
New York.
c) The court in the Nebbia v. New York reversed the decision of Lochner v. New York.
d) The court went on to overturn the Lochner judgement through a majority bench in the case of Roe v.
Wade.
Q 88. 30554132 What did the court hold in the case of Griswold v. Connecticut?
a)
A privacy right was found for married couples to use contraceptives in their own homes as a liberty
interest
stemming from substantive due process.
b)
Married couples had to register in the state registry before using contraceptives in order to monitor the
health
benefits of contraceptives.
c) A woman's right to gender equality, guaranteed by the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment.
d)
The Court locates a right in a liberty interest stemming from substantive due process, it is building a
house on
theoretical sand.
Q 89. 30554132 What observation has the paragraph made regarding reproductive rights after 50 years of Roe
judgment?
a)
The passage has pointed out that women's reproductive rights have been flying higher than ever after 50
years of
Roe judgement.
b)
The passage points out that the even after 50 years of Roe judgement women's right to abortion is still
much to
be desired and is not satisfiable.
c) The passage discusses the high influence of Roe judgement on the development of abortion laws in
USA.
d)
The passage asserts that the courts have deviated from the point laid down in the case of Roe v. Wade
and have
adulterated the principle.
Q 90. 30554132 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the given passage?
a)
In 1905, the Court decided in Lochner v. New York that a state could not limit the number of days or hours
that
bakers worked- even for health reasons.
b)
Justice Ginsberg was a narrow minded and anti-abortion judge who pronounced judgments overturn
Roe v
Wade.
c)
When the Court locates a right in a liberty interest stemming from substantive due process, it is building
a house
on theoretical sand.
d)
Justice Sandra Day O'Connor in 1992 declined in Planned Parenthood v. Casey to use the word privacy
in
upholding this right, yet nevertheless replaced Roe's strict scrutiny standard with a lower undue burden
test on
state actions limiting abortions.

Passage – 6

In India the Double Jeopardy principle existed prior to the commencement of the Constitution of India. The
principle was already recognized under the provision of the General Clauses Act. And Section 403(1) of (the old)
CrPC,1898(Section 300 of the amended Criminal Procedure Code,1973) provided that a person who has once
been tried by a court of competent jurisdiction for an offence and convicted or acquitted of offence shall, while
such conviction or acquittal remains in force, not to be liable to be tried again for the same offence, nor on the
same facts for any other offence for which a different charge from the one made against him might have been
under sub- section (1) of the section 221 or for sub-section (2) thereof. Further Section 71 of the Indian Penal
Code21 which deals with "limits of punishment of offence made up of several offences? made it clear that where
anything which is an offence is made up of parts is itself an offence, the offender shall not be punished of more
than one of such his offences, unless it be so expressly provided. In the Constitution of India, Article 20 provides
protection in respect of
conviction for offences, and Article 20(2) contains the rule against double jeopardy which
says that "no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same offence more than once."

Further the protection under clause (2) of Article 20 of Constitution of India is narrower than the American and
British laws against Double Jeopardy. Under the American and British constitution, the protection against Double
Jeopardy is given for the second prosecution for the same offence irrespective of whether an accused was
acquitted or convicted in the first trial. But under Article 20(2) the protection against double punishment is given
only when the accused has not only been "prosecuted? but also "punished?, and is sought to be prosecuted a
second time for the same offence. The use of the word "prosecution? thus limits the scope of the protection under
clause (1) of Article 20. If there is no punishment for the offence as a result of the prosecution clause (2) of the
article 20 has no application and an appeal against acquittal, if provided by the procedure is in substance a
continuance of the prosecution. Thus, the most important thing to be noted is that, sub-clause (2) of Article 20
has no application unless there is no punishment for the offence in pursuance of a prosecution. Under the
provisions
of the Indian Constitution, the conditions that have to be satisfied for raising the plea of autrefois
convict are

• Firstly, there must be a person accused of an offence;

• Secondly the proceeding or the prosecution should have taken place before a "court? or "judicial tribunal? in
reference to the law which creates offences; and

• Thirdly, the accused should be convicted in the earlier proceedings.

To operate as a bar under Article 20(2), the second prosecution and the consequential punishment must be for
the same offence, i.e., an offence whose ingredients are the same. One of the important conditions to attract the
provision under clause (2) of Article is that the trial must be conducted by a court of competent jurisdiction. If the
court before which the trial had been conducted does not have jurisdiction to hear the matter, the whole trial is
null and void and it cannot be said that there has been prosecution and punishment for the same offence
Q 91. 30554132 D was a peon in ABD international school. Once, D was caught dealing with Marijuana in the
school premises.
D was immediately fired from his job. Thereafter, a complaint was filed against him for Narcotics
drugs and
psychotropic substances act 1985 and the court awarded him 6 months imprisonment. A contends that
he
is being punished- for a same offense twice. Decide.
a) D is being punished for the same offense twice as he was fired from the job initially.
b)
D cannot be given two different punishments by trying him twice. Either he should be debarred or undergo
imprisonment.
c)
D is not being punished from the same offense twice as him being fired by school cannot be considered
as a
punishment by a justice delivery mechanism.
d)
D is not being punished for the same offense twice as the first time he was fired and the second time he
is being
imprisoned. Two are different aspects.
Q 92. 30554132 B was an accused in a case of theft and was summoned by the district court. During the
proceedings, B
was found to be not guilty and the case was closed. After some time, the plaintiffs are contending
that they
have found fresh evidence on the same case that can prove B's guilt. They want to restart the case. B is
seeking protection against double jeopardy. Decide.
a)
There is double jeopardy as B has already been found innocent and another case cannot be filed on the
same
facts and circumstances.
b)
There is no double jeopardy as previous time when B was being tried the new evidence was not present
and
hence the dynamic of the case changed.
c)
There is no double jeopardy as the Indian courts highlight the need of finding the guilty person and can go
to any
extent to do the same.
d)
There is double jeopardy as the case has been restarted and not filed again freshly. Had the case been
filed
fresh, there would have been no double jeopardy.
Q 93. 30554132 Which of the statements holds true regarding article 20(2) of the constitution according to the
passage?
a) Article 20(2) has no application unless there is no punishment for the offence in pursuance of a prosecution.
b) Article 20(2) plays a key role in protection of individual liberty of the accused.
c) Article 20 of Constitution of India is narrower than the American and British laws against Double Jeopardy
d) All the above.
a)
To operate as a bar under Article 20(2), the second prosecution and the consequential punishment must
be for
the same offence, i.e., an offence whose ingredients are the same.
b) In India the Double Jeopardy principle was existed prior to the commencement of the Constitution of India
c)
Section 71 of the Indian Penal Code21 which deals with "limits of punishment of offence made up of
several
offences.
d)
In the Constitution of India, Article 20 provides protection in respect of double jeopardy in civil offences,
and
Article 20(2) contains the rule against double jeopardy.
Q 95. 30554132 Which of the following is not the condition for raising the plea of the plea of autrefois convict?
a) There must be a person accused of an offence;
b) The accused person should be more than 18 years of age.
c)
The proceeding or the prosecution should have taken place before a "court? or "judicial tribunal? in
reference to
the law which creates offences.
d) The accused should be convicted in the earlier proceedings.

Passage – 7
The Constitution of India provides for judicial review under Articles 32 (Supreme Court) and 226 (High Court).
The Supreme Court has pronounced that judicial review is a fundamental feature of the constitution. The power
of judicial review by courts therefore is not subject to amendment and thus has been effectively taken out of the
field
of Parliament's power to amend or in any way, abridge. The judiciary has declared a "hands-off " command
to the legislature. Judicial review is understood to be the revision of the decree or sentence of an inferior court by
a superior court. Judicial review of executive or legislative actions is controversial, unlike the judicial review of
judicial
actions. The orders passed by lower courts which are either being set aside, revised or modified, are
greater in number than reviews relating to executive orders or legislative actions. However, criticisms of the
judicial review of executive and legislative actions are stronger and more vociferous.

In our constitutional scheme the judiciary alone has been entrusted with the power and duty to test the
constitutional validity of legislative provisions and the validity of administrative actions. The superior courts are
empowered to declare a statute ultra vires the constitution and to nullify an executive action as unconstitutional.
These powers of
judicial review are given not with a view to make the judiciary a supreme body superior to the
other wings of the constitutional framework, but to ensure a system of checks and balances between the
legislature and the executive on one hand, and the judiciary on the other. The mechanism has been devised to
function in such a way that the unconstitutional actions of one of the wings are corrected by the other, and vice
versa. It is not the purpose of judicial review to criticise legislative or executive actions, as the opposition is
expected to fulfil this function in a democratic polity. On the contrary, the judiciary's role is to review executive and
legislative actions and declare
whether those actions conform with the dictates of the Constitution of India.

In the estimation of an ordinary Indian citizen the legislature and the executive have failed miserably in their
cherished duties towards the general public. The executive and the legislators are made accountable for their
actions. Their nearness to the people generates high expectations from the public and attracts sharp criticism
whenever their
actions do not follow the expected lines. The common citizen feels that the administration has
become so apathetic and non-performing that they have no other option except to approach the judiciary to
redress their grievances. It is under this situation that the judiciary has taken an activist approach. Judicial
activism has flourished in India and
acquired enormous legitimacy with the Indian public. However, this activist
approach by the judiciary is bound to create friction and tension with the other organs of the state. Such tension
is natural and to some extent desirable.

In ADM Jabalpur v Shukla (1976) the Supreme Court held that a detainee under preventive detention did not
have the common law right of securing from the courts his release from an illegal and arbitrary preventive
detention order, even if it was passed without the authority of law. The reason given by the court was that the
fundamental rights guaranteed under the constitution were suspended during the emergency.
Q 96. 30554132 How is the judicial review of executive actions different from the judicial review of judicial
actions?
a) The courts do not have Suo-moto cognizance when it comes to the judicial review of executive decisions.
b)
The process that has to be followed for judicial review of judicial action is much simpler than hat for
executive
actions.
c) The judicial review of judicial action is simpler while review of executive actions are controversial.
d) The process of judicial review for both executive actions and judicial decisions are effectively the same.
Q 97. 30554132 How has the passage shown that there can be absolute curtailment to one's freedom
irrespective of the
method of curtailment?
a)
The passage has shown that through judicial review of arbitrary executive decisions there can be curtailment
of
freedom.
b)
The passage has not discussed the curtailment of one's freedom and deals only with the concept of
judicial
review.
c) The passage has discussed the above said idea through the case of ADM Jabalpur v Shukla (1976).
d) The passage has discussed the same idea through the case of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India.
Q 98. 30554132 What has been the underlying idea behind giving the power of judicial review to the courts in
India?
a) The major underlying idea has been to establish absolute power of the courts and to uphold their autonomy.
b)
The major reason behind conferring the power of judicial review is to prevent corrupt practices that take
place
within the executive wing.
c)
The major reason behind conferring the power of judicial review is to ensure a system of checks and
balances
between the legislature and the executive on one hand, and the judiciary on the other
d)
The power of judicial review is given to the judiciary to make sure that justice is attained irrespective of
the
situation and the courts are there to rescue the citizens.
Q 99. 30554132 According to the passage, what is the perception of a common citizen regarding the executive
and their
actions?
a)
The common citizens hold an executive at very high standards and respect him for his ability to work for
the
people.
b)
An ordinary Indian citizen considers that the legislature and the executive have failed miserably in their
cherished
duties towards the general public.
c)
The common citizens are influenced by their political ideologies and praise a particular leader by not
giving
importance to his achievements.
Q 100. 30554132 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above-given passage?
a)
Executive's nearness to the people generates high expectations from the public and attracts sharp
criticism
whenever their actions do not follow the expected lines.
b)
Judicial review is understood to be the revision of the decree or sentence of an inferior court by a superior
court.
c) Criticisms of the judicial review of executive and legislative actions are stronger and more vociferous.
d)
The mechanism of judicial review has been devised to function in such a way that the constitutional
actions of
one of the wings are improved by the other, and vice versa

Passage – 8

The development of the doctrine of Lis pendens in India can be seen when the Supreme court elucidated its
definition in cases Jayaram Mudaliar v. Ayyaswami and Rajender Singh v. Santa Singh. Lis pendens means a
pending suit and the doctrine of Lis pendens has been defined as the jurisdiction, power or control which a Court
acquires over property involved in a suit pending the continuance of the action, and until final judgement therein.

Further through judicial pronouncement made by Indian courts it clarified the basis of the doctrine that India
would follow: Since there are two theories coined by jurists to explain the basis of this doctrine, 'Theory of Notice'
and 'Theory of Necessity' The former theory states that pending litigation will serve as a constructive notice of
dispute being pending on the said land to everyone. Thus, this could be considered as a warning to third parties
against buying the suit property. While other theory 'necessity' says that for proper and fair adjudication it
necessarily restricts the litigants from alienating the property during pending suit so that it doesn't interfere with
the proper
execution of the courts decree.

The significance of this law and clarification on the basis of the doctrine were fully expounded in Bellamy v.
Sabine case where it held: "If parties to dispute aren't prevented from transferring any of the property, then it
would be impossible for any action/suit to be successfully terminated. Thus, foundation for this doctrine doesn't
rest upon
constructive notice; it rests entirely upon necessity, where party to litigation shouldn't alienate the
property so as to affect the opponent.

To elaborate, more on this, the idea of notice is taken because of the public policy role to protect the plaintiff's
right. In absence of this necessity the plaintiff would be consistently defeated by defendants, who would keep
transferring the property prior to the judgement if he thinks the case wouldn't be in his favour, thus as the title
keeps transferring and the plaintiff would have to go to different places and file different suits for claiming the
same possession. This would further harm the concept of res-judicata since lis-pendens is also an extension of
the law of res judicata
Hence to protect petitioner's right the doctrine based on necessity was accepted. The
similar view has been solidified in India for this doctrine i.e. based upon expediency and necessity for final
adjudication in Faiyaz Husain Khan v. Prag Narain.

With India adopting this doctrine to ensure that justice will be well served and that no person's right will be
curbed. However, as we do the analysis of the said doctrine of India, in light of different case laws and judicial
pronouncement made, the doctrine has been modified where limitations have been created and further with
practical implementation of the said doctrine it cannot be said that loopholes or problems can be found.
The problems with regards to this section in India can be seen from a very long time where first before 1929 the
issue regarding the meaning of the phrase 'pendency of suit' was raised. Thus to clarify this position an
amendment was passed in 1929 where an Explanation has been added to said section to explain the word
'pendency' i.e. period of lis-pendens commences from the time suit is filed and continues until the verdict has
been declared.
Q 101. 30554132 How have the ideas presented in the theory of notice is different to the theory of theory of
necessity?
a)
Theory of notice asserts a warning to the third parties while the theory of necessity suggests that it is
necessary
to restrict the litigants from alienating the property.
b)
Theory of notice gives importance to the possibility of a primary litigant's default while the theory of
necessity
undermines the importance of taking direct risks.
c)
Theory of notice mentions the method of passing off the notice of Lis pendens while the theory of necessity
explains the procedure to be followed when no notice is forwarded.
d)
Both the theories suggest the same method of proceeding but the timeline explained in both are different
to each
other.
a) The idea of notice is taken because of the public policy role to protect the plaintiff's right.
b)
Lis pendens means a pending suit and the doctrine of Lis pendens has been defined as the jurisdiction,
power or
control which a Court acquires over property involved in a suit pending the continuance of the
action, and until
final judgement therein.
c)
With India adopting this doctrine to ensure that justice will be well served and that no person's right will be
curbed.
d) The problems of this law and clashes with res judicata were fully expounded in Bellamy v. Sabine
Q 103. 30554132 What is the similarity between the case of Jayaram Mudaliar v. Ayyaswami and Bellamy v.
Sabine?
a) Both the cases gave clarifications regarding the development of the doctrine.
b) The two cases played a primary role in analyzing the relationship between res judicata and Lis pendens.
c) The passage does not answer the relationship between the above mentioned two cases.
d) The case of Jayaram deals with the definition while the Sabine case explains the evolution of the doctrine.
Q 104. 30554132 What was held in the case of Faiyaz Husain Khan v. Prag Narain.?
a)
If parties to dispute aren't prevented from transferring any of the property, then it would be impossible for
any
action/suit to be successfully terminated.
b)
In the absence of the necessity of the idea of notice to be taken as a public policy, the plaintiff would be
consistently defeated by defendants
c)
The former theory states that pending litigation will serve as a constructive notice of dispute being pending
on the
said land to everyone.
Q 105. 30554132 How was the dispute regarding the meaning of the term 'pendency of suit' clarified?
a)
The dispute was settled by a quorum of judges who laid down a number of rules and regulations regarding
the
same.
b) The dispute was resolved by passing an amendment in 1929.
c) The dispute was settled by a bench of 5 judges in the Supreme court of India.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to
you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose
the
option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 1

How many times does the alarm ring in the morning before you finally wake up? A deep slumber is easily
vaporized by the urgency and necessity of the call for action. In India, in the Himalayas tragedy after tragedy has
been serving wakeup calls, but to no avail, and after the immediate disaster management, nothing much seems
to change. In addition to the global warming that has been raising climate risks from the North to South Pole,
scientists all over the world have for decades pointed to the Himalayan mountains being especially unstable
because of the tectonic plate motion here. The government seems too immune to please emanating from
scientific logic and research.

In the plains when you make a construction mistake, you can correct it, even if the correction is expensive. But
after you have cut a mountain, that's it, there is no fixing any error. Using the same development model in both
places means the paths for both rain waters and glacier melt get blocked, buildings come up in river beds,
tunnels are blasted without the safeguards that the environment needs, roads are built without respect for the
scientific surveys of the area, and in general experts are sidelined, their reports ignored by engineers. After the
Kedarnath tragedy of 2013 the Union environment ministry accepted that "deforestation/ tunnelling/ blasting/
reservoir formation" need caution and careful study in the higher Himalayan region. And yet, when Uttarakhand's
Chamoli district saw the Tapovan-Vishnugad and Rishi Ganga hydel projects being extensively damaged, it came
to light that neither caution nor careful study have become a mainstay of the region's policy-making yet. Some of
the devastation the unseasonal rains have wrecked in the state was unpredictable and uncontrollable Nature's
fury. It is the manmade
elements of the disaster that both the central and state governments must heed, and do
course-correction.
Q 106. 30554132 Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?
a)
Although natural disasters are unavoidable, government should exercise extreme caution and ensure
careful
study in hilly areas.
b) Continuing to disrespect the Himalayas' complex hydrology will bring worse disasters upon us.
c)
Deforestation/ tunnelling/ blasting/ reservoir formation should be stopped in hills if one has to preserve
the natural
habitat.
d)
Himalayas and hills are as susceptible to climate change borne out of global warming as North and
South Pole.
Q 107. 30554132 Which of the following can inferred to be the main reason for the development model of the
plains being
unsuitable for the hills?
a) Difference in demography b) Difference in topography
c) Absence of hills and mountains in the plains d) Difference in the movement of tectonic plates
Q 108. 30554132 What is the purpose of the first statement of the passage in context of the environmental
damage in the hills,
as discussed in the passage?
a) To give an appropriate analogy to the situation being described in the passage.
b) To underline the futility of any remedial action as the damage is irrevocable.
c) To underline the apathy of government towards the recurring danger signs.
d) To undermine the development work undertaken at the expense of the nature.
Q 109. 30554132 Which of the following will weaken the assertion of the author in the statement "It is the man-
made elements
of the disaster that both the central and state governments must heed, and do course-
correction"?
a)
The cost of safeguard measures will make all development projects, dearly needed in the hilly areas,
economically unviable.
b)
Nature eventually adapts to any man-made alteration in the topography and no permanent damage has
ever
been established.
c)
A study has shown that none of the disasters in Himalaya and hilly areas of India, can be attributed to
human
activities.
d) All of the above

Q 110. 30554132 In light of the passage, which of the following solutions is the author likely to endorse?

I. Adherence to experts' review and reports

II. Pre Project assessment by international agencies

III. Participative decision making involving all stake holders
the

Passage – 2

Contrary to what critics say, advertising isn't just about creating an audience but also reaching out to a pre-
existing one. True, there is a product to sell and a successful ad lights up the brain parts associated with
pleasure. But all this neuro-planning only works where it identifies what we desire correctly. Indeed, no campaign
manager is
megalomaniac enough to aim for universal appeal. In India there are Hindus who celebrate Eid,
Muslims who celebrate Diwali, and those to whom 'religious' festivals are ho-hum. So, what's to be done when I
love an ad and you hate it?

It's hardly a new problem. In 1995 for example a case was registered against models Milind Soman and Madhu
Sapre, after they appeared to be naked except for shoes, in a shoe ad. When they were finally acquitted in 2009,
the judge said, "What may be obscene for a group of society may not be obscene for another group." Protesting
peacefully, boycotting, suing … our republic gives us plentiful recourse for hurt sentiments. But threats and acts
of
violence completely disable all tools for debating disagreements. The importance of the state's guarantee that
everyone shall be equally protected from violence, cannot be overstated. On this trust both our democracy and
businesses stand.

It would be a great folly to see current toxicities in terms of just an ad here or an OTT drama there. If creatives
start self-censoring, we might see a choking in the arts first. And policing each other's food, dress, marriage,
work, creative preferences etc will ultimately diminish us all. Scared businesses don't grow into global brands and
mutually suspicious citizens don't cohere into a strong country. There is principle in the call for tolerance. But it's
also Indians' most pragmatic choice.
Q 111. 30554132 Which of the following will the author agree with?

I. Debate, don't hate.

II. Art is seldom liked by all.

III. Vigilantes don't understand Art.
Q 112. 30554132 As per the passage, which of the following can inferred to be the most important aspect of
creating a
successful advertisement?
a) Understanding the neuro process to identify the pleasure points.
b) To not fall in the trap of creating an ad with universal appeal.

c) To be very clear about the target segment and their traits.
d) To correctly identify the desire of the audience group.
Q 113. 30554132 In the statement "In India there are Hindus who celebrate Eid, Muslims who celebrate Diwali,
and those to whom 'religious' festivals are ho-hum", what is the author trying to convey?

I. Ours is a vast and a multicultural country which complicates the process of ad creation.

II. In our country, some apparently contradictory desires coexist.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
Q 114. 30554132 As per the passage, which of the following is the main reason for the author's urge to the
Indians in the
statement "But it's also Indians' most pragmatic choice"?
a) If this pragmatic choice is not made then arts will indulge in self censor.
b) If this pragmatic choice is not made then economic recession can result.
c) If this pragmatic choice is not made then autocracy will strike roots.
d) If this pragmatic choice is not made then democracy will be weakened.
Q 115. 30554132 It can be concluded that, in the following statement, "It would be a great folly to see current
toxicities in terms
of just an ad here or an OTT drama there", author is warning that the issue of toxic intolerance
shouldn't be:
a) Censored b) Generalised c) Sensationalised d) Trivialized
the

Passage – 3

In the circum carnival of UP election, comes the first major showmanship act although from a side show
performer. Congress's promise of 40% tickets to women in UP polls may seem akin to TMC and BJD's decisions
in earlier elections to field substantial number of women candidates. But the difference in this case is that
Congress is a distant fourth-runner in UP, beyond the category of also ran, with no mentionable political presence
in the state,
therefore it has little to lose by making this splashy move. The real question is whether it can commit
to the same thing in the Lok Sabha or in other states where it is in the fight. Women's voting turnout has trended
upwards. Some CMs who invested in schemes for women have been electorally rewarded. Political parties must
pay heed to this.

But women don't need empowerment by others, they need power. While panchayats across the country reserve a
third or even half of seats for women, the biggest panchayat of the country, the Lok Sabha has shamefully and
obnoxiously stalled the women's reservation bill which was passed a decade ago by its counterpart, the Rajya
Sabha. All major political parties have lakhs and lakhs of women members but they give barely a tenth of their
tickets, in elections, to women candidates. About 10 lakh women are elected to local bodies every five years, but
their careers remain confined at that level. Very few manage to graduate to state legislative bodies or further up.

Empirical studies show that women panchayat leaders prioritise health, education and sanitation, and that after
seeing women in authority, prejudices lessen. EC data shows that women are no less winnable than men if their
party is viable. If women are chosen for family and community reasons, so are men. At least now, if parties are
rhetorically competing with each other over women candidates, we can hold them to their promises.
Q 116. 30554132 Author believes that the above discussed issue of women's participation in politics and
legislative bodies:
a) b)
Is a narrative which is way beyond percentages now. Is a litmus test of electoral promises by the
government.
c) Is only about women's representation in Parliament. d)
Is a democratic gangrene which needs to be treated.
Q 117. 30554132 "But the difference is that Congress is a fourth-runner in UP, ….it has little to lose by making
this splashy
move." It can be inferred from the statement that this declaration by Congress is:
a) An attempt to improve the electoral prospects. b) An endeavour in gender parity and women justice.
c) An effort to make waves and create news. d)

A last-ditch attempt to stay electorally relevant in UP.
Q 118. 30554132 It can be concluded that some of the objections to fielding women candidates is:

I. Elected women candidates pursue personal, prejudiced agenda, ignoring party diktats

II. Women candidates are largely selected for family and community reasons

III. Probability of the victory of a woman candidate is traditionally lower than that of a male
Q 119. 30554132 What is the author's assumption in cajoling political parties through the following statement
"Some CMs
who invested in schemes for women have been electorally rewarded"?
a) b) Electoral rewards motivate the political parties.

Political parties assesses and analyses past c)
successes. Political parties will instruct their CMs to launch
schemes.
d) Electoral rewards lead to beneficial schemes.
Q 120. 30554132 Which of the following would be a correct representation of the idea in the statement "But
women don't need
empowerment by others, they need power"? Which of the following, if done, will be tantamount
to giving
power to women, as per the given passage?
a) Women politicians being treated at par to their male counterparts in all the spheres of politics.
b) Women being given monetary incentives to study Political Science in college and pursue a career in
politics.
c) Reservation for women in government bureaucracy for higher posts like undersecretary and above.
d) All of the above
the

Passage – 4

The Supreme Court took Suo motu notice of Uttar Pradesh's Lakhimpur Kheri case when the state failed to make
any arrests even three days after the grisly violence there, and speculation mounted as videos made their way to
the social media. Since then, SC has had to continue to prod the UP government to do its job properly, repeatedly
voicing such concerns as whether the state is "not investigating properly", "dragging its feet", "going soft" on the
accused, all of which together suggest an attempt to turn the investigation into "an unending story". Among the
probing questions the court asked, the critical one was why the statements of only 4 out of 44 witnesses so far
have been recorded before a judicial magistrate under CrPC Section 164.

India's abysmal conviction rate under criminal laws owes a lot to such intentional/unintentional negligence in the
early stages of any case. Because of the extra evidentiary value of witness statements under Section 164, they
help minimise the incidence of witnesses turning hostile later. As SC underlined, this is also linked to recognising
"the most vulnerable witnesses" and providing them witness protection to prevent them from being browbeaten.

The courtroom exchange on the "bifurcation" of the case between the running over of farmers and the ensuing
lynching, also suggested confidence in the state investigating the latter fairly but not the former. Yogi Adityanath's
government must recognise that its actions over this case are under very close scrutiny by the public and SC.
Political risks of continuing obduracy are also high as anger about what happened at Lakhimpur Kheri spreads
among farmers in western UP and the adjoining Terai belt. UP police must make up for past lapses with a timely
and sound chargesheet. Remember what the court told the state at the start: "You have to act to inspire
confidence."
Q 121. 30554132 Which of the following can definitely be concluded from the passage?

I. UP Police is suffering from 4 out of 44 syndromes.

II. SC has to school UP on the Lakhimpur probe.

III. UP State police is failing at essentials of this probe
Q 122. 30554132 Which of the following is not an assumption made by the Court in the statement "You have to
act to inspire
confidence"?
a) Actions by the State will inspire confidence. b) State must earn more confidence of the people.
c) Inspiring confidence is incumbent on the State. d) State does not have the confidence of the people.
Q 123. 30554132 Which of the following can be inferred from the first statement of the passage?
a) In any criminal investigation, three days is enough for the arrests to be made by the police.
b)
It is constitutionally permissible for the Supreme Court to intervene in an ongoing police investigation,
and issue
instruction or injunction.
c) Police has the responsibility to ensure that video of the purported crime is not shared on social media.
d)
State government must be transparent and fair in its management of the investigation to curb all
unnecessary
speculation.
Q 124. 30554132 Which of the following, if true, will not strengthen author's idea as expressed in the passage?
a) Witness has the complete right and authority to change his statement as many times as he or she
wants.
b)
A very small percentage of accused who are prosecuted under criminal charges are finally convicted
and
incarcerated.
c)
Witness statement unless recorded in front of a judicial magistrate has very little worth as evidence in
the court of
law.
d)
Threatening or intimidating a witness in a criminal case is rare because it's a penal crime and this serves
as a
strong deterrent.
Q 125. 30554132 Author has suggested that the UP government/police is guilty of all of the following except:
a) Intransigence in their stance b) Bias in their conduct
c) Conciliatory in their behaviour d) Negligence in their approach
the

Passage – 5

In what was India's second official-level contact with Taliban after it returned to power in Afghanistan, the Islamist
group revealed that New Delhi had offered to provide extensive humanitarian assistance. While the Indian side is
yet to confirm this, humanitarian assistance for ordinary Afghan citizens isn't a bad idea. After all, the situation in
Afghanistan is dire today with supplies of essentials running low. The country's economy is in a mess with its
foreign reserves frozen by the US and IMF. In fact, Afghan civil servants and medics have not been paid in
months, and the WHO last month said that 90% of its 2,300 health clinics across Afghanistan risked shutting
down.

Sending aid to Afghanistan is complicated by the fact that Taliban's interim government is yet to be internationally
recognised and comprises members who are proscribed as terrorists. But Afghan citizens shouldn't be made to
suffer because their previously elected government fled. Plus, if the humanitarian crisis exacerbates, the fallout
will be on neighbouring countries who will not only have to deal with a further exodus of Afghan refugees, but
also a worsening security situation in Afghanistan.

True, totally bypassing Taliban in aid delivery may not be possible. But the aim ought to be to encourage the
group to reform, respect human rights and become inclusive. Plus, India needs to aggressively cultivate strategic
options in Afghanistan to blunt the impact on Kashmir, which is witnessing a new phase of terrorism. Thus, a two-
track approach where ordinary Afghans are helped and Taliban incentivised is the best way forward. In this
regard, India would do well to restart normal processing of medical and student visas for Afghans. This will help
preserve the huge goodwill India enjoys in that country, even as it works out a new equation with Taliban.
Q 126. 30554132 Which of the following will the author definitely agree with?
a) Aiding Afghanistan in this crisis has to be the top most priority of all nations on earth.
b) Afghanistan should be provided help from India on humanitarian and strategic grounds.
c) India being the regional leader must provide succour to ordinary Afghans across the world.
d) Taliban needs to be dealt with an iron hand lest it runs loose with its extremist agenda.
Q 127. 30554132 Which of the following steps from India as a response to the escalating humanitarian crisis in
Afghanistan,will strengthen the idea of the passage?

I. Providing aid which is conditional to reformative and strategic actions of Taliban.

II. Use the humanitarian crisis to form a strategic military alliance against the Taliban.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
Q 128. 30554132 It can be concluded from the passage that helping Afghanistan at this stage will help India
acquire:
a) Goodwill amongst the common Afghans.
b) A talented bunch of Afghanis students and professionals.
c) Opportunity to provide its premium medical and education services.
d) An important global strategic ally in the Taliban government.
Q 129. 30554132 It can be inferred that the present Afghan crisis:
a) b) Can be mitigated by humanitarian aid and support.

Could have been avoided by preemptive action of c)
WHO. Will implode into a full-fledged regional conflagration.
d)
Must be resolved with US and UN de-freezing funds.
Q 130. 30554132 Which of the following, if true, will most weaken the idea of the passage?
a)
India had similar arrangement with the Taliban government earlier where in exchange of Indian aid, Taliban
stayed away from Kashmir issue.
b)
The previous Taliban government had reneged on its promises made to other countries after receiving
aid from
them.
c)
In the present Taliban government, many of the members have been participants of the resistance
movement in
Kashmir.
d)
Indian government has been one of the strongest supporters of the previous Afghanistan government,
which was
deposed by the Taliban.
the

Passage – 6

Foreign minister S Jaishankar's visit to Israel could pitchfork India into the high-stakes strategic realm of the
Middle East with a proposed new Quad grouping of the US, Israel, India and UAE. The Abraham Accords that
saw the Donald Trump administration facilitate normalisation of relations between Israel and the Arab states of
UAE, Bahrain,
Morocco and Sudan have led to a significant realignment of strategic interests in the region. And
with India having separately cultivated close strategic-security ties with Israel and the Gulf Arab nations, the new
Israeli-Arab compact creates unprecedented space for New Delhi.

Benefits of this second Quad can be immense. First, it ties India into another alliance with the US, which is
imperative to counter China's belligerence. Second, India already has a lot of soft power in the Middle East
combined with a huge Indian diaspora of nearly 8 million. However, hitherto it was reluctant to officially join
alliances given
regional political complexities. But with the US reorienting its focus to the Indo-Pacific and
powerful Arab states viewing Israel in a new light, the time is right for India to step up. In fact, the Middle East is
already an important foreign market for Indian exporters, which can grow further given the region's youth-
dominated demography. And
with Israel's high-tech economy and the Gulf Arab nations' bid to diversify away
from oil, there is much that can be done in Big Data, AI, quantum computing and other technologies of the future.

Of course, India still needs Iran to protect its interests in Taliban's Afghanistan. Besides, the last thing India would
want is to be sucked into a wider sectarian conflict in the region. There's also the risk of the Israeli-Arab compact
coming undone down the road. Therefore, Indian diplomacy is going to be tested here like never before. It must
grow up and be nimble if it wants to successfully navigate the Middle East's tricky roads while reaping the
rewards
of a new alliance.
Q 131. 30554132 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Middle East can become a Second Quad for India. b) Exciting opportunities await India in Middle East.
c) There are subtle risks for India in Middle East. d)

India needs to move fast and forcefully in Middle East.
Q 132. 30554132 Which of the following can be concluded to be the prompting that encouraged India to
overcome its traditional
reluctance to officially join regional alliances?
a) Israel's pact with USA and UAE. b) USA concentrating on the region.
c) Countering China's belligerence. d) Soft power of Indian Diaspora.
Q 133. 30554132 Which of the following can be inferred (in context of the passage) from the statement "Of
course, India still
needs Iran to protect its interests in Taliban's Afghanistan"?
a) Iran is inimical to India's interests in Afghanistan. b) Iran will protect India from Taliban's Afghanistan.
c) Iran is not in favour of India's tie up with Israel. d)

Iran has business and commerce interests in
Afghanistan.
Q 134. 30554132 Which of the following would best describe the diplomatic path advocated by the author for
India, in the
Middle East?
a) Strategic alignment with different groups. b) Pitch your tent with the strongest bloc.
c) Follow the lead of USA. d) Be friends with all, but align with none.
Q 135. 30554132 Which of the following is an assumption made by the author in the statements "In fact, the
Middle East is
already an important foreign market for Indian exporters, which can grow further given the region's
youthdominated
demography. And with Israel's high-tech economy and the Gulf Arab nations' bid to diversify
away
from oil, there is much that can be done in Big Data, AI, quantum computing and other technologies of the
future"?
a) b)
Economic alignments supersede political complexities. Economic interests influence international agreements.
c) Economic constraints dictate international relations. d) Economic requirements decide global alignments.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The table given below shows the speeds (in km/hr) of six different modes of transport. The questions are based
on the information given in the table.

Q 136. 30554132 Mr. Shah travels a distance of 375 km by train, 60 km by car and 15 km on foot. What is the
average speed
of the journey?
a) 35 km/hr b) 45 km/hr c) 40 km/hr d) 50 km/hr

Q 137. 30554132 Sam and Tim are brothers. Sam starts from home at 7:00 AM by cycle and Tim starts from
home at 9:30 AM
by car along the same road. At what time will Tim overtake Sam?
a) 10:25 AM b) 10:45 AM c) 10:30 AM d) 10:20 AM


Q 138. 30554132 Rahul travelled 1200 km to reach a holiday destination. If the ratio of the distances travelled by
flight, train
and bus is 20 : 3 : 1 respectively, then what was the duration of his journey?
a) 6 hours b) 4.5 hours c) 5 hours d) 5.5 hours


Q 139. 30554132 The driver of the a train spots a moving bus 750 m ahead of him in the same direction on a
road parallel to
the railway track. If the length of the train is 250 m, then in how much time will the train completely
overtake
the bus (assume that the length of the bus is negligible in comparison to the train)?
a) 122 minutes b) 144 seconds c) 64 seconds d) 128 seconds

Q 140. 30554132 Nita travelled from home to a hilltop temple partly by car and partly on foot. If the number of
hours taken by
each mode of transport was an integer and was equal, then which of these cannot be the distance
from her
home to the temple?
a) 245 km b) 175 km c) 105 km d) 135 km

The bar graph given below shows the mark-up percentage for five products – A, B, C, D and E – sold by a retailer
and the percentage discount offered by him on each product.

Q 141. 30554132 If the marked price of Product A is Rs.2,600, then what is the percentage profit earned by the
retailer?
a) 20% b) 10% c) 17% d) 12%

Q 142. 30554132 If the cost price of Product E and Product B are in the ratio 5 : 6 and the profit earned from
Product E is
Rs.115, then what is the profit earned from Product B?
a) Rs.200 b) Rs.240 c) Rs.310 d) Rs.210


Q 143. 30554132 If the selling price of Product C is Rs.2,750, then what is the difference between the marked
price and the
cost price of Product C?
a) Rs.525 b) Rs.625 c) Rs.500 d) Rs.650


Q 144. 30554132 If the profit earned from Product D is Rs.320, then what is the marked price of Product D?
a) Rs.2,560 b) Rs.3,120 c) Rs.2,400 d) Rs.1,600


Q 145. 30554132 If the cost price of A, B, C and D is equal, then what is the total percentage profit earned from
the sales of
these four products?
a) 12.25% b) 16.75% c) 18.75% d) 15.25%

There are 350 employees in a company where the ratio of male employees to female employees is 4 : 3
respectively. All these employees fall under three categories – Grade A, Grade B and Grade C. 15% of males are
Grade A employees whereas the number of male Grade C employees is 20 more than the number of Grade A
male employees. The total number of female employees is equally divided among the three grades.
Q 146. 30554132 What is the ratio of the total number of Grade A and Grade B employees?
a) 6 : 17 b) 17 : 15 c) 8 : 17 d) 13 : 17
Q 147. 30554132 The company works in 3 shifts - morning, evening and night. If only 65% of males prefer night
shift and all
the remaining employees are divided in the ratio 6 : 5 among the morning and evening shifts, then
what is
the difference between the number of employees working in the morning and night shifts?
a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 15
Q 148. 30554132 If on an average each Grade A, B and C employee respectively earns Rs.600, Rs.500 and
Rs.400 per day,
then what is the total salary disbursed for all employees during the month of November?
a) Rs.51.9 lakh b) Rs.47.5 lakh c) Rs.62.3 lakh d) Rs.38.2 lakh
Q 149. 30554132 If on an average each Grade A and C employee respectively earns Rs.600 and Rs.400 per
day and they get
increments of 10% and 30% respectively, then what is the ratio of the total salaries of all Grade
A and Grade
C employees respectively?
a) 66 : 67 b) 66 : 65 c) 65 : 71 d) 64 : 73
Q 150. 30554132 All Grade C employees together can complete a job in 10 days by working for 8 hours a day. If
Grade A
employees are 25% more efficient than Grade C employees, then how many days will all the Grade A
employees take to complete the job by working 10 hours a day?
a) 10 days b) 12 days c) 6 days d) 8 days

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a) Simple reluctance to take the second dose. b) Concerns related to side-effects.

c) Delusion that the first dose is adequate. d) Phobia about side-effects.

Q 3. 30554132 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given passage?

a) Process b) Hegemony c) Jurisdiction d) Domination

a) Newspaper Columnist b) c) Journalist d) Entomologist

d) All of the above

a) Benevolent b) Disingenuous c) Welcoming d) Sedate

Q 10. 30554132 The author would describe the whole scenario as:

a) Circus b) Spectacular c) Thrilling d) Eerie

a) Skirmishes have continued at various places along the LAC

b) China is legalizing and formalising its unilateral border action

d) Past understandings are not being adhered to by China

b) To identify the nature and scope of responsibility of all agencies

c) To identify the nature and scope of military involvement in disputes

a) There were verbal agreements in place which both sides respected

d) There does not exist any scope of compromise or discussion

I. It will not affect past agreements

II. It will not have a bearing on India-China dispute

a) These are the four richest states in the country

c) Highest number of rural workers are in these four states

d) Due to pandemic, rural workers are completely dependent on the scheme

a) Insurance against crop failure b) scheme that alleviates distress

Q 20. 30554132 Which of the statements is definitely true as per the passage?

d) All of the above

a) To request the revolutionaries and protestors to stop violence

d) All of the above

a) Toppling democratically elected government b)

c) systematically torturing political prisoners d) Breach of commitments made to ASEAN

Q 23. 30554132 Which of the following is true about NLD?

d) It claims to be the true custodian of the democratic authority of Myanmar

a) Internal strife b) National emergency c) Military repression d) Sectarian conflict

a) Irony, old yet new b) Contrast, known yet unknown

c) Dilemma, Pleasant yet unpleasant d) Conundrum, tinged with a feeling of déjà vu

a) Computer drafted documents appear flawless as compared to typewritten documents

b) Computer drafted documents allow possibility of editing

c) Gabriel Marquez doesn't have a good handwriting

d) Being a perfectionist makes him a faster writer

Q 29. 30554132 The tone of the passage is:

a) Conversational b) Pedantic c) Anecdotal d) Nostalgic

Q 30. 30554132 Which of the following is true about Janardhan's students?

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) 15 b) 16 c) 20 d) 25

a) China b) Japan c) Laos d) Vietnam

a) RCEP covers a market of 30% of the world's population.

b) RCEP covers a market of 30% of global GDP.

d) None of the above

a) Ragnar Sohlman b) Rudolf Lilljequist c) Giorgio Parisi d) Erik Lindberg

a) Andrea Ghez b) Marie Curie c) Maria Goeppert Mayer d) Donna Strickland

a) X-rays b) Radio waves c) Gama rays d) Beta rays

c) Nobel Prizes were first awarded in 1906.

a) 36 b) 47 c) 54 d) 69

a) South Korea b) Taiwan c) UK d) Israel

a) b) c) d)

a) Freedom of association and assembly b) Women's rights

c) LGBT rights d) All of the above

a) 1.5°C b) 2.5°C c) 3.0°C d) 4.0°C

a) Richa Sharma b) Alok Sharma c) Johnson Boris d) Joe Biden

a) $106 billion b) $306 billion c) $506 billion d) $206 billion

a) The Balfour Declaration b) The Jerusalem Declaration

c) The London Declaration d) The Palestine Independent Declaration

a) Syrian Golan Heights b) Gaza Strip c) d) All of the above

c) The authorization of military action through Security Council resolutions.