2021-Buku Standar English Test Preparation 2021-Lbipu Ums

Standardized
English
TEST PREPARATION
Compiled and Written by:

Yanuar Ihtiyarso
Fitri Endah Pratiwi
Alwiyah
Reviewer and Editor:

M. Thoyibi
Dwi Haryanti
LPIDB UMS
This book is a compilation completed with explanatory answers of
listening comprehension, structure, and reading comprehension. The
materials are taken from some different sources to illustrate the variety
of the existing standardized tests. It aims at helping the students prepare
themselves for the standardized test. The items presented in the book
include listening comprehension, structure and written expressions,
reading comprehension, and to some extent vocabulary.
The book consists of four parts, namely: TOEP Review with
explanatory answers consisting of Listening Comprehension, Grammar,
and reading Comprehension. Practice Test I, Practice Test II, and
Practice Test III. The first part of the book differs slightly from the
other three in that it resembles the structure of a real standardized test.
In order to make the best use of the book, it is necessary for you
to learn all the discussion and to exercise yourself in both the language
skills and aspects. In listening comprehension, you need to be familiar
with the context of how a conversation takes place in English so that you
understand its meaning. In reading comprehension, you need to be
familiar with various functional texts so that you understand the
underlying message. In structure and written expressions, you need to be
familiar with the grammatical principles so that you can identify which
part of a sentence needs correction.
Do not hesitate to discuss with your teachers how to deal with the
items in the book. One thing that you need to keep in mind is that
practice is the only way of improving your test score.
Standardized English Test Preparation

PREFACE ................................................................................... iii
TABLE OF CONTENT .............................................................. iv
TEST OF ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (TOEP) .......................... v
TOEP REVIEW .......................................................................... 1

SECTION 1 LISTENING COMPREHENSION .................... 1
SECTION 2 GRAMMAR SECTION .................................... 49
SECTION 3 READING COMPREHENSION ...................... 89
PRACTICE TEST 1 .................................................................... 107

PRACTICE TEST 2 .................................................................... 126
PRACTICE TEST 3 .................................................................... 142
PRACTICE TEST 4 .................................................................... 155
TRY OUT 1 ................................................................................ 167

SECTION 2 STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION 185
TRY OUT 2 ................................................................................ 209

SECTION 2 STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION 225
REFERENCE .............................................................................. 254
LPIDB UMS
Test of English Proficiency (TOEP) questions are based on real-life
work settings in an international environment (meetings, travel,
telephone conversations, and the like).
The test takes 2 hours and has three sections:
1. Listening Comprehension : 100 questions
3. Structure and Written Expression : 60 questions
2. Reading Comprehension : 40 questions
The three elements of TOEP are broken down into the following.
Structure and Reading

Listening
Written Comprehension
Comprehension
Expression
Part 1 : Photos 20 Part 5 : Incomplete Part 7 : Reading
questions sentences: 40 comprehension: 40
questions questions
Part 2 : Question – Part 6 : Error

Response: 30 recognition: 20
questions questions
Part 3 : Short
conversation: 30
questions
Part 4 : Short talks:

20 questions

The TOEP gives a score between 10 and 990:
SCORE EXPLANATION
905 – 990 International Proficiency
785 – 900 Working Proficiency Plus
605 – 780 Limited Working Proficiency
405 – 600 Elementary Proficiency Plus
255 – 400 Elementary Proficiency
185 – 250 Memorized Proficiency
10 – 180 No Useful Proficiency
Source: http://www.examenglish.com/TOIEC/index.php5
Twenty TOEP Tips
1. Set a goal
The first thing you should do is set a goal. If you are taking the test in
order to apply for a job, find out what proficiency level is required.
Most entry level positions require a minimum score of 600.
Management positions may require a higher score, such as 800. Choose
a goal that is achievable. If you aim too high, you will be disappointed.
2. Understand the Test

Before you start studying for the test, make sure you understand the
format of each section. You will be tested on your listening and reading
comprehension skills. By doing model or practice tests, you will become
very familiar with the TOEP. The test should become ―second nature‖ to
you before you attempt the real thing.
3. Make a Study Plan

Procrastination is one of the key reasons students fail the TOEP test.
You may book your TOEP test months in advance. However, the day
LPIDB UMS
you decide to take the TOEP test should be the day you start to study.
You will have to decide whether or not you are going to teach yourself
the TOEP with reliable resources or whether you are going to take a
TOEP preparation class. In order to get the best results, you should do
both. If you cannot afford to take a TOEP class, make sure to choose a
TOEP textbook that has explanatory answers. You will also want to
have a teacher or tutor that you can go to from time to time with
questions. If you choose a TOEP class, make sure that you trust your
teacher and feel comfortable in his or her class. Take a class with a
friend and make a commitment to study together in and outside of class.
Studying at the same time every day is a great way to improve your
score. Write down your study plan and sign it!
4. Divide Study Time Appropriately

The TOEP is divided into seven sections. Each section is worth a certain
amount of points. Don‘t spend too much time studying one section.
Many students make the mistake of studying the section that they enjoy
the most. This is the section you should spend the least amount of time
on. You might want to divide your study week by focusing on a certain
section each day. Remember, if Sunday is your day to practice Part VII
(40 questions on the test), you might have to study twice as long as you
would on Monday when you focus on Part I (20 questions on the test).
5. Build a Strong Vocabulary

Another reason students fail the TOEP test is that they have a very
limited vocabulary. The day you decide to take the TOEP test you
should make yourself a blank dictionary. Use a notebook (an address
book works great because it is divided into letters) and keep track of all
of the new words you learn along the way. It is not useful to study
vocabulary lists. You will only remember words that you have seen in

context. For each entry, write the word and use it in a sentence. At the
end of each week you should write a short letter or composition using as
many of the words as you can. This might also be the time to stop using
your translation dictionary. Electric dictionaries make things too simple!
You will not remember the word if it doesn‘t take any effort to
understand it.
Keep in mind that the TOEP test has a business theme. You should
study vocabulary from topics such as travel, banking, health,
restaurants, offices, etc. You will also want to learn everyday
idiomatic expressions.
6. Isolate Your Weak Points

After you have been studying the TOEP for a while, you will find out
which parts give you the most trouble. You might want to change how
you divide your time. There are certain grammar points that many
students have trouble with. If you are taking a TOEP class, ask your
teacher to bring in extra homework help on problems like these. If you
are studying by yourself, find a good reference book in the library and
look up your question. There may also be help on the Internet. For
example, type ―gerunds‖ into a search engine and you will probably find
a useful exercise.
7. Eliminate Distracters
In every TOEP question, there are at least two distracters (wrong
answers that the test writer uses to trick you). It is much easier to choose
the correct answer when you have only two to choose from. (The third
choice is often impossible and easy to spot.) There are many types of
distracters such as, similar sounds, homonyms, repeated words, etc. As
you study, make yourself a list of distracters. When you come across
them you will be able to eliminate them more easily.
LPIDB UMS
8. Trust Your Instincts
Sometimes an answer will jump out at you as either correct or incorrect.
If you have been studying hard, chances are that your brain is telling
you which choice to pick. Don‘t change your answers after following
your instinct. If you do decide to change an answer, make sure that you
erase very carefully. A machine will be marking your test. Be sure to
use a pencil and fill in your circle choice completely. Bring extra
pencils, erasers, and a pencil sharpener!
9. Don’t Try to Translate

Translating vocabulary and sentences wastes a lot of time. It is very rare
that students have extra time during the TOEP test. If you don‘t know a
word, look at the context of the sentence and the
words around it. You will not be allowed to use a dictionary when you
take the test.
10. Guess as a Last Resort

On test day, if you don‘t know the answer, and you have eliminated all
of the distracters you can, don‘t leave the space blank. There is a good
chance you will not have time to go back to this question. You still have
a 25% chance of getting the answer right if you guess. If you are sure
that one or two of the answers are incorrect, your guess is even more
likely to be correct!
11. Be Aware of Time Management

When you are doing practice tests, you should always be aware of the
time. Never allow yourself an open ended study session. You will have
to learn to work efficiently. On test day, you should be especially
careful in the Reading section. You will have 75 minutes to complete
Parts V, VI and VII. Many students spend too long on section V or VI

because they find these the most difficult. Don‘t spend more than 30
minutes on the first two parts. Part VII will take you at least 40 minutes,
and it is worth a lot of points, especially if you find it an easier section.
12. Listen Quickly

When you are studying for the TOEP test, do not get in the habit of
rewinding the tape. On test day you won‘t have any control over the
speed of the listening section. You will not even have time to think for
very long between questions. Make sure that you do not get behind
during the real test. If you do not know the answer, take your best guess.
Then continue to follow along. Don‘t look back at questions when you
are waiting for another question to start.
13. Practice Reading Aloud

Reading out loud will help your listening and reading comprehension
skills. In order to comprehend English more quickly, it is important that
you understand the rhythm of the language. Read from textbooks,
pamphlets, newspapers, and even children‘s novels. You might want to
tape yourself and listen to how you sound.
14. Use Mass Media

One of the best ways to prepare for the TOEP test is to study real
English. Watch television, listen to radio reports, and read newspapers
and magazines. Pay special attention to ads, letters, weather and traffic
reports, coupons, and special announcements. Do this with a friend, and
write out questions for each other to answer. This is a great way to
practice your wh-questions. It is also a great way to learn common
idiomatic expressions.
LPIDB UMS
15. Use Free Web Sites
There are many web sites that offer free model tests and samples. Type
TOEP into your search engine and start practicing. Surfing the web is a
great way to practice your reading and listening. If you are interested in
a certain topic, such as snowboarding, type that into a search engine.
You might want to reserve an hour a day for Internet studying. Just
make sure to study English and don‘t get caught wasting hours playing
games!
16. Teach a Native English Speaker Your Language

If you can‘t afford a tutor, you might know a native English speaker
who would be interested in learning your first language. Tell him you
will teach him for free for one hour a week. You will
have to use English to teach him, and you will learn many new English
words and expressions at each session. Forcing yourself to teach
someone a language will help you to understand English grammatical
rules as well. Do anything you can to speak with native English
speakers.
17. Keep an English Journal

Keeping a journal doesn‘t have to be an account of your daily activities.
You can write anything in a journal, such as how your studying is
coming along, what your new favorite word is and why, or which
teacher you admire. If you are studying TOEP with a friend, make a list
of writing topics for each other. You might decide to write a paragraph
three times a week. Get your friend to try to find your mistakes. Finding
your partner‘s writing errors is great practice for Part V and VI.

18. Ask Questions
Never hesitate to ask lots of questions. In a TOEP class, all of the
students will benefit from your question. If you don‘t understand
something, such as conditionals, you may lose ten points on a TOEP
exam. A teacher is not always available, but students are everywhere!
Sometimes other students can help you with a grammar problem even
better than a teacher.
19. Manage Your Stress

If you are feeling stressed about taking the TOEP you may be studying
too hard or expecting too much of yourself. Like everything else in life,
balance is the key. Remind yourself that you will try to do your best.
Before the test, take deep breaths and remember that you can always
improve your score in a few months time. In between the listening and
reading section, take a few deep breaths again to get focused.
20. Don’t Cram

You should never cram (study extremely hard in a short period of time)
the night or even week before the TOEP test. There is so much to learn
when you study the TOEP. The last week should be for reviewing and
practicing rather than learning new things. Make sure to get plenty of
sleep the night before the test. On the day of the test, have a good meal
and relax for a few hours before going to the testing centre. Plan to
reward yourself when the test is over.
Source: http://www.englishclub.com/esl-exams/ets-toeic-tips.htm
LPIDB UMS
1. Deskripsi umum
Listening Comprehension adalah bagian pertama Tes TOEP.
Bagian ini menguji kompetensi dalam mendengarkan ujaran
berbahasa Inggris. Cakupan materi yang diujikan dalam bagian ini
berisi beragam ekspresi lisan yang muncul dalam dunia kerja,
lingkungan sosial, pendidikan dan lain-lain dengan beragam aksen
Bahasa Inggris, misalnya aksen Amerika, British, Australia dan
aksen yang lainnya. Listening Comprehension section berbentuk tes
obyektif pilihan ganda 4 pilihan jawaban dengan 1 jawaban benar.
Secara umum, Listening Comprehension Section terbagi dalam 4
bagian berikut ini.
a. Picture : 20 butir pertanyaan
b. Q&A : 30 butir pertanyaan
c. Short Dialog : 30 butir pertanyaan
d. Simple Monolog : 20 butir pertanyaan
2. Tantangan dalam Listening Comprehension

Listening Comprehension menjadi salah satu bagian penting
dan sekaligus menantang dalam bahasa Inggris bagi mahasiswa
yang mengambil Test of English Proficiency (TOEP). Hal ini
disebabkan oleh beberapa faktor diantaranya:
i. Penutur di klip audio TOEP Listening memiliki aksen bahasa
Inggris yang bervariasi
- Amerika, Inggris, Kanada, Australia, dll.
ii. Mahasiswa harus mendengarkan penutur bahasa Inggris
berbicara dengan kecepatan alami dan memperhatikan kata-

kata bahasa Inggris pada saat yang sama, sehingga hal tersebut
membingungkan mahasiswa dan imbasnya adalah banyak
peserta test tidak bisa mengerjakan soal listening dengan
benar.
iii. Peserta harus memperhatikan kosakata, ungkapan, dan kalimat
bahasa Inggris dengan cermat agar dapat menjawab
pertanyaan Listening TOEP dengan benar.
iv. Peserta harus memiliki pemahaman mendengarkan yang baik
dan cepat memahami apa yang mereka dengar.
3. Tips dan Strategi

Tips Listening TOEP berikut akan membantu mahasiswa
untuk mengidentifikasi petunjuk yang akan mengarahkan ke
jawaban yang benar. Hal yang perlu diperhatikan adalah bahwa
sangat mungkin untuk mendapatkan skor 100% di bagian
Listening, dan juga bagian yang lain, karena tes dengan format
pilihan ganda memungkinkan hal tersebut. Seluruh contoh dan
latihan soal dalam materi ini diambil dari buku The Prentice Hall
Regents: Prep Book for The TOEIC Test (1995).
A. Gambar
Pada bagian pertama Listening TOEP, peserta akan melihat
gambar (foto) dan kemudian diminta untuk memilih kalimat yang
paling mendeskripsikan gambar tersebut. Peserta tes akan dapat
memilih jawaban dengan benar apabila peserta dapat membaca
empat pihan jawaban dengan cepat saat mendengar audionya.
Apabila peserta tes sudah punya pilihan dan yakin pilihan itu
benar, maka abaikan tiga opsi lainnya.
Untuk mengetahui kalimat mana yang salah, kita harus berhati-hati
dengan jebakan berikut ini
i. Banyak kalimat yang salah memiliki kata-kata yang mirip
dengan kata-kata dalam kalimat yang benar. Meskipun kata-
kata ini terdengar sama, keduanya sama sekali berbeda.
ii. Banyak kalimat yang salah sering kali memiliki kata-kata yang
benar tetapi kata-kata ini digunakan dengan cara yang salah.
Peserta tes harus berhati-hati dalam memilih kata yang benar
LPIDB UMS
dan penggunaan yang benar.
iii. Banyak kalimat yang salah memiliki kata-kata yang benar
yang digunakan dengan cara yang sangat membingungkan
atau menyesatkan. Peserta tes harus memilih kalimat yang
menggambarkan gambar dengan jelas.
iv. Banyak kalimat yang salah memiliki ide yang hanya sebagian
benar, karena sebagian benar, itu bukan kalimat terbaik yang
mendeskripsikan gambar.
v. Banyak kalimat yang salah mengacu pada gambar yang tidak
ditampilkan di bagian Listening TOEP. Peserta tes harus
memilih kalimat yang menggambarkan gambar yang sedang
ditampilkan.
vi. Banyak kalimat yang salah memiliki kata-kata yang
berhubungan tetapi tidak sama dengan kata-kata pada jawaban
yang benar. Peserta tes harus berhati-hati dalam memilih kata
yang benar.
TOEP bagian pertama (gambar/foto) mengandung unsur-unsur
utama saat mendeskripsikan gambar.
 Orang (subjek)
 Tindakan (Predicate-Verb)
 Lokasi (kata keterangan tempat)
Cara terbaik untuk menjawab pertanyaan-pertanyaan ini adalah

dengan mengamati gambar dengan cermat dan mengidentifikasi
deskripsi gambar dengan membuat pertanyaan: siapa, apa, dimana,
mengapa. Dengarkan dengan seksama kata-kata yang ditekankan,
karena dapat menjadi petunjuk (clue). Pengamatan sebisa mungkin
dilakukan sebelum mendengarkan, sehingga ketika sudah waktunya
mendengar, kita hanya akan fokus untuk mendengar dengan
memperhatikan kata-kata kunci yang diperoleh dari hasil
pengamatan gambar.
Selanjutnya, kita akan mempelajari kata-kata yang sering

digunakan untuk menjelaskan lokasi, orang, dan tindakan dalam
foto atau gambar. Beberapa pertanyaan di bawah ini akan sangat
membantu mahasiswa dalam mencari kata kunci (subject, verb, dan

adverb of place) dalam foto atau gambar.
 Siapa di foto itu?
 Apa yang terjadi di foto itu?
 Dimana foto itu diambil?
Secara teknis, langkah-langkah yang dapat dilakukan oleh
mahasiswa adalah sebagai berikut:
1) Lihat gambar dengan seksama.
2) Ajukan pertanyaan-pertanyaan di atas.
3) Prediksikan jawaban berdasarkan apa yang tampak dalam
foto atau gambar.
4) Mulai mendengarkan
Example of Listening Section
In the Listening test, you will be asked to demonstrate how well

you understand spoken English. The entire Listening test will last
approximately 45 minutes. There are four parts, and directions are
given for each part. You must mark your answers on the separate
answer sheet. Do not write your answers in your test book.
Part I: Picture
Directions: For each question in this part, you will hear four
statements about a picture in your test book. When you hear the
statements, you must select the one statement that best describes
what you see in the picture. Then find the number of the question
on your answer sheet and mark your answer. The statements will
not be printed in your test book and will be spoken only one time.
Look at the following pictures and know the answers to the
following questions:
1) Who is/are on the picture?
2) What is happening on the picture?
3) When is the event/situation on the picture likely
happening?
4) Where is the event/situation likely taking place?
LPIDB UMS
1. (A) The theater is about to
open
(B) The group has left for
the meeting.
(C) The people are standing
in a circle.
(D) Several people are
holding a meeting.
Penjelasan: jawaban yang tepat adalah C. Kita dapat melihat dari

subyek yang terlihat adalah orang banyak (people). Dari petunjuk
tersebut kita bisa mengeliminasi jawaban A, dan B. Opsi D menjadi
bermasalah karena predikat yang muncul adalah ‗holding a
meeting‘ sedangkan dalam gambar tidak menunjukkan situasi
sedang ada pertemuan atau rapat. Predikat yang muncul adalah
berdiri membentuk lingkaran dan itu sesuai dengan predikat di opsi
C (standing in a circle).
2. (A) His hand is extended

(B) He is at the end.
(C) The man put his hands
up.
(D) He is leaving the room.
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang tepat adalah C. Subyek yang terlihat

dalam gambar adalah seorang laki-laki dan dia sedang mengangkat
tangan di air.

3. (A) He is looking at the
floor.
(B) The man has fallen
down.
(C) The books are on the
shelves.
(D) The man is lifting the
shelf
Penjelasan: Gambar menunjukkan situasi dimana ada beberapa

buah buku yang tertata di rak buku. Opsi A, B, dan D tidak sesuai
dengan deskripsi gambar karena tidak ada orang yang muncul
dalam gambar. Sedangkan opsi C jelas menerangkan bahwa ada
buku -buku di atas rak dan itu sesuai dengan apa yang tampak di
gambar.
4. (A) The truck is towing the

car.
(B) The car is hitting the
truck.
(C) The truck is turning in
front of the car.
(D) The car is racing the
truck.
Penjelasan: Soal di atas dapat dijelaskan sebagai berikut. Situasi

yang bisa dijelaskan adalah ada mobil derek yang sedang menderek
mobil (yang kemungkinan ada masalah) di jalan raya. Kata
menderek bisa digantikan dengan kata “tow‖ dalam Bahasa Inggris
dan itu sesuai dengan Statement A ―The truck is towing the car.‖
LPIDB UMS
5. (A) Dinner has been served.
(B) A chef is preparing a
dish.
(C) The man does not want
to cook.
(D) The first shift is about to
begin.
Penjelasan: Subyek dalam kalimat bisa ditandai dengan pakaian

yang digunakan. Dengan kata lain, seragam bisa menjadi indikator
subyek sebuah kalimat. Dari gambar dapat kita lihat bahwa
seragam yang dipakai adalah seragam seorang koki (chef). Predikat
yang dalam kalimat tersebut bisa bervariasi, misalnya memasak,
mengiris sayuran, atau menyiapkan hidangan. Opsi A bermasalah
karena tidak ada penanda makan malam dalam gambar sehingga
kata ‗dinner‘ menjadi kurang tepat. Opsi C juga bermasalah karena
situasi yang ditulis adalah seorang laki-laki tidak mau memasak.
Opsi D juga tidak tepat karena sudah keluar konteks. Jadi jawaban
yang tepat adalah B ―a chef and he is preparing a dish. ‖
Exercise
1. (A) The man is retired.

(B) The car door is open.
(C) The taxi has already
left.
(D) The man is changing
the tire.

2. (A) The mountain is high.
(B) The water is moving
fast.
(C) One fountain is higher
than the other.
(D) This is not the right
time to go.
3. (A) The women are

arguing.
(B) There are few people in
the store.
(C) They have chosen not
to go.
(D) People are walking to
the show store.
4. (A) The houses are new.

(B) The man is carrying the
child
(C) Many people have to
the party.
(D) The men are working
hard.
5. (A) The man is wearing a

hat.
(B) The men are walking
along.
(C) The man is reading the
pepper.
(D) The men are waiting for
a ride.
LPIDB UMS
6. (A) It is very late.
(B) The gate is open.
(C) The clock still works.
(D) There is a lock on the
gate.
7. (A) The fool surface is

undisturbed.
(B) People are having fun
in the water.
(C) The man is learning to
swim.
(D) The water is turned to
ice.
8. (A) The boys and girls are

in the class.
(B) The children are in the
hall.
(C) The boys are playing
ball.
(D) The boys do not feel
well.
9. (A) The sun is very bright.

(B) Travelers are waiting
for their baggage.
(C) Some people have been
left behind.
(D) The suitcase is being
weighed.

10. (A) They are at the end.
(B) The roof is finished.
(C) The building is under
construction.
(D) The people have to go
very far.
B. Q AND A
Di bagian kedua dari bagian Listening TOEP, peserta akan ditanyai

tentang bermacam hal dan peserta harus memilih jawaban yang
sesuai. Beberapa trik yang harus diperhatikan:
i. kata-kata yang terdengar mirip tetapi memiliki arti yang
berbeda
ii. pertanyaan-apa - siapa apa, kapan, di mana, mengapa, apa -
yang membutuhkan jawaban logis
iii. pertanyaan ya/tidak (question tag)
iv. pertanyaan ya /tidak yang mungkin tidak memiliki jawaban ya
/tidak secara eksplisit
Untuk dapat mengerjakan soal dengan baik, ingatlah pertanyaan itu
dengan jelas saat memprediksi kemungkinan jawaban. Pilih
jawaban yang paling masuk akal. Jika ragu, tebak saja karena tidak
ada pengurangan poin untuk jawaban salah.
Untuk memilih jawaban paling tepat di antara pilihan yang
disediakan, peserta tes harus memperhatikan hal-hal berikut:
i. Banyak jawaban salah memiliki kata-kata yang terdengar sama
dengan jawaban yang benar.
Examples.
gain vs. reign whey vs. weigh
ii. Pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang masuk dalam kategori WH

questions – who, where, what, when, where, and how – sangat
mungkin ditanyakan, jadi pilih jawaban yang cocok dengan
jenis pertanyaannya.
LPIDB UMS
iii. Beberapa pertanyaan masuk dalam jenis questions tags.
Examples:
The building is color black, isn‘t it? Cars are on the road,
aren‘t they?
iv. Pertanyaan ya dan tidak terkadang tidak memiliki jawaban ya

dan tidak langsung. Ya dan tidak dihilangkan di awal kalimat.
Examples.
Question : The building is color black, isn‘t it?
Answer : The building is tall, modern and it is indeed
color black.
Question : Cars are on the road, aren‘t they?
Answer : Car driver are driving very fast. Their cars are
on the road.
Dalam menjawab pertanyaan dan jawaban bagian Listening

TOEP part 2, ada baiknya bagi peserta tes untuk mengingat
pertanyaan. Mereka harus memprediksi kemungkinan jawaban.
Kemudian, mereka memilih kalimat mana yang paling baik
menjawab pertanyaan yang ada. Mereka dapat menebak dengan
baik pertanyaan-pertanyaan sulit di bagian pertanyaan dan jawaban
Listening TOEP.
Part 2: QnA
Directions: You will hear a question or statement and three
responses spoken in English. They will not be printed in your test
book and will be spoken only one time. Select the best response to
the question or statement and mark the letter (A), (B), or (C) on
your answer sheet.
Examples
Question 1
You will hear: Did you make a dinner reservation?
(A) I prefer fish.
(B) Flight 261 to Osaka.
(C) Yes, it‘s at 7 o‘clock.

Penjelasan: Jawabannya adalah C karena pertanyaan tersebut
termasuk dalam pertanyaan Ya/Tidak dan menanyakan tentang
reservasi makan malam. Opsi A dan B tidak relevan dengan
pertanyaan tersebut.
Question 2
You will hear: Who takes the packages to the post office?
(A) Turn left at the corner.
(B) Martin usually does it.
(C) No, I didn‘t.
Penjelasan: Jawabannya B karena pertanyaannya menanyakan
pelaku dengan menggunakan 'siapa'. Jawaban A dan C tidak
memberi tahu aktor atau pelaku tindakan tersebut.
Question 3
You will hear: This software is difficult to use, isn‘t it?
(A) Yes, it‘s very complicated.
(B) Yes, I often wear it.
(C) No, but she used to.
Penjelasan: Jawabannya adalah A karena hanya jawaban A yang

relevan dan logis untuk menjawab pertanyaan.
Question 4
You will hear: Why don‘t you have a seat while you wait?
(A) Two in the same row, please.
(B) It didn‘t weigh very much.
(C) Thanks, I think I will.
Penjelasan: Opsi A dan B tidak dapat dipakai untuk menjawab
pertanyaan karena tidak relevan. Maka jawabannya adalah C
Question 5
You will hear: They‘ve reduced the price of these cameras.
(A) Then let‘s go ahead and buy one.
(B) I don‘t think we‘ve been introduced.
(C) I never win anything
LPIDB UMS
Penjelasan: No 5 ini sebenarnya bukan pertanyaan. Ini merupakan
pernyataan. Tanggapan terbaik untuk pernyataan "Mereka telah
menurunkan harga kamera ini." adalah "Kalau begitu ayo kita beli
satu." Jadi jawabannya adalah A.
Exercise
1. Where do you go to school?
(A) On the subway.
(B) At the national university.
(C) Turn right at the next corner.
2. Do you want me to phone him?

(A) No, you can‘t go.
(B) Yes, that‘s good idea.
(C) That‘s nice.
3. It‘s sure warm, isn‘t it?

(A) Yes, it is. Very.
(B) I think it is interesting.
(C) That‘s wrong.
4. Do you know where the train station is?

(A) I don‘t what that is.
(B) On East Gate Road.
(C) About three-thirty.
5. How‘ve you been?

(A) For a few weeks.
(B) I can‘t remember.
(C) Pretty good thank you.
6. What can I do for you?

(A) May I help you, too?
(B) What would you like to see?
(C) Could you show me that camera in the window?

7. Would you like another piece of cake?
(A) I am sorry, I can‘t go.
(B) Yes, I‘ll get you some.
(C) No, thanks, I have had enough.
8. How do you get to work?

(A) About half an hour.
(B) It‘ll cost about $15.00.
(C) I drive.
9. Where is the orange juice?

(A) On Main Street.
(B) It‘s in the refrigerator.
(C) I bought some yesterday.
10. Why don‘t we reduce the size of our staff?

(A) It not possible right now.
(B) We forgot about it.
(C) They don‘t have time to go.
11. Now, does anybody else have anything to say?

(A) Yes, I already told them.
(B) Yes, everyone agrees.
(C) No, I think that‘s all.
12. Can we postpone our meeting until Friday?

(A) No, I‘m busy on Friday.
(B) No, I wasn‘t here last Friday.
(C) Yes, I phoned him myself.
13. Do you plan to work overtime tonight?

(A) Yes, I worked overtime.
(B) No, I don‘t have the plans.
(C) Yes, I have a lot to do.
LPIDB UMS
14. Where did you put the files?
(A) They are waiting out front.
(B) I don‘t think so.
(C) I put them back in the cabinet.
15. Would you ask him to check the figure?
(A) Yes, he‘s received the check.
(B) I will, but I know they‘re right.
(C) Yes, he figures it all right.
C. SHORT DIALOG
Di bagian ketiga, peserta tes akan mendengar dialog singkat dan
kemudian diberikan pertanyaan tentang apa yang terdengar dalam
audio. Peserta tes perlu menggunakan ingatan jangka pendek
dengan baik. Strategi terbaik adalah untuk berhati-hati terhadap:
1. kata-kata yang terdengar serupa
2. kata-kata yang tidak akurat
3. urutan kata yang membingungkan
4. kata-kata yang mengubah artinya
5. kata-kata negatif (hampir tidak, tidak, dll.)
6. kata-kata yang berhubungan dengan waktu (selalu, tidak
pernah, dll.)
Strategi umum yang dapat dipakai adalah membaca pertanyaannya
dan bahkan mungkin jawabannya, sebelum mendengar dialognya.
Periksa semua opsi dan jangan memilih terlalu cepat. Coba
bayangkan pembicara dan di mana mereka berada. Rekaman audio
biasanya memutar percakapan singkat antara dua orang. Setelah
mendengarkan audio tersebut, peserta tes harus menjawab
pertanyaan. Jawaban yang memungkinkan untuk pertanyaan
diberikan dalam opsi merupakan tugas peserta tes untuk memilih
jawaban yang tepat sesuai data yang diperoleh dari percakapan
yang didengar.
Selanjutnya, kita perlu mempelajari bagaimana kata-kata tertentu
akan membantu mengidentifikasi tujuan suatu pertanyaan.
Mengetahui kata-kata seperti tersebut pada poin 1-6 di atas akan
membantu memilih jawaban yang benar.

Perhatikan beberapa kata yang menjadi indikator:
 time, such as when, how long, what time, etc.
 people, such as who, whose, who's, etc.
 intent, such as plan, going to, will, etc.
 the topic, such as talking about, discussing, about, etc.
 a reason, such as why, what, or, etc.
 a location, such as where, what, how far, etc.
 an opinion, such as what, believe, think, etc.
Example 1
SPEAKER A : The prices at this restaurant are low, but the
food's always cold.
SPEAKER B : I know, and the people who work here aren't
very friendly.
SPEAKER A : Let's eat somewhere else.
What do they say about the restaurant?

(A) The people are friendly. (incorrect detail)
(B) The prices are low. (correct answer)
(C) The food is old. (sounds like correct answer)
(D) The service is slow. (sounds like correct answer)
Example 2
SPEAKER A : I'd like to book a flight to Santiago.
SPEAKER B : Certainly. When would you like to fly?
SPEAKER A : Next Monday. Can you make a hotel reservation
for me, also?
What is Speaker B's occupation?

(A) Travel agent. (correct answer)
(B) Pilot. (incorrect inference)
(C) Hotel manager. (incorrect detail)
(D) Librarian. (incorrect inference)
LPIDB UMS
Example 3
SPEAKER A : How's your accounting class, Marvin?
SPEAKER B : The teacher's interesting, but the work is really
hard.
SPEAKER A : Well, at least you're not bored.
What does Marvin say about his class?

(A) It's boring. (incorrect detail)
(B) The chairs are hard. (word used in a different context)
(C) There's too much work. (incorrect detail)
(D) The teacher is interesting. (correct answer)
Exercise
1. What is the man planning to do?
(A) Go to the theater.
(B) Take a plane trip.
(C) Go to the restaurant.
(D) Hold a conference.
2. Why was the man late?

(A) He was in a meeting.
(B) He was on the telephone.
(C) He was looking for a report he needed.
(D) He was not paying attention to time.
3. Who will check the figures?

(A) The supervisor.
(B) The employer
(C) Lee.
(D) No body
4. What does the man want to do?

(A) By a book.
(B) See the film.
(C) Go to a play.
(D) Watch a television show.

5. What does the man want?
(A) A ride somewhere.
(B) To know when the seminar is.
(C) For the woman to attend the seminar.
(D) Help with his work.
6. What will be the result on the department because of a change

in the budget?
(A) Their budget will be smaller.
(B) Their budget will be larger.
(C) Their budget will remain unchanged.
(D) Nobody knows what the impact will be.
7. Where are the speakers?

(A) In a hotel.
(B) In a concert.
(C) At the airport.
(D) At a movie theater.
8. Why is the woman upset?

(A) Her reservation was lost.
(B) Her flight was cancelled.
(C) Too many tickets were issued for her flight.
(D) The crew was late arriving at the airport.
9. Where was the man the day before?

(A) At his desk.
(B) At a meeting.
(C) Sick at home.
(D) At a restaurant.
10. What is the man‘s job?

(A) He is the television repairman.
(B) He is responsible for apartment repair.
(C) He does not have a job.
(D) He designs offices.
LPIDB UMS
11. How will the woman receive her shipment?
(A) It will be sent to her.
(B) She will call later to arrange for delivery.
(C) She will have some men to pick it up.
(D) The man will drop it off.
12. What is the woman complaining about?

(A) She has been left alone.
(B) She had a mistake.
(C) A report is poorly typed.
(D) She lost a report.
13. How will man learn of the matter?

(A) By Mil.
(B) By phone.
(C) Bu telex.
(D) By messenger.
14. How often does the man visit the branch office?
(A) Never.
(B) 0ccationally.
(C) Quite often.
(D) All the time.
15. What does Andy plan to do?

(A) Change jobs.
(B) Stop working.
(C) Become a board member.
(D) Not go the board meeting.
Audio scripts
1. Man : I‘d like to make reservations for 7.00 PM, Saturday
the twentieth
Woman : How many people will be dining, Sir?
Man : There‘ll be only two of us. It‘s our anniversary.

2. Man A : Sorry to have kept you waiting. Man B : Where
have you been?
Man A : In my office. I was working on my report and just
forgot what time it was.
3. Man A : Before you go home today, I‘d like you to check

these figures. We need them for the meeting
tomorrow.
Man B : I‘d be glad to, but I‘m working on that other report
for you. I‘m going to have time before the meeting.
Man A : OK the don‘t worry about it. I‘ll get Lee to look at
them.
4. Man : I‘d like to see the new release that just opened at
the Capitol. My favorite actor is in it.
Woman : I saw it last night. It‘s not very good.
Man : Oh really? Well, maybe I‘ll go see it anyway.
5. Man : The seminar‘s this weekend. Can you make it?

Woman: I don‘t know. I‘m really behind in my work.
Man : I hope you can go. We need to have somebody
there.
6. Man A : The corporation budget‘s been cut again this year.

Man B : So, we‘ll have even less money than before, is that
right?
Man A : No, not really. I‘ve been told that it won‘t affect
our department one way or the other.
7. Man A : We would like a double room.

Man B : I‘m sorry, but we don‘t have any more doubles.
How about a room with two singles?
Man A : Well, if that‘s all there is, it‘ll have to do.
LPIDB UMS
8. Woman : My flight was overbooked again, and it made us
late getting off the ground.
Man : That‘s strange. I‘ve never had a problem with
reservations on that airline.
Woman : If it happens once more, I‘ll never fly with them
again.
9. Woman : Why didn‘t you make it in to work yesterday?

Man : I had some bad food at a restaurant the night
before. I was very sick.
Woman : I‘m glad you‘re feeling better today. We have to
work on those figures later on.
10. Man : you called the building office about a problem.

What seems to be the matter?
Woman : My television doesn‘t work.
Man : I‘m sorry ma‘am. There‘s nothing I can do about
that. I only take care of repairs to the apartment
itself.
11. Man : Shall we ship this stock over to you or can you pick
it up? It looks like a big order.
Woman : It is. We‘ll send some of my men over for it.
Man : Be sure to let us know when they‘re coming. It‘ll
take us a while to get it ready.
12. Woman : who typed this report?

Man : The new temporary employee. Why do you ask?
Woman : I‘ve found three mistakes in the first paragraph
alone.
13. Man : Prepare a memorandum of the details when you

know them and send them to me in Paris.
Woman : do you want me to call you?
Man : No. it‘s expensive and not necessary. Writing is
fast enough.

14. Woman : Do you get over to the branch of very often?
Man : Oh, usually only once or twice a year. Not as much
as I should.
Woman : Well, I was just there and they‘re doing fine.
15. Man A : Have you heard about Andy? Man B : No, is there
some problem?
Man A : He‘s announcing his retirement at the board
meeting tomorrow. He says he wants more time to
himself.
D. SIMPLE MONOLOGUE
Di bagian keempat Listening Comprehension, kita akan
mendengar monolog dan kemudian diberi pertanyaan tentang isi
monolog tersebut. Secara umum, langkah yang perlu dilakukan
untuk menguasai bagian ini dan sekaligus mengidentifikasi
‗jawaban jebakan‘ sama seperti bagian sebelumnya yaitu short
dialog, tetapi kita perlu berkonsentrasi penuh untuk mengingat
detailnya. Perhatikan baik-baik konteksnya. Cobalah untuk
membaca pertanyaan sebelumnya dan dengarkan seluruh audio
sebelum memilih jawaban. Gunakan waktu dengan bijak atau tebak
jawaban. Jangan sampai ketinggalan atau kehilangan informasi
penting terkait pertanyaan berikutnya.
Selanjutnya kita akan mempelajari bagaimana kata-kata tertentu
akan membantu mengidentifikasi arah sebuah pertanyaan. Ini
tujuan yang akan kita pelajari
1) mengidentifikasi urutan,
2) mengidentifikasi audiens,
3) mengidentifikasi situasi,
4) mengidentifikasi topik, dan
5) mengidentifikasi permintaan.
1) Mengidentifikasi Urutan (Sequence)

Peserta tes akan membaca pertanyaan yang menanyakan tentang
urutan. Bacalah pertanyaan dan pilihan jawaban dengan cepat
LPIDB UMS
sebelum mendengarkan monolognya. Saat kita mendengarkan
monolog, dengarkan jawaban atas pertanyaan tentang urutan.
Example
We have arrived at our final destination. Please wait for the plane
to come to a complete stop and the doors to open before leaving
your seat. On entering the airport, you will go through
Immigration. Please have your passport ready to show to the
Immigration officer.
When can you leave your seat?

(A) After the doors are opened.
(B) After you complete some forms.
(C) After your passport is ready.
(D) After you enter the airport.
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang benar adalah (A). Pilihan (B) mencoba

membingungkan peserta dengan mengulangi kata „complete‟ dalam
konteks yang berbeda. Pilihan (C) dan (D) mengulangi detail
pembicaraan yang tidak berhubungan dengan pertanyaan.
Perhatikan beberapa kata di bawah ini yang menjadi indikator atau
petunjuk pertanyaan tentang urutan:
a) when
b) before
c) after
d) first
e) last
2) Mengidentifikasi audiences
Kita akan membaca pertanyaan tentang audiens. Bacalah
pertanyaan dan pilihan jawaban dengan cepat sebelum kita
mendengarkan audionya. Saat kita mendengarkan audio, dengarkan
jawaban atas pertanyaan tentang audiens.

Example
Good service is the basis of good business and will earn you good
tips. Make sure the food you serve is prepared just as the customer
requested it. Keep water glasses filled and remove dirty dishes as
soon as the customer has finished eating.
Who is this talk directed to?
(A) Restaurant customers.
(B) Waiters.
(C) Business owners.
(D) Dishwashers.
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang benar adalah (B). Pilihan (A)

mengulangi detail pembicaraan yang tidak berhubungan dengan
jawabannya. Pilihan (C) dan (D) membuat kesimpulan yang salah
tentang detail pembicaraan.
Beberapa indikator pertanyaan tentang audiens:
a) who
b) directed to
c) talking to
3) Mengidentifikasi situasi
Kita akan membaca pertanyaan tentang situasi. Bacalah pertanyaan
dan pilihan jawaban dengan cepat sebelum kita mendengarkan
monolognya. Saat kita mendengarkan monolog, dengarkan jawaban
atas pertanyaan tentang situasi.
Example
Thank you for calling Island Travel. If you'd like to book a place on
our Hawaii tour, press 1. To make hotel or airplane reservations,
press 2.
Where would you hear this message?

(A) At a bookstore.
(B) At a hotel.
(C) On an airplane.
(D) At a travel agency.
LPIDB UMS
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang benar adalah (D). Opsi (A)
menggunakan kata ‗book‘ dengan makna yang berbeda, sedangkan
opsi (B) dan (C) mengulang detil pesan yang tidak berhubungan
dengan jawaban yang benar.
Indikator pertanyaan tentang situasi biasanya menggunakan kata

‗where‘.
4) Mengidentifikasi Topik
Kita akan membaca pertanyaan tentang tema atau topik. Bacalah
pertanyaan dan pilihan jawaban dengan cepat sebelum kita
mendengarkan monolognya. Saat kita mendengarkan monolog,
dengarkan jawaban atas pertanyaan tentang hadirin.
Example
Umbrella sales are sure to go up with all this rain we've been
having. Rain continues all week. Saturday will be cloudy and
breezy, and the rain returns on Sunday. This is the time to invest in
an umbrella company!
What is this announcement about?
(A) A sale on umbrellas.
(B) The weather.
(C) Train schedules.
(D) Stock market investments.
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang benar adalah (B). Pilihan (A) dan (D)
mencoba membingungkan kita dengan mengulangi detail yang
tidak terkait dengan pertanyaan. Pilihan (C) menggunakan kata
„train‟ yang terdengar serupa untuk „rain‟.
Indikator pertanyaan tentang topik:
a) topic
b) purpose
c) about
d) talk about
e) discussing
f) kind

5) Mengidentifikasi Request (Permintaan)
Kita akan membaca pertanyaan tentang request. Bacalah
pertanyaan dan pilihan jawaban dengan cepat sebelum
mendengarkan monolognya. Saat kita mendengarkan monolog,
dengarkan jawaban atas pertanyaan tentang request atau
permintaan.
Example
The ABC Supermarket has openings for managers. Interested
applicants should apply in person at 24 Riverdale Avenue on
Saturday at 9:00 A.M. Bring three copies of your resume. Phone
calls will not be accepted.
How can you apply for this job?

(A) Call the supermarket.
(B) Send in a resume.
(C) Go to 24 Riverdale Avenue.
(D) Fill out an application.
Penjelasan: Jawaban yang benar adalah (C). Pilihan (A) dan (B)
mengulangi detail pengumuman yang tidak benar. Pilihan (D)
mencoba membingungkan kita dengan menggunakan kata yang
terdengar serupa dan terkait antara kata ‗application‘ dan kata
‗applicant‘.
Indikator pertanyaan tentang request:
a) request
b) ask
c) how can
Exercise
1. What is happening in the conversation?
(A) A graduation is taking place.
(B) The people are looking at family photographs.
(C) Somebody is being met at a station.
(D) The woman is telling about her new job.
LPIDB UMS
2. What does Linda do?
(A) She is a doctor.
(B) She works at a camp.
(C) She is a student.
(D) She is a nurse.
3. When did the Jones family sell the Jones Mansion?

(A) In the 1830's.
(B) In the 1930's.
(C) In the 1950's.
(D) In the 1980's.
4. For what is the building currently used?

(A) Apartments for old people.
(B) Condominiums for wealthy people.
(C) A luxury hotel.
(D) An office building.
5. What was the response to the alarm?

(A) Only one fire company was needed.
(B) Several fire companies responded quickly.
(C) Seven pieces of fire-fighting equipment were called to the
scene.
(D) Firemen from neighboring towns came to fight the fire.
6. What was the probable cause of the fire?

(A) Children playing with matches.
(B) A stove exploded.
(C) Somebody set the fire on purpose.
(D) Smoking in bed.
7. What kind of building caught fire?

(A) A library.
(B) A hospital.
(C) A school.
(D) A restaurant.

8. Where is flight 217 going?
(A) The Caribbean.
(B) Miami.
(C) Europe.
(D) South America.
9. What time was the flight originally scheduled to depart?

(A) Three o'clock.
(B) Three-ten.
(C) Three-thirty.
(D) Three-forty.
10. According to the statement, what kind of medical emergency

is choking?
(A) Serious.
(B) Unusual.
(C) Common.
(D) Undefinable.
11. Where does the speaker say choking incidents often take
place?
(A) In violent circumstances.
(B) In stressful circumstances.
(C) In pleasant situations.
(D) In quiet situations.
12. Who is most likely to become a choking victim?

(A) A child.
(B) An elderly person.
(C) A sick person.
(D) Anyone.
13. What kind of a show is described?

(A) A comedy show.
(B) A news show.
(C) An adventure show.
(D) A game show.
LPIDB UMS
14. What is the main focus of the show?
(A) Animals.
(B) Foreign lands.
(C) People.
(D) Cities.
15. What is the show format?

(A) A film presentation.
(B) It is unrehearsed.
(C) A discussion among experts.
(D) Well-known people speak.
Audio scripts
Questions 1-2
(Woman) this is a picture of Jack, my husband, with Linda. Linda‘s
sixteen now, and she‘s very bright-makes top narks at school. She
wants to be a doctor someday, and I think she‘ll make it…Here she
is at summer camp three years ago. That‘s her friend Mary, on the
left, and I don‘t know any of other girls…Do you remember when
girls wanted to be nurses and boys wanted to be doctors? Things
really have changed since a was a girl.
Questions 3-4
(man) The Jones mansion was built in 1718 and was used as a hotel
for over 150 years. George Washington stayed here in 1782. The
building was owned by the Jones family until 1930‘s, 1932 to be
exact, when it was sold to the Hood family. Five years ago, it was
made into an apartment building for the elderly, and today it houses
forty of our senior citizens, thirty-two of whom are over eighty
years old.
Questions 5-7
(man) Here is a follow-up report on the four-alarm blaze earlier
today at the new city hospital. Several fire companies were called
to the scene. When Fire Chief Andrew Barnes was asked how the
fire started, he answered that most likely it was caused by the

cigarette of a patient smoking in bed in a back room on the fourth
floor. Fire companies responded quickly to the emergency, and
there were no injuries. Chief Barnes promised a complete
investigation, but at the scene he stated that the circumstances did
not lead him to believe that arson was involved.
Questions 8-9
(woman) Flight 217 with nonstop service to Miami and connecting
with flights for south America, the Caribbean, and Europe, is
boarding at gate 34. The flight, scheduled to depart at three-thirty,
is ten minutes behind schedule and will depart at three-forty. All
passengers please report to the gate for boarding.
Questions 10-12
(Woman) Tonight‘s first-aid topic is about handling a choking
incident. In terms of the environment in which it occurs, choking is
one of the strangest and most unusual of medicine emergencies.
First, it generally occurs in happy, lighthearted circumstances,
when everything appears to be going rights. For example, choking
incidents often take place at parties, where there a lot of people
laughing and having a good time. Second, choking can happen to
anyone, young or old, sick or well, alone or with others, at any
time. Everybody should know what action to take in the event of a
choking incident. It could happen to someone you know, or even to
you, at any time.
Questions 13-15
(Man) Welcome to ―Do you know your city?‖ the spontaneous and
unrehearsed show that asks you about the city in which you live.
We broadcast from a different city every week, and this week we
come to you from Binghamton. And now to our studio audience:
this is the only show where you can qualify to win fabulous prizes
for answering one-two- three simple questions about your city. Our
contestants each week are taken from the studio audience, and this
week we have four eager contestants.
LPIDB UMS
100 questions 45 minutes
In this part of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you
understand spoken English. There are four parts to the section, with
special directions for each part.
Part I
Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book
and you will hear our short statements. The statements will be spoken
just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
listen carefully to understand what speaker says.
When you hear the four statements, look at the pictures in your test book
and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark
your answer. Look at the sample below.

Now listen to the four statements.
Statement (b), ―They‘re having a meeting― best describes what you see
in the picture. Therefore, you should chose answer (B).
1.
2.
3.
LPIDB UMS
4.
5.
6.

7.
8.
9.
LPIDB UMS
10.
11.
12.

13.
14.
15.
LPIDB UMS
16.
17.
18.

19.
20.
Part II
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question spoken in
English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The
question and the response will be spoken just one time. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each
question. Now listen to a sample question.
LPIDB UMS
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear: Sample Answer
You will also hear: A B C D
The best response to the question ―How are you?‖ is choice (A), ―I am
fine, thank you.‖ Therefore you should choose answer (A).
21. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

Part III
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear thirty short
conversations between two people. The conversations will not be
printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations only once, so
you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
In your test book, you will read a question about each conversation. The
question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best
answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
51. What is the debate about?

(A) A pipeline.
(B) Traffic.
(C) The town‘s boundaries.
(D) An oil spill.
52. What are they discussing?

(A) Placing an overseas call.
(B) Getting facts straight.
(C) Sending a fax.
(D) Someone entering the house.
53. What are they talking about?

(A) Directions to a store.
(B) The parking problem.
(C) A bump in the road.
(D) A new apartment building.
54. What kind of establishment is being referred to?

(A) A restaurant.
(B) A furniture manufacturer.
(C) A hotel.
(D) A cleaning company.
LPIDB UMS
(A) Make a certain color paint.
(B) Hang a picture.
(C) Find a key.
(D) Buy some office supplies.
56. What is the repairman going to fix?

(A) The boiler.
(B) An air-conditioner.
(C) A fan.
(D) The heater.
57. What will John be asked to?

(A) Buy a new computer.
(B) Attend a sales seminar.
(C) Help meet the sales goal.
(D) Set a new sales record.
58. What is the woman testing?

(A) A CD player.
(B) A computer.
(C) A car.
(D) A truck.
59. What does the woman offer to do?

(A) Loan Paul her computer.
(B) Sell him the adapter.
(C) Ask a friend to help.
(D) Send him to a store.
60. What are they talking about?

(A) Baked goods.
(B) A building.
(C) A restaurant.
(D) The price of food.

61. What is being explained?
(A) An alarm system.
(B) A calculator.
(C) A radio.
(D) A fax machine.

(A) Get to the train station
(B) Get out of the heat.
(C) Leave town.
(D) Compare transportation.
63. What has been improved?

(A) Train safety.
(B) The cleanliness of the house.
(C) How the car is running.
(D) The public transport system.
64. What does Tom suspect?

(A) The bill is incorrect.
(B) The computers need repair.
(C) Wasteful use of the air-conditioner.
(D) The electrical wiring is faulty.
65. How many copies of each form are there?

(A) One.
(B) Two.
(C) Three.
(D) Four.
66. How will the group travel to the seminar?

(A) By car.
(B) By bus.
(C) By plane.
(D) By train.
LPIDB UMS
67. What is Barbara's job?
(A) A mechanic.
(B) An inspector.
(C) A chauffeur.
(D) A bus driver.
68. Where are the reports now?

(A) On the boss's desk.
(B) In Hong Kong.
(C) With Susan.
(D) In the mail.

(A) A train schedule.
(B) A watch.
(C) A work schedule.
(D) A light.
70. What does Mr. Tarn want to do?

(A) See Mr. Braun.
(B) Avoid city traffic.
(C) Change offices.
(D) Have lunch.
71. What is the man's problem?

(A) He has poor vision.
(B) The newspapers have sold out.
(C) Both New York and overseas flights are sold out.
(D) There are no English language magazines.
72. What kind of company do they have?

(A) A furniture company.
(B) A construction company.
(C) A finance company.
(D) A real estate company.

(A) Management.
(B) Finances.
(C) The vice president.
(D) A phone conference.
74. What is the man‘s occupation?

(A) Broker.
(B) Real estate agent.
(C) Boat salesman.
(D) Banker.
75. What does the man suggest?

(A) Charging the phone.
(B) Returning it.
(C) Checking the phone.
(D) Calling the Better Business Bureau.
76. When is the sale?

(A) This week.
(B) This weekend.
(C) This Friday.
(D) Monday through Friday.

(A) Accounting procedures.
(B) Money market funds.
(C) A new office design.
(D) Business expenditure.
78. What does the woman want to do?

(A) Get a job as a temp.
(B) Buy a new computer.
(C) Verify some data.
(D) Put addresses in a computer.
LPIDB UMS
79. Where is Cathy?
(A) At the banquet.
(B) At the hospital.
(C) At the card store.
(D) At the ban.
80. Why is the man going to Tokyo?

(A) To work.
(B) To open a shop.
(C) To interview the local people.
(D) To photograph the city.
Part IV
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks.
Each will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test
book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is
said.
In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short
talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose
the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
81. Who may receive a library borrower‘s card?

(A) Anyone attending school in New York City.
(B) Anyone who pays sales tax in New York City.
(C) Anyone who regularly studies in the library.
(D) Anyone with a legitimate need for the services.
82. What is the longest time a book may be borrowed?

(A) 10 days.
(B) 14 days.
(C) 28 days.
(D) 38 days.

83. Which equipment is available for library patrons?
(A) Portable cassette players.
(B) Photocopying machines.
(C) Radios.
(D) Cell phones.
84. What is the key factor in keeping food safe?

(A) Avoiding mayonnaise in lunch foods.
(B) Serving meat and poultry whole.
(C) Maintaining appropriate temperature.
(D) Washing hands to kill bacteria.
85. Which food is more likely to cause illness?

(A) Mayonnaise.
(B) Chicken.
(C) Vegetables.
(D) Hot foods.
86. What raises the chance of bacterial problems?

(A) The use of mayonnaise.
(B) Using vegetable dips.
(C) Chopped meats.
(D) Using fruit fillings.
87. Who would this most likely interest?

(A) Vacationers.
(B) Entrepreneurs.
(C) College students.
(D) Chefs.
88. What is the topic of the talk?

(A) Renting a room at Jeanne and Tom‘s.
(B) Running a successful B&B.
(C) Traveling in Maine.
(D) Starting an adventure.
LPIDB UMS
89. Who is this notice directed to?
(A) Fisherman.
(B) Fund-raisers.
(C) Beach officials.
(D) Vacationers.
90. Where can you get registration materials?

(A) The beach.
(B) The Town Hall.
(C) Cape Troll.
(D) Tackle shops.
91. Who is sponsoring the Mallory Beach event?

(A) Mallory Beach Chamber of Commerce.
(B) Myrtle Beach Town Hall.
(C) The New York Fishermen‘s Association.
(D) Cape Troll residents.
92. What is this story about?

(A) The growth of Parisian Intercontinental Hotels.
(B) The curriculum of elementary schools.
(C) A donation of books.
(D) The financial condition of regional libraries.
93. How were book numbers determined?

(A) By hotel employees.
(B) By six elementary schools.
(C) By Parisian Literacy Crusade.
(D) By the number of hotel guests.
94. What has the Parisian Literacy Crusade agreed to do?

(A) Donate more books.
(B) Help bring in and set up the books.
(C) Promote the Intercontinental hotels.
(D) Offer free tutoring at the elementary school.

95. What is being discussed?
(A) The possible purchase of air-conditioners.
(B) The difference between central air and single units.
(C) Noise in the offices.
(D) Technical data.
96. Who is the most likely being addressed?

(A) Kitchen staff.
(B) Building engineers.
(C) Dining room personal.
(D) Office workers.
97. What information is being asked for?

(A) Opinion on the menu.
(B) How many units should be purchased.
(C) Information that could help educate decision-makers.
(D) How best to finance the purchase.
98. What is being advertised?

(A) Golf course in Scotland.
(B) Training in archery.
(C) Scottish antiques.
(D) Tours of Scotland.
99. What happened in 1457?

(A) Archery reached its peak in popularity.
(B) James II forbade golfing.
(C) Aristocrats developed the rules of golf.
(D) James II became an outlaw.
100. What is known about St Andrew‘s Old Course?

(A) It is hundreds of years old.
(B) It is an excellent course.
(C) It is for preferred players.
(D) There are dozens of tours of it.
LPIDB UMS
1. Deskripsi Umum
Grammar section pada test toep dibagi menjadi dua bagian yaitu
melengkapi kalimat rumpang (sentence completion) berjumlah 40
soal dan identifikasi kesalahan kalimat (error identification)
berjumlah 20 soal. Waktu total yang disediakan untuk mengerjakan
bagian grammar ini adalah 45 menit.
2. Tantangan yang Dihadapi

(1) Mahasiswa tidak tahu apa yang dibutuhkan untuk mengisi
soal bagian rumpang.
(2) Mahasiswa tidak dapat menemukan bagian salah dalam
soal error identification.
(3) Vocabulary yang terbatas.
(4) Mahasiswa tidak dapat menyelesaikan menjawab soal
dengan waktu yang tersedia.
3. Tips dan Strategi

Waktu total untuk bagian grammar adalah 45 menit, sehingga
untuk tiap soal hanya tersedia waktu 45 detik untuk menentukan
jawaban serta menuliskanya pada lembar jawab. Oleh sebab itu,
diperlukan strategi untuk menjawab soal agar mendapat skor
maksimal khusunya pada bagian grammar. Tips yang dapat
dilakukan seperti berikut ini
1. Siapkan pengetahuan grammar

Pengetahuan grammar diperlukan agar kita dapat
melihat kalimat secara sistematis. Melihat kalimat secara
sistematis maksudnya kita bisa memetakan fungsi tiap kata

dalam kalimat secara gramatikal. Yang paling ditekankan
adalah kita dapat membedakan bagian subjek dan predikat
karena dengan mengetahui dua bagian tersebut dapat
mengetahui berapa klausa yang ada dalam kalimat serta bagian
kalimat lain misal objek atau keterangan. Pengetahuan
grammar sangat membantu terutama dalam mengerjakan soal
error identification dimana kita bekerja seperti seorang editor
yang bertugas menemukan kesalahan kalimat.
2. Perkaya kosa kata bahasa Inggris
Memperkaya kosa kata adalah langkah strategis untuk
semua mengerjakan semua section TOEP termasuk grammar.
Kosa kata test toep berasal dari berbagai bidang diantaranya
bidang professional meliputi finansial, pemasaran, SDM,
manufaktur, konstruksi, kesehatan, wisata, travel, perkatoran,
budaya dan keislaman. Memperkaya kosa kata dapat
dilakukan melalui berbagai sumber yang saat ini banyak
tersedia dan cukup mudah diakses. Setiap kali menemukan
kata baru dalam bahasa Inggris mahasiswa disarankan untuk
membuka kamus atau melakukan guessing (mengira-ngira)
arti kata.
3. Sering berlatih dan mereview pembahasan
Latihan membuat kita terbiasa terhadap tes, baik
instruksi, waktu yang tersedia, maupun bentuk soal. Suatu test
perlu menjadi second nature kita untuk mencapi hasil yang
baik.
4. Managemen waktu
Jangan terlalu lama fokus pada soal yang sulit karena
rata rata hanya tersedia 45 detik untuk tiap soal. Jawab semua
soal karena tidak ada sistem pengurangan jika soal terlalu sulit
maka dapat menggunakan teknik guessing atau perkiraan.
Selanjutnya, kita akan membahas problem yang sering muncul

dalam Grammar TOEP.
LPIDB UMS
I. Parts of Speech.
Part of speech terdiri dari kata benda (noun), kata kerja verb,
kata sifat adjective, kata keterangan adverb, dan object of
preposition. Noun biasanya berfungsi sebagai subjek atau objek
sedangkan verb berfungsi predikat yang menunjukan suatu
kegiatan baik mental maupun yang bersifat aksi, kata adjective
menjelaskan noun dan berada di dekat noun. Adverb terletak pada
akhir kalimat, terkadang awal kalimat, dan juga dekat dengan kata
kerja dan berfungsi menjelaskan kata kerja atau menjelaskan
seluruh isi kalimat.
1. Kasus Noun dalam Sentence Completion

1. mounted as time and again their designs were
rejected by the sales force.
(A) Disappoint
(B) Disappointing
(C) Disappointedly
(D) Disappointment
Kalimat contoh di atas merupakan pernyataan, sehingga bagian
rumpang (…) dapat diisi dengan subjek. Subjek dalam bahasa
Inggris dapat diisi dengan jenis kata noun (nomina). Oleh karena
itu, kita harus memilih jawaban dengan noun yang dapat berfungsi
sebagai subject pada soal di atas. Noun dalam Bahasa Ingggris
mempunyai suffiks penanda, antara lain -acy, -age, -ation, -ian, -er,
-or, -tion, -ion, -ance, dom, dan -ment. Jadi, jawaban yang benar D
(Disappointment). Pilihan kata yang lain tidak ada sufiks penanda
noun (tdk ada penanda/tidak ada ciri jenis kata noun).
2. In court, the man said he could not remember the .

(A) incident
(B) happened
(C) incidental
(D) opportune

Kalimat di atas merupakan pernyataan. Bagian rumpang (…)
berada pada akhir kalimat yang biasa berfungsi sebagai objek.
Objek dapat diisi dengan kata benda. Selain itu terdapat artikel the,
artikel tersebut secara gramatikal harus diikuti oleh kata benda
sehingga jawaban yang tepat untuk soal ini adalah incident yang
berarti kecelakaan. Incident merupakan kata benda yang juga
memiliki akhiran penciri kata benda yaitu –dent. Contoh kata benda
yaang berakhiran serupa adalah resident, Sedangkan pilihan lain
incidental (adjective), happened (verb), opportune (adjective)
bukan merupakan kata benda.
3. Now is the time to modernize your office system for

greater.
(A) efficient
(B) efficiency
(C) efficacious
(D) efficiently
Kalimat di atas merupakan pernyataan. Kata yang berada sebelum

bagian rumpang (…) adalah kata greater yang merupakan
adjective, adjective berfungsi menerangkan kata benda, sehingga
kita memerlukan kata benda untuk mengisi bagian tersebut.
Akhiran – ency juga merupakan salah satu akhiran pembentuk kata
benda oleh sebab itu jawaban yang benar adalah eficiency. Diluar
soal di atas, contoh kata benda lain yang sejenis diantaranya
dependency, independency, contingency, etc. Opsi lain yaitu kata
efficient (adjective), efficiently (adverb), efficacious (adjective)
bukan merupakan kata benda
4. Patients are told to follow their doctor's .

(A) words
(B) advice
(C) advise
(D) advising
LPIDB UMS
Kalimat di atas merupakan pernyataan. Kata doctor‟s adalah kata
terdekat dengan bagian rumpang (…) yang menunjukan
kepemilikan, yang biasanya tidak menjadi kepala sebuah frasa
benda. Oleh sebab itu, dibutuhkan kata lain yang tepat berupa kata
benda. Advise adalah kata kerja, kata advising adalaah kata kerja
berakhiran -ing secara grammatikal tidak tepat untuk mengisi
bagian rumpang (…). Sedangkan kata words kurang tepat secara
makna karena tidak menunjukan makna saran atau nasehat. Kata
yang paling tepat adalah advice yang merupakan kata benda yang
berarti nasehat.
Latihan soal
1. Municipal bonds are issued by state and local governments
to pay for keeping roads and bridges in good .
(A) state
(B) repair
(C) quality
(D) manner
2. Kasus Noun pada Error Identification

1. The diverse of languages throughout the many Indonesian
A B C
islands adds to their color.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan predikat adds yang
menunjukan tenses present. Subjek berada sebelum predikat untuk
kalimat pernyataan. Kalimat ini memiliki predikat yang cukup
panjang terdapat tiga pilihan error identification hanya pada bagian
predikat saja. Keterangan tempat throughout yang berarti sepanjang
Indonesia tidak bermasalah karena berkaitan dengan many
Indonesian islands yang secara gramatikal sudah benar
menunjukan jamak atau plural. Article a, an, atau the harus diikuti
oleh kata benda sedangkan diverse adalah kata sifat, sehingga
bagian the diverse menjadi salah. Bentuk yang benar untuk kata
bendanya adalah diversity. Sehingga jawaban untuk pertanyaan
diatas adalah (A).

2. We set the merchandise next to the window to keep it
A B C
from get in our way.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan satu klausa. Opsi (A)

yang merupakan predikat dari kalimat tidak bermasalah karena
sudah sesuai dengan subject plural dan tenses yang digunakan yaitu
simple present. Opsi (B) next to yang berarti disamping jendela
juga sudah tepat penggunaanya. Opsi (C) keep it juga sudah benar
secara grammatical yaitu terletak setelah to dan dalam bentuk
infinitve (V1). Opsi (D) get adalah jawaban dari soal di atas karena
setelah preposition seharusnya diikuti oleh object of preposition,
sedangkan get berkelas kata kerja sehingga kata get pada posisi di
atas kurang tepat. Oleh sebab itu, kata get perlu dibendakan dengan
mengubahnya menjadi gerund yang dapat berfungsi sebagai benda
dengan menambahkan –ing menjadi getting.
3. Kasus Countable-Uncountable Noun pada Sentence

Completion
1. Some green were eaten by catterpillar.
A. Leafes C. leaves
B. Leafs D. Leavs
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan predikat were eaten.

Subjek kalimat berada sebelum kata were eaten. Predikat yang
diinginkan berbentuk plural karena terdapat quantifier some.
Semua opsi soal mengacu pada daun yang merupakan countable
noun oleh sebab itu jawaban yang benar adalah leaves, karena f
pada kata leaf akan berubah menjadi v apabila menjadi bentuk
plural, sebagaimana pada knive dan wife.
LPIDB UMS
4. Kasus Countable-Uncountable Noun pada Error Identification
1. Some increase at all in income taxes will be met with
A B
stiff resistance from all sides.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Predikat kalimat tersebut adalah
will be met. Frasa nomina sebelum predikat subjek. Predikat
kalimat itu sudah benar karena menggunakan konstruksi pasif
untuk subjek benda mati ‗kenaikan‘ atau increase. Namun pada
subjek some increase tidak tepat karena some adalah quantifiers
atau pembilang plural sehingga yang benar adalah increases.
Selain itu at all yang ikut digaris bawah pada opsi (A) terkesan
tidak berfungsi karena some increases sebagai subjek sudah cukup.
Latihan Soal
1. I asked if we could have just a little more times to prepare
A B C
for the meeting.
D
(1) Noun dan Article pada Sentence Completion

Noun dan article memiliki hubungan yang erat, dimana ada article
biasanya diikuti oleh kata benda (noun) ataupun kata lain yang
berfungsi sebagai benda seperti gerund.
1. There‘s someone with a package at … front door.
(A) a
(B) the
(C) an
(D) no article
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat pernyataan dengan satu klausa

ditandai dengan adanya satu subjek semu yaitu There-someone dan
predikat „s yang merpakan singkatan dari is. Frasa benda/nomina
front door merupakan benda yang spesifik ditandai dengan
letaknya yang jelas.

Oleh sebab itu article yang benar untuk menjawab soal di atas
adalah the (B) yang dipakai untuk benda yang definitif atau
spesifik. Sedangkan a/an adalah untuk kata benda/nomina.
indefinite atau tidak spesifik.
(2) Noun dan Article pada Error Identification.
1. Be certain to provide the manager with a analysis

A B
of the problems you face in carrying out your duties.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah perintah, subjek kalimat perintah adalah you

(orang kedua) yang biasanya dihilangkan/tidak ditulis. Predikat
kalimat diatas di atas adalah be certain. Meskipun kalimat sangat
panjang dan terkesan strukturnya tidak biasa, permasalahan kalimat
diatas termasuk sederhana yaitu penggunaan article ‖a” dan kata
‖analysis” yang tidak sesuai. Article ―a” biasa digunakan untuk
kata benda yang diawali bunyi konsonan seperti a book atau a
chair. Padalah pada kalimat di atas article a diikuti oleh kata
analysis yang diawali dengan bunyi vokal dalam pengucapanya.
Sehingga kita bisa menyimpulkan bagian ini salah karena
seharusnya kata analysis diberi article an yang digunakan dengan
kata berawalan bunyi vokal. Oleh karena itu jawaban soal adalah B.
2. I would feel better if we had all the logistical worked out

A B C
before we left.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dalam bentuk conditional

sentence (pengandaian). Bagian conditional sentence tidak terdapat
permasalahan karena sudah sesuai antara would pada klausa
pertama - dan had pada klausa kedua. Jadi tidak terdapat
permasalahan pada opsi (A) dan (B) Opsi (C) juga sudah sesuai
karena tenses yang digunakan kalimat adalah kata kerja bentuk
LPIDB UMS
lampau. Permasalahan terdapat pada opsi (C) karena kata logistical
(adjective berakhiran -al) didahului oleh article ―the”. Setelah
atikel harus diikuti oleh kata benda (nomina) karena artikel (a dan
the) termasuk salah satu ciri pre modifier noun. Oleh sebab itu,
penempatan kata logistical (adjective) menjadi salah, sehingga
jawaban soal yang benar (B) Apabila dibenarkan kata logistical
seharusnya berubah menjadi kata benda logistics.
5. Kasus Adjective pada Sentence Completion.

1. They stopped along the road to watch the birds feeding in
the swamp.
(A) color
(B) colored
(C) colorful
(D) coloring
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Kata yang berada di dekat

bagian rumpang (…) adalah the (article) dan bird (noun). Article
the mumbutuhkan kata benda sedangkan kata bird adalah kata
benda sehingga tidak terdapat permasalahan pada bagian ini. Kata
benda biasa diterangkan oleh kata sifat yang biasanya terletak
sebelum kata benda. Oleh sebab itu kita membutuhkan adjective
untuk mengisi bagian rumpang (…) diatas. Dari opsi yang ada
colourful adalah kata sifat (adjetive) karena akhiran –ful merupakan
penciri kata sifat. Contoh akhiran penciri kata sifat dalam Bahasa
Inggris lainya adalah –able, -ible, -ous, -al, dan -ive. Opsi lain yaitu
color (noun), colored (verb), coloring (verb) bukan merupakan kata
sifat sehigga tidak tepat untuk mengisi kalimat di atas.
2. The product‘s formula has been patented in many

countries.
(A) special
(B) especial
(C) specially
(D) especially

Kalimat nomor dua tersebut merupakan kalimat pernyataan
berpredikat has been patented. Bagian rumpang (…) merupakan
bagian subjek yaitu Frasa the product…formula yang merupakan
frasa nomina (noun phrase) dengan kata inti (headword) formula.
Dinamakan frasa nomina (benda) karena memiliki kata inti frasa
berupa nomina atau kata benda. Bagian rumpang (…) berada di
dekat formula yang merupakan kata benda yang biasa diterangkan
oleh kata sifat (adjective). Kata special adalah adjective karena
bercirikan suffiks atau akhiran –al adalah pembentuk kata sifat
sebagaimana akhiran -able, -ible, -ous, dan -ive Kata lainnya
especial yang berada pada pilihan tidak valid dan tidak terdapat
dikamus. Sedangkan kata specially dan especially adalah adverb.
Berdasarkan penjelasan tersebut, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A).
Latihan Soal
1. The judge made it clear that those facts were not___
(A) admission
(B) admit
(C) admissible
(D) admittance
2. Mr. Bagglio‘s definition of ―professional‖ unfortunately
doesn‘t include being .
(A) friendly
(B) politely
(C) courteously
(D) respectfully
3. Manhattan residents usually prefer less areas

when they go on vacation.
(A) population
(B) populations
(C) populate
(D) populous
LPIDB UMS
6. Kasus Adjective pada soal Error Identificationa
1. Park seemed tiredly when he filled out the shipping
A B C
documents to give them to the customs officer.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang mempunyai subjek Park

dan predikat seemed yang merupakan verb of senses atau linking
words. Linking words biasanya diikuti dengan adjective, sedangkan
tiredly adalah adverb, maka bagian tersebut salah, dan seharusnya
menjadi adjective tired untuk membetulkan kalimat. Oleh karena
itu, jawaban soal di atas adalah (A)
2. These days, the only way to deal with tax issues revolving
A B C
around real estate is in a conservatively fashion.
D
Kalimat di atas merupakan pernyataan. Frasa adalah kumpulan kata

yang belum memiliki subjek dan predikat. Frasa These days benar
secara grammatikal karena demonstrative adjective these dapat
dipakai untuk kata days yang plural. Frasa to deal with juga benar
karena (to + Verb1) biasa digunakan untuk mengungkapkan tujuan.
Frasa revolving around real estate merupakan praticiple phrase
juga benar karena frasa tersebut menerangkan noun phrase tax
issues. Frasa a conservatively fashion adalah noun phrase namun
tidak tepat karena yang dapat menerangkan kata inti frasa tersebut
fashion yang berupa kata benda harus digunakan kata sifat
sedangkan conservatively berakhiran –ly merupakan penciri
adverb. Jadi frasa yang benar seharusnya conservative fashion.
Oleh sebab itu, jawaban soal error identification tersebut adalah
(D).

7. Kasus Adverb pada Sentence Completion.
1. The boy was ashamed of what he had done.
(A) awful
(B) terrible
(C) terribly
(D) terrifically
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Bagian rumpang (…) berada

pada posisi subjek. Ini bisa diketahui karena bagian rumpang
berada setelah subjek ―the boy”. Kata ashamed adalah kata kerja
V3 dengan was sebagai to be nya karena merupakan konstruksi
pasif. Kata yang dapat memodifikasi kata kerja pada posisi ini
adalah kata keterangan. Salah satu ciri kata keterangan atau adverb
adalah berakhiran dengan –ly. Secara makna kata terrible
(adjective) berkonotasi negatif. Sedangkan untuk kata yang cocok
dengan kalimat secara grammatikal membutuhkan adverb adalah
terribly atau dalam bahasa Indonesia berarti ‗dengan sangat‘. Opsi
lain awful, dan terrible adalah adjective, sedangkan terrifically
adalah adverb namun kata tersebut berkonotasi positif dan tidak
cocok dengan tone kalimat yang negative.
2. After leaving home, the children wrote to their

parents.
(A) hardly
(B) hard ever
(C) hardly ever
(D) hardly never
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. After leaving home berfungsi

sebagai keterangan waktu, sedangkan the children adalah subjek
kalimat, predikat kalimat adalah kata kerja wrote yang disini
merupakan bentuk lampau. Frasa their parents berfungsi sebagai
objek. Kalimat di atas membutuhkan adverb karena bagian
rumpang (…) berada didekat kata kerja atau verb. Opsi (B) kurang
tepat karena jika diisikan dalam konteks ini hard ever merupakan
adjective. Selain itu kata hard ever tidak umum ditemukan dalam
LPIDB UMS
Bahasa Inggris. Opsi (D) hardly never kurang tepat untuk mengisi
bagian rumpang karena kata hardly dan never sama-sama bemakna
negasi. Opsi hardly kurang tepat meskipun mendekati, hardly biasa
digunakan untuk menunjukan dengan susah payah. Sedangkan
hardly ever menunjukan frekuensi sangat jarang atau hampir tidak
pernah. Untuk konteks di atas opsi (C) hardly ever lebih tepat
digunakan.
1. This device will help many people who thought they

could lead useful lives.
(A) no
(B) ever
(C) never
(D) always
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dan merupakan kalimat

kompleks yang terdiri dari satu klausa induk dan klausa anak.
Bagian rumpang (…) berada pada bagian klausa anak dan terletak
pada bagian predikat. Dilihat dari makna kalimat maka “this
device” alat ini memiliki penekanan makna menjadi alat yang dapat
membantu people (orang-orang) memperbaiki suatu keadaan. Oleh
sebab itu diperlukan adverb dengan makna negatif dalam klausa
yang menerangkan pemikiran orang tersebut sebelumnya yang
berkontradiksi dengan keadaan setelah ada this device (alat ini). No
dan never bermakna negatif, namun no adalah determiner yang
tidak dapat digunakan pada posisi tersebut yang membutuhkan
adverb. Oleh sebab itu, jawaban yang tepat adalah adverb ( C )
never.
Latihan Soal
1. Calendar years and fiscal years don‘t coincide.
(A) almostadver
(B) already
(C) always
(D) also

2. The weather report said it would rain in the
afternoon.
(A) may
(B) can
(C) could
(D) probably
3. The publisher will need the report by week‘s end.

(A) maybe
(B) probably
(C) possible
(D) eventually
4. He worked in the shipping department seven years.

(A) for
(B) ago
(C) since
(D) during
8. Kasus Adverb pada Error Identification

1. They have not still paid the annual retainer that we
A B C D
agreed upon
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Kata annual (tahunan) merupa-

kan adjective (kata sifat) yang menerangkan kata benda retainer,
secara gramatikal relasi keduanya sudah benar. Kata paid sudah
benar berada pada bagian predikat dan merupakan verb3 yang
melengkapi have dalam tenses present perfect. Kata not sudah betul
karena menunjukkan makna ‗belum‘. Kata still yang merupakan
adverb salah letak, seharusnya kata still berada setelah subjek dan
sebelum kata have. Adverb yang letaknya sejenis dengan still
diantaranya: always, never, dan usually.
LPIDB UMS
9. Kasus Verb pada Sentence Completion
1. The employees greatly _ management's
understanding.
(A) thank
(B) grateful
(C) thankful
(D) appreciate
Kalimat pernyataan di atas bersubjek The employees, berpredikat

yang terletak setelah subjek. Kata greatly berakhiran –ly yang
merupakan penciri adverb. Untuk kalimat di atas kita memerlukan
kata kerja (verb) untuk menjadi predikat kalimat. Kata grateful dan
thankful tidak memenuhi karena merupakan adjective, akhiran –ful
merupakan pembentuk adjective.
Dalam frasa predikat, bisa terdapat kata lain selain kata kerja
(verba) atau axuliary/ to be yaitu berupa adverb. Adverb pada
bagian predikat menerangkan kata kerja, sebagian adverb secara
grammatikal berposisi sebelum kata kerja, seperti greatly, rarely,
never, strongly etc. Sebagian kata kerja berpsosisi antara to be dan
kata kerja, sedangkan, sebagian lainya berposisi pada akhir
predikat.
Latihan Soal
1. The assembly instructions will provide you all the
information you .
(A) need
(B) needs
(C) needful
(D) necessary
2. Electric cars today are able three times longer than

those of just five years ago.
(A) running
(B) to run
(C) be run
(D) run

3. The elevator door didn‘t at the sound of the
bell.
(A) closed
(B) be closed
(C) close
(D) to close
4. We weren‘t able to get any gas there because the pumps

were .
(A) empty
(B) used
(C) order
(D) repaired
5. The board of directors convinced him to action

against the other firm.
(A) take
(B) do
(C) give
(D) make
10. Kasus Verb pada Error Identification

1. This years alone, over three thousand inventors from
A B
all over the country are application for patent.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Perlu diketahui subjek dalam

kalimat tidak selalu berada pada bagian paling depan seperti frasa
This year alone yang merupakan keterangan waktu (adverb), This
year alone yang mengawali kalimat adalah merupakan keterangan
waktu yang dapat diletakan pada awal kalimat untuk memberi
penekanan. Untuk mempermudah mencari subjek kita dapat
melihat predikatnya dulu. Predikat pada kalimat ditandai dengan
auxiliary atau to be pada kalimat di atas yaitu are application.
Bagian Predikat seharusnya berisi kata kerja atau to be/ auxiliary
LPIDB UMS
dan kata kerja. Namun, pada predikat kalimat di atas terdapat kata
benda yang ditandai dengan akhiran –ion, maka dapat disimpulkan
bagian tersebut salah, bagian are aplication seharusnya diubah
menjadi are applying untuk menunjukan konteks present continous
dengan dimensi waktu tahun ini.
2. The cartel has little opportunities to keep prices at a level

A B
that they feel is appropriate.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan satu klausa, namun
bagian objek kalimat juga mengandung klausa lainya yang juga
terdiri dari to invinitive phrase beserta keteranganya. Karena
bagian objek juga mengandung clause maka aturan clause tetap
berlaku dimana satu clause hanya boleh memiliki satu subjek dan
satu predikat. Pada bagian …that they feel is appropriate, terdapat
dua predikat yaitu feel dan is, double predication tidak boleh
terjadi dalam satu klausa. Oleh sebab itu bagian is dalah dan harus
dihilangkan, sehingga jawaban soal adalah (D) is.
3. He refused to tell us why was he crying.

A B C D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang terdiri dari dua klausa

dengan subjek dan predikat klausa pertama adalah he-refused dan
klausa kedua he-was. Pilihan kata bagian predikat dan subjek tidak
bermasalah karena sudah sesuai tensesnya, dan hubungan tunggal-
jamak nya. Klausa kedua pada kalimat terletak setelah kata why.
Ada kejanggalan dalam konstruksi klausa kedua, yaitu mengguna-
kan konstruksi pertanyaan meskipun tidak terdapat tanda tanya (?).
Karena tidak terdapat tanda tanya, oleh sebab itu seharusnya
konstruksi yang dipakai pada klausa kedua adalah bentuk
pernyataan, sehingga seharusnya yang benar adalah…why he was
crying. Kesimpulanya bagian yang salah pada soal di atas adalah
(D) was he.

II. Tenses
Terdapat 16 tenses dalam bahasa Inggris. Tenses digunakan untuk
merefleksikan waktu sebuah kejadian atau kegiatan di dalam
sebuah kalimat. Oleh sebab itu kegiatan yang sama apabila terjadi
pada waktu berbeda maka kalimatnya menjadi berbeda. Perbedaan
terutama dapat dilihat pada bagian predikat berupa perubahan kata
kerja dengan menambah akhiran tertentu dan pada bagian auxiliary
misalnya perbedaan to be yang menyesuaikan tenses/waktu. Selain
dapat ditambahkaan keterangan waktu atau frekuensi untuk
memperjelas masalah tenses. Dua belas dari enam belas tenses
dalam konstruksi kalimat aktif dapat dilihat pada tabel berikut.
Active Sentence Formula
Time of Speaking
Aspect Past Present Future
Simple worked S+V2 work /works will work
S+Vs/es S+will+V1
Continuous was/were working am/is/are working will be working
S+was/were+Ving S+am/is/are+Ving S+will+be+Ving
Perfect had worked has/have worked will have worked
S+had+V3 S+ has/have+V3 S+will+have+V3
Perfect had been working has/have been will have been
Continuous S+had+been+Ving working working
S+has/have+been S+will+have+bee
+Vin g n+Ving
Empat tenses yang tidak terdapat pada tabel tersebut adalah simple
future (to be + going to), future in the past, sedangkan dua yang
lainya adalah pengunaan present continuous untuk future dan
simple present untuk penggunaan future.
LPIDB UMS
1. Kasus Tenses pada Sentence Completion
1. Yesterday he a stern warning from his doctor.
(A) receives
(B) received
(C) was receiving
(D) had to receive
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat pernyataan. Terdapat keterangan

waktu (adverbof time) yesterday dalam kalimat tersebut yang
menunjukan tenses simple past karena terjadi di waktu lampau.
Kalimat menggunakan konstruksi aktif dengan subjek he yang
melakukan kegiatan aktif. Kata kerja dalam simple past ditulis
dalam bentuk kedua atau untuk kata regular berkhiran –ed,
sehingga jawaban yang benar adalah (B). received.
2. The field of biotechnology to research that could

reduce the incidence of heart attacks.
(A) leading
(B) has led
(C) had led
(D) have been leading
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat pernyataan. Kalimat diatas tidak

memiliki keterangan waktu yang jelas (tidak definite). Sehingga
tenses berjenis past cenderung tidak dapat digunakan, karena tenses
past biasanya meminta keterangan waktu yang jelas atau paling
tidak kronologi kejadian yang berlangsung sesudahnya untuk
menunjukan lampau pada bagian yang rumpang. Sehingga opsi (C)
tersingkir. Opsi (A) tidak dapat digunakan untuk mengisi bagian
yang rumpang (…) karena kata kerja bentuk -ing saja tidak pernah
bisa mengisi bagian predikat tanpa kata bantu atau to be. Subjek
kalimat adalah the field of biotechnology dimana subjek aslinya
adalah the field yang merupakan subjek tunggal sehingga opsi (D)
have been leading tersisih karena have biasa digunakan untuk
subjek jamak. Sehingga jawaban yang tepat untuk nomer ini adalah
(B) has led yang melambangkan tenses present perfect yang berarti

bidang bioteknologi telah menuntun penelitian yang dapat
mengurangi resiko serangan jantung.
3. Ever since they discovered that little resort off the coast of
Spain, they anywhere else for vacation.
(A) didn‘t go
(B) weren‘t going
(C) went
(D) haven‘t gone
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan dua klausa. Antara

klausa satu dengan yang lain dibatasi dengan koma. Klausa
pertama diawali dengan keterangan waktu Ever since yang berarti
semenjak, bersubjek they dan berpredikat discovered yang
merupakan V2 yang melambangkan simple past. Keterangan Ever
since mengindikasikan klausa pertama sebagai starting point
kebiasaan baru yang masih berlangsung sampai sekarang. Dilihat
dari klausa bagian kedua maka secara meaning kita dapat menarik
kesimpulan bahawa subjek they (mereka) tidak pergi kemana mana
untuk berwisata selain tempat di Spanyol tersebut. Sehingga pada
klausa kedua kita lebih tepat menggunakan tenses present perfect
dengan not karena merupakan kalimat bermakna negatif dan juga
karena kebiasaan tersebut dimulai di waktu lampau semenjak
menemukan resort dan masih berlangsung sampai sekarang
(present).
Latihan Soal
1. As onlookers watched, the thief the fence and
fled his pursuers.
(A) leap
(B) leaps
(C) leaped
(D) is leaping
LPIDB UMS
2. His discoveries, which were heavily promoted in the
Explorer‘s Club Journal also given considerable
attention by media.
(A) was
(B) it was
(C) had
(D) were
3. Customer Service, on the fifth floor, will have ______

your application before I can process it.
(A) approve
(B) been approved
(C) approving
(D) to approve
2. Kasus Tenses Pada Error Identification

1. When he was younger, it was said he is an inventive and
A B C
loyal employee.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang memiliki tiga klausa karena

memiliki tiga predikat. Klausa pertama dalam bentuk past dengan
subjek he dan predikat was, selanjutnya adalah klausa kedua it was
said dan diikuti kluasa ketiga sampai titik. Kalimat di atas adalah
kalimat tidak langsung atau reported speech ditandai dengan
ekspresi it was said. Oleh sebab itu, karena salah satu klausa
kalimat ditulis dalam bentuk past dan
mengindikasikan reported speech maka klausa yang lain juga harus
ditulis dalam tenses past sehingga is seharusnya menjadi was.
III. Kasus Passive

Konstruksi pasif memiliki ciri dimana subjek tidak melakukan
kegiatan aktif dan sebaliknya dikenai kegiatan. Subjek konstruksi
pasif biasanya adalah benda mati atau inanimate. Tetapi subjek

benda hidup juga dapat ditulis dengan konstruksi pasif asal tidak
melakukan kegiataan aktif dan sebaliknya dikenai kegiatan. Rumus
umum konstruksi pasif adalah S+ tobe + V3. To be yang dipakai
menyesuaikan jenis tensesnya. Untuk tenses continuous baik
present atau past, diantara to be dan V3 terdapat auxiliary sisipan
being. Sedangkan untuk tenses perfect baik present atau past
terdapat sisipan auxiliary berupa been.
1. Kasus Passive pada Sentence Completion

1. The court made it obvious that illegal parking would no
longer be .
(A) tolerated
(B) tolerate
(C) tolerant
(D) tolerance
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang terdiri dari dua klausa,

yang pertama The court made it obvious dan klausa kedua berada
setelah that. Subjek klausa kedua adalah illegal parking. Bagian
yang rumpang merupakan posisi predikat (…). Hal ini dapat
diketahui karena kalimat dengan benda mati yang tidak melakukan
kegiatan sebagai subjek biasanya ditulis dengan konstruksi pasif
S+ to be+ V3 untuk kalimat dengan predikat modal
S+modal+be+V3 sebagaimana kalimat di atas. memiliki. Oleh
sebab itu, kata yang dibutuhkan untuk melengkapi konstruksi pasif
di atas adalah V3 sehingga jawaban yang benar adalah (A).
Tolerated. Opsi lain tidak ada yang menunjukan bentuk V3.
2. Bondholders are generally more conservative

than stockholders.
(A) consider
(B) considering
(C) considerable
(D) considered
LPIDB UMS
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan bagian rumpang (…)
predikat karena kata terdekat adalah are dan generally yang
merupakan adverb. Predikat sudah memiliki to be jika kita perlu
menambahkan kata untuk melengkapi kalimat maka kata yang
paling tepat adalah kata kerja pasif dalam bentuk V3 karena
kalimat tersebut mengelompokkan Bonholders selaku subjek pada
kelompok tertentu, pengelompokkan ini seolah-olah Bondholders
tidak melakukan kegiatan mengelompokan sendiri. Sehingga
jawaban yang benar adalah (D) dan opsi lain tidak menunjukan V3.
Latihan Soal
1. His discoveries, which were heavily promoted in the
Explorer‘s Club Journal also given considerable
attention by media.
(A) was
(B) it was
(C) had
(D) were
2. Kasus Pasif pada Error Identification

1. The company rules are establishing to increase morale
A B C
and profits.
D
Kalimat pernyataan di atas memiliki subjek The company rules

yang merupakan benda mati atau inanimate yang cenderung tidak
melakukan kegiatan aktif. Kalimat pasif banyak diawali dengan
subjek inanimate. Predikat are establishing yang berarti sedang
membuat kurang cocok dengan subjek karena subjek merupakan
benda mati yang tidak dapat melakukan kegiatan aktif. Sehingga
dapat ditarik kesimpulan bahwa kalimat di atas seharusnya
menggunakan konstruksi pasif S+ tobe+V3 sehingga eshtablishing
seharusnya diubah menjadi eshtablished.

2. The communication center will have moved as soon as the
A B
reception area near completion.
C D
Kalimat pernyataan di atas bersubjek The communication center

yang merupakan benda mati. Predikat kalimat di atas adalah will
have moved karena terletak setelah subjek. Dilihat dari konstruksi
yang ada maka predikat ini adalah predikat aktif karena tidak
terdapat kata to be meskipun memiliki V3 yang berarti akan telah
memindahkan (future perfect tense). Namun, konstruksi predikat
aktif tidak cocok untuk kalimat di atas karena subjeknya adalah
benda mati. Sehingga konstruksi predikat aktif perlu diubah
dengan menambahkan kata to be sebelum kata moved menjadi will
have to be moved, sehingga kalimat berubah menjadi pasif.
Latihan soal
1. Due to an increase in the minimum wage, the pay scales
A B C
for the wait staff will have to be recalculate.
D
IV. Kasus Vocabulary

Soal vocabulary memerlukan pengetahuan akan arti kata. Pilihan
jawaban tidak jarang memiliki kelas kata yang sama sehinggga kita
perlu menggunakan meaning atau makna dan konteks untuk
memilih jawaban yang benar. Pilihlah kata dengan konteks paling
dekat misalnya jika kita berbicara soal keuangan tentu saja kita
berbicara untung, rugi, nilai, dan investasi. Jika kita berbicara
masalah kesehatan maka kita dekat dengan konteks gizi,
kebersihan, atau penyakit.
LPIDB UMS
1. Kasus Vocabulary pada Error Identification
1. The shared had been for quite some time.
(A) undernourished
(B) undervalued
(C) undercharged
(D) underdeveloped
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang memiliki konstruksi pasif

dengan tenses past perfect. Namun pengetahuan grammar saja
tidak dapat menjawab soal di atas karena semua pilihan berkelas
kata sama yaitu berupa V3. Secara meaning (makna) kalimat di
atas berada pada konteks keuangan saham. Kata undernourished
berhubungan dengan nutrisi bidang kesehatan, sedangkan
undervalued berarti dinilai lebih rendah dari pada seharusnya,
undercharged berarti membayar lebih murah dari seharusnya,
underdeveloped berarti tidak berkembang sebagimana seharusnya.
Untuk konteks keuangan pada kalimat di atas kata undervalued
lebih tepat karena saham merupakan surat yang dijual belikan
perusahaan atau individu untuk mendapatkan modal atau sebagai
elemen investasi untuk mendapatkan keuntungan. Sehingga
penekanannya ada pada nilai. Oleh sebab itu, jawaban (D)
undervalued adalah kata paling tepat untuk konteks ini.
2. The salesman left a good on his customers.

(A) idea
(B) feeling
(C) impression
(D) expression
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan. Kata terdekat dengan bagian

rumpang (…) adalah a good, kata good berfungsi sebagai adjective
yang membutuhkan kata benda. Hal ini diperkuat dengan adanya
article a yang juga diikuti oleh kata benda (nomina). Opsi yang
ada semua dapat dikategorikan sebagai kata benda/nomina, baik
yang berakhiran –ion yang merupakan pembentuk kata benda atau
yang berbentuk gerund dengan akhiran -ing. Oleh sebab itu,

diperlukan pengetahuan meaning atau makna dan konteks dalam
menjawab soal ini. Biasanya yang membekas atau left adalah kesan
sehingga impression adalah jawaban yang tepat untuk kalimat di
atas.
Latihan Soal
1. A crowd gathered to the government's action.
(A) detest
(B) protest
(C) register
(D) demonstrate
2. A side of the modern age is noise pollution.

(A) affect
(B) result
(C) factor
(D) effect
3. These tires are highly _ because of their durability.

(A) recollected
(B) recommended
(C) recompensed
(D) recoil
4. The secretary told me that a new was being mailed

to all interested investors.
(A) prospectus
(B) prosecution
(C) prosthesis
(D) prosperity
5. Ms. Yen‘s contribution to the company has been .

(A) industrial
(B) indigenous
(C) invaluable
(D) inclement
LPIDB UMS
6. Mr. Bagglio‘s definition of ―professional‖ unfortunately
doesn‘t include being .
(A) friendly
(B) politely
(C) courteously
(D) respectfully
V. Subject Verb Agreement

Secara singkat subject-verb agreement adalah kesesuaian antara
subjek dan predikat yang digunakan dalam kalimat. Apabila subjek
tunggal maka predikat yang digunakan harus merupakan predikat
tunggal ataupun sebaliknya.
Terdapat beberapa jenis kata benda (nomina) yang dapat menjadi
subjek, diantaranya tunggal (singular), jamak (plural), serta
uncountable noun untuk benda yang tidak dapat dihitung
materialnya (uncountable). Untuk uncountable noun biasanya
digunakan takaran atau digunakan predikat/verb tunggal.
1. Kasus Subject Verb Agreement dalam Sentence Completion

1. Every Muslim … alm tax before Ied Al Fitr prayer every
year amid to purify their soul.
(A) has to pay
(B) have to pay
(C) have got
(D) will pay
Subjek kalimat pernyataan di atas adalah Every Muslim, kata every
adalah penanda singular (tunggal), sehingga subjek yang cocok
untuk kalimat di atas adalah subjek singular (tunggal). Pada
kalimat di atas terdapat makna membayar zakat adalah sebuah
keharusan sehingga predikat yang tepat adalah (A). has to pay.
Opsi lain yang mengandung have digunakan sebagai subjek plural
sehingga tidak sesuai dengan subjek.
Opsi (D) will pay tidak sesuai dengan tenses karena membayar
zakat merupakan kegiatan rutin yang lebih cocok diungkapkan
dengan simple present.

Latihan Soal
1. Mrs. Stein, the chairwoman and founder of Women‘s
World, to an enthusiastic audience at the fashion show.
(A) who spoke
(B) was spoke
(C) that she spoke
(D) spoke
2. Opinions based on personal inspection much more

substantial than those based on conjecture.
(A) is
(B) are
(C) they are
(D) have
2. Kasus Subjek-Verb Agreement dalam Error Identification

1. Did they hear many news about the nation‘s economy for
A B
while they were abroad the conference?
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat interogative. Kata news atau berita

adalah uncountable noun oleh sebab itu quantifiers atau kata
pembilang many tidak dapat digunakan dan bagian salah tersebut
menjadi jawaban untuk soal error identification di atas.
2. The merger of Whitehurst and Brown are causing a stir

A B
in the business community and in the media.
C D
Kalimat di atas termasuk pernyataan dengan predikat are causing.

Frasa The merger of Whitehurst and Brown adalah subjek. Namun,
subjek asli kalimat berada sebelum preposition, pada kasus kalimat
di atas adalah sebelum preposition “of”. Sehingga subjek kalimat
di atas adalah The merger yang merupakan subjek tunggal karena
LPIDB UMS
tidak terdapat penanda plural seperti akhiran - s/es. Padahal,
predikat kalimat di atas adalah are causing yang merupakan
predikat untuk subjek plural. Oleh sebab itu, bagian tersebut (are
causing) menjadi salah dan menjadi jawaban soal error
identification diatas. Jika dibetulkan kalimat di atas seharusnya
menggunakan is causing untuk subjek tunggal the merger.
Latihan Soal
1. By the time we read the paper, the news are old, since
A B
we‘ve already heard on television what‘s happening
C
in the world.
D
VI. Conditional Sentence

1. Kasus Conditional pada Sentence Completion
Conditional adalah konstruksi yang dipakai dalam pengandaian.
Terdapat tiga jenis pengandaian dalam bahasa Inggris yaitu: tipe I
(If clause present, will clause future) yang masih mungkin terjadi
di masa depan, tipe II (If clause past, would+V1) yang kenyataanya
sedang terjadi sekarang, tipe III (If clause past perfect+ would
have+V3) yang kenyataanya sudah terjadi di waktu lampau. Selain
ketiga tipe tersebut terdapat zero conditional (if present, present)
yang tidak terbatas waktu.
1. The financial statement would have reflected our

difficulties if we _ our accounting year.
(A) had not changed
(B) have not changed
(C) have not been changing
(D) had not been changing
Kalimat pernyataan di atas merupakan conditional tipe III ditandai

dengan penggunaan would+have+ V3 pada would have reflected,

maka pada klausa if seharusnya diisi dengan past perfect had+V3
yaitu opsi (A) had not changed.
2. The hotel manager would have offered us a 25% discount

if we a party of ten or more.
(A) had been
(B) were
(C) are
(D) been
Kalimat pernyataan di atas juga merupakan Conditional tipe III

ditandai dengan penggunaan would+have+ V3 pada would have
offered. Maka pada klausa if seharusnya diisi dengan past perfect
(had+V3) yaitu opsi A Had been.
2. Kasus Conditional pada Error identification
1. If it will rain in the afternoon, the flight will have to be

A B C
canceled.
D
Setiap kalimat conditional memiliki dua klaus yaitu klausa If dan
klausa will. Salah dari dua klausa tersebut satunya menjadi patokan
dalam kasus error identification untuk menentukan tipe conditional
kalimat. Pada Kalimat di atas merupakan conditional tipe I. Pada
klausa if tidak boleh terdapat klausa will, begitu pula sebaliknya.
Sehingga bagian yang salah pada kalimat di atas adalah (B) will
rain karena terdapat pada klausa if.
VII. Paraleleism
Paralelism secara singkat merupakan keseragaman gramatikal yang
disebabkan penggunaan coordinate conjuction atau konjungsi
setara yaitu for, and, or, but, or, yet, so yang disingkat sebagai
FANBOYS dan juga koma ( , ).
LPIDB UMS
1. Kasus Paraleleism pada Sentence Completion
1. The little girl is taking care of the puppy with patience,
affection, and ...
(A) Kind
(B) very kind
(C) kindness
(D) kindly
Kalimat di atas berjenis pernyataan dimana terdapat coordinate

conjunction ―and” sehingga sisi kanan conjunction dan kiri
conjuction seharusnya memiliki bentuk grammatikal yang sama.
Pada sisi kiri conjuction terdapat kata affection yang merupakan
kata benda/noun sehingga pada sisi kanan conjuction juga perlu
diisi dengan kata benda. Akhiran –ness adalah akhiran pembentuk
kata benda sehingga opsi (C) kindness adalah pilihan tepat untuk
melengkapi kalimat di atas. Opsi lain untuk soal tersebut tidak
mencirikan kata benda (nomina).
Latihan Soal
1. Products made by Izmir Vitamins are designed to promote
… and well-being.
(A) Health
(B) Healthy
(C) Healthful
(D) Healthfully
2. Kasus Paralelism pada Error Identification

1. Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving,
A B
to color, to flavor, or to nutritionally fortify food.
C D
Pada kalimat di atas subjek kalimat adalah kata jamak

manufacturers sedangkan predikat kalimat adalah modal dan V1
may use, diantara keduanya tidak terdapat permasalahan. Pada

bagian selanjutnya terdapat kata for preserving, to color, to flavor,
dan to nurtritionally fortify food yang pada jedanya dihubungkan
dengan koma ( , ) yang menunjukan kesetaraan. Koma ( , ) juga
merupakan penanda bahwa secara grammatikal sisi kanan dan kiri
haruslah memiliki bentuk grammatikal yang sama. Apabila di
samping kanan koma menggunakan bentuk to+invinitive maka
seharusnya bagian kanan koma juga menggunakan bentuk to
invinitve. Pada kalimat di atas, disamping kanan koma terdapat
frasa to color sedangkan bagian kiri koma terdapat frasa yang
digaris bawah for preserving. Oleh sebab itu, for preserving harus
diganti menjadi to preserve agar sesuai dengan aturan paralelism
yang ditandai dengan adanya konjungsi setara for, nor, but, or, yet,
so, dan koma.
1. It is important to be able to evaluate a situation and

A B
be confident in make a decision.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat nominal yang memiliki subjek it

dan predikat is yang secara grammatikal sudah benar. Pada kalimat
tersebut terdapat conjunction and yang bentuk grammatikal antara
kanan dan kiri konjungsi haruslah sama. Sebelah kiri and terdapat
bentuk to+v1 ―to be able to evaluate”, sehingga sebelah kanan and
hendaknya juga berbentuk to+v1 menjadi ―to be confident”. Oleh
sebab itu, bagaian yang salah adalah (C).
VIII. Conjuction dan Transition

Terdapat beberapa jenis conjuction dalam bahasa Inggris
diantaranya coordinate conjuction, subordinate conjunction,
correlative conjuction, dan linking conjunction. Coordinate
conjunction sering kali digunakan dalam kalimat compound.
Coordinate conjuction dapat disingkat menjadi ―FANBOYS‖ yang
merupakan singkatan dari “for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so”.
Subordinate conjunction menghubungkan antara klausa
independent atau induk kalimat, dengan klausa dependent atau
LPIDB UMS
anak kalimat. Beberapa contoh subordinate conjunction atau
konjungsi bertingkat diantaranya: although, because, that, since, if,
after, before, etc.
Correlative conjunction menghubungkan dua bentuk gramatikal
yang sama. Contoh correlative conjunction diantaranya:
both_and_, either_or_, neither_nor_, not only_but also_,
whether_or_.
Linking conjunction (adverbial) adalah sama dengan transition.
Jika linking conjunction menghubungkan antara dua kalimat atau
paragraf maka disebagai transition. Selain dari fungsi tersebut
maka disebut sebagai linking conjunction atau adverbial.
Pilihan konjungsi dalam suatu kalimat sering kali berkaitan dengan
makna dan hubungan antar klausa yang terdapat didalamnya.
1. Kasus Conjuction pada Sentence Completion

1. One partner has resigned, others are quitting, too.
(A) Because
(B) Although
(C) If
(D) Before
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat pernyataan yang memiliki dua

klausa dengan hubungan sebab akibat dimana konjungsi berada
pada awal kalimat, sehingga antara klausa pertama dan kedua
paling tepat digabungkan dengan konjungsi because yang berarti
‗karena‘. Konjungsi if dipakai untuk pengandaian, before
menunjukkan kronologi, dan although menunjukkan kontradiksi.
Oleh sebab itu, jawaban soal di atas adalah (A) because.
2. … the traffic was bad, the manager managed to arrive on

time.
(A) In order to
(B) Although
(C) Unless
(D) However

Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang didalamnya terdapat
hubungan kontradiksi. Sehingga antara klausa pertama dan kedua
paling tepat digabungkan dengan konjungsi although yang berarti
meskipun. In order to biasa digunakan untuk menyatakan tujuan,
unless biasa digunakan untuk pengecualian, dan however yang
berarti namun. Oleh sebab itu, jawaban soal di atas adalah (B)
although
3. Either the product the advertisement should be changed.

(A) or
(B) nor
(C) and
(D) so
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang terdiri dari satu klausa.

Kata either biasa digunakan untuk merujuk ke satu hal dari dua
pilihan, either selalu diikuti oleh kata or. Sehingga jawaban untuk
soal tersebut adalah (A) or.
4. Most electrical wiring is installed behind walls it is

not visible.
(A) because
(B) for that
(C) to
(D) so
Kalimat di atas adalah kalimat pernyataan yang memiliki dua

klausa dengan hubungan sebab akibat. Antara klausa pertama dan
kedua paling tepat digabungkan dengan konjungsi so yang berarti
sehingga, karena konjungsi berada diantara klausa sebab dan klusa
akibat. Konjungsi because dipakai jika akibat ditulis mendahului
sebab, for that biasa diikuti other noun bukan klausa, dan to biasa
diikuti oleh kata kerja (verba). Oleh sebab itu, jawaban soal
tersebut adalah (D) do.
LPIDB UMS
5. He said he would send them no more invoices.
(A) how
(B) that
(C) what
(D) when
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan berjenis kalimat kompleks

dengan satu klausa induk, dan reported speech sebagai klausa anak
sehingga conjuction yang paling tepat digunakan adalah (B) that
karena berfungsi menerangkan informasi tambahan yang bukan
merupakan cara melakukan sesuatu atau opsi (A) how, dan bukan
kapan kegiatan terjadi atau opsi (D). when dan bukan juga (C)
what yang biasa digunakan untuk menerangkan benda.
Latihan Soal
1. His pride, instinct, sense of obligation helped him to be
successful.
(A) or
(B) and
(C) but
(D) also
2. the managers enhance the training program for new

employees, absenteeism has been declining.
(A) Before
(B) When
(C) Since
(D) During
3. Our department is neither prepared willing to fund

this research.
(A) or
(B) nor
(C) but
(D) also

2. Kasus Conjuction dalam Error Identification
1. Although one would not expect it, ice cream sales
A B
are highest in the winter season or lowest in the summer.
C D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan yang terdiri dari dua klausa.
Klausa pertama adalah anak kalimat karena terdapat konjungsi
bertingkat atau subordinate conjuction “although”, klausa ini
sampai pada tanda koma ( , ). Klausa kedua dari ice cream sampai
titik ( . ) adalah klausa induk (inti). Klausa induk (klausa inti)
membicarakan tentang penjualan ice cream yang tertinggi pada
musim dingin ditandai dengan kata highest diantara lima musim
dan terendah pada musim panas dengan kata lowest. Kedua
informasi tentang penjualan ice cream digabungkan dengan
konjungi or. Konjungsi or dipakai untuk menunjukkan pilihan atau
alternatif. Pada kalimat di atas antara penjualan saat musim dingin
(winter) dan musim panas (summer) bersifat menambah informasi
sehingga konjungsi yang lebih cocok digunakan adalah and,
sehingga bagian yang salah pada kalimat di atas adalah D or.
IX. Relative Pronoun and Relative Clauses

Relatif Clause biasa digunakan untuk menerangkan orang atau
benda di dalam sebuah kalimat. Relative pronoun adalah kata yang
digunakan untuk menghubungkan relative clause dengan klausa
utama kalimat. Beberapa contoh relative pronoun yaitu: who,
which, that, whom, whose.
1. Kasus Relative Pronoun and Relative Clauses dalam Sentence

Completion
1. The building, for a purchasing fund had been set aside,
was severely damaged in the hurricane.
(A) that
(B) which
(C) whom
(D) this
LPIDB UMS
dengan satu klausa induk dan sebuah appositive atau keterangan
tambahan berjenis relative clause. Relative clause yang masih
rumpang (…) tersebut mengacu pada the building, dengan kata lain
relative pronoun tersebut menerangkan subjek building. Opsi (A
this bukan merupakan relative pronoun karena merupakan
demonstrative pronoun. Opsi (C) whom juga tidak tepat untuk
konteks di atas karena biasa digunakan untuk menerangkan orang
dalam posisi objek. Opsi (A) that menjadi kurang tepat jika
digunakan bersama for, namun relative pronoun opsi (B) which
dapat digunakan dengan for menjadi ―for which‖ sehingga jawaban
yang tepat untuk soal di atas adalah (B) which.
2. I don‘t understand of these is to be included in the
shipment.
(A) which
(B) that
(C) some
(D) what

dengan satu klausa induk dan relative clause sebagai klausa anak.
Relative clause terletak mulai bagian rumpang (…) sampai dengan
shipment. Dari kata these dalam relative clause diketahui ada
pilihan dan pilihan tersebut mengacu kepada kata benda karena
akan dilakukan pengiriman. Relative pronoun yang tepat untuk
kata benda dan pilihan dalam konteks di atas adalah (A). which.
Opsi (B) that tidak tepat karena tidak dapat digunakan untuk
mengungkapkan pilihan, begitu pula dengan opsi (D) what dan (C)
some.
2. Kasus Relative Pronoun and Relative Clauses dalam Error

Identification
1. The supervisor showed a noticeable dislike for employees
A B C
which were late.
D

dengan satu klausa induk dan relative clause sebagai klausa anak.
Opsi (A) The, tidak terdapat permasalahan karena supervisor
tunggal dan spesific. Opsi (B). showed yang merupakan predikat
dari klausa induk sudah benar sebagai predikat kalimat aktif
dengan tenses simple past. Opsi (C) noticeable sudah benar karena
merupakan adjective yang menerangkan kata dislike yang pada
kalimat di atas berfungsi sebagai noun. Kata yang diterangkan
yang berada sebelum relative clause adalah kata employees atau
‗pegawai‘ yang merupakan orang sehingga penggunaan relative
pronoun ―which” kurang tepat, karena which digunakan untuk kata
benda. Oleh sebab itu, which seharusnya diganti menjadi who yang
digunakan untuk menerangkan orang sebagai subjek, sehingga
jawaban soal di atas adalah (D) which.
X. Comparison
1. Kasus Comparison pada Sentence Completion
1. The small chair was a lot than the large one.
(A) comfortable
(B) more comfortable
(C) more comfort
(D) the most comfortable
Soal di atas termasuk dalam pembahasan grammar degree of

comparison. Kalimat adalah pernyataan dengan satu klausa.
Terdapat tiga jenis degree of comparison: pertama positif dimana
kedua hal yang dibandingkan memiliki kualitas yang sama;
formula yang digunakan (as+adjective+ as), kedua comparative
untuk membandingan dua hal dimana salah satu hal lebih dari yang
lain; formula yang digunakan adalah (more + adjective dengan
panjang 2 suku kata atau lebih + than) dan ((adjective dengan satu
suku ata + er) + than), ketiga adalah superlative untuk
membandingkan minimal tiga hal atau lebih yang mana satu hal
menjadi paling dibanding lainya; untuk mengungkapkan paling
biasa digunakan (the most + adjective dengan panjang dua suku
LPIDB UMS
kata atau lebih + of (skala missal of all)/in (lokasi misal in the
class) dan ((adjective dengan panjang satu suku kata + est) +
of…/in….).
Pada kalimat di atas terdapat kata ―than‖ yang mengindikasikan
penggunaan comparative. Adjective yang digunakan comfortable
terdiri dari empat suku kata. Oleh sebab itu, formula yang
digunakan adalah (more + adjective dengan panjang dua (2) suku
kata atau lebih + than) sehingga jawaban yang benar adalah B.
2. The student decided to study than before.

(A) hard
(B) harder
(C) hardly
(D) hardest
Pada kalimat di atas terdapat kata than yang mengindikasikan

penggunaan comparative. Adjective yang digunakan hard terdiri
dari satu suku kata. Oleh sebab itu, formula yang digunakan adalah
(adjective + er + than) sehingga jawaban yang benar adalah (B).
Latihan Soal
1. Tooth enamel is one of the substances in the world.
(A) hardly
(B) hardest
(C) harder
(D) hard
2. They said my qualifications were varied than those of

any other applicant.
(A) most
(B) best
(C) more
(D) very

2. Kasus Comparison pada Eror Identification
1. One of a manager‘s much valuable assets may be
A B C
his ability to say ‗no‘.
D
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan satu klausa karena hanya

memiliki satu predikat yaitu may be. Subjek kalimat di atas
terdapat pada sebelum kata maybe dan objeknya terletak
setelahnya sampai titik. Ingat subjek atau objek tidak harus hanya
terdiri dari satu kata karena subjek dapat berupa kata, frasa,
ataupun klausa. Objek dari kalimat adalah his ability to say no
yang merupakan objek tunggal. Sehingga penggunaan kata much
yang berarti lebih kurang tepat. Karena objek kalimat adalah
tunggal yaitu his ability to say no maka much lebih baik diganti
dengan most karena mengacu ke benda tunggal.
2. In larger cities, crime is becoming lesser and lesser of

A B
a problem because education has been given priority over
C D
punishment.
Kalimat di atas adalah pernyataan dengan dua klausa karena

memiliki dua predikat yaitu is pada klausa pertama dan has been
given pada klausa kedua. Antara klausa pertama dan kedua
dipisahkan dengan subordinate conjuction yaitu because. Untuk
menggungkapkan kurang kata yang digunakan adalah less dan
tidak perlu ditambah dengan –er lagi karena sudah menunjukkan
kurang. Kata yang sejenis dengan less adalah better yang berarti
lebih baik dan worse yang berarti lebih buruk. Semua kata di atas
tidak perlu ditambahi – er untuk menjadi comparative.
LPIDB UMS
I. Deskripsi Umum
Bagian Reading Comprehension mengukur kemampuan anda
untuk membaca dan memahami berbagai text/bacaan dan
pengetahuan kosakata (vocabulary) anda.
Untuk dapat mengerjakan soal-soal reading comprehension
dibutuhkan kemampuan untuk membaca dan memahami bahasa
Inggris. Anda harus mempunyai cukup pengetahuan dasar tentang
kosakata dan grammar, dan memahami perbedaan antara gagasan
utama dan informasi detail.
Anda diminta untuk memilih satu jawaban benar dari empat pilihan
jawaban yang ada; A, B, C, dan D. Jenis pertanyaan yang terdapat
pada bagian ini antara lain pertanyaan: main idea, significant
points, inferences, details, vocabulary words, atau referents.
Pertanyaan-pertanyaan main idea antara lain:
• What is the passage mainly about?
• What aspect of … does the passage mainly discuss?
• What is a good/the best title for the passage?
Pertanyaan-pertanyaan tentang significant points dan inference

antara lain:
• All the following are mentioned about … except:
• All the following are reasons for … except:
• According to the passage, all the following factors affect
… except:
• The passage supports which of the following statements
about … ?
• In stating …, the author means that:
• The author mentions … as examples of:
• The author states … to imply that:

• The author mentioned … in the passage because:
• What can be inferred about …?
Pertanyaan detail antara lain meliputi:
• The main point that the author makes about … is that …:
• According to the passage, what/when/why/where/how …?
• According to the passage, what is one effect of …?
Pertanyaan vocabulary and referent antara lain:

• The word … in the passage is closest in meaning to:
• The word … in the passage refers to:
II. Tips dan Strategi

Untuk mempersiapkan test reading comprehension, salah satu
metode yang dapat digunakan adalah dengan membaca, membaca,
dan membaca. Bacalah text atau bacaan bahkan yang melampaui
kemampuan anda. Juga fokuskan pada kosakata baru, termasuk
penggunaan prefixes, suffixes, dan akar kata. Berlatihlah untuk
menemukan arti kata dengan memahami konteks kalimat. Juga
mencocokkan kata ganti dengan kata utama.
Tips mengerjakan soal-soal reading comprehension:
1. Bacalah perintah/directions dengan seksama sebelum mulai
mengerjakan.
2. Gunakan teknik skimming untuk membaca teks, perhatikan
kalimat pertama dalam setiap paragraph.
3. Bacalah keseluruhan teks untuk memahami bacaan secara
umum, dan perhatikan letak subtopic text tersebut.
4. Pilihlah jawaban dari empat pilihan jawaban yang ada.
5. Gunakan ritme dalam mengerjakan, perhatikan waktu dan
jumlah pertanyaan yang belum terjawab.
6. Jika belum menemukan jawaban yang anda yakini benar,
pilihlah jawaban yang menurut anda mempunyai kemungkinan
benar paling besar, dan lanjutkan ke pertanyaan berikutnya.
7. Jika telah selesai menjawab semua pertanyaan pada reading
comprehension dan masih ada waktu yang tersisa, kembalilah
ke pertanyaan sebelumnya, dan perhatikan kembali jawaban-
jawaban yang anda tidak yakin benar.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 1-5 refer to the following text.
TRACKING Time
How was a year defined in prehistoric times? No one knows for sure,
but it is thought that people might have used monuments, such as
Stonehenge in England, to track the sun‘s position in the sky in order to
measure the length of a year.
The early Romans created a calendar based on the cycles of the moon.
However, when Julius Caesar became Emperor of Rome around 45
B.C., he introduced the Julian Calendar. This calendar marked time by
measuring the earth‘s revolution around the sun.
A few centuries later, Pope Gregory XIII appointed a team of learned
men to help make the Julian calendar more accurate. It became known
as the Gregorian calendar, and it is the system we still use today to chart
the passage of a year.
https://www.calendar.com/history-of-the-calendar
1. Who established the Julian calendar?

(A) Pope Gregory XIII
(B) Julius Caesar
(C) prehistoric people
(D) Pope Gregory XII
2. What might monuments like Stonehenge have been used for?

(A) to track the moon
(B) to track the Earth
(C) to track the sun
(D) to scare the enemy
3. Why was a group of men assigned to adapt the almanac?

(A) He didn‘t like Caesar
(B) No reason
(C) For precision
(D) For inaccuracy

4. When did we stop using the Gregorian calendar?
(A) in prehistoric times
(B) in 45 B.C.
(C) It is currently used.
(D) In 2020
5. Where is Stonehenge located?

(A) in Rome
(B) in England
(C) in the U.S.A.
(D) in Venice
Questions 6-10 refer to the following passage.
My Job at a Summer Camp, by Charlie Rose
Every year I work at a summer camp for kids and I really enjoy seeing
the children do things they never thought they could do. Nearly all the
kids know how to swim and play table-tennis before they come, but
things like rock climbing are new experiences for most. Some of them
are very nervous, but after a bit of encouragement, they agree to try and
they all get to the top in the end, which makes them feel great.
The kids stay several weeks and some do miss home. You might expect
it to be the really young ones who feel like that the most but it‘s actually
the ten- to thirteen- years-old. We don‘t let them use their mobile
phones all the time. First we tell them they can phone home after lunch.
Then when they ask again, usually after dinner, we say it‘s a bit too late
to phone and suggest doing it the next day. Most children are fine in a
couple of days and at the end of their stay, it‘s amazing how many come
and thanks us because they have had a great time.
It‘s not just the children who get lonely. We get parents who are on the
phone the whole time, asking how their child is getting on, which is
quite unnecessary. Often their son or daughter will be busy, playing
games or doing something else, so we have to tell parents to ring back
another time.
LPIDB UMS
Some kids arrive dressed in smart, designer, new clothes and
they sometimes argue when we tell them to change into
something they won‘t mind getting dirty, but before long they
realize what we mean.
(https://www.cambridge-exams.ch/sites/default/files/pet_
reading_and_writing.pdf)
6. What is the writer trying to do in this text?

(A) Describe how children make friends at a summer camp
(B) Suggest how parents should choose a summer camp for
children
(C) Explain what it is like for children at a summer camp
(D) Advise children how to behave at a summer camp
7. What does the writer say about rock climbing at the camp?
(A) Some children already know how to do it.
(B) Some children prefer to swim or play table-tennis.
(C) Some children refuse to take part.
(D) Some children find it more enjoyable than they expected
to.
8. What surprises the writer about the children who stay at the
camp?
(A) The youngest ones find it hard to be away from home.
(B) They complain if they cannot phone their parents.
(C) They miss meal times with their parents.
(D) They seem grateful for their experience here.
9. What does the writer think about some parents?

(A) They should visit their children instead of phoning them.
(B) They don't need to keep on phoning the camp.
(C) They shouldn't allow their children to bring phones to
camp.
(D) They need to be reminded to phone their children.

10. Which expression might a child at the camp write on a
postcard for his parents at home?
(A) I was annoyed when they suggested I put on old jeans,
but I guess they were right.
(B) It's so unfair that everyone else can use their mobile
phone, but they won't let me use mine.
(C) I've made some good friends, but we're all bored because
there isn‘t much to do here.
(D) I was really frightened every time we went rock climbing,
so they let me do something else instead.
Even a muddy pond contributes to the ecosystem that affects the

environment. A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and
lasts only from March until midsummer but yields a considerable
number of diverse life forms. Like all of nature, there are predators and
victims, and a particular living being may be one or the other, depending
on its age and characteristics. One may find masses of spotted
salamander eggs floating just under the surface of the pond, left behind
by adults who entered the pond early in the season before predators
arrived. Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond year
after year to reproduce, as their ancestors have done for years. Various
forms of algae grow well in the murky water, if there is sufficient
sunlight. They in turn produce and transmit oxygen to the salamander
embryos and other young that are not yet able to survive outside of
water. Diving beetles feast on eggs and larvae deposited in the pond by
the salamanders and other amphibians that have called it home.
Tadpoles are born in the late spring and feed on the algae. The pond also
invites wood frogs staking their territory and courting potential mates,
calling as loud as quacking ducks. By the end of the short season, the
pond dries to spongy mud and then dries further, becoming covered with
leaves and debris, until the following spring when the process repeats
itself.
(Source: Cliff‘sTestTOEFLPreparation)
LPIDB UMS
11. The word vernal in the second sentence means most nearly the
same as….
(A) springtime.
(B) pool.
(C) deep.
(D) transitory.
12. What is the author‘s purpose stated in the first sentence: Even
a muddy pond contributes to the ecosystem that affects the
environment?
(A) To explain that a vernal pool is very muddy
(B) To describe how the vernal pool fits into the larger
environmental picture
(C) To explain that mud is important to the environment
(D) To show how algae grows
13. The word yields in the third sentence means most nearly the
same as ….
(A) produces.
(B) contributes to.
(C) kills.
(D) harms.
14. The word diverse in the third sentence means most nearly the
same as ….
(A) distinct.
(B) living.
(C) numerous.
(D) primitive.
15. The word its in the fifth sentence refers to ….

(A) predator.
(B) pond.
(C) living being.
(D) nature.

16. Which sentence in the first paragraph indicates that a young
life form might be prey to an older life form?
(A) A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and
lasts only from March until midsummer but yields a
considerable number of diverse life forms.
(B) Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a
particular living being may be one or the other, depending
on its age and characteristics.
(C) One may find masses of spotted salamander eggs floating
just under the surface of the pond, left behind by adults
who entered the pond early in the season before predators
arrived.
(D) Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond
year after year to reproduce, as their ancestors have done
for years.
17. Which sentence in the first paragraph indicates that life forms
continue to act in the same way as the same life forms did
previously?
(A) A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and
lasts only from March until midsummer but yields a
considerable number of diverse life forms.
(B) Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a
particular living being may be one or the other, depending
on its age and characteristics.
(C) One may find masses of spotted salamander eggs floating
just under the surface of the pond, left behind by adults
who entered the pond early in the season before predators
arrived.
(D) Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond
year after year to reproduce, as their ancestors have done
for years.
LPIDB UMS
18. The word murky in the first sentence of the second paragraph
means most nearly the same as ….
(A) clear
(B) cloudy
(C) cold
(D) life-producing
19. The word they in the second sentence of paragraph two refers
to….
(A) salamander embryos.
(B) young.
(C) forms of algae.
(D) sunlight.
20. Which of the following does the author imply in the first two
sentences of paragraph two?
(A) The life forms in the pool live in water their entire lives.
(B) Some of the life forms live in water first and later on land.
(C) The life forms found in the pool do not require oxygen to
live.
(D) Algae is strictly a food source.
Questions 21–28 refer to the following articles. Insect Invasion

Insects are all around us. Sometimes we notice them. We may stop to
watch a lovely butterfly that flutters by. When mosquitoes buzz around,
we may swat them away. But most of the time we do not give much
thought to insects. One insect, however, is impossible to ignore. It‘s
called the 17-year cicada. As this bug‘s name suggests, its life cycle
lasts 17 years. These cicadas spend most of their long lives under the
ground. But when they finally come out, they do it in a very big— and
very loud—way.
From Egg to Insect
Like other insects, the 17-year cicada starts life as an egg. The adult
female lays up to 600 eggs at one time . She lays them in a nest that she
makes in a tree branch. About seven weeks later, young cicadas hatch

from the eggs. They are called nymphs. The nymphs are small and
wingless. They fall from the nest to the ground. Then they start digging
down into it. They dig down about a foot before they stop. The nymphs
spend the next 17 years underground. They feed on sap from tree roots .
In this time, they grow to be about an inch long. Finally, when 17 years
have passed, the nymphs crawl out of their holes. Once they reach the
ground, they start to climb. They climb up trees, fences, or houses until
they find a good spot to latch on and rest. Within hours, the nymphs
shed their outer skins. The insect that emerges from the old skin is a
full-grown adult . It is nearly two inches long. Unlike the nymph, the
adult cicada has a pair of wings.
All Together Now!
It is the short life of adult cicadas that gets all the attention. Why? They
appear all at once on exactly the same day. In places where this
happens, people go to bed one night with no cicadas in sight. The next
morning, adult cicadas are everywhere. They cover lawns, bushes, and
trees. They cover roads and sidewalks. The air is filled with cicadas, too,
as they fly about looking for mates. One more thing makes the adult
cicadas impossible to miss. They make a loud, shrill buzzing that never
lets up. The sound is a combination of the males‘ mating call and the
females‘ response. A single male cicada is as loud as a food blender, so
it‘s easy to imagine the racket that thousands of cicadas can make
together.
While it lasts, the cicada invasion is really unpleasant. Outdoor events
such as baseball games, picnics, and field trips have to be put on hold.
Even a trip outside to get the mail can be dreadful. Cicadas are slow,
clumsy fliers, and they often bump into people. On the way to your
mailbox, you might get hit by 100 cicadas!
Luckily, the cicada invasion doesn‘t last too long. The adult cicadas live
only about 30 days. They die soon after mating. Then the noise stops.
The bodies of the adult cicadas slowly break down and become part of
the soil. Life returns to normal. Everyone forgets about the cicadas until
17 years go by. Then the next invasion begins.
(Source: https://www.liveworksheets.com/pr1602065gv)
LPIDB UMS
21. Which statement best expresses the main idea of this passage?
(A) There are all kinds of insects all around us.
(B) It is impossible to ignore a cicada invasion .
(C) The cicada nymphs live under the ground .
(D) The cicada invasion doesn‘t last very long .
22. Read this sentence from the passage. ―The nymphs are small
and wingless.‖ What does wingless mean?
(A) like wings
(B) having wings
(C) without wings
(D) full of wings
23. Which sentence states an opinion?

(A) The cicada‘s life cycle lasts 17 years .
(B) The nymphs crawl out of their holes .
(C) The adult cicada is nearly two inches long .
(D) The cicada invasion is truly unpleasant .
24. Which of these places would people most likely stay away
from during a cicada invasion?
(A) a playground
(B) a supermarket
(C) a movie theater
(D) a library
25. Which of the following is one of the reasons why the adult
cicadas get so much attention?
(A) The adult cicadas appear all at once, and everything is
covered with them .
(B) There are many young cicadas on the farm.
(C) The cicadas live longer than human.
(D) The adult cicadas eat the infants.

26. The information in the section called ―From Egg to Insect‖ is
organized mainly by….
(A) problem and solution
(B) steps in a process
(C) cause and effect
(D) compare and contrast
27. The author would most likely agree that 17-year cicadas are….
(A) beautiful to see
(B) fascinating to study
(C) fun to talk about
(D) awful to be around
Surprises
For just a few days when he was ten years old, Lin Peng had a pet
canary. The lovely yellow bird was a birthday surprise from his mother.
She brought the canary into Lin‘s room on the night before his birthday.
While he was sleeping, she placed it on his night table. When Lin woke
the next morning, he saw a box-shaped object draped with a blue silk
scarf. Lin yanked away the scarf to see what it concealed. The canary,
which was a bit startled, chirped and fluttered its wings. Lin gasped with
delight.
Lin‘s mother had chosen the perfect gift. The canary fascinated Lin. He
spent hours watching it flit about its cage. He borrowed Your Pet
Canary from the library and read every page. He fed his pet the finest
bird food. He gave it fresh water twice each day. The canary rewarded
Lin by singing its beautiful song. Lin was sure he would never grow
tired of it.
Still, one thing troubled Lin about the canary. He couldn‘t help thinking
of it as a prisoner in its cage. He saw how much it loved to flutter from
perch to perch. The canary would be even happier, Lin decided, if it
could fly around inside the house. So one day while his mother was out
LPIDB UMS
shopping, Lin lifted the canary from its cage. He put it on his shoulder.
―Go ahead,‖ he said encouragingly. ―Spread your wings and fly.‖
The canary sat for a moment and looked around. Then it took off, flying
from Lin‘s shoulder to the sofa and then to a lampshade. After resting
there briefly, the canary took off down the hallway toward the kitchen.
Lin laughed as he followed. He got to the kitchen just in time to see his
mother, her arms filled with grocery bags, struggling to get through the
open door.
Lin rushed forward to grab the bags from his mother. ―Quick, Mom!
Shut the door! Don‘t let the bird out!‖ he shouted. But it was too late.
The canary flew over their heads and sailed outside. It landed in a bush
just a few steps from the door.
As slowly and calmly as he could, Lin crept out the door toward the
bush. He reached out with his hands. ―Come on, little birdie, come back
inside with us,‖ Lin murmured softly.
The canary was almost within his grasp. Then it suddenly soared up
high into the hemlock tree and vanished among its feathery branches.
Mom soon followed Lin outside, and the two of them stood beneath the
tree, hoping to spot the canary. But after almost an hour, they gave up
and went inside.
For the next few weeks, Lin kept searching for the canary. Each day
after school, he walked around his neighborhood. He scanned the sky,
the trees, and the ground, looking for a flash of yellow.
At last the day came when Lin admitted to himself that the bird was
gone forever. So, he dumped out his piggy bank. He filled his pockets
with pennies and set off for the town square on his bike.
There he tossed his pennies, one by one, into a fountain. With each toss,
he made a wish. He wished aloud that his dear canary had found a good
home.
Two years passed. The guilt that Lin felt about losing the canary slowly
faded away. In fact, he had almost forgotten about the canary. Then
came the day in class when Renda Masud stirred his memories.

In class that day, Ms. Paloma had asked the students to write an essay. It
was supposed to tell about an amazing event in their lives. Most of the
students had to ponder the topic before they started writing, but Renda
began immediately. When it was time for the students to read their
essays aloud, Ms. Paloma called on Renda first.
―Two years ago,‖ Renda began, ―the most amazing thing happened to
me. I was sitting on our back porch reading a book. Suddenly, out of
nowhere, a beautiful canary appeared. It settled on the porch railing. I
watched it for a few moments. Then I got up slowly and opened the
door to the house. The canary flew inside. That‘s how Goldie became
my pet.‖
Lin‘s jaw dropped open. He could hardly believe what he was hearing.
Then he thought back to the fountain in the town square. Lin
remembered the pennies he had tossed into the water. And he realized
that his wish had come true.
(Source:http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/standardized
_test_practice_long_reading_passages)
28. What can you tell about Lin in this story?

(A) He had wanted a pet canary for a long time.
(B) He had a habit of losing things.
(C) He cared a lot about his pet canary.
(D) He often blamed others for his mistakes.
29. Why did Lin take the canary out of its cage?
(A) He wanted Renda to have it.
(B) He hoped to surprise his mother.
(C) He needed to clean the cage.
(D) He wanted it to have some freedom.
30. Who is Renda Masud?

(A) Lin‘s next-door neighbor
(B) Lin‘s classmate
(C) Lin‘s best friend
(D) Lin‘s teacher
LPIDB UMS
31. Read this sentence from the story.
―Most of the students had to ponder the topic before they
started writing, but Renda began immediately.‖. What does
ponder mean?
(A) Finish
(B) think about
(C) Forget
(D) talk about
32. Which of the following statements describes one of the

surprises that happen in this story?
(A) Lin is surprised when his dog died.
(B) Lin is surprised when his mother gives him a canary.
(C) Lin‘s mother gave him some money.
(D) The canary flew into the house while he was sleeping.
33. Which words best describe how Lin feels at the end of the
story?
(A) frightened and angry
(B) happy and proud
(C) amazed and relieved
(D) sad and hopeless
34. The author‘s main purpose in writing ―Surprises‖ is to —

(A) persuade people not to keep birds as pets .
(B) describe how a canary looks and sounds .
(C) explain how to take care of a canary .
(D) tell an entertaining story about a boy and his pet .
35. Where does the action in the beginning of the story take place?
(A) Lin‘s house
(B) Lin‘s school
(C) In the garden
(D) At a pet market

PEMBAHASAN:
1. C: Tertulis dalam paragraph ke dua kalimat ke dua, ―… when

Julius Caesar became Emperor of Rome around 45 B.C., he
introduced the Julian Calendar.‖
2. C: Tertulis pada paragraph pertama, ―…to track the sun‘s
position in the sky … ―
3. C: Tertulis dalam paragraph ke tiga baris ke dua, ―Pope Gregory
XIII appointed a team of learned men to help make the Julian
calendar more accurate.‖ Precision adalah synonym dari kata
accuracy.
4. C: Tertulis pada kalimat terakhir, ― …we still use it today…‖
5. B: Paragraf pertama baris ke dua, ―such as Stonehenge in
England…‖
6. C: Pilihan jawaban A, B, dan D tidak terdapat pada text tersebut.
Setiap paragraph menceritakan tentang suasana dan kegiatan
anak-anak di Summer Camp.
7. D: Paragraf pertama baris ke tiga sampai lima, ―…but things like
rock climbing are new experiences for most. Some of them are
very nervous, but after a bit of encouragement, they agree to try
and they all get to the top in the end, which makes them feel
great.‖
8. D: Paragraf kedua baris ke lima dan enam, ―Most children are
fine in a couple of days and at the end of their stay, it‘s amazing
how many come and thanks us because they have had a great
time.‖
9. B: Paragraf ke tiga baris pertama dan ke dua, ―We get parents
who are on the phone the whole time, asking how their child is
getting on, which is quite unnecessary.‖
10. A: Paragraf ke empat, ―Some kids arrive dressed in smart,
designer, new clothes and they sometimes argue when we tell
them to change into something they won‘t mind getting dirty,
but before long they realize what we mean.‖A: springtime. The
sentence states A vernal or springtime pool. . ., which indicates
that vernal and springtime mean the same thing.
LPIDB UMS
11. B: ―To describe how the vernal pool fits into the larger
environmental picture.‖
12. A: produces.
13. A: distinct. Diverse berarti ―different.‖
14. C: living being. Kalimat ini menyatakan: Like all of nature, there
are predators and victims, and a particular living being may be
one or the other, depending on its age and characteristics.
15. B: ―Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a
particular living being may be one or the other, depending on its
age and characteristics.‖ Kalimat ini berarti bahwa ―..something
that lives in the pond may sometimes kill older or younger
victims and may sometimes be a victim itself.‖
16. D: ―Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond
year after year to reproduce, as their ancestors have done for
years.‖
17. B: cloudy. Mempunyai makna yang sama dengan ―not clear.‖
18. C: forms of algae.
19. B: ―Some of the life forms live in water first and later on land.‖
Kalimat tersebut menerangkan bahwa ―the forms of algae
produce and transmit oxygen to the salamander embryos and
other young that are not yet able to survive outside of water. By
saying that the embryos and other young are not yet able means
that at some time they will be able to survive outside of water.‖
20. B: Recurring
21. B: Paragraf pertama kalimat ke tiga sampai terakhir, ―One insect,
however, is impossible to ignore. It‘s called the 17-year cicada.
As this bug‘s name suggests, its life cycle lasts 17 years. These
cicadas spend most of their long lives under the ground. But
when they finally come out, they do it in a very big— and very
loud—way.‖ Paragraf-paragraf berikutnya menjelaskan tentang
kalimat tersebut (supporting details).
22. C: Gunakan pengetahuan tentang root words dan affixes untuk
menentukan arti kata.

23. D: Pilihan jawaban A, B, dan C berisi fakta. Sedang pilihan
jawaban D berisi opinion karena terdapat kata abstrak
―Unpleasant‖ yang merupakan pendapat penulis. (Distinguish
fact and opinion)
24. A: Gunakan teknik menganalisa bukti yang terdapat pada text
lalu membuat kesimpulan.
25. A: Paragraf ke lima, ―They appear all at once on exactly the same
day. In places where this happens, people go to bed one night
with no cicadas in sight. The next morning, adult cicadas are
everywhere. They cover lawns, bushes, and trees. They cover
roads and sidewalks. The air is filled with cicadas, too, as they
fly about looking for mates.‖
26. B: Menganalisa struktur dan organisasi text. Paragraf ini
menjelaskan tentang proses perkembangan dari telur hingga
dewasa.
27. D: Mengevaluasi tujuan dan pendapat penulis.
28. C: Menganalisa perasaan, fakta, dan tujuan penulis.
29. D: Paragraf ke tiga baris ke dua dan tiga, ―He saw how much it
loved to flutter from perch to perch. The canary would be even
happier, Lin decided, if it could fly around inside the house.‖
(Identify causes and effects)
30. B: Paragraf ke sebelas, ―Two years passed. The guilt that Lin felt
about losing the canary slowly faded away. In fact, he had
almost forgotten about the canary. Then came the day in class
when Renda Masud stirred his memories.‖ (Make inferences)
31. B: Gunakan konteks kalimat untuk mencari makna kata. ―Most
of the students had to ponder the topic before they started
writing, but Renda began immediately.‖
32. B: ―Lin is surprised when his mother gives him a canary.‖
33. C: Menganalisa perasaan, fakta, dan tujuan penulis.
34. D: Mengevaluasi tujuan dan pendapat penulis.
35. A: Paragraf pertama, cerita bermula di rumah Lin.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 1 - 5 refer to the following biography.
CAT STEVEN (YUSUF ISLAM)
Cat Stevens was born Stephen Demetre Georgiou in July 1948 to a

Greek Cypriot father and a Swedish mother. He was the youngest of
three children. The family had a restaurant and lived in a small flat
above it. Sometimes, Stephen worked as a waiter in the restaurant. He
loved music and learned how to play the piano on an old piano the
family had. Soon, a record company realized that he was very talented,
and he released his first single when he was eighteen. This song was
called, ‗I Love My Dog‘. He changed his name to Cat Stevens. In 1970,
the song ‗Wild World‘ made him an international star. Cat‘s family
were Christian and he attended a Roman Catholic church. He was
always a person who thought deeply about things. He was looking for
something that was missing in his life. He became interested in religion,
and after exploring many avenues, including astrology, he converted to
Islam. He changed his name to Yusuf Islam. He stopped making music
for many years, which made his fans sad. Then, in 1995, his music
stirred in him and he made a new album. These days, he works for good
causes and is a man of principle and peace. (Source:
https://en.islcollective.com/english-esl-worksheets)
1. How many siblings does Cat Stevens have?

(A) Three
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Five
2. What was his mother‘s nationality?

(A) Greek
(B) Swedish
(C) Roman
(D) English

3. How old was he when he made his first record?
(A) Seventeen years old
(B) Sixteen years old
(C) Eighteen years old
(D) Twenty years old
4. Why was Cat Stevens curious about religion?

(A) Because he felt that he lost something in life
(B) His father sent him to Islamic school
(C) Because his friends were religious
(D) Because he wrote religious songs
5. The word stirred in line twelve is closest in meaning to….

(A) provoked
(B) ran
(C) cried
(D) laughed
Questions 6 - 10 refer to the following article.
Why do birds sing? You might assume that birds sing because they are
happy.
While birds might be happy, they sing in order to communicate. One

reason they sing is to stake a claim on territory. Birds sing to warn other
birds to stay off their property. For example, a robin might stake a claim
on a piece of land which measures about 200 feet wide by 200 feet long.
This amount of land provides enough worms for the robin to feed its
family. A bird maintains singing perches around the outside edges of its
territory. The perches are high in the trees, so other birds can see and
hear it. Birds also sing to find a mate. The length and complexity of the
mating song gives information about the fitness of the bird. Healthy
birds can sing longer, more complicated songs. Birds call to one another
in shorter vocalizations in order to warn of danger and to locate one
another.
LPIDB UMS
Birds sing instinctively. Young birds learn to perfect their songs by
listening to adult birds and interacting with other birds. Birds in a local
area might learn variations in the basic song which help them recognize
other members of their group.
(Source:englishforeveryone.org)
6. Why do birds sing?

(A) To defend their area
(B) To warn other birds
(C) To find a mate
(D) All of the above
7. Birds perch very high so ….

(A) other birds can hear them
(B) other birds can see them
(C) they can hide there
(D) Both A and B are correct
8. The health of a bird can be determined….

(A) by the extent of its song
(B) by the difficulty of its song
(C) by the volume of its song
(D) Both A and B are correct
9. Shorter bird vocalizations are ….

(A) territorial songs
(B) mating songs
(C) caution
(D) None of the above
10. Young birds perfect their songs by ….

(A) natural instinct
(B) Paying attention and contacting other birds
(C) Practice singing
(D) Both B and C are correct

Questions 11 – 17 refer to the following passage.
―Mosquitoes‖
Slap! Swat! How do those annoying mosquitoes find you? Is it your

wonderful personality or is it something else which attracts them? And
why are you so rarely able to swat them before they fly off to another
feast?
There are about 3,500 species of mosquitoes in the world. Not all of
them are in your back yard, although sometimes it seems that the
summer evening air is filled with them. There are about 200 species of
mosquitoes in the United States –– about 80 species have been
identified in Florida, which is an ideal breeding area.
The word ―mosquito‖ means ―little fly‖ in Portuguese. Mosquitoes are
members of the scientific order Diptera, the ―True Flies.‖ Like other
―True Flies,‖ they have wings. But they are different from some True
Flies; their wings have scales. These tiny scales help eliminate the
effects of friction. This helps the mosquitoes skim quickly and
efficiently through the air, making them almost impossible to swat. The
familiar high–pitched, annoying buzz of the mosquito comes from the
sound of its wings beating 600 times per second!
If you want to control the spread of these pesky insects, it is important
to know how they live and breed. As you will see, much of their life is
spent in water, so getting rid of standing water plays a large role in
controlling mosquitoes. There are four stages in the lifetime of a
mosquito: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.
Mosquito eggs need water to hatch. Different species of mosquitoes
prefer different places to lay their eggs. Some prefer to lay their eggs in
standing water, such as water in old tires or buckets. Others like to lay
their eggs in areas with a lot of organic material, like leaves and grass,
so they lay their eggs in marshes and swamps. Some prefer fresh water;
some like saltwater.
Mosquito larvae are called ―wigglers‖ because they move with jerking
movements of their bodies. They spend most of their time under the
surface of the water, feeding on leaves and grass. They must have air to
LPIDB UMS
stay alive, so they wiggle to the surface. The larvae shed their skin four
times as they grow and progress to the third stage, which is the pupa.
Mosquito pupae also need air to stay alive. They continue to feed on
grasses and leaves under the surface of the water, but they must come up
for air. After several days in the pupa stage, the pupae mature into adult
mosquitoes.
Adult mosquitoes emerge after several days of growth. Some
mosquitoes reach maturity in as few as 5 days, but most require 10–14
days before they reach maturity. Variations in maturity time is due to
differences in species and differences in the temperature of the
environment.
Adult mosquitoes mate within a few days of their emergence as adults.
They eat fruit, nectar, and any other sources of sugar they can find.
Female mosquitoes need blood in order for their eggs to develop. After
the female has her meal of blood, she rests for two or three days before
she lays her eggs. The cycle of eating and laying eggs continues for one
or two weeks, which is the lifetime of a mosquito.
Now you know that it is the female mosquitoes which bite you. But how
do they find you –– their meal of blood?
Mosquitoes seek out warmth and movement –– both properties of
human beings and other animals. They also seek carbon dioxide, which
is exhaled by humans and other animals. So while it is not exactly your
wonderful personality which attracts them, the social activities of
conversation and laughter –– which involve movement and the
exhalation of carbon dioxide –– are what attract these annoying little
insects!
(source: http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/standar
dized_test_practice_long_reading_passages)
11. Why do mosquitoes‘ wings have scales?

(A) The scales reduce the effects of friction.
(B) The scales make the mosquitoes fly more efficiently.
(C) The scales help the mosquitoes float in water.
(D) Both A and B are correct.

12. Why do mosquitoes bite you?
(A) They need blood to live.
(B) Their eggs need blood to develop.
(C) They need blood to become mature.
(D) Both A and C are correct.
13. Where do mosquitoes lay their eggs?

(A) In standing water.
(B) In moist soil.
(C) In fresh water.
(D) All of the above are correct.
14. At what point are mosquitoes called wigglers?

(A) When they are larvae
(B) When they are pupae
(C) When they are adults
(D) When they lay eggs
15. How do mosquitoes find you?

(A) They are attracted to carbon dioxide.
(B) They are attracted to movement.
(C) They are attracted to warmth.
(D) All of the above are correct.
16. If something is annoying it is….

(A) Quick
(B) Evasive
(C) Bothersome
(D) Careless
17. What is the best synonym for ideal?

(A) Sweet
(B) Nice
(C) Perfect
(D) identical
LPIDB UMS
Questions 18 - 22 refer to the following short story.
Max’s Big Adventure
Max put his papers away and said, ―Mom, I finished my homework. Is it
okay if I go and find myself a snack?‖
Max‘s mother was busy tidying up. ―Just wait ‘til I finish my chores,
and I‘ll get you something to nibble on,‖ she answered.
―Mom, I think I‘m big enough to get my own snack,‖ Max protested ―I
know how, and I promise I‘ll be really, really careful .‖
Mother stopped her work and looked up anxiously . ―Oh, no, it‘s much
too dangerous in the daytime,‖ she said . ―What if you are seen . . . or
caught? I can‘t allow it .‖
―Mom, I‘m not a baby mouse anymore! I‘ve gone hunting with Dad
every night this week! I know where to go and what to do.
I‘m hungry, and I‘m bored in this mouse hole, and I‘m big enough to
find my own snack!‖
This was the day Mother Mouse had dreaded deep inside, she knew it
was time to let her son leave the safety of the mouse hole by himself But
first she had to warn him about the many dangers outside . ―Watch out
for the cat. Watch out for the dog Listen for people‘s footsteps. Don‘t go
near the garbage disposal travel along the walls, never out in the open
and don‘t stay out a moment longer than you have to! Find a snack, and
hurry right back to the mouse hole to eat it‖
For a minute, Max could hardly believe his own ears: Mom had actually
said he could go out alone! The young mouse shivered with excitement,
his hunger forgotten This was the day he had been longing for at last he
would have some adventures!
The two mice peered out of the mouse hole into the people‘s living
room. The room was quiet and deserted ―The coast is clear,‖ breathed
Mom ―Good luck, Max, and be careful!‖

Max darted out of the mouse hole quickly before Mom could change her
mind. He sprinted along the living room wall, turned the corner, and
stopped at the door to the kitchen. He used his eyes, his ears, and his
nose to check for people and pets, just as Father had taught him. All was
quiet, so Max scampered along the wall toward the table. If he was
lucky, no one had swept the floor after lunch, and a good snack would
be easy to find.
The people must have had cookies for lunch. There were crumbs
everywhere, and Max remembered his hunger. Greedily he started to
eat, forgetting Mom‘s instructions to hurry home. He had just stuffed a
fat chocolate chip into his mouth when he heard the front door creak.
Max froze and made himself as small as possible. As long as someone
was in the living room, his way back to the mouse hole was blocked.
What would happen if someone came into the kitchen? I should hide in
the broom closet, thought Max . That‘s what Father said to do in times
of trouble.
But Max was frightened, and his legs did not seem to be working
properly. Instead of running to hide, he tried to make himself invisible.
He squeezed his eyes shut, held his breath, and put his paws over his
ears. People were talking in the living room, and one word caught
Max‘s attention: mousetraps.
The woman asked, ―Where did you put the mousetraps?‖
―One is under the kitchen sink, one is just inside the back door, and one
is in the broom closet,‖ the man replied .
Max started to tremble. What if I had gone into the broom closet? he
thought I might have been caught in a trap! But I didn‘t, and I‘m safe,
and now it‘s up to me to get home and warn Dad about the traps.
A new, grown-up feeling came over Max, and he forgot his fear.
He knew what he had to do: find a place to hide until it was safe to go
home. Silently, the little mouse hurried along the wall and squeezed into
the corner behind the wastebasket. Then he sat back to wait.
In a few minutes, the people came into the kitchen . ―I‘ll some coffee,‖
LPIDB UMS
the man said . Max hardly dared to breathe.
When the coffee was ready, the woman said, ―Let‘s have our coffee out
on the porch. But we‘d better feed Tiger and Spotty first.‖
Max thought quickly. The people were going outside, but the dog and
cat would be coming inside. He couldn‘t stay in the kitchen; the animals
would be sure to find him. He would have to make a run for it.
Already the man had filled the dog‘s dish, and the woman was opening
a can of cat food. Max stood up and got ready to run. As soon as the
people picked up their cups and left the kitchen, he started. By the time
he got to the kitchen door, the people were calling their pets and
opening the front door. As Max sped along the living-room wall, the cat
and dog ran into the house. They headed for the kitchen, just as Max
was heading away from it.
He stayed near the wall, hoping the animals were too hungry to notice
him. The dog raced around the corner and into the kitchen. But the cat
spotted Max and changed direction. She streaked across the living room
toward Max. He ran as fast as he could and made it to the mouse hole
with no time to spare! He dived into the hole and lay flat on the floor to
catch his breath. His heart was beating like mad, but he was safe!
When he had recovered, Max hugged Mother and Father. Then he told
them both about the mousetraps and where they were.
For a long time after that, Max was not very interested in having any
more adventures.
(Source: http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/standardi-
zed_test_practice_long_reading_passages)
18. Why doesn‘t Mother want Max to get a snack?

(A) She is busy doing her chores .
(B) She wants to make some coffee first .
(C) Max has a lot of homework to do .
(D) Leaving the mouse hole is dangerous .

19. ―This was the day Mother Mouse had dreaded.‖ Which word
is a synonym for dreaded?
(A) Planned
(B) Feared
(C) Forgotten
(D) disliked
20. Why did Max want to leave the mouse hole?

(A) He wanted to get something to eat.
(B) His mother told him to get some food.
(C) He wanted to play with his friends.
(D) His friends called him.
21. What kind of passage is ―Max‘s Big Adventure‖?

(A) Fantasy
(B) realistic fiction
(C) folk tale
(D) informational article
22. What is the theme, or lesson, of this passage?

(A) Everyone should have some adventures.
(B) Being clever is good but being lucky is better.
(C) Things don‘t always turn out the way you expect.
(D) Small animals are often smarter than bigger animals.
Cholera, a highly infectious disease, has resulted in millions of deaths

time after time over centuries. It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio
cholera, first isolated by Robert Koch in 1883. The organism enters the
body through the digestive tract when contaminated food or water is
ingested. The bacteria multiply in the digestive tract and establish
infection. As they die, they release a potent toxin that leads to severe
diarrhea and vomiting. This results in extreme dehydration, muscle
cramps, kidney failure, collapse, and sometimes death. If the disease is
LPIDB UMS
treated promptly, death is less likely. In many countries, a common
source of the organism is raw or poorly cooked seafood taken from
contaminated waters. The disease is especially prevalent after a natural
disaster or other destruction that results in a lack of fresh water. Sewer
systems fail, and waste travels into rivers or streams; piped water is not
available, so people must take their drinking and cooking water from
rivers or streams. Because people frequently develop communities along
waterways, the disease can be spread easily from one community to the
next community downstream, resulting in serious epidemics. (Source:
Cliff‘sTestTOEFLPreparation).
23. The word infectious in the first sentence is closest in meaning

to….
(A) communicable
(B) severe
(C) isolated
(D) common
24. According to the passage, cholera is caused by ….

(A) a virus
(B) a bacterium
(C) kidney failure.
(D) Dehydration
25. All of the following are probable causes of infection except….

(A) eating food cooked with contaminated water
(B) eating undercooked seafood
(C) eating overcooked pork
(D) eating raw oysters
26. What is the logical order of the events leading to the illness?
(A) Sanitary system fails, so fresh water is unavailable;
disaster occurs; people drink the water; contaminated
water flows into waterways.
(B) Disaster occurs; sanitary system fails, so fresh water is
unavailable; people drink the water; contaminated water
flows into waterways.

(C) Disaster occurs; contaminated water flows into
waterways; sanitary system fails, so fresh water is
unavailable; people drink the water.
(D) Contaminated water flows into waterways; disaster
occurs; sanitary system fails, so fresh water is
unavailable; people drink the water.
27. According to the passage, what is a symptom of the infection?

(A) Release of a toxin by the bacteria
(B) Regurgitation
(C) Overeating
(D) Epidemics
28. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for this

passage?
(A) Dysentery and Its Effects
(B) Water Purification Systems and Their Importance
(C) Results of War and Natural Disasters
(D) The Causes and Effects of Cholera
29. The word prevalent in the third paragraph is closest in

meaning to….
(A) dangerous
(B) commonplace
(C) unusual
(D) organized
30. What can you infer from the passage?

(A) Careful cooking and hygiene practices can reduce the
chance of getting the disease.
(B) Water mixed with other substances will not pass the
disease.
(C) The respiratory system is the most common area of
entrance.
(D) Kidney disease is the most common cause of the illness.
LPIDB UMS
Brave Bessie Coleman
In 1995, U.S. post offices began selling a new stamp. On it was a

picture of a young black woman. She was wearing a helmet and flying
goggles. The woman looked strong andconfident. Her name was Bessie
Coleman, but most people knew her as ―Brave Bessie. ‖Bessie Coleman
was born in Texas in 1892. Bessie‘s mother, Susan, was the daughter of
African-American slaves. Bessie‘s father, George, was part Cherokee.
The Colemans had 13 children. They worked hard and did not have
much money. Neither parent could read or write. Growing up, Bessie
worked to help support the family. She helped her mother earn money
by washing other people‘s clothes. She spent many months every year
picking cotton. Bessie did not mind working hard, but she did mind
missing school. When the cotton needed picking, she could not go to
school. She wanted to go, even though she had to walk four miles to get
there.
In school, Bessie learned that she was good at math. She learned to
add, subtract, multiply, and divide. However, the school had few books.
Even pencils and paper were hard to get. A few times a year, a book
wagon came to town. Then Bessie could borrow books. With borrowed
books, she taught herself to read. When Bessie was very young, her
father left. He wanted to live with other Cherokees, so he moved to
Oklahoma. Bessie missed her father. Also, the family‘s money troubles
got worse. In time, Bessie graduated from the local school. She had
learned everything her teachers had taught her. Susan Coleman knew
that Bessie could do anything she wanted to do in life. But she needed
more education. Susan had saved some money from her washing jobs,
so Bessie went off to college. Sadly, the money ran out quickly. Bessie
had to leave college and come home. Back in Texas, she earned money
in any way she could. She washed clothes, cared for children, and
cleaned houses .
Finally, at age 23, Bessie took a train to the big city of Chicago.
There she would live with her older brothers and try to find work. It was

not easy for a black woman to find work in those days. But Bessie did
not give up, and at last she got a job. She also met a man named Robert
Abbott, who published a newspaper. Many black people read his paper,
the Chicago Defender. The paper was full of stories about airplanes.
Soldiers back from World War I told stories about flying, too. At that
time, airplanes were still fairly new. Everyone seemed to be talking
about flying. Bessie Coleman did more than talk. She decided to learn to
fly .It was a bold dream. Bessie was a woman, and she was black. Not
many women had pilot licenses, and none of them was black. No flying
school would agree to teach Bessie. Then her friend Robert Abbott told
her about a flying school in France where Bessie could study. But first
she had to save money for her trip, and she needed to learn to speak
French. Bessie studied French in night school. During the day she
worked, saving as much money as she could. When she had enough
money and could speak French fairly well, she was ready. In 1920,
Bessie sailed across the ocean to France and was admitted to the flying
school. She was 28 years old. Seven months later, in 1921, Bessie got
her pilot‘s license. She was the first African-American woman to do so.
It made her famous. Newspapers told her story. Schools and churches
invited her to speak. Coleman made many speeches. She talked about
the importance of dreams. She talked about working hard to reach a
goal. She said that with dreams and hard work, black people could do
anything.
When she wasn‘t making speeches, Coleman performed in air
shows around the country. People came from far away to see her
exciting shows. She did tricks like rolls, loops, and figure eights. People
knew the tricks were dangerous. They started calling her ―Brave
Bessie.‖ Bessie spent five years traveling to put on shows and speak
about her life. Then Bessie had a new dream. She was saving money to
open a school where black people could learn to fly. By 1926, Bessie
had earned enough money to buy her own airplane. It was not a new
plane, but Bessie was thrilled to own it. She hired a mechanic to work
on it. On the day before a big air show in Florida, he took the plane up
for a test ride. Bessie was a passenger. Suddenly, the engine failed and
the plane took a dive. Bessie Coleman fell from the open plane and died.
The plane crashed, and the mechanic died, too. Bessie‘s funeral was
LPIDB UMS
held in Chicago. Thousands of people came to honor the brave young
woman. Three years later, in 1929, the Bessie Coleman Aero Club
opened. Bessie‘s dream—a flying school—had come true.
Bessie Coleman knew the importance of dreams. She inspired
many people and helped others believe in themselves. Every year on her
birthday, people remember Bessie. On that day, African-American
pilots make a special flight. They fly high over Chicago and right over
Bessie‘s grave, and they drop flowers in honor of Brave Bessie.
(Source: http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/
standardized_test_practice_long_reading_passages)
31. Why was it difficult for Bessie Coleman to become a pilot in

the United States?
(A) No flying school would admit a black woman.
(B) She did not complete her college education.
(C) Airplanes were still fairly new and hard to find.
(D) She was not strong enough to control a plane.
32. When did Bessie Coleman travel to France?

(A) just before she met Robert Abbott
(B) after she began performing in air shows
(C) as soon as she learned to speak French
(D) after she decided to open a flying school
33. The information in this passage is organized mainly by ….

(A) comparison and contrast
(B) problem and solution
(C) cause and effect
(D) chronological order
34. Why did so many people admire Bessie Coleman?

(A) She overcame many obstacles to become a pilot.
(B) She grew up in Texas and moved to Chicago.
(C) She traveled to France by herself in 1920.
(D) She got a job in Chicago and took French classes.

35. Which would be the best place to find more information about
Brave Bessie Coleman?
(A) a newspaper
(B) an atlas
(C) an encyclopedia
(D) a dictionary
PEMBAHASAN:
1. C: Baris ke dua,―he was the youngest of three children‖, dapat

disimpulkan bahwa Cat Steven mempunyai dua orang saudara.
2. B: Baris ke dua, ―…a Swedish mother‖
3. C: Baris ke enam, ―…he released his first single when he was
eighteen.‖
4. A: Baris ke Sembilan,‖He was looking for something that was
missing in his life‖
5. A: Stirred berarti move or cause, maka pilihan jawaban A,
provoked mempunyai makna paling dekat dengan kata ‗stirred‘
6. D: Pilihann jawaban A terdapat di baris kedua, ―to stake a claim
on territory‖, pilihan jawaban B terdapat pada baris ke dua,
―Birds sing to warn other birds…‖. Pilihan jawaban C terdapat
pada baris ke tujuh, ―Birds also sing to find a mate‖. Maka
pilihan jawaban A, B dan C semua benar (D).
7. D: Baris ke enam dan tujuh, ―The perches are high in the trees,
so other birds can see and hear it.‖
8. D: Baris ke delapan dan Sembilan, ―Healthy birds can sing
longer, more complicated songs.‖
9. C: Baris Sembilan dan sepuluh, ―Birds call to one another in
shorter vocalizations in order to warn of danger and to locate
one another.‖
LPIDB UMS
10. B: Baris ke sebelas dab duabelas, ―Young birds learn to perfect
their songs by listening to adult birds and interacting with other
birds.‖
11. D: Baris ke sepuluh dan sebelas, ―These tiny scales help
eliminate the effects of friction. This helps the mosquitoes skim
quickly and efficiently‖
12. B: Paragraf sembilan, baris dua dan tiga, ―Female mosquitoes
need blood in order for their eggs to develop.‖
13. D: Paragraf lima; ―Some prefer to lay their eggs in standing
water‖, ―Others like to lay their eggs in areas with a lot of
organic material, like leaves and grass…‖, ―Some prefer fresh
water‖
14. A: Paragraf enam baris pertama tertulis ―Mosquito larvae are
called ―wigglers‖
15. D: Paragraf sebelas, baris satu dan dua tertulis, ―Mosquitoes
seek out warmth and movement –– both properties of human
beings and other animals. They also seek carbon dioxide,…‖
16. C
17. C
18. D: Mengidentifikasi sebab akibat. Jawaban tertulis pada
paragraph empat, ―Oh, no, it‘s much too dangerous in the
daytime,‖ she said. ―What if you are seen or caught? I can‘t
allow it.‖
19. B: Mengidentifikasi synonyms and antonyms. Sinonym dari
―dreaded‖ adalah feared.
20. A: Jawaban benar terdapat pada paragraph pertama, ―Is it okay
if I go and find myself a snack?‖ = He wanted to get something
to eat.
21. A: Mengenali genre pada literature dan karakteristik masing-
masing. Text diatas merupakan text cerita rakyat / filk tale

22. C: Mengidentifikasi tema cerita. Tema dari cerita diatas adalah:
C. Things don‘t always turn out the way you expect = kita tidak
selalu mendapatkan apa yang kita inginkan.
23. A: Infectious berarti communicable, atau easy to pass along to
others. Text tersebut menjelaskan bahwa penyakit tersebut dapat
menular, kata ―infect‖, berarti to transmit an illness, and suffix
pada kata tersebut mengindikasikan bahwa kata tersebut
merupakan sebuah adjective.
24. B: Paragraf pertama kalimat ke dua tertulis bahwa ―cholera is
caused by a bacterium‖
25. B: Paragraf ke dua mengindikasikan bahwa ―contaminated food
and water carry the organism and that certain raw or poorly
cooked foods cause infection.‖ Tetapi tidak ada kalimat yang
mengindikasikan bahwa ―food cooked too much (overcooked)
causes cholera.‖
26. C: Urutan kejadian yang menyebabkan penyakit adalah:
Disaster occurs; contaminated water flows into waterways;
sanitary system fails and fresh water becomes unavailable; and
people drink the water.
27. B: Regurgitation mempunyai arti yang sama dengan vomiting.
28. D: ―The Causes and Effects of Cholera‖ merupakan penjelasan
paling banyak pada text diatas. Keseluruhan text adalah tentang
cholera. Dysentery, pada pilihan jawaban pertama, adalah
penyakit berbeda dengan gejala yang sama. Contaminated water
adalah penyebab penyakit, tetapi pilihan jawaban ke dua bukan
merupakan judul yang baik untuk text diatas. Pilihan jawaban
ke tiga hanya berhubungan dengan sebagian text diatas.
Walaupun peperangan dan bencana alam merupakan penyebab
cholera, text di atas menerangkan tentang penyakit cholera dan
bukan penyebabnya.
29. B: Dapat dilihat dari konteks kalimat diatas bahwa prevalent
berarti very common.
LPIDB UMS
30. A: Cara memasak yang baik dan kebersihan dapat mencegah
penyakit.
31. A: Pertanyaan menarik kesimpulan. Pada paragraf tiga, baris ke
delapan dan sembilan tertulis ―Bessie was a woman, and she
was black. Not many women had pilot licenses, and none of
them was black. No flying school would agree to teach Bessie.‖
Maka dapat disimpulkan bahwa Bessie tak dapat menempuh
pendidikan penerbang karena dia berkulit hitam.
32. C: Jawaban tertulis pada paragraph ke tiga, baris ke tigabelas
dan empatbelas, ―When she had enough money and could speak
French fairly well, she was ready. In 1920, Bessie sailed across
the ocean to France and was admitted to the flying school.‖
33. D: Text di atas menceritakan kisah hidup Bessie dalam urutan
kejadian/ chronological order.
34. A: Jawaban tertulis pada paragraph ke lima baris pertama dan
ke dua, ―She inspired many people and helped others believe in
themselves‖.
35. C: Cerita biografi dapat ditemukan dalam ensiklopedia.

Questions 1 – 2 refer to each short message on the left. You are to
choose the correct statement.
1. The best statement explaining the text above is…

(A) Tom wants to persuade Jane to take him to college
tomorrow morning.
(B) Tom would like Jane to do him a favor tomorrow
morning.
(C) Tom is reminding Jane they have to get up early
tomorrow morning.
(D) To wants Jane to join him to college tomorrow morning.
FREE COPIES OF
ADVERTISEMENTS ON THIS
BOARD ARE AVAILABLE
FROM THE CAREERS CENTRE
2. The best statement explaining the text above is….

(A) The Careers Centre will give you a copy of any
advertisement on this board.
LPIDB UMS
(B) This board is used to advertise the work done by the
Careers Centre.
(C) If you ask the Careers Centre, you can advertise for free
on this board.
(D) The advertisements are created by the board maker.
Komodo Dragon
Did you know that dragons really do exist? These dragons, however,
cannot fly, and don‘t breathe fire. These dragons are called komodo
dragons. Komodo dragons live on a few small islands in Indonesia,
which is in Asia.
Komodo dragons are huge reptiles that can grow to ten feet long and
weigh 350 pounds. Their tails make up half of the lengths of their
bodies. These interesting animals smell with their tongues.
Komodo dragons are carnivores. They bite prey with deadly saliva and
then wait for the animal to die. This may take several days. Komodo
dragons, however, are very patient. They only eat a few times per
month! (Source: englishforeveryone.org)
3. Which is NOT true about the Komodo dragon?

(A) They are carnivores
(B) They don‘t eat very often
(C) They live throughout Asia
(D) They use their tongues to smell.
4. What does the word ―patient‖ mean in the following sentence?

―Komodo dragons, however, are very patient. They only eat a
few times per month!―
(A) They are often sick
(B) They can wait a long time
(C) Smart
(D) Fast

5. Why does the author use an exclamation mark after the least
sentence?
(A) Because the final fact is very interesting
(B) It‘s the end of the paragraph
(C) To make sure the reader understands the sentence
(D) To tell the reader how the komodo dragon hunts
6. What question is not answered?

(A) How long is a komodo dragon?
(B) Is the komodo dragon endangered?
(C) What country does the komodo dragon live in?
(D) Do dragons exist?
Questions 7 – 9 refer to the following notice.
Executive Transportation Services

Notice of Suspension of Bus Service
To all users of the buses serving this stop: As of March 30, city bus
service on the following lines will be suspended:
 34 to downtown
 35 from downtown 56 to the airport
 57 from the airport
Riders from this neighborhood can access the downtown area on the 23
bus. The closest stop is on the corner of Maple Avenue, three blocks to
the north. Special airport shuttles leave from the Fruitlands Shopping
Mall, five blocks west of here, every 30 minutes throughout the day.
City bus passes are valid on the airport shuttles.
(Source: www.practice-the-toeic-test.com)
7. What will happen on March 30? 3. The word ―access‖ in line 9

is closest in meaning to….
(A) Buses will be added to some routes.
(B) Some bus routes will stop running.
(C) The cost of bus passes will increase.
(D) A new bus stop will be built.
LPIDB UMS
8. What can bus riders do at the shopping mall?
(A) Buy a bus pass
(B) Catch the 23 bus
(C) Get a ride to the airport
(D) Take the bus to Maple Avenue
9. The word ―access‖ in line 9 is closest in meaning to….

(A) view
(B) return
(C) depart
(D) reach
Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost
every part of the world except the northernmost and southernmost
regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee
that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles,
lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a food. While
gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are
simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land.
Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the
pollen from blossom to blossom. Bees live in a structured environment
and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with storage space for
the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function.
The worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a
honey stomach. Other workers make beeswax and shape it into a
honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or
cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build
more cells, the queen lays more eggs. All workers, like the queen, are
female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male honeybees
are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed
from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The
queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs. During the season
when less honey is available and the drone is of no further use, the

workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve
to death.
10. Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
(A) The Many Species of Bees
(B) The Useless Drone
(C) The Honeybee — Its Characteristics and Usefulness
(D) Making Honey
11. The word species in the first sentence is closest in meaning

to….
(A) mates.
(B) varieties.
(C) killers.
(D) enemies.
12. The word simultaneously in the fourth sentence is closest in

meaning to….
(A) stubbornly.
(B) concurrently.
(C) skillfully.
(D) diligently.
13. According to the passage, a hive is….

(A) a type of honey.
(B) a nest.
(C) a type of bee.
(D) a storage space.
14. According to the passage, the drone ….

(A) collects less honey than workers.
(B) mates with the queen and has no other purpose.
(C) comes from eggs fertilized by other drones.
(D) can be male or female.
LPIDB UMS
15. The author implies that ….
(A) bees are unnecessary in the food chain.
(B) drones are completely dispensable.
(C) the queen can be a worker.
(D) drones are never females.
16. According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a

honey stomach by the
(A) queens.
(B) drones.
(C) males.
(D) workers.
17. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in
nature?
(A) They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants.
(B) They make marvelous creations from wax.
(C) They kill the dangerous drones.
(D) They create storage spaces.
18. All of the following are characteristic of a honeycomb except

….
(A) it contains hexagonal sections.
(B) it is made of honey.
(C) it is made of wax.
(D) it is impermeable.
19. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the
following parts of the world except ….
(A) Africa.
(B) China.
(C) Europe.
(D) Antarctica.

20. It can be inferred from the reading that beeswax is ….
(A) absorbent.
(B) pliable.
(C) complex in structure.
(D) sweet.
Questions 21 – 28 refer to the following passage
Petrified Forest National Park
The United States is a beautiful country with many special places. One
of my favorite places is in Arizona. This place belongs to all of us
because it is a national park. The park is called the Petrified Forest.
Trees of Stone
There is a lot to see in the park. Most visitors want to see the petrified
wood first. This ―wood‖ isn‘t wood anymore. It used to be wood.
Millions of years ago, it was the wood of giant trees. The trees lived
during the time when dinosaurs roamed the land. Some of the trees were
almost nine feet across and at least 200 feet tall. But long ago,
something killed these huge trees. It could have been wind or water or
insects; we don‘t really know. We do know that many of the dying trees
fell into water or mud. Some trees rotted away. Others were covered up,
so they did not rot. They were covered with sand and ash from
volcanoes. Over time, something amazing happened. The trees turned
into fossils. They changed from living wood into quartz stone. Today, if
you visit the forest, you can see giant slices of tree trunks that are
petrified. They have hardened into stone. The petrified trees are brightly
colored. This is due to iron and other minerals in the quartz. Some of the
colors are yellow, purple, and red. In fact, the southern part of the park
is called the Rainbow Forest.
The Colorful Desert
The northern end of the park is colorful, too. This area is part of the
Painted Desert. It is not really painted, but the layers of rock are many
different colors: red, blue, pink, green, purple, and gray. Hereyou can
LPIDB UMS
see miles of strange but beautiful rock formations. There are high, flat-
topped mesas and bumpy hills called badlands. There are also steep-
sided buttes that look like sculptures. It is an unusual landscape indeed.
Getting Around the Park
The park covers more than 220,000 acres. Visitors may drive through
the park. There are numerous spots to stop and view the sights. To see
even more, many people hike one of the trails, following trail maps from
the Visitors‘ Center. However, much of the park is far from any trail, so
cross-country hiking is popular. For this kind of hiking, you do not need
a trail. If you like adventure, you may want to try it. The park has clear
air and easy-to-spot landmarks. This makes it a good place for new
cross-country hikers.
More Visitor Favorites
Sharp-eyed visitors can see fossils all over the park. Many are from the
Triassic Period. That means they are about 200 million years old. You‘ll
see live plants and animals in the park, too. There are wild flowers,
cacti, and moss. There are prairie dogs, bobcats, bull snakes, and more.
Newspaper Rock should not be missed. This huge rock is covered with
petroglyphs. These pictures and symbols were carved or scratched into
rock by people of long ago. Some petroglyphs in the park are 2,000
years old. You can learn about early people at the park museum. It has
more than 200,000 items for you to look at. Come visit the park soon.
(http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/standardized_test_pr
actice_long_reading_passages)
21. What is the topic of the passage?

(A) Petrified Forest National Park
(B) Painted dessert
(C) Colorful trees
(D) Desert hiking
22. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Trees in the Rainbow Forest are yellow, purple, and red.
(B) Long ago, some trees turned to stone.

(C) Petrified Forest National Park is a great place to visit.
(D) The Painted Desert is in Arizona.
23. Which of these events happened last?

(A) Ash and sand covered the trees.
(B) The trees hardened into stone.
(C) Insects or wind killed the trees.
(D) The trees fell into water.
24. According to the passage, which of the statements about

petrified trees below is NOT true?
(A) They are stone.
(B) They are brightly colored.
(C) They are wood.
(D) They are not living.
25. Which statement is an opinion?

(A) The trees lived when dinosaurs roamed the land.
(B) There are bumpy hills called badlands.
(C) The park covers more than 220,000 acres.
(D) Newspaper Rock should not be missed.
26. The root word petro means ―rock.‖ What does the word
petroglyph probably mean?
(A) brightly colored
(B) a drawing or carving on a rock
(C) located in a desert
(D) a large piece of red rock
27. If the author wanted to tell about ancient tools and pots on
display at the park, to which part of the passage would this
information belong?
(A) Trees of Stone
(B) The Colorful Desert
(C) Getting Around the Park
(D) More Visitor Favorites
LPIDB UMS
28. A family wants to plan a trip to visit the park. What would be
the best source of information on how to get to the park and
when it is open?
(A) a Web site
(B) a history of the United States
(C) an atlas
(D) an encyclopedia
Questions 29 – 35 refer to the following story.
Missy Gerstein: Mystery Girl
On the first day of summer, we went to the library. Mom asked me to

find some books for my little brother Luke before I looked for books for
myself. The librarian heard Mom talking to me. ―I‘ve got just the thing
for you,‖ she said, and handed me a book. It was called Encyclopedia
Brown, Boy Detective. Now, I, Missy Gerstein, am not a boy. But the
book looked good, and I decided to read it anyway. The book had lots of
chapters and in each chapter, the boy solved a mystery. He was good at
solving mysteries for two reasons. First, he was smart. You could tell he
was smart because he knew a lot of facts. Also, he noticed things that
other people didn‘t, and this came in handy all the time. The second
reason he solved a lot of mysteries was because his father was the police
chief. So Encyclopedia got involved in a lot of things most kids
wouldn‘t even know about. I figured I could solve mysteries just like
Encyclopedia. After all, I‘m pretty smart, too. Also, my initials are M.G.
Missy Gerstein: Mystery Girl! How perfect was that? So I decided to
open a detective agency. The next day, I made some signs and hung
them up around my neighborhood. Then I waited for someone to call
me. By late afternoon, no one had called. ―Why doesn‘t anyone call?‖ I
asked Mom. ―I just know there are mysteries that need solving.‖Mom
didn‘t have an answer, but she did agree to take me back to the library. I
got some more books about Encyclopedia Brown. I figured I might as
well read while I waited for the phone to ring. I might get some good
tips from Encyclopedia, too. Three days went by, and I read three more

books in the series. Encyclopedia solved every case, but guess what? I
was pretty good at solving his cases, too. I could definitely be a
detective; all I needed were some cases! I went out in the shade and read
another book while I waited for calls. After that, Mom asked me to read
Luke a story. I was reading to Luke when Dad got home. ―Hi, guys!‖ he
called. ―I‘m surprised Pearl isn‘t outside with you. Where is she?‖
We looked around for Pearl, our gray cat, but she was nowhere to be
seen. Luke started calling, ―Kitty, Kitty,‖ but got no response. So we all
went inside to get Pearl‘s dinner. She always comes running when she
hears the can opener. Luke picked a can of tuna- flavored cat food, and I
opened the can. The can opener made a loud noise, as usual, but Pearl
did not run in and rub against my leg. That was really strange for Pearl.
She must be sound asleep somewhere, I decided. Dinnertime came, and
there was still no sign of Pearl. We tried to remember when and where
we had seen her last. Dad saw her sitting by a window before he went to
work, and I let her outside when I came downstairs for breakfast. Mom
saw her run out from under the car before we went to the library. Luke
just said, ―Where‘s Kitty?‖ in a very sad voice .That‘s when Mom said,
―Well, Missy, here‘s your first case. What‘s happened to Pearl? Where
can she be? Can you solve the mystery?‖
Now I was excited. I finally had a mystery to investigate. It was an
important one, too, and I got to work on it right after dinner. First I
made a list of all the places I should look: attic, basement, garage, trees.
Next I listed all the neighbors I should check with: Kim, Mr. Summers,
Mrs. Yamakawa, Mrs. Boone. Then I crossed Kim off the list because
her family left on a camping trip that day. I was supposed to water her
dad‘s plants later in the week. After some thought, I wrote ―signs‖ on
my list. I expected to find Pearl very quickly, but if I didn‘t, I would
make ―lost cat‖ signs.
I could put signs all around the neighborhood. Now my list had
―places,‖ ―people,‖ and ―signs. ‖I chewed on my pencil, wondering
what else I should write. I thought about Encyclopedia Brown. What
would he do? Then Dad made a good suggestion. ―You could call the
police. They have an animal officer who deals with wild animals, like
skunks and raccoons. He‘ll keep an eye out for lost pets, too, and people
LPIDB UMS
who find stray pets often report them to him.‖ That could be helpful, I
thought. I wondered if I was brave enough to call the police station. It
would be so easy for Encyclopedia Brown! Well, if I was going to be a
detective, I could do it, too. I added ―police‖ to my list, and then I got to
work. First I looked in the attic; next I went to the basement; and after
that I opened the garage door and called, ―Pearl!‖ But there was no little
gray cat in any of those places. Luke came along when I talked to the
neighbors. We visited Mrs. Yamakawa first. She gave us milk and
cookies, but she couldn‘t tell us where Pearl was. Mr. Summers couldn‘t
help either, but he promised to look out for Pearl. Mrs. Boone wasn‘t
home. ―We‘ll come back tomorrow,‖ I told Luke. ―Let‘s look in the
trees. Maybe Pearl is stuck in a tree. Maybe she went up too high and
can‘t get down by herself. ‖ We stood under each of the trees in our yard
and looked carefully at every branch. I called Pearl‘s name, and Luke
helped by calling, ―Kitty! Kitty!‖ Half an hour later, we were certain
that Pearl was not stuck in a tree. By now it was Luke‘s bedtime. Pearl
had been missing for many hours, and I was getting very worried. I
spent the evening making ―lost cat‖ signs. In the morning, I could post
the signs. Then I could go back to Mrs. Boone‘s house, and after that I
could call the animal officer. I hoped I would not need to do any of
these things. I hoped that Pearl would turn up in the morning. At that
point I didn‘t care so much about being a detective anymore, I just
wanted Pearl to come home .In the morning, I ran downstairs and
nervously opened the door, but Pearl wasn‘t on our doorstep. Mom
made me sit down and eat breakfast. While I ate, I reviewed my list:
people, places, signs, police. Was I forgetting anything? I looked at the
list of names and wished my friend Kim wasn‘t away camping. Kim
loved Pearl, and I could sure use her help. Even Encyclopedia Brown
got help from his friends. Suddenly, I gasped. What if Pearl had gone
into Kim‘s house? She did that a lot. Maybe she was trapped inside! I
grabbed the key to Kim‘s house. Thank goodness Kim‘s dad had
houseplants! Pearl was very happy to see me. I brought her home and
gave her food and water. Mystery Girl‘s first case was successfully
solved.

29. What kind of passage is this?
(A) Biography
(B) folk tale
(C) realistic fiction
(D) fantasy
30. Who is telling the story?

(A) Encyclopedia Brown
(B) Missy
(C) Pearl, the cat
(D) Luke
31. When did Missy decide to become a detective?

(A) when she found out her cat was missing
(B) after she visited some of her neighbors
(C) before reading about Encyclopedia Brown
(D) after she went to the library
32. ―He deals with wild animals, like skunks and raccoons.‖ What
word is an antonym for wild?
(A) Tame
(B) Fierce
(C) Sneaky
(D) Lost
33. Why was Missy glad that Kim‘s dad had plants?
(A) She had the key to Kim‘s house because she was
supposed to water the plants.
(B) She also loved the plants.
(C) She wanted to sell some plants to him.
(D) She did not have the key to Kim‘s house.
34. If this story continued, what would Missy most likely do next?
(A) She would look for more mysteries to solve.
(B) She would get a new cat for a pet.
(C) She would call Encyclopedia Brown for help.
(D) She would take down the signs around the neighborhood.
LPIDB UMS
35. Why did the author write this passage?
(A) to show how to find a lost pet
(B) to give information about detectives
(C) to tell an entertaining story
(D) to help people become detectives
Pembahasan:
1. B: Parafrasing
2. A: Parafrasing
3. C: Paragraph pertama baris ke dua dan tiga, ―Komodo dragons
live on a few small islands in Indonesia, which is in Asia. ―
kalimat tersebut menunjukkan bahwa Komodo hanya terdapat
di beberapa pulau kecil seputar pulau Komodo dan tidak
terdapat di wilayah Asia lainnya.
4. B: Arti kata patient pada kalimat ini adalah They can wait a
long time.
5. A: Karena menurut penulis, fakta tentang Komodo yang hanya
makan beberapa kali dalam sebulan merupakan fakta yang
sangat menarik.
6. B: Tidak dijelaskan dalam text di atas
7. B: Baris ke empat, ―Some bus lines will be suspended, that is,
they will no longer be in service.
8. C: Baris ke sepuluh dan sebelas ―Bus passes can be used on the
airport shuttles, which leave from the mall‖
9. C: (Bus riders can ―reach‖ or ―get to‖ the downtown area on
the 23 bus.)
10. C: The Honeybee — Its Characteristics and Usefulness. A, B,
dan D terlalu sempit.
11. B: varieties.

12. B: concurrently, yang artinya happening at the same time.
13. B: a nest. Text tersebut menerangkan: Bees live in a structured
environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest
with storage space for the honey.
14. B: ―Mates with the queen and has no other purpose.‖ Penulis
menjelaskan bahwa: The male honeybees are called drones . . .
their only job is to impregnate a queen.
15. D: drones are never females. Drones impregnate the queen, so
they must be male.
16. D: workers. Tertulis dalam text, ―The worker bee carries nectar
to the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach.‖
17. A: They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants. Text tersebut
menerangkan bahwa when bees carry pollen from one plant to
the next, they fertilize the flowers.
18. B: it is made of honey. Penulis menjelaskan bahwa the
honeycomb is made of wax, has six-sided compartments, and is
waterproof.
19. D: Antarctica. Kalimat pertama paragraph pertama tertulis
bahwa ― bees can be found in every part of the world except the
northernmost and southernmost areas.‖
20. B: pliable. Text tersebut menjelaskan bahwa ―workers make
beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb. If it can be shaped, it
is pliable, or easy to mold.‖
21. A: Petrified Forest National Park
22. C: Paragraf pertama kalimat pertama dan ke dua. ―One of my
favorite places is in Arizona.‖ (Identifying main idea and
supporting details).
23. B: Paragraf ke dua baris ke delapan dan Sembilan, ―They
changed from living wood into quartz stone.‖ (Identify
sequence of events)
LPIDB UMS
24. B: ―They are wood.‖
25. D: Membedakan antara fakta dan opini.
26. B: Gunakan pengetahuan tentang root words dan affixes untuk
menentukan makna kata.
27. D: Gunakan fitur text bacaan untuk mengumpulkan informasi.
28. A: Pilihlah sumber referensi kata dalam text.
29. C: Tentukan gerne text bacaan dan juga struktur penulisan text.
30. B: Carilah pendapat penulis.
31. D: Paragraf pertama baris ke duabelas, ―So I decided to open a
detective agency.‖
32. A: Mencari synonyms dan antonyms
33. A: Paragraf ke tiga baris ke empat dan lima, ‗Then I crossed
Kim off the list because her family left on a camping trip that
day. I was supposed to water her dad‘s plants later in the week‖
34. A: Membuat prediksi.
35. C: Mengevaluasi tujuan dan pendapat penulis.

Islam created a society more free from cruelty and social injustice than
any society that has ever been in the world before. A good society can
be developed in the atmosphere of peace. Islam does not permit
violence. Prayer itself is completed with the announcement of peace,
once to the right and once to the left.
Islam teaches the Muslims that peace is achieved through tolerance,
forgiveness, responding to evil with good and making good deeds that
bring happiness to others. Islam also gives a special system of human
love, which relates to the dealings of Muslims with the whole world. In
this regard, the Quran says: ―The believers are brothers to each other‖.
Even the Holy Prophet; MUHAMMED; (peace be upon him) was
described as ―mercy for the two worlds.‖ In his conduct, he was
tolerant, ever merciful and forgiving. He signed treaties of peace with
the Jews and the Infidels, although they treated him very bad. He said:
―O people! Have mercy on the people on the earth and the Merciful of
the skies will have mercy on you.‖
It is evident that the West and other countries are concerned about the
growth of terrorism which unfortunately disfigured Islam and its
sacredness. That‘s why the lives of Muslims should represent true
essence of Islam that they can connect with the rest of the world in a
way that promote peace for all (Source: https://en.islcollective.com/
english-esl-worksheets).
1. Which of the statements is true according to the text?

(A) Muslims are not allowed to deal with Jews.
(B) Islam failed in making a successful society.
(C) Islam ordered us to treat even our enemies well.
(D) Muslims have to be cruel with infidels.
LPIDB UMS
2. How do Muslims finish their prayers?
(A) With the announcement of peace
(B) By performing prayers
(C) With the calling of azan
(D) With announcement of prayer
3. According to the passage, why do non-Muslims have wrong

idea about Islam?
(A) Due to the wars between Moslem and non-Muslims in
the past.
(B) Because of the growth of terrorism.
(C) From the lack of knowledge
(D) Because of misleading news from media
4. What did the writer suggest to solve this problem?

(A) He suggested that Muslims‘ lives should represent the
true essence of Islam by connecting with the rest of the
world in a way that promote peace for all.
(B) He suggested that Muslims should fight those who
misunderstood the teachings of Islam.
(C) All Muslims should learn more about Islam in order to
avoid misunderstandings.
(D) He suggested that Muslims should represent Islam to
fight the enemy.
5. Who does the underlined word refer to in the text?

(A) The Prophet
(B) Islam
(C) Muslims
(D) Jews and Infidels
6. What is the best title for the text?

(A) Peace in Islam
(B) Islam and terrorism
(C) The Prophets in Islam
(D) Muslims and Jews

Helicopters
Helicopters are very different from airplanes. They can do three things
that airplanes cannot do. First, when airplanes move upward, they must
also move forward, but helicopters can move straight up without
moving ahead. Second, helicopters can fly backward, which airplanes
cannot do. Third, helicopters can use their rotors to hover in the air (stay
in one place) which is impossible for planes.
Because helicopters can perform actions that airplanes cannot, they are
used for different tasks. Since helicopters can take off without moving
forward, they do not need a runway for takeoff. They are used in
congested areas where there is no room for airplanes or in isolated areas
which do not have airports. Because they can hover, they are used on
firefighting missions to drop water on fires. They are used in logging
operations to lift trees out of forests. Helicopters are used as air
ambulances to airlift patients out of situations which are difficult to
reach by conventional ambulances. The police use helicopters to follow
suspects on the ground or to search for cars on the ground. Of course,
helicopters have military uses because of their design and capabilities.
(Source: englishforeveryone.org)
7. Helicopters are able to....

(A) move skyward.
(B) fly in reverse.
(C) hover.
(D) All of the above
8. When airplanes move upward....

(A) they must accelerate forward.
(B) they must move sideways.
(C) they must move backwards.
LPIDB UMS
9. Helicopters are used in firefighting because....
(A) they can reach difficult spots.
(B) they can hover above the fire.
(C) their rotors can put out the fire.
10. How are helicopters used as ambulances?

(A) They chase suspects on the ground.
(B) They airlift people out of accidents.
(C) They can drop water on fires.
(D) They lift trees out of forests.
11. Why don‘t helicopters need runways?

(A) They can take off without moving forward.
(B) They can hover in the air.
(C) They can fly backward.
(D) They are small.
Questions 12– 17 refer to the following passage.
Plants and People
Plants are beautiful to look at. Did you know they are useful, too? There
are many ways that plants help people. Of course, many plants are good
to eat. Other plants are used to make medicines, cloth, and building
materials. Plants provide energy to make heat and light, too. Scientists
have found another important way that plants can help people. You
might be surprised to learn that plants are good for your health! It‘s true.
Growing plants indoors can make homes, schools, and workplaces more
healthful places for people to be. To see how plants can be good for
your health, think about where you spend your time. Even if you love to
play outside, most likely you are indoors much of the time. You eat,
sleep, work, and learn inside of buildings, not outside in fresh, clean air.
Many modern buildings and homes are tightly sealed. This saves energy
and cuts down on heating and cooling costs. However, thereis a

downside. Not much fresh air can make its way into a tightly closed
building. The air is likely to be very dry, too. So, the indoor air may not
be very good to breathe. Also, many things inside buildings affect the
air. Some of these things are furniture, rugs, and plastic. They give off
chemicals that can harm some people. Even common things, such as
paper towels and garbage bags, put chemicals into the air. The
chemicals can make eyes and noses itch. They can make throats burn.
They can make breathing difficult. In some people, they may cause
illness. You can see that chemicals in the air are harmful. The problem
is even worse in tightly sealed buildings. Some office buildings and
schools have such bad air that people made up a name for them. They
are called ―sick buildings. ‖When buildings are ―sick,‖ they need to be
fixed. The air must be improved so that people can stay healthy, work,
and learn. Often, there is more than one thing that causes a building to
have unhealthy air. Many things may need to be done to improve the air.
But there is one thing that can help the air in any building. Can you
guess what that might be? It is to bring plants into the building. Plants
can create a healthful environment for people. They do this in many
ways. All plants produce oxygen, which we need to breathe. In turn,
plants take in carbon dioxide. Plant leaves also give off water vapor.
This adds moisture to indoor air. Moist air is easier to breathe and better
for your skin. But plants do even more than this. Plants make the
environment cleaner. Indoor plants can take chemicals out of the air.
NASA space scientists proved this fact. They were trying to make the
air in spacecraft healthier. Spacecraft are tightly sealed, so it is hard to
keep the air clean and healthy. Tests of spacecraft found more than 300
chemicals in the air! Space scientists built a special building called a
―biohome. ‖The biohome was sealed tightly. No air flowed in or out. At
first it was a ―sick building. ‖Some people who went into the biohome
had trouble breathing. Others had burning eyes or throats. Tests found
many chemicals in the air. Then plants were put in the biohome. Several
days later, the air was tested again. The amount of chemicals in the air
was muchless. The air was cleaner and healthier. People had no
problems breathing in the biohome. Thanks to the plants, it was no
longer a ―sick building. ‖Plants really are amazing. They are nice to
look at, they are useful, and they are good for our health, too.
LPIDB UMS
12. Which sentence is an opinion?

(A) Not much fresh air can make its way into a tightly
closed building.
(B) Often, there is more than one thing that causes a
building to have unhealthy air.
(C) All plants produce oxygen.
(D) Plants really are amazing.
13. What causes a building to become ―sick‖?

(A) Low heating and cooling costs
(B) Too many people working in one place
(C) Chemicals in the air
(D) Too many plants in the building
14. The author wrote this passage mainly to …

(A) give information about plants and buildings.
(B) encourage people to buy more plants.
(C) tell an entertaining story about plants.
(D) describe the work that scientists do.
15. Which of the following statements is one of the ways that

plants help to create a healthful environment?
(A) Plants produce oxygen
(B) Plants are beautiful
(C) Plants release heat
(D) Plants produce chemicals
16. Why did space scientists build the biohome?

(A) to find ways to improve the air inside spacecraft
(B) to provide a place for astronauts to live
(C) to have a clean place for growing healthy plants
(D) to learn more about sick buildings

17. Which statement best tells how the author of this passage feels
about plants?
(A) Plants might be good for people in some cases.
(B) Some people may get itchy eyes or throats from plants.
(C) People need plants mainly because of their beauty.
(D) Plants are nice to look at and good for our health.
Diabetes Mellitus is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism resulting

from insufficient production of insulin or reduced sensitivity to insulin.
A polypeptide hormone, insulin is synthesized in the pancreas and is
necessary for normal utilization of glucose by most cells in the body.
People with diabetes suffer an inhibition in the normal ability of body
cells to use glucose, which results in increased blood sugar levels. As
more glucose accumulates in the blood, excess levels of sugar are
excreted in the urine.
There are two varieties of the disease, Type 1 and Type 2. The two types
were previously designated by Roman numerals, but now Arabic
numerals are used; for example, Type II is now known as Type 2. Type
1 was formerly referred to as juvenile onset diabetes, but it can occur at
any age. In Type 1 diabetes, insulin is not secreted by the pancreas, so it
must be injected. This type of diabetes is most often seen in people
whose parents, siblings, or other close relatives are affected by the
disease.
Type 2, representing 90 percent of all diabetes, used to be called adult
onset diabetes, but it can also occur at any age. It results from sluggish
pancreatic insulin secretion and tissue resistance to secreted insulin,
which is complicated by subtle changes in the secretion of insulin by the
beta cells. It is generally controlled by dietary restriction. People who
are at risk for this type include: women who have delivered a baby of 9
pounds or more or have been diagnosed with gestational diabetes;
people over 45 years of age, particularly those of African-American,
Asian-American, Hispanic, Native American, or Pacific Islander
heritage; those who have a history of diabetes in the family; those who
LPIDB UMS
are obese; and those with high blood pressure, a high triglyceride level,
or high blood sugar.
A person affected with diabetes may have no symptoms at all. Or, he or
she may experience one or more of the following common symptoms:
fatigue; increased urination and thirst; hunger; blurred vision; weight
loss; repeated infections of the skin, genitals, or feet; or itching and
dizziness. The diagnosis is reached by testing the blood sugar. If the
blood sugar is over 126 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dl) after an 8-hour
overnight fast, or over 200 mg/dl at other times of the day, the patient is
diagnosed as having the disease.
Diabetes is a formidable illness that can result in serious complications,
including heart attack, blindness, kidney failure, and loss of circulation
to the lower extremities (feet and legs). This loss of circulation can lead
to amputation of the affected areas. Prior to the isolation of insulin in the
1920s, rapid death was common among diabetes sufferers. Now, the
illness can be managed and those affected can lead a long, fairly normal
life with proper medical attention and proper attention to personal care.
Patients should follow nutrition plans designed to help them reach and
maintain normal body weight and to limit their intake of carbohydrates
and fats. They should also exercise regularly, which enhances the
movement of glucose into muscle cells and inhibits the increase in
glucose in the blood (Source: Cliff‘sTestTOEFLPreparation).
18. Insulin is…

(A) a hormone.
(B) a drug.
(C) a disease.
(D) an organ.
19. The word excreted in the last sentence of par. one means most
nearly same as…
(A) eliminated.
(B) ingested.
(C) utilized.
(D) inserted.

20. The word previously in the second paragraph means most
nearly the same as…
(A) occur.
(B) formerly.
(C) designated.
(D) used.
21. The word it in the fourth sentence of paragraph two refers

to ….
(A) insulin.
(B) Type 1 diabetes.
(C) Type 2 diabetes.
(D) pancreas.
22. According to the passage, insulin is produced ….

(A) in the pancreas.
(B) in tissue.
(C) in hormones.
(D) in glucose.
23. The word sluggish in the third paragraph means most nearly
the same as ….
(A) accelerated.
(B) excreted.
(C) normal.
(D) slow.
24. The word obese in the last sentence of par. three means most
nearly the same as
(A) severely overweight.
(B) diabetic.
(C) suffering from high blood pressure.
(D) active.
LPIDB UMS
25. What is a suitable title for this passage?
(A) Treatment of Diabetes
(B) An Overview of Diabetes
(C) Juvenile Diabetes — a Killer
(D) How to Diagnose Diabetes
26. The author distinguishes between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes

to describe how
(A) one affects only juveniles and the other affects only
adults.
(B) the symptoms and treatment are different.
(C) the two types are extremely similar to each other.
(D) the understanding of the disease has improved over
time.
27. All of the following are correct except that ….
(A) Type 2 diabetes is much more common than Type 1.
(B) both types of diabetes are hereditary to some extent.
(C) Type 2 results from a lack of secretion of insulin.
(D) diabetes is treatable.
28. It can be inferred from the passage that…

(A) amputation is the most common treatment for diabetes.
(B) Type 1 sufferers are generally not overweight.
(C) the symptoms of diabetes are always severe.
(D) too much insulin is secreted in Type 1 diabetes.

Orangutans are gentle, playful creatures, with a diet of leaves, bark,
flowers, fruit and insects. As they never attack humans, they are easy to
catch or kill.
During the Dutch rule in Indonesia, the colonial officials considered it
fashionable to keep these entertaining, gentle animals as pets. The local
people picked up this practice, and a caged orangutan was considered a
status symbol by Indonesians. Fifty years ago, the decline of the
orangutan population caused it to be listed as an endangered species,

and it has since been illegal in Indonesia to trap or kill these creatures.
However, the laws protecting the orangutan were ignored by most
people. However, today, thanks to the efforts of two Swiss women
zoologists, Regina Frey and Monica Borner, that attitude is changing.
In 1973, under the auspices of the Frankfurt Zoological Society, they
launched the Orangutan Rehabilitation Station on the Bohorok River
near the village of Bukit Lawang in North Sumatra. This location was
considered ideal because the river provides a natural boundary between
the reserve and civilization for the water-fearing apes. The orangutans
have a home range of only six kilometers, and, after being released into
the forest, do not venture far in the reserve of 8,000 square kilometers.
With help from Indonesian officials, the Swiss women located owners
of orangutans and persuaded them to surrender their pets. After
transporting them back to the rehabilitation station, they quarantined
them to prevent the spread of possible diseases amongst the wild
population, and then slowly taught them the skills necessary for survival
in the jungle. The most important of these are tree climbing, foraging,
wariness of humans, and learning to make a nest. Orangutans build
homes out of leaves and sleep safe from leopards in the trees.
At the station, once the orangutans are released into the jungle, they are
fed an intentionally monotonous diet of bananas to encourage them to
find more interesting food on their own. It is these banana feedings that
groups of tourists are allowed to watch.
To teach the orangutans to become less dependent on humans, visitors
are allowed into the reserve for only an hour, twice a day. Visitors travel
in a canoe from the "civilized" side of the river to the reserve, from
where a 45-minute walk takes them to the feeding station. Orangutans
that have not been successful in gathering food will come to this feeding
station, swinging through the trees, for a handout of bananas. As they
gracefully bend one tree to reach another, they turn upside down, and
sideways, using their feet and hands equally. Nothing is done with the
quick, nervous motions of their cousins, the monkeys. No, these "men of
the jungle" make their way with care and deliberation, yet visitors are
surprised at how fast they appear and disappear into the treetops.
LPIDB UMS
In 1980, the Frankfurt Zoological Society turned the Bohorok Station
over to the Indonesian Government, and since then the Indonesian
Nature Conservancy has managed it. They continue in the footsteps of
the first two women, only they are more aggressive in their confiscation
of caged orangutans. And, because of publicity about the center, it is no
longer common for Indonesians to keep orangutans as status symbols.
(http://www.englishdaily626.com/comprehension.php?298)
29. Why is it easy to capture orangutans?

(A) They are gentle and playful.
(B) They cannot run.
(C) They like being around human.
(D) They never attack humans.
30. Why did Indonesian people like to keep caged orangutans?

(A) Because there was no law regarding nature conservancy
(B) Because orangutans are not harmful
(C) They felt that the orangutans were status symbols
because the Dutch colonists used to keep caged ones as
pets.
(D) They used orangutans to work for them in the fields
31. What is the importance of the river to the Rehabilitation

Station?
(A) It provides a natural boundary between the reserve and
civilization because the orangutans fear the water.
(B) It provides water for all the animals and humans.
(C) To teach the orangutans to survive by swimming in the
river
(D) It provides fish as protein resource for the orangutans
32. Why were the orangutans quarantined before being released

into the forest?
(A) To ensure that they did not have any communicable
diseases which might spread amongst the wild
population

(B) To teach the orangutans to become less dependent on
humans
(C) To encourage them to find more interesting food
provided by humans
(D) To trap or kill these creatures
33. Why are the orangutans given only bananas in the

Rehabilitation Station?
(A) To maintain their diet so that they would not try to find
other kinds of fruits
(B) Their diet was kept monotonous so that they would be
encouraged to look for more interesting food on their
own, thus developing their skills of foraging for food.
(C) Because banana is the healthiest diet choice for
orangutans
(D) Because banana is orangutans‘ favorite fruits
34. How do the movements of orangutans differ from those of

monkeys?
(A) They appear and disappear into the treetops as fast as
monkeys.
(B) Monkeys have quick, nervous motions whereas the
orangutans move with grace, care and deliberation.
(C) Monkeys jump from one treetop to another, while
orangutans walk on the ground gracefully.
(D) There is no difference in their movements.
35. What is the meaning of confiscation in the last paragraph?

(A) Persuasion
(B) Conservation
(C) Publication
(D) Taking away by force
LPIDB UMS
Hi Emily
I‘m really sorry but don‘t have time to visit you so I‘m writing this
email instead. Last night I went to the cinema and saw a great film. You
can also read the book – and I heard on the podcast that it‘s a true story.
It‘s about a family with three children, two boys and a girl, who lived in
a village in India. The children went to school there and had lots of
friends.
When the children grew up, they started thinking about moving abroad.
The sister went to France to become a teacher. The older brother went to
America to open a restaurant, only the younger brother stayed in their
home country and worked on his father‘s farm. He worked really hard
but he was happy. When they grew up, they all got married and had lots
of children. The film shows us the good and sad times the three families
had and how the brothers and sister didn‘t see each other for ages. Their
children, who were cousins never met when they were little. Many years
later, when the sister became a grandmother, she decided to see her
brothers again and meet their wives and children, so she invited them all
to her big house in France.
I‘m not going to tell you what happens in the end because I want you to
see it yourself. I also have the book, I‘m reading it now, but I think the
film is better. I would like to see it again so you can come with me and
my sister on Saturday. I‘m sure you will love it when you see it. It‘s a
little bit sad, but not all the time. Sometimes I laughed and sometimes I
cried, but I can‘t say if the film is funny or sad. I hope to see you next
week. Talk soon.
Love, Rachel

1. What did Rachel do yesterday?
(A) She watched a movie.
(B) She read a book.
(C) She listened to a story.
(D) She visited her children.
2. Rachel says the story‘s about...

(A) three children‘s schooldays.
(B) two brothers and a sister.
(C) a boy and his family.
(D) A child and his teacher.
3. Where is the father‘s farm?

(A) India
(B) France
(C) America
(D) Mexico
4. Who doesn‘t leave their country?

(A) The older boy
(B) The younger boy
(C) The girl.
(D) The man
5. Who arranged the visit to France?

(A) The brothers
(B) The wives
(C) The sister
(D) The children
6. Rachel thinks...
(A) Emily should watch the film.
(B) Emily will prefer the book.
(C) Emily will want to see it again.
(D) Emily will prefer not to see the film.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 7-13 refer to the following poem. Block City
By: Robert Louis Stevenson
What are you able to build with your blocks? Castles and palaces,
temples and docks.
Rain may keep raining, and others go roam, But I can be happy and
building at home.
Let the sofa be mountains, the carpet be sea, There I‘ll establish a city
for me:
A church and a mill and a palace beside,
And a harbor as well where my vessels may ride.
Great is the palace with pillar and wall, A sort of a tower on the top of it
all,
And steps coming down in an orderly way To where my toy vessels lie
safe in the bay.
This one is sailing and that one is moored:
Hark to the song of the sailors on board! And see on the steps of my
palace, the kings Coming and going with presents and things.
Now I have done with it, down let it go! All in a moment the town is
laid low.
Block upon block lying scattered and free, What is there left of my town
by the sea?
Yet as I saw it, I see it again,
The church and the palace, the ships and the men, And as long as I live
and where‘er I may be,
I‘ll always remember my town by the sea.
7. What is the speaker doing in this poem?

(A) playing with blocks
(B) sailing on the ocean
(C) visiting a new city
(D) walking in the rain

8. Who is the speaker in this poem?
(A) a king
(B) a sailor
(C) a child
(D) a carpenter
9. Where do the events of this poem take place?

(A) on an island
(B) in a toy shop
(C) near a church
(D) inside a house
10. ―Let the sofa be mountains, the carpet be sea, There I‘ll
establish a city for me:‖
What does the speaker mean in these lines of the poem?
(A) The speaker wishes to build a real house.
(B) The speaker arranges the blocks to make an imaginary
city.
(C) The speaker builds a real city.
(D) The speaker arranges the blocks to build an imaginary
house.
11. ―To where my toy vessels lie safe in the bay.‖ In this poem,
what is a vessel?
(A) a guard
(B) a ship
(C) a fish
(D) a building
12. How do you know that this passage is a poem?

(A) It tells a story.
(B) It uses rhyming word.
(C) It has information about castles.
(D) It uses statements and questions.
LPIDB UMS
13. Which sentence best explains what happens at the end of the
poem?
(A) A king steps aboard a ship waiting in a harbor.
(B) A terrible storm destroys a town by the sea.
(C) A ship sails toward a beautiful castle.
(D) A make-believe city of blocks tumbles down.
Watermelon War
All summer, Chet Murphy and Lou Sadowski were locked in a tense
competition. Their parents named it the Watermelon War. They watched
it play out for ten long weeks. Then suddenly, the Watermelon War
ended in an unexpected way. Until the Watermelon War started, Chet
and Lou got along fine. They often talked and joked over the fence
between their yard. Chet practiced tricks on his bike, and Lou tended his
garden. Every fall, Chet helped Lou rake up the leaves from the huge
oak in the Sadowskis‘ backyard. Lou always repaid Chet with a jar of
homemade salsa. He made it with tomatoes from his garden. The trouble
started on a June morning. Chet was in his driveway pumping air into
his bicycle tires. Meanwhile, Lou was getting his garden ready for
planting. As he dug his trowel into the soil, Chet‘s face appeared over
the fence.
―Hey, Lou, ‖Chet began, ―you‘d better grow some great tomatoes this
summer. I‘ve got a craving for your salsa. ‖
Lou grinned and shook his head. ―Sorry, Chet, I‘m switching to
watermelons this year.‖ ―Why watermelons?‖ asked Chet.
Lou pulled a folded-up newspaper article from his pocket and passed it
over the fence. Chet unfolded it and read the heading.
It said, ―Gardeners‘ Club Holds Watermelon Contest.‖ As Chet
skimmed the article, one detail caught his eye. ―A $300 Grand Prize
goes to the person who grows the biggest watermelon by September
1st.‖

―Three hundred dollars!‖, Chet exclaimed. ―That could get me to grow
watermelons.‖
―I‘m more interested in the challenge than the prize,‖ Lou replied. ―I
know how to grow tomatoes. Now I want to learn something new. ‖
Soon Chet was speeding toward Marv‘s Garden Center on his bike. He
bought a package of watermelon seeds and then rode back home. A
few minutes later, Chet was digging in a corner of his yard.
He wasturningit into a watermelon patch. From his side of the fence,
Lou heard Chet‘s spade slicing into the ground. Lou wondered if he
should laugh at Chet or feel sorry for him. Chetdidn‘t know anything
about gardening. He could never win the contest.
Still, Lou decided, if Chet wanted his help, Lou would give it.
As the days passed, however, it became obvious that Chet did not want
help. When Lou offered tips, Chet waved him off. Instead, he borrowed
gardening books from the library. He did research on the Internet, too.
Chet was determined to win the contest. But he didn‘t want to share the
creditor the prize money with Lou. Once Lou realized how much Chet
wanted to win, his attitude about the contest changed. Lou decided that
he wanted to win, too.
As the days stretched into weeks, leafy watermelon plants sprouted in
each boy‘s garden. Before long, flowers blossomed on the vines and
then fell off. In their place, small, green fruits began to grow. Slowly
and steadily, the watermelons grew larger. Chet and Lou often tended
their patches at the same time, but they no longer chatted over the fence.
The boys‘ silence bothered their parents. They worried that, no matter
how the contest turned out, hard feelings between the boys would linger.
Then the Watermelon War took a surprising turn. It was a hot day in late
August. Chet and Lou were tending their watermelons. Then the sky
suddenly darkened and the wind kicked up. Thunder boomed in the
distance. Rain started falling as the boys scurried into their houses.
CRACK! THUD! A gust of wind snapped a large branch from the
Sadowskis‘ oak tree. As it crashed to the ground, the branch fell across
LPIDB UMS
Lou‘s garden. It flattened every single watermelon. Lou watched
thedestruction from a window. He felt sick with disappointment. His
hard work and hopes had come to nothing. Lou shut himself in his
bedroom. At dinnertime, he refused to eat. The doorbell rang a while
later. Lou could hear his mother greeting Chet. Then she called out,
―Lou, Chet has brought something for you.‖
When Lou reached the door, he saw Chet holding a huge watermelon.
―Hey, Lou, ‖Chet laughed, ―I need your help eating this watermelon.
It‘s the biggest one in my patch. ‖ ―Why would you eat it now?‖ asked
Lou. ―The contest isn‘t over.‖
―When I saw what happened to your patch,‖ Chet explained, ―the
contest didn‘t matter so much anymore. It‘s not as important as staying
friends with you. ‖ Trying not to smile too much, Mrs. Sadowski took
the watermelon from Chet. She cut it into slices and arranged them on a
platter.
http://sc45.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/1/0/13107602/standardized_test_pra
ctice_long_reading_passages
14. Where does most of this story take place?

(A) In Chet‘s house
(B) At Marv‘s Garden Center
(C) In Lou‘s bedroom
(D) In the boys‘ backyards
15. Why does Lou decide to grow watermelons in his garden?

(A) He knows Chet will enjoy eating them.
(B) He has had bad luck growing tomatoes.
(C) He wants to learn how to grow something new.
(D) He wants to win a watermelon contest.
16. Which of the following is an event that happened just after

Chet rode his bike to Marv‘s Garden Center?
(A) Chet buys some watermelon seeds.
(B) He digs up the soil in his neighbor‘s yard.
(C) He makes a pond.
(D) He plants the corn seeds.

17. ―They worried that, no matter how the contest turned out, hard
feelings between the boys would linger.‖
What does linger mean?
(A) Stop
(B) Remain
(C) Change
(D) Begin
18. What fell on the watermelon patch?

(A) A branch of a tree
(B) A long bamboo tree
(C) A cat
(D) A log of wood
19. What will most likely happen next?

(A) Chet will pick another watermelon.
(B) Lou and Chet will eat the watermelon.
(C) Lou will give Chet some more salsa.
(D) Chet and Lou will clean up Lou‘s garden.
20. The author‘s main purpose in this passage is to …

(A) tell an entertaining story about two friends.
(B) persuade young people to take up gardening.
(C) show how hard it is to win a contest.
(D) give information about how watermelons grow.
For a time, the Hubble telescope was the brunt of jokes and subject to
the wrath of those who believed the U.S. government had spent too
much money on space projects that served no valid purpose. The Hubble
was sent into orbit with a satellite by the Space Shuttle Discovery in
1990 amid huge hype and expectation. Yet after it was in position, it
simply did not work, because the primary mirror was misshapen. It was
not until 1993 that the crew of the Shuttle Endeavor arrived like
LPIDB UMS
roadside mechanics, opened the hatch that was installed for the purpose,
and replaced the defective mirror with a good one.
Suddenly, all that had originally been expected came true. The Hubble
telescope was indeed the ―window on the universe,‖ as it had originally
been dubbed. When you look deep into space, you are actually looking
back through time, because even though light travels at 186,000 miles a
second, it requires time to get from one place to another. In fact, it is
said that in some cases, the Hubble telescope is looking back eleven
billion years to see galaxies already forming. The distant galaxies are
speeding away from Earth, some traveling at the speed of light.
Hubble has viewed exploding stars such as the Eta Carinae, which
clearly displayed clouds of gas and dust billowing outward from its
poles at 1.5 million miles an hour. Prior to Hubble, it was visible from
traditional telescopes on earth, but its details were not ascertainable. But
now, the evidence of the explosion is obvious. The star still burns five
million times brighter than the sun and illuminates‘ clouds from the
inside.
Hubble has also provided a close look at black holes, which are
described as cosmic drains. Gas and dust swirl around the drain and are
slowly sucked in by the incredible gravity. It has also looked into an
area that looked empty to the naked eye and, within a region the size of
a grain of sand, located layer upon layer of galaxies, with each galaxy
consisting of billions of stars.
The Hubble telescope was named after Edwin Hubble, a 1920s
astronomer who developed a formula that expresses the proportional
relationship of distances between clusters of galaxies and the speeds at
which they travel. Astronomers use stars known as Cepheid variables to
measure distances in space. These stars dim and brighten from time to
time, and they are photographed over time and charted. All the
discoveries made by Hubble have allowed astronomers to learn more
about the formation of early galaxies.

21. The author states that the Hubble was not always popular
because…
(A) people were afraid of what might be found.
(B) many people believed space exploration was a waste of
time.
(C) it was defective for its first three years in space.
(D) it was more expensive than most space shuttles.
22. The word brunt in the first sentence is closest in meaning to…
(A) subject.
(B) expense.
(C) contentment.
(D) unhappiness.
23. The word wrath in the first sentence is closest in meaning to…
(A) interest.
(B) contentment.
(C) fury.
(D) Pleasure.
24. The author implies that at the time the Hubble was initially
deployed from Earth…
(A) there was little attention paid to it.
(B) all attention was focused on the space shuttle, not the
Hubble.
(C) there was considerable excitement about the potential
uses.
(D) it was already known that the mirror was defective.
25. The word misshapen in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning to…
(A) unusual.
(B) useful.
(C) expected.
(D) distorted.
LPIDB UMS
26. The word it in the second sentence of the second paragraph
refers to…
(A) one.
(B) space.
(C) light.
(D) second.
27. The author implies that the satellite that carries the Hubble
was specifically designed so that…
(A) the known defective mirror could be replaced in space
rather than on Earth.
(B) maintenance could be done by traveling astronauts.
(C) the Hubble could move easily.
(D) the mirror could contract and expand.
28. The author compares the astronauts of the Endeavor to…

(A) astronomers.
(B) scientists.
(C) mechanics.
(D) politicians.
29. The author states that Edward Hubble…

(A) developed the Hubble telescope.
(B) was the first person to use the Hubble telescope.
(C) developed a mathematical formula to measure speed
and distances between galaxies.
(D) was a politician who sponsored funding in Congress.
30. The word dubbed in the second paragraph is closest in

meaning to…
(A) detracted.
(B) named.
(C) anticipated.
(D) purchased.

31. The author states that…
(A) when viewing a distant galaxy through the Hubbell
telescope, you are actually looking back in time.
(B) the new mirror distorts the image.
(C) the view from Hubble is not accurate, but it is
interesting.
(D) you cannot discern distance or time with any kind of
accuracy.
32. According to the passage, a Cepheid variable is

(A) a star.
(B) a Hubble calculation.
(C) the dimming and brightening of a star.
(D) a mirror.
33. The author indicates that the Eta Carinae was previously
viewed from other telescopes, but…
(A) its details could not be seen.
(B) its speed and distance were not known.
(C) its location was not known.
(D) it had not been named.
34. The word billowing in the third paragraph is closest in

meaning to
(A) sitting.
(B) pouring.
(C) exploding.
(D) stopping.
35. The author implies that a black hole is analogous to

(A) water draining in a bathtub.
(B) a galaxy.
(C) a group of stars.
(D) a cloud.
LPIDB UMS
Part I
Directions:
For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and
you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken just
one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
understand what the speaker says.
When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your
test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in
the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and mark your answer.
Look at the sample below:
Now listen to the four statements. Sample Answer A B C D
Statement (B), ‖They‘re having a meeting‖ best describes what you see
in the picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

1.
2.
3.
LPIDB UMS
4.
5.
6.

7.
8.
9.
LPIDB UMS
10.
11.
12.

13.
14.
15.
LPIDB UMS
16.
17.
18.

19.
20.
Part II
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question spoken in
English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The
question and the responses will be spoken just one time. They will not
be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each
question.
LPIDB UMS
Now listen to a sample question:
You will hear: Sample answer

A B C D
You will also hear:
The best response to the question ―How are you?‖ is choice (A) ―I am
fine, thank you.‖ Therefore, you should choose answer (A).
21. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.


Part III
Directions: On the compact disc, you will hear a short conversation. In

your test book, you will see a question and four possible answers.
Choose the best answer to the question.
51. What does the man want to know?

(A) Directions to a store.
(B) What day it is.
(C) Store hours.
(D) His size.
52. What happened to the woman‘s shoes?

(A) She got them wet.
(B) She left them on the train.
(C) She dropped them at the corner.
(D) She left them in the car.
53. Why didn‘t the woman get the call?

(A) She wasn't home.
(B) She didn't know how to answer.
(C) She didn't check the answering machine.
(D) She didn't hear the phone.
54. Why is the woman glad?

(A) They didn't pay extra.
(B) They didn't take a plane.
(C) They're leaving the country.
(D) They're staying inside.
LPIDB UMS
55. Why is the woman worried?
(A) The supervisor canceled their meeting.
(B) She wants to see his office.
(C) She thinks she made a mistake.
(D) She hasn't done anything right.
56. What kind of room does the woman want?

(A) Small.
(B) Quiet.
(C) Large.
(D) Noisy.
57. Where did this conversation take place?

(A) In an office.
(B) In an airplane.
(C) In a park.
(D) In a restaurant.
58. What was wrong with the credit card?

(A) It was no longer good.
(B) It was out of place.
(C) It hadn't been signed.
(D) The store doesn't accept credit cards.
59. When can they meet?

(A) For lunch.
(B) On Tuesday.
(C) For dinner.
(D) For breakfast.
60. How many towels are missing?

(A) One.
(B) Two.
(C) Three.
(D) Four.

61. What is the man‘s profession?
(A) Hotel clerk.
(B) Travel agent.
(C) Airline pilot.
(D) Ticket clerk
62. Why does the man want to take the next train?
(A) It's an express.
(B) He wants to buy a paper.
(C) He wants to sit down.
(D) He wants to ride downtown.
63. What is the man going to do?

(A) Make some coffee.
(B) Make some tea.
(C) Get ice water.
(D) Serve some fish.
64. Who is woman talking to?

(A) The receptionist.
(B) The shipping clerk.
(C) The librarian.
(D) The personnel director.
65. Why does the man want to leave at three-thirty?

(A) He likes to arrive early.
(B) He's afraid he'll miss the plane.
(C) He doesn't like to hurry.
(D) He thinks traffic will get bad.
66. Where should the man put the plant?

(A) On his desk.
(B) In artificial light.
(C) By the window.
(D) In the hall.
LPIDB UMS
67. What kind of ticket did the woman get?
(A) Round-trip.
(B) One-way.
(C) Discounted.
(D) Full-fare.
68. How long will Mr. Tan be away from work?

(A) One night.
(B) One week.
(C) Three weeks.
(D) Four weeks.
69. What is the woman‘s solution to the problem?

(A) Buy a new ribbon.
(B) Get a different typewriter.
(C) Learn to use a computer.
(D) Get another job.
70. What is the woman going to do?

(A) Postpone the meeting.
(B) Be late to work.
(C) Cancel the meeting.
(D) Wonder whether it's a good idea.
71. What did the man ask the woman to do?

(A) Turn the radio around.
(B) Practice her music.
(C) Try to work harder.
(D) Lower the volume on her radio.
72. What did the man suggest that the woman do?
(A) Take another tour.
(B) Hurry up.
(C) Go back to the museum alone.
(D) Get her own painting.

73. Why is the man late?
(A) He lost his map.
(B) His map is old.
(C) He forgot the restaurant's name.
(D) He got lost.
74. When is the report due?

(A) This afternoon.
(B) At 7:00.
(C) At 10:00
(D) Tomorrow
75. Why does the woman take the subway?

(A) Driving is too expensive.
(B) She sometimes needs her car.
(C) She likes to drive.
(D) She doesn't like to park.
76. Why doesn‘t the man leave a message?

(A) He doesn't know Ms. Kim.
(B) He won't have a telephone with him.
(C) He won't talk to the receptionist.
(D) He's calling long-distance.
77. Where will they put the display?

(A) By the door.
(B) By the window.
(C) Along the wall.
(D) In the mall.
78. What does the man need to do?

(A) Call the nurse.
(B) Help her walk.
(C) Lift the chairs.
(D) Buy her some new shoes.
LPIDB UMS
79. Why is the man disappointed?
(A) The post office isn't close.
(B) The post office is closed.
(C) The post office isn't round.
(D) The post office is on the bus route.
80. When are the paychecks due?

(A) Once a week.
(B) Once a month.
(C) Twice a month.
(D) By two o'clock.
Part IV
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each talk
will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book,
so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.
In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each
talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose
the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
81. Who should get on the plane during priority boarding?

(A) People with connecting flights.
(B) Large groups.
(C) Elderly people.
(D) Airline personnel.
82. If someone needs help, who should they ask?

(A) The security office.
(B) A flight attendant.
(C) The pilot.
(D) The ticket agent.

83. What kind of books does this store carry?
(A) Novels.
(B) Children's books.
(C) Professional books.
(D) Textbooks.
84. If the store doesn‘t have the book in stock, what will it do?
(A) Refer you to another store.
(B) Look it up in the master list.
(C) Give you a different book at a discount.
(D) Order it.
85. When can we expect it to get cloudy?

(A) In the morning.
(B) In the afternoon.
(C) In the evening.
(D) At night.
86. How long will the rain last?

(A) All weekend.
(B) All day.
(C) All afternoon.
(D) All morning.
87. How long do most colds last?

(A) 1 day.
(B) 1-2 days.
(C) 3 days.
(D) 3-5 days.
88. How can you speed recovery?

(A) Stay warm.
(B) Drink fluids.
(C) Take medication.
(D) Avoid caffeine.
LPIDB UMS
89. Who should hear this advertisement?
(A) Homemakers.
(B) Business people.
(C) Mail clerks.
(D) Receptionists.
90. What does this company provide?

(A) Conference planning.
(B) Furniture rentals.
(C) Food for business occasions.
(D) Maid service.
91. Where is this train going?

(A) Into the city.
(B) To the hospital.
(C) To the business district.
(D) To the shopping mall.
92. Which subway line goes to the airport?

(A) The gray line.
(B) The green line.
(C) The red line.
(D) The blue line.
93. Why are these closings taking place?

(A) It's Sunday.
(B) There is no transportation.
(C) It's a federal holiday.
(D) The weather is bad.
94. What service is the transportation system eliminating for the day?
(A) Rush hour service.
(B) Weekend service.
(C) Service into the city.
(D) Service to recreation areas.

95. Who participated in this survey?
(A) Hotel owners.
(B) Secretaries.
(C) Housekeepers.
(D) Business travelers.
96. Where would travelers prefer to have hotels located?

(A) In the business district.
(B) Close to parks and museums.
(C) Near shopping and entertainment
(D) Beside the airport.
97. What additional service should the hotels provide at night?

(A) Access to exercise and recreation rooms.
(B) Movies in the rooms.
(C) Light snacks in the lobby.
(D) Transportation services.
98. What does this service do?

(A) Provide visitors with maps.
(B) Tell you which buses and subways to take.
(C) Sell you tickets for transportation.
(D) Tell you what you should see.
99. What information is necessary to get help?

(A) Your ticket number.
(B) Your budget.
(C) How you would like to get there.
(D) The day and time of travel.
100. What should you have ready by the phone?

(A) An address book.
(B) A list of tourist attractions.
(C) A pencil and some paper.
(D) A guidebook.
LPIDB UMS
In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you
understand structure and written expression. There are two parts to this
section, with special directions for each part.
Part V
Directions:
Questions 101-140 are incomplete sentences. Four words or
phrases, marked A, B, C, D, are given beneath each sentence. You are to
choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Example:
Because the equipment is very delicate, it must be handled
with___.
A. caring
B. careful
C. care
D. carefully
The sentence should read, ―Because the equipment is very delicate, it

must be handled with care.‖ Therefore, you should choose answer C.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on the questions.
101. If the delivery is late, we___ the shipping charges.

(A) paid
(B) will pay
(C) have paid
(D) are paying

102. We cannot process the order___ we get a copy of the purchase
order.
(A) because
(B) that
(C) until
(D) when
103. The visitors will be arriving___ the office in twenty minutes.

(A) at
(B) with
(C) into
(D) for
104. Please use the___ envelope for your reply.

(A) is enclosed
(B) enclose
(C) enclosing
(D) enclosed
105. Mr. Mura depends on his assistant for___

(A) advise
(B) adverse
(C) advice
(D) adversity
106. The package should arrive___ Tuesday.

(A) in
(B) on
(C) over
(D) at
107. The newspaper expects circulation___ next year.

(A) to ascend
(B) to increase
(C) to escalate
(D) to raise
LPIDB UMS
108. Using a checklist is an___ way to make plans.
(A) effective
(B) effect
(C) effectiveness
(D) effectively
109. The food has been ordered,___ it has not arrived.

(A) or
(B) since
(C) because
(D) but
110. The bus will leave promptly___8:30.

(A) until
(B) to
(C) at
(D) for
111. The head of operations___ to the management convention.

(A) going
(B) are going
(C) go
(D) is going
112. A costumer representative___ at our catalogue number.

(A) always is available
(B) is always available
(C) is available always
(D) being always available
113. The telephone directory is___ the telephone.

(A) among
(B) to
(C) under
(D) between

114. Our company stands for quality___ design.
(A) or
(B) and
(C) but
(D) neither
115. The supervisor had Ms. Balla ___ her job responsibilities.
(A) writing
(B) wrote
(C) written
(D) write
116. Mr. Camelio promises___ the error right away.

(A) will correct
(B) correcting
(C) to correct
(D) corrects
117. ___it was late, Ms. Glaser stayed to finish her work.
(A) Although
(B) During
(C) Since
(D) While
118. The___ about our recycling plans will reassure consumers.

(A) public
(B) publish
(C) publishing
(D) publicity
119. The travel agent persuaded us___ an evening flight.

(A) to take
(B) taking
(C) took
(D) taken
LPIDB UMS
120. This model has seldom been brought in for___.
(A) despair
(B) compares
(C) impairs
(D) repairs
121. Can you meet us___11:00?

(A) on
(B) for
(C) at
(D) in
122. The manager suggested ___a research team.

(A) organized
(B) organizing
(C) organizes
(D) to organize
123. Mr. Benito received the notice ___January 5.

(A) on
(B) in
(C) at
(D) to
124. This list of contributors is more ___that one.

(A) current
(B) currently
(C) current than
(D) current as
125. The fax was not received ___the fax number was wrong.
(A) until
(B) because
(C) although
(D) once

126. The ship‘s captain requests that all passengers ___emergency
procedures.
(A) reviewing
(B) reviews
(C) review
(D) to review
127. The person____ lost a briefcase may claim it in the lobby.

(A) whose
(B) which
(C) whom
(D) who
128. The memo is___ the previous one.

(A) as confusing
(B) confusing as
(C) as confusing as
(D) as confused as
129. Ms. Friel ___ about her promotion before it was announced.
(A) knew
(B) known
(C) is knowing
(D) has known
130. Please___ me any time if I can help you.

(A) are calling
(B) call
(C) calls
(D) will call
131. The ship‘s restaurant is located__ _the sun deck.

(A) on
(B) under
(C) in
(D) over
LPIDB UMS
132. What___ will the delay have on the contract?
(A) affect
(B) affection
(C) effect
(D) effective
133. Mr. Dimitri has a___ for the Palace Hotel.

(A) rumination
(B) reservation
(C) trepidation
(D) motivation
134. Our latest advertising package includes videos___ brochures.

(A) but
(B) or
(C) and
(D) either
135. The merger ___will be announced today, should be extremely

profitable.
(A) when
(B) whose
(C) it
(D) which
136. The receptionist ___a massage if you do not answer your phone.
(A) takes
(B) took
(C) take
(D) taken
137. The secretary ___a letter when the typewriter broke.

(A) typed
(B) is typing
(C) was typing
(D) types

138. Tomorrow we ___the letter by overnight mail.
(A) will send
(B) sent
(C) had sent
(D) is sending
139. My cousin was very ___when he got the job.

(A) surprise
(B) surprised
(C) surprising
(D) surprises
140. The computer operators work at night ___on weekends.

(A) nor
(B) but
(C) neither
(D) and
Part VI
Directions:
In questions 141-160, each sentence has four words or phrases
underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B,
C, and D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that
should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer.
Example:
All employee are required to wear their identification badges while at work
A B C D
Choice A, the underlined word ‗employee‘ is not correct in this

sentence. This sentence should read, ―All employees are required to
wear their identification badges while at work.‖ Therefore, you should
choose answer A.
LPIDB UMS
141. If the service is not prompt, the customer would have gone to
A B C
another restaurant.
D
142. Good salesperson always meets the needs of the customer.

A B C D
143. I asked Mr. Lee give the client a tour of the office and a
A B
demonstration of the latest product.
C D
144. New employees twice a week are required to attend company.

A B C
training sessions
D
145. The fax that Mr. Gerard sent it from Toronto is incomplete.
A B C D
146. The company expects sales to decrease during the summer and.
A B C
increasing again in the fall
D
147. An attractive display is one thing that encourages customers buy

A B C
our product.
D
148. A charge for labor is including in the repair estimate.

A B C D
149. The staff meeting lasts more than 30 minutes rarely.

A B C D

150. The items on this invoices has incorrect stock identification
A B C
numbers.
D
151. Ms. Harrison had written already the proposal when the office
A B
lights went out.
C D
152. If Mr. Goa is away from his desk, Ms. Carter is answering the
A B C
telephone for him.
D
153. Ms. Belko insists her staff written weekly updates on each project.
A B C D
154. The clerks in the accounting department needs two days

A B C
to process a check.
D
155. Mr. Kent would hire another manager if the company allows it.
A B C D
156. Until the item is currently out of stock, we can order it for you.
A B C D
157. Ms. Uri‘s argument was so convinced that the committee voted
A B C
to accept the proposal.
D
158. A person he forgets names will not make many friends.

A B C D
LPIDB UMS
159. Ms. Griffin will go to England when she took her vacation
A B C
last summer.
D
160. The director of the publication department works hard as his staff
A B C
does.
D

40 Questions 30 minutes
Part VII
Directions:
Questions 161-200 are based on a variety of reading material
(for example: announcements, paragraphs, advertisements, and the like).
You are to choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C), or (D) to each
question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what
is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following example.
The Museum of Technology is a ―hands-on‖ museum, designed for

people to experience science at work. Visitors are encouraged to use,
test, and handle the objects on display. Special demonstrations are
scheduled for the first and second Wednesdays of each month at 13:30.
Open Tuesday-Friday 12:00-16:30, Saturday 10:00-17:30, and Sunday
11:00-16:30.
When during the month can visitors see special demonstrations?
(A) Every weekend. Sample Answer

(B) The first two Wednesdays. A ● C D
(C) One afternoon a week.
(D) Every other Wednesday.
The reading selection says that the demonstrations are scheduled for the
first and second Wednesdays of the month. Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).
Now begin work on the questions.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 161-163 refer to the following letter
Consolidated Data
CD C. so Buines Aires 45
20124 Milan, Italy
Mr. Arnold Jiggit

October 12, 19_____
Avenue Louis 358
B-1050 Brussels, Belgium
Dear Mr. Jiggit,

Your resume is very impressive, but we are no longer hiring full-time
workers. Like many companies, we are trying to operate with a
minimum staff, hiring temporary office workers. When the workload
increases, or when we need people for a specific project, we look for
part-time workers.
Should such a need arise, we will contact you.
With very good wish
Sincerely yours,
Sa Osheroff
Employment Clearing House
161. What employment practice does this company share with others?
(A) Hiring a maximum staff.
(B) Training its own workers.
(C) Hiring temporary workers.
(D) Asking retires to return.
162. When are these workers usually hired?

(A) When the workload increases.
(B) When employees are ill.
(C) When costs are high.
(D) When business is bad.

163. Mr. Jiggit probably wrote to the company___
(A) to inquire about a part-time job.
(B) to ask about company benefits.
(C) to seek full-time employment.
(D) to look for temporary office workers.
Questions 164-166 refer to the following coupon

BOARDING PASS
Name of passengers : Monica Colanderm
009322778695
From : New York LaGuardia
To : Los Angeles
Carrier Flight Class Date Time

TU 740 V 8 May 11:30
Gate Seat Smoke

67 12A NO
164. What is this coupon?

(A) Ticket for a concert.
(B) Boarding pass for an airline flight.
(C) Registration form for classes.
(D) Job application.
165. Where is Monica going?

(A) New York.
(B) Los Angeles.
(C) La Guardia High School.
(D) To an interview.
166. Where will she sit?

(A) Seat 8C.
(B) Seat 11B.
(C) Seat 12A.
(D) Seat 67E.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 167-169 refer to the following invoice
Invoices are due upon receipt. All accounts unpaid as of the last day of
the current month shall accrue interest at the Consumers Bank lending
rate plus 1-12% per annum.
167. When are invoices due?

(A) The last day of the month.
(B) The first day of the month.
(C) At the date on the invoice.
(D) When they are received.
168. If your account is unpaid, what will happen?
(A) You will owe interest.
(B) You will have to close the account.
(C) You will pay twice as much.
(D) You will have to borrow money.
169. What is the role of the Consumers Bank?
(A) It will assist with the loans.
(B) It acts as a collections agent.
(C) It receives payment on all account.
(D) It sets a base interest rate.
Questions 170-172 refer to the following advertisement

Trust Line cordially invites you to attend a morning seminar to learn
how you can predict the trends that will assist your clients with the
success of their investment. To reserve a seat, fill out the attached card
and mail it with your registration fee.
Don‘t miss this chance to learn about the sources that drive successful
fiduciary service management firms. For further information, please call
676-9980
170. Who would be likely to attend the seminar?

(A) A private investor.
(B) A manager in a non-profit organization.
(C) A stockbroker.
(D) A newspaper publisher.

171. What will be discussed in the seminar?
(A) Building client relationships.
(B) Fiduciary service management firms.
(C) How to foresee good investment.
(D) How to get rid of poor investments.
172. How can join the seminar?

(A) Present this letter.
(B) Send a short form and payment.
(C) Send your business card and request.
(D) Call 676-9980.
Questions 173-177 refer to the following article

NewTech Equipment Company announced it expects to cut 4.000 jobs
within the next six months in Brazil as part of its strategy to reorganize
its money-losing business. NewTech has been struggling to make a
profit after two years of losses worldwide.
The reduction in labor comes as a surprise to business analysts, who had
been impressed with the performance of the company in recent months.
Although its revenues have not matched those of its first two years of
business, they had been increasing steadily since June.
New competition was blamed for this loss of revenue, but sources close
to the company place the blame on the lack of direction from the
chairman of the company, Pierre Reinartz. Mr. Reinartz has been with
the company for only a year, and he will probably resign soon.
It is expected that Elizabeth Strube will succeed him. Ms. Strube was
responsible for opening the international offices, which have been more
cost-effective than those in Brazil. NewTech employs about 25.000
people in Brazil, another 20.000 in Asia, and 10.000 in Europe. The
international offices will not be affected by the reductions.
173. Why will New Tech cut jobs?

(A) To be more profitable.
(B) Because it is moving overseas.
(C) Because labor costs have gone up.
(D) Because chairman Reinartz directed it.
LPIDB UMS
174. Where will these jobs be cut?
(A) Asia.
(B) Brazil.
(C) The United States.
(D) Europe.
175. How long has New Tech been losing money?
(A) Six months.
(B) One year.
(C) A year and a half.
(D) Two years.
176. What surprised analysts?

(A) The recent growth of the income.
(B) The resignation of the chairman.
(C) The decision to reduce employees.
(D) The opening of an international branch.
177. What describes the international branch of New Tech?

(A) It is more cost-effective.
(B) It loses more money than the Brazilian branch.
(C) It is older than the Brazilian branch.
(D) It will be closed.
Questions 178-180 refer to the following ticket

BUS FARES
Peak Off Peak
Effective March 1 Any one zone 1.00 .75
Peak hours Between zones 1 and 2 1.35 1.00
Weekdays 5:30-9:30 AM zones 1 and 3 1.70 1.35
and 3:00-7:00 PM zones 2 and 3 1.35 1.00
178. When do these bus fares take effect?

(A) Immediately.
(B) On March 1.

(C) On February 28.
(D) Next week.
179. Which time is off-peak?

(A) 7:00 AM Monday.
(B) 9:00 AM Wednesday.
(C) 8:00 PM Thursday.
(D) 5:00 PM Friday.
180. What is the peak fare between zones 1 and 3?

(A) $.75
(B) $1.00
(C) $1.35
(D) $1.70
Questions 181-183 refer to the following advertisement
Leading TV Advertising
Company with broadcast interests worldwide seeks a Specialist in

Audience research. The Specialist will design studies to determine
consumer preferences and write reports for use within the company.
Candidates must have a college degree with courses in research. Must
also have experience in advertising. Outstanding oral, written, and
computer skills are necessary. Downtown location. Excellent benefits
181. What does this job involve?

(A) Making TV commercials.
(B) Discovering what consumers like.
(C) Advertising products.
(D) Testing products.
182. Who will use the Specialist‘s reports?

(A) The consumers.
(B) The television station.
LPIDB UMS
(C) The manufacturers.
(D) The TV-advertising company.
183. What qualifications should the candidate have?

(A) Education in research and experience in advertising.
(B) Experiences in television audiences.
(C) Ability in accounting.
(D) A degree in broadcasting.
Questions 184-185 refer to the following schedule
14
8:00-8:45 Breakfast, meeting with accountants
8:30 Prepare for sales meeting
9:00 Greet sales staff/office
9:30 Meeting starts
10:00
10.30
11:00 Break
11:30 Meeting
12:00
12:30
1:00 Lunch
184. What is a feature of this person‘s day?

(A) Breakfast with the sales staff.
(B) Lunch at noon.
(C) The day off.
(D) A full morning.
185. How is the calendar arranged?

(A) By the minute.
(B) By the half-hour.
(C) By the hour.
(D) By the month.

Questions 186-190 refer to the following article
Peru is reforming its maritime transportation system. New regulations

designed to reduce port costs and increase efficiency have already had
encouraging results. As a result of these reforms, Peru has established
itself as the gateway for exports to the booming Pacific Rim markets.
These reforms have been in three areas; labor, regulation, and custom
clearances.
High labor costs had sabotaged Peru‘s import and export businesses.
Where once 80% of all goods had been transported by ship, ports in
recent years had been moving only half of their capacity. Shipping
companies had taken their business to Chilean ports where costs were a
sixth what they were in Peru. Reform in area was needed quickly.
Consequently, agreements with port workers now allow shippers and
receivers to make their prices competitive with other ports in Latin
America. The port workers benefit as well, since many have formed
limited partnerships or cooperatives.
Prior to the reforms, 60% of all exports had to be shipped on Peruvian

flag-carriers. That regulation has been abolished and has opened the
ports to ships from around the world. This increase in traffic meant that
dock procedures had to be streamlined. Accordingly, customs
regulations were made more efficient and commercial processing is
accomplished more quickly.
186. Why were reforms necessary?

(A) The industry was outdated.
(B) Corruption was the norm.
(C) Labor regulations were being violated.
(D) The shipping industry was inefficient and costly.
187. What are Peruvian shippers most interested in?

(A) North America.
(B) The Pacific Rim.
(C) Europe.
(D) Chile.
LPIDB UMS
188. Prior to the reforms, at what percentage capacity did the ports
operate?
(A) 20%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
189. What do Peruvian ships now do?

(A) Carry all cargo.
(B) Carry 60% of all cargo.
(C) Compete with non-Peruvian ships.
(D) Display their flag.
190. According to the report, why were dock procedures streamlined?

(A) To make them easier to read.
(B) To handle increased traffic.
(C) To reduce labor costs.
(D) To satisfy the dock workers.
Questions 191-194 refer to the following letter

Starling Brothers Investment Firm
145 East 45th Street
New York NY 10019
To : all airline investors

BY FAX
Fm : Alfonso Oireilly
Pages : This only
Broker
Stock Alert
Southern Regional Airlines earned $9.8 million in the fourth quarter,
compared with a loss of $584.1 million the previous year. The profit
was due to reduced costs and an increase in profitable routes. This year,
the airline lost $112.4 million in total, compared with a loss of $1 billion
last year.

If the present management does not change, we assume that the cost-
reduction measures and their choice of routes will continue to have
positive effect on earnings. By eliminating even more routes across the
Atlantic, the airline should be able to focus on the short-haul markets
where it built its strong base.
We suggest keeping Southern Regional stock at this time. If there is any
change in this forecast, we will advise you.
191. What is the purpose of the notice?

(A) To warn investors of poor stock performance.
(B) To suggest a change in management.
(C) To explain recent success to investors.
(D) To encourage investors to hold on to their stock.
192. To what is the profit due?

(A) New marketing strategies.
(B) Lower cost and more profitable routes.
(C) Greater ticket sales.
(D) Changes in the competition.
193. How much did the airline lose the year?

(A) $1 million.
(B) $9.8 million.
(C) $112.4 million.
(D) $1 billion.
194. What is the core of the airline‘s business?

(A) Shipping.
(B) Transatlantic routes.
(C) Short-haul routes.
(D) Charter flight.
LPIDB UMS
Questions 195-196 refer to the following notice
The Griffith Hotel
Charleston, South Carolina
803-349-7204
Reservations will be held until 4:00 p.m. unless guaranteed by advance

deposit or credit card.
¥
Cancellations must be made 24 hours prior to scheduled arrival in order
to avoid the first night‘s room charge
195. Why would you guarantee your reservation by credit card?

(A) So you can cancel your room.
(B) So you can arrive after 4:00.
(C) So you can arrive before 4:00.
(D) So you don‘t have to check in.
196. What happens if you do not cancel 24 hours in advance?

(A) You must pay for one night.
(B) You get first choice of rooms.
(C) You can schedule your arrival.
(D) You can get an advance deposit.
Questions 197-200 refer to the following memo

MEMO
From the desk of Mazola Sawarani
To: all employees
Sub: Vacation
Supervisors must approve any and all vacation periods longer than one
week. Approval is not automatic. If (1) your absence would create a
heavy workload for you team, or cause your team to miss deadlines; (2)
you fail to give at least one week‘s advance notice; (3) there are
problems with your job performance; or (4) you have had other frequent
absences, your request could be denied.
In that case, please contact the Personnel Review Board.

197. What is the memo about?
(A) Work shortage.
(B) Vacation time.
(C) Sick leave.
(D) Starting hours.
198. Which of the following vacation periods requires a supervisor‘s

approval?
(A) One hour.
(B) One day.
(C) One week.
(D) One month.
199. What might influence supervisor‘s decision?

(A) You are a new employee.
(B) You are poorly paid.
(C) You are a team leader.
(D) You often miss work.
200. If approval is not given, the employee can___.

(A) ask another supervisor.
(B) stay at work.
(C) take a different vacation.
(D) ask the personnel review board.
LPIDB UMS
Part I
Directions:
For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and
you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken just
one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
understand what the speaker says.
When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your
test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in
the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and mark your answer.
Look at the sample below:
Now listen to the four statements. Sample Answer

A B C D
Statement (B), ‖They‘re having a meeting‖ best describes what you see
in the picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

1.
2.
3.
LPIDB UMS
4.
5.
6.

7.
8.
9.
LPIDB UMS
10.
Part II
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear a question

spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English.
The question and the responses will be spoken just one time. They will
not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response
to each question.


Part III
Directions: You will hear some conversations between two people. You
will be asked to answer three questions about what the speakers say in
each conversation. Select the best response to each question and mark
the letter (A), (B), (C), or (D) on your answer sheet. The conversations
will not be printed in your test book and will be spoken only one time.
41. What is the man buying?

(A) Shoes.
(B) Pears.
(C) A book.
(D) A newspaper.
LPIDB UMS
42. How much does he have to pay?
(A) $7.75.
(B) $17.75.
(C) $70.75.
(D) $75.
43. How will he pay?

(A) With cash.
(B) With a credit card.
(C) With a traveler 'ร check.
(D) With a personal check.
44. How long will it take for the package to arrive?

(A) Six days.
(B) Eight days.
(C) Ten days.
(D) Twelve days.
45. What is inside the package?

(A) China.
(B) Checks.
(C) Jewelry.
(D) Class work.
46. How much will the man pay?

(A) $6.00.
(B) $9.00.
(C) $15.00.
(D) $1,000.00.
47. When will the repairperson come?

(A) This morning.
(B) Tomorrow.
(C) At 4:00.
(D) In four days.

48. What does the woman have to copy?
(A) Reports.
(B) Photographs.
(C) A repair bill.
(D) A meeting agenda.
49. Where is the photocopy store?

(A) On the first floor.
(B) On the fourth floor.
(C) Across the street.
(D) Next door.
50. What are the speakers waiting for?

(A) A car
(B) A bus.
(C) A train.
(D) A plane.
51. What is the weather like?

(A) It's raining.
(B) It's cloudy
(C) It's cold.
(D) It's hot.
52. How long has the man been waiting?

(A) 15 minutes.
(B) 16 minutes.
(C) 50 minutes.
(D) 60 minutes.
53. When does the woman's vacation begin?

(A) On Monday.
(B) On Tuesday.
(C) On Wednesday.
(D) On Thursday
LPIDB UMS
54. How long will her vacation last?
(A) Two days.
(B) One week.
(C) Eight days.
(D) Two weeks.
55. Where will she spend her vacation?

(A) At a lake.
(B) At the beach.
(C) In the mountains.
(D) In New York.
56. Why wasn't Mr. Kim at the meeting?

(A) He is sick.
(B) He went downtown.
(C) He arrived too late.
(D) He is away on a trip.
57. How many people were at the meeting?

(A) Two.
(B) Seven.
(C) Eleven.
(D) Fifteen.
58. When is the next meeting?

(A) Tomorrow morning.
(B) In two days.
(C) Next week.
(D) Next month.

(A) In a bank.
(B) In a store.
(C) In a doctor's office.
(D) In an accountant's office.

60. How much money is the check for?
(A) $400.
(B) $500.
(C) $800.
(D) $900.
61. What does the woman have to sign?

(A) A deposit slip.
(B) A letter.
(C) A check.
(D) A form.
62. What is the weather like?

(A) It's snowing.
(B) It's raining.
(C) It's hot.
(D) It's windy
63. How will the speakers get to work?

(A) By car.
(B) By train.
(C) By walking.
(D) By taxi.
64. What does the man have to do at 10:00?

(A) Attend a meeting.
(B) Clean the conference room.
(C) Talk on the telephone.
(D) Get on the train.
65. Where is the hotel?

(A) On another street.
(B) To the left.
(C) Across the street.
(D) To the right.
LPIDB UMS
66. What is the woman buying?
(A) A newspaper.
(B) A magazine.
(C) Candy.
(D) Gum.
67. How much does the woman have to pay?

(A) $4.15.
(B) $4.16.
(C) $4.50.
(D) $4.60.

(A) At home.
(B) At a bakery.
(C) At a grocery store.
(D) At a restaurant.
69. How often does the man go to this place?

(A) Every day.
(B) Every two days.
(C) Once a week.
(D) Once a month.
70. What will the man get?

(A) Soup.
(B) Rice.
(C) Chicken.
(D) Sandwiches.
Part IV
Directions: You will hear some talks given by a single speaker. You will
be asked to answer three questions about what the speaker says in each
talk. Select the best response to each question and find the letter (A),
(B), (C), or (D) on your answer sheet. The talks will not be printed in
your test book and will be spoken only one time.

71. Who is listening to this announcement?
(A) Company employees.
(B) Doctors.
(C) Parents of schoolchildren.
(D) Police officers.
72. What has been revised?

(A) Doctors' excuses.
(B) Insurance regulations.
(C) Company policy.
(D) Employees' records.
73. When is a note required?

(A) Within forty-eight hours.
(B) After four days.
(C) After a week.
(D) Never.
74. What is happening?

(A) Some people need a hotel room.
(B) Some people are going home.
(C) The personnel office is closing.
(D) A building is on fire.
75. Who must get through?

(A) Office personnel.
(B) Emergency personnel.
(C) Clerical workers.
(D) File clerks.
76. Where should people stay?

(A) Next to a room.
(B) Across the street.
(C) Beside the building.
(D) In the emergency room.
LPIDB UMS
77. What kind of program is mentioned?
(A) Race.
(B) Space.
(C) Tasting.
(D) Waste.
78. Which of the following animals is mentioned?

(A) A dog.
(B) A cat.
(C) A sheep.
(D) A rat.
79. How many times has this program been done before?
(A) None.
(B) Once.
(C) Twice.
(D) Several times.
80. How is the president described in the news report?

(A) As a mother.
(B) As a doctor.
(C) As a father.
(D) As a general.
81. How many children does the president have?

(A) Two.
(B) Three.
(C) Four.
(D) Five.
82. When did the event happen?

(A) Yesterday.
(B) This morning.
(C) At noon.
(D) In the early evening.

83. What is being sold?
(A) A watch.
(B) A television.
(C) A calendar.
(D) A guide.
84. How long does the subscription last?

(A) Ten days.
(B) One month.
(C) Ten months.
(D) One year.
85. How many people can get the special offer?

(A) One.
(B) The first ten.
(C) The first one hundred.
(D) There is no limit.
86. What is the problem?

(A) No one is home.
(B) The line is busy.
(C) It's a nonworking number.
(D) The caller hung up.
87. What is the listener advised to do?

(A) Give up.
(B) Get another job.
(C) Not to hang up.
(D) Try again.
88. What can a caller do by dialing 4-1 -1?

(A) Check the number he is dialing.
(B) Ask for a refund check.
(C) Get assistance with dialing the number.
(D) Ask to have his phone number changed.
LPIDB UMS
89. What is the weather like now?
(A) Rainy.
(B) Cool.
(C) Warm.
(D) Windy
90. When will the weather change?

(A) Sunday.
(B) Monday.
(C) Tuesday.
(D) Friday.
91. How much rain is expected?

(A) Two inches.
(B) Three inches.
(C) Four inches.
(D) Twenty-four inches.
92. What is on sale?

(A) Chairs.
(B) Desks.
(C) Paper.
(D) Pencils.
93. What color is NOT available?

(A) Blue.
(B) Yellow.
(C) Green.
(D) White.
94. When will the sale end?

(A) Sunday.
(B) Tuesday
(C) Friday.
(D) Saturday.

95. What was robbed?
(A) A clothing store.
(B) A jewelry store.
(C) A computer store.
(D) A watch store.
96. What time did the robbery happen?

(A) 8:05.
(B) 8:15.
(C) 8:50.
(D) 8:55.
97. Who was in the store at the time of the robbery?

(A) Police.
(B) Customers.
(C) The store staff.
(D) The store owner.
98. When is the Sidewalk Cafe closed?,

(A) Monday.
(B) Tuesday.
(C) Saturday.
(D) Sunday.
99. What can you get for $6.00 at the cafe?

(A) Birthday cake.
(B) Pancakes.
(C) Steak.
(D) Pans.
100. Where is the cafe located?

(A) By a river.
(B) In back of a park.
(C) Near a bus station.
(D) Close to a subway station
LPIDB UMS
In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you
understand structure and written expression. There are two parts to this
section, with special directions for each part.
Part V
Directions:
Questions 101-140 are incomplete sentences. Four words or
phrases, marked A, B, C, D, are given beneath each sentence. You are to
choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Example:
Because the equipment is very delicate, it must be handled
with___.
A. caring
B. careful
C. care
D. carefully
The sentence should read, ―Because the equipment is very delicate, it

must be handled with care.‖ Therefore, you should choose answer C.
101. East Coast Airlines flight number 15 from New York___ Chicago
has been canceled.
(A) to
(B) In
(C) By
(D) at

102. Beginning the first of next month, lunch break will be___ by
fifteen minutes.
(A) short
(B) shortened
(C) shortening
(D) shortage
103. The computer programmer realized he had forgotten to turn off

the office lights___ he had left the premises.
(A) after
(B) because
(C) since
(D) and
104. Most employees have requested that their paychecks be___ to

their homes.
(A) mail
(B) mails
(C) mailed
(D) mailing
105. The error was noticed after Ms. Radice ___ the order to the
supply company.
(A) had sent in
(B) sends in
(C) has sent
(D) is sending
106. Mr. Richards, the president of Capo electronics has had a very___
year.
(A) successfully
(B) successful
(C) success
(D) successes
LPIDB UMS
107. Since Dr. Yamoto is always busy, it is best to call___ make an
appointment before coming to her office.
(A) while
(B) before
(C) nor
(D) and
108. After working fifteen hours at the office, the new lawyer is finally
putting away his papers and heading___
(A) homely
(B) homey
(C) home
(D) homeless
109. The photographer that we hired to take pictures of the banquet

will be accompanied___ his assistant.
(A) with
(B) by
(C) to
(D) from
110. Ms. Ueki has never made any___ decisions regarding the
operation of her company.
(A) foolish
(B) fool
(C) foolishness
(D) fooled
111. Ten applications were filed___ Monday morning for the

receptionist position that we announced last week.
(A) at
(B) on
(C) until
(D) from

112. In order to provide her customers with the finest meals, the
restaurant owner___ her produce fresh daily.
(A) buy
(B) buys
(C) buying
(D) bought
113. The personnel manager needs someone to___ her with the
presentation to the board.
(A) attend
(B) assume
(C) assign
(D) assist
114. Our departmental staff meetings are held___ in the conference

room on the third floor.
(A) rarely
(B) every week
(C) always
(D) sometimes
115. The building is equipped with a sophisticated security system

which turns on automatically__ midnight.
(A) to
(B) from
(C) at
(D) for
116. The project___ to require more time than the contractors have
available.
(A) had seemed
(B) seems
(C) is seeming
(D) will seem
LPIDB UMS
117. Staff members___ ready to help out new employees and explain
the office procedures.
(A) should always be
(B) being always should
(C) always be should
(D) always should being
118. The new schedules are___ with the second shift workers at the
factory.
(A) popularized
(B) popular
(C) populated
(D) popularity
119. It was agreed that the committee meet again___ the tenth of
April.
(A) for
(B) on
(C) to
(D) from
120. The travel agent said she would know the flight number and the
precise arrival time___ the airlines confirmed the reservation.
(A) during
(B) because
(C) when
(D) while
121. You will have to ___ an operator's manual from the library
because I don't think we have one here.
(A) loan
(B) borrow
(C) lend
(D) send

122. There aren't any envelopes or file folders in the supply closet
because they___.
(A) have never been ordered
(B) never have ordered been
(C) have been never ordered
(D) have been ordered never
123. The assistant does not recall receiving a telex from the Mexico
office___ from the South American office.
(A) either
(B) and
(C) or
(D) but
124. ___ this kind of machine before, or should we call in a

repairperson?
(A) Have ever you repaired.
(B) Have you repaired ever.
(C) Ever have you repaired.
(D) Have you were repaired.
125. If our office ___ a coffee machine, Mr. Perkins said he would
make coffee every morning.
(A) had
(B) have
(C) will have
(D) would have
126. The time sheets are to be filled out twice___-in the morning when
the staff arrives and in the evening when they leave.
(A) usually
(B) sometimes
(C) daily
(D) frequently
LPIDB UMS
127. Boxes received from the print shop are not to be___ unless
marked otherwise.
(A) opening
(B) opened
(C) open
(D) opens
128. The goal of our meetings is to make the directors___our problem.

(A) understanding
(B) understood
(C) understand
(D) be understanding
129. ___Mr. Park was the only one who knew the way to the
conference, he drove the car.
(A) Although
(B) Since
(C) But
(D) Therefore
130. Ms. Wang did not want her check automatically___ into her
account.
(A) deposit
(B) deposits
(C) depositing
(D) deposited
131. If this package is sent by the express mail service, it ___

California by Friday.
(A) reaches
(B) will reach
(C) reached
(D) is reaching

132. All delivery persons are asked to use the side___ to make their
deliveries.
(A) enter
(B) entered
(C) entering
(D) entrance
133. Hotel guests who___ checking out after 1:00 P.M. should contact
the front desk.
(A) will
(B) were
(C) are going
(D) will be
134. Mr. Davis, my lawyer, was a___ by the time he was thirty.
(A) millions
(B) millionaire
(C) million
(D) million fold
135. If the accountant ___ a mistake, she will not charge us for her
time.
(A) makes
(B) will make
(C) had made
(D) make
136. Ms. Yuen is going to ask Human Resources how much vacation
time she___left.
(A) shall have
(B) will have had
(C) is having
(D) has
LPIDB UMS
137. We are fortunate to have a company president who is quite___
about computers.
(A) knowing
(B) knowledge
(C) knowledgeable
(D) knows
138. Yasmin is one of our best employees and ___ working here for
two years.
(A) has
(B) has been
(C) is
(D) will
139. The receptionist ___the vice president if he knew where she was.
(A) will call
(B) call
(C) called
(D) would call
140. The conference participants arranged to have their suitcases ___

at the hotel before they left for the airport.
(A) picked up
(B) picking up
(C) pick up
(D) to be picked up
Part II
Directions:
In questions 141-160, each sentence has four words or phrases
underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B,
C, and D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that
should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer.

Example:
All employee are required to wear their identification badges while at

A B C D
work.
Choice A, the underlined word ‗employee‘ is not correct in this

sentence. This sentence should read, ―All employees are required to
wear their identification badges while at work.‖ Therefore, you should
choose answer A.
141. The ode was original a ceremonial poem written to celebrate

A B C
public occasions or exalted subjects.
D
142. Knowledge of the rate at which a ship is traveling through the

A B C
water is important if the navigator need to estimate the time of
D
arrival.
143. The earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in
A B C
its atmosphere.
D
144. Robert Frost was not well known as a poet until he reached
A B C
the forties.
D
LPIDB UMS
145. A painter who lived most of his life in the Middle West, Grant
A B C
wood has called America's "Painter of the Soil."
D
146. While ancient times people simply painted inanimate objects,

A
during the Renaissance the painting of "still life" developed as
B C D
an accepted art form.
147. The American frontiersman, politician, and soldier Davy

A
Crockett is one of the most popular of American hero.
B C D
148. Three months after they have been laid, crocodile eggs are
A B
ready hatched.
C D
149. Peas require rich soil, constant moistures, and a cool growing
A B C
season to develop well.
D
150. A dolphin locates underwater objects in its path by doing a

A B C
series of clicking and whistling sounds.
D
151. A desert area that has been without water for six years will still
A B C
bloom when rain will come.
D

152. One of the essential features of the modern skyscraper is being
A B C
the elevator.
D
153. A rabbit moves about by hopping on its hind legs, which are
A B C
longer and more strong than its front legs.
D
154. Tenant farmers are those they either rent a farm and work it for
A B
themselves or work the farm for the owner and receive
C D
payment.
155. Slightly over half of the population of El Paso, Texas, says both
A B C D
English and Spanish.
156. Hickories are medium to large trees common in eastern and the
A B C
central areas of North America.
D
157. Approximately one-third of all persons involved in adult

A B
education programs in 1970 were enrolled in occupational
C
education course.
D
158. Natural adhesives are primarily of animals or vegetable origin.

A B C D
LPIDB UMS
159. As a glacier melts, rocks, boulders, trees, and tons of dirt
A B C
deposit.
D
160. The Suwannee River has been never important for transport
A B
and no significant hydropower potential.
C D

Part VII
Directions:
Questions 61-100 are based on a variety of reading material (for
example: announcements, paragraphs, advertisements, and the like).
You are to choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C), or (D) to each
question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what
is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following example.
The Museum of Technology is a ―hands-on‖ museum, designed for

people to experience science at work. Visitors are encouraged to use,
test, and handle the objects on display. Special demonstrations are
scheduled for the first and second Wednesdays of each month at 13:30.
Open Tuesday-Friday 12:00-16:30, Saturday 10:00-17:30, and Sunday
11:00-16:30.
When during the month can visitors see special demonstrations?
(A) Every weekend. Sample Answer
(B) The first two Wednesdays. A B C D
(C) One afternoon a week.
(D) Every other Wednesday.
The reading selection says that the demonstrations are scheduled for the
first and second Wednesdays of the month. Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).
LPIDB UMS
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 161- 163 refer to the following newspaper report.
Tomorrow, bus service on Orchard Road will be changed between

the hours of 9 A.M. and 12:30 P.M. The Chingay Parade will take
place from 10:00 A.M. to 12:00 P.M.
Number 7, 13, 14, 16, and 23 buses will turn left onto Scotts Road,
right onto Clemenceau Avenue, and left onto Orchard Road below
the parade route.
In the event of rain, the diversion will take place at 3:00 P.M. and
the parade shortly after.
161. For whom is this report important?

(A) Weather reporters.
(B) Bus riders.
(C) City workers.
(D) Bus repair people.
162. At 10:00 A.M., what will happen to certain buses?

(A) They will be used in the parade.
(B) They will take a different route.
(C) They will have no riders.
(D) They will be taken out of service.
163. When will the parade take place if it rains?

(A) In the morning.
(B) In the afternoon.
(C) The next morning.
(D) The following afternoon.

Questions 164-167 refer to the following memo.
To : All employees
From : R. Wettimuny
Re : Ordering Supplies
There has been a great deal of confusion regarding the correct

procedures for ordering office supplies. Therefore, I will explain the
proper steps to follow here. First, all requests for supplies must be typed
and signed. Only typed requests will be accepted because I am tired of
trying to decipher illegible handwriting. Second, all requests must be on
my desk by the fifteenth of every month. I make out the order once each
month and do not want to have to make addendums or extra orders.
From now on, late requests will be put on hold until the following
month. Requests that are received on time and approved by me will be
sent on to the Accounting Department for processing.
Please be aware that it takes from two to six weeks for supplies to arrive
once the order has been made, so it is important to plan ahead and make
your requests accordingly.
Your cooperation is appreciated.
164. What does the memo concern?

(A) Overdue accounts.
(B) Office furniture.
(C) Supply requests.
(D) Computers.
165. What will happen to handwritten requests?

(A) They will not be accepted.
(B) They will be approved quickly.
(C) They will be read carefully.
(D) They will be sent to Accounting.
LPIDB UMS
166. The word "approved" in paragraph 1, line 11, is closest in
meaning to
(A) urgent
(B) valid
(C) signed
(D) accepted
167. What will happen to approved requests?

(A) They will be returned to the employee.
(B) They will be sent to Purchasing.
(C) They will be forwarded to Accounting.
(D) They will be returned to R. Wettimuny.
Questions 168- 170 refer to the following chart

Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3
Destination Asia, North Africa,
Marshall America, South
Is., Guam, Central America
Midway, America,
and others Oceania,
Middle East,
Europe
Classification Weight
Letters* Up to 25 g 90 yen 110 yen 130 yen
Up to 50 g 160 yen 190 yen 230 yen
Postcard Uniform rate of 70 yen to anywhere in the world
Aerogramme Uniform rate of 90 yen to anywhere in the world
*Standard-sized item: 14-23.5 cm length, 9-12 cm width,
thickness of within 1 cm
168. What is the cost of sending a twelve gram letter to South Africa?
(A) ¥70
(B) ¥90
(C) ¥130
(D) ¥230

169. How much would an aerogramme to Asia cost?
(A) ¥70
(B) ¥90
(C) ¥110
(D) ¥160
170. How much will a ¥110 letter to Europe weigh?

(A) 25 grams or less.
(B) Between 25 and 50 grams.
(C) More than 50 grams.
(D) Unknown.
Questions 171-174 refer to the following bulletin.

RESERVATIONS: Reservations are required for all first-class
compartments. Second- and third-class coaches do not require
reservations.
DINING: Trains that do not have first-class cars will not have a dining
car. Sandwich and beverage carts will be on all trains.
BAGGAGE: Passengers may carry up to four pieces of luggage on the

train. Additional baggage may be checked.
171. A passenger traveling in which of the following would read this

bulletin?
(A) Plane
(B) Car
(C) Bus
(D) Train
172. For which of the following are reservations required?

(A) The dining car.
(B) First-class car.
(C) Second-class car.
(D) Third-class car.
LPIDB UMS
173. According to the passage, which of the following have dining
cars?
(A) All trains.
(B) Trains with first-class cars.
(C) Trains with second-class cars.
(D) Trains with third-class cars.
174. The word "Additional" in paragraph 3, line 2, is closest in
meaning to
(A) Most
(B) Extra
(C) Overweight
(D) Large
Questions 175-179 refer to the following letter.

Lovely Lady Fashions
32 Elizabeth Bay Road
Sydney, Australia
December 15, 20_

Mrs. R.S.W. Mangala
Jewelry Export Ltd.
40 Galle Face Road
Colombo 1, Sri Lanka
Dear Mrs. Mangala

I am interested in information regarding your company's new line of
jewelry. I have seen the samples on your web site, and I am interested in
the possibility of importing your jewelry into Australia. I think it would
sell very well here, especially among the younger women who make up
the majority of my company's clientele.
I will be making a trip to Malaysia, India, and Sri Lanka next summer. I
would like to arrange to meet with you then to discuss setting up a
business relationship. Please let me now when you will be available for
a meeting. In the meantime, I would appreciate your sending a list of
your wholesale prices and information about ordering and shipping.

My associates in London have been very pleased with the quality of the
gems you have sent them, and they have had a great deal of success with
them. I look forward to doing business with you in the near future.
Sincerely,
James Goodwin
Import Manager
175. Where does Mr. Goodwin probably live?

(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Australia
(D) Malaysia
176. What does Mrs. Mangala manufacture?
(A) Jewelry
(B) Fashions
(C) Textiles
(D) Toys
177. The word "line" in paragraph 1, line 1, is closest in meaning
to___.
(A) bag
(B) straight
(C) design
(D) type
178. Where will the jewelry be exported from?

(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) Malaysia
(D) Sri Lanka
179. Which of the following best describes Mrs. Mangala's gems?
(A) High-quality
(B) Inexpensive
(C) Uncut
(D) Tax-free
LPIDB UMS
Questions 180-182 refer to the following label
TO WATERPROOF SHOES AND BOOTS:
Before applying, remove all dust, mud, and dirt from shoes. Make sure
shoes are completely dry. Hold spray can 6-8 inches from clean, dry
shoes. Let product saturate leather, covering all surfaces evenly. Allow
to dry for one hour. Repeat application one more time. Allow to dry
before use. The protection will last for six months under average
climatic conditions. This product can also be used to protect leather
handbags and briefcases. Do not use on suede. It may cause
discoloration of some leather products. Test on a small area first.
Caution
 Can cause damage to the respiratory system. Use in a well-ventilated
area only, away from children and pets.
 Highly flammable. Use away from stoves, ovens, radiators, portable
heaters, open flames, and other heat sources.
180. From what will this spray protect shoes?

(A) Dirt.
(B) Dust.
(C) Water.
(D) Drying out.
181. How many times must the shoes be sprayed?

(A) One time.
(B) Two times.
(C) Six times.
(D) Eight times.
182. How long will the application last?

(A) One hour.
(B) One week.
(C) A couple of months.
(D) Half a year.

Questions 183-185 refer to the following table.
Introduction: While computer skills are becoming more and more

necessary in everyday life, not enough children are receiving proper
computer education in schools. This is the most serious educational
issue facing our society today. A team of researchers looked into this
issue in our local schools. See their results below.
SURVEY OF ELEMENTARY SCHOOL TEACHERS

Reasons for lack of computer education programs in public schools
Respondents
Number Percent
1. Not enough computers in school 14 32.6
2. Teachers fear computers 8 18.8
3. Not enough time in curriculum 14 32.6
4. Too expensive 20 46.5
5. Poor-quality software 16 37.2
Total Number of Teachers in Survey 43*

(* Some teachers responded to more than one reason.)
183. How many teachers responded to the survey?

(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 43
(D) 76
184. What was the reason given most often for the lack of computer
education in schools?
(A) Poor-quality software.
(B) Not enough computers.
(C) Fear of computers.
(D) Expense.
LPIDB UMS
185. Which of the following do teachers consider the least
problematic?
(A) Cost of computers.
(B) Quality of software.
(C) Fear of computers.
(D) Time in curriculum.
Questions 186-188 refer to the following report.

The Hotel Manager of the Year Award Essay Competition winner was
announced last night by the County Association of Hotel Managers. The
winning essay was written by Mr. Randolph Ng of the Henry Street
Historic Hotel. Mr. Ng wins a prize of $2,500 for his essay titled "The
Hotel Family." ―I believe that a hotel manager must be like a parent to
his or her staff," said Mr. Ng at the awards ceremony banquet last night.
A good manager concentrates on helping others to be successful." The
second and third prize winners were Gina Becke of the Woodside
Gardens Hotel and Yoko Lee of the Hotel at Riverton, respectively. The
annual essay competition was started by the County Association of
Hotel Managers six years ago as a means of recognizing the hard work
of hotel managers and encouraging them to reflect on what they do and
share it with their colleagues. "It has become a very popular contest,"
says Jim Wilkerson, president of the association. "We get hundreds of
entries every year." Following the awards presentation at last night's
ceremony, Mr. Wilkerson announced that he will be retiring from his
position as association president next year. A replacement has not yet
been announced.
186. What did Mr. Ng do?

(A) Wrote an essay.
(B) Asked for more money.
(C) Turned down a prize.
(D) Announced his retirement.

187. When was the award winner announced?
(A) Last year.
(B) Last night.
(C) This morning.
(D) This afternoon.
188. What is Mr. Ng's advice?

(A) Get your own promotion first.
(B) Have more children.
(C) Be a better parent.
(D) Help others be successful.
Questions 189-192 refer to the following advertisement and e-mail.
The National Theater presents

A live performance of
Romeo and Juliet
The third in our Festival of Shakespeare series
March 12-29
Thursday, Friday, and Saturday evenings
Saturday and Sunday matinees
Ticket prices
Matinee: orchestra—$45 balcony—$35
Evening: orchestra—$75 balcony—$55
Special group discounts are available. Groups of 15 or more receive

10% off the regular price. Groups of 25 or more receive 20% off the
regular price. Call the box office for details.
Getting there:
The National Theater is conveniently located downtown, within easy
walking distance of the Center City subway station and near major bus
lines. A parking garage is located near the theater.
To : Maya Berg
LPIDB UMS
From : Morris Stein
Subject : Shakespeare tickets
Maya,
I'd like to get tickets for our entire department to see Romeo and Juliet.
If everyone goes, there will be just enough people for a 10% discount on
the ticket price. Call the box office to find out how to order the group
discount tickets, and see if you can get tickets for opening night. Make
sure they are orchestra seats. I think this will be an enjoyable and
convenient outing for everyone. We can all take the subway to the
theater together after work.
Thanks,
Morris
189. How many shows are there at the theater on Saturday?

(A) One.
(B) Two.
(C) Four.
(D) Five.
190. What does Mr. Stein want tickets for?

(A) A play.
(B) A movie.
(C) A lecture.
(D) A concert.
191. How many people work in Mr. Stein's department?

(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
192. When does Mr. Stein want to go to the theater?

(A) March 12.

(B) March 13.
(C) March 21.
(D) March 29.
Questions 193-196 refer to the following two letters.
Customer Service Office

Union Bank
135 Main Street
Home, AK 99999
Dear Customer Service

I received a debit card from your bar\k last week, and I have some
questions regarding its use. Specifically, I am concerned about liability.
If a thief steals my card and makes charges to my account, am I
responsible for paying for them, or do I have protection like I have with
my credit card? I looked in the booklet Rules for Personal Accounts at
Union Bank, but I didn't see the information there.
I have been a customer at your bank for over 15 years and have always
been happy with the service I have received there. I hope you can
answer my question satisfactorily.
Sincerely,
Arthur Schmidt
LPIDB UMS
Mr. Arthur Schmidt
1705 Oak Boulevard
Home. AK 99999
Dear Mr. Schmidt:

You recently sent a letter to our office asking about the Union Bank
debit card. You wanted to know about liability. Our policy is the
following: If you report a lost or stolen Card within 48 hours, you are
not responsible for any charges made on it. If you report it after 48
hours, you will be responsible for charges up to $50. So you see, the
debit card has similar protection to a credit card. The information is
actually in the document you mentioned. It appears on page 39. I am
enclosing a photocopy of it for your convenience. Please let me know if
I can be of any further assistance to you.
Sincerely,
Elena Ugarte
193. Why did Mr. Schmidt write the letter?

(A) To open a new bank account.
(B) To report a stolen credit card.
(C) To find out his account balance.
(D) To get information about his debit card.
194. How long has Mr. Schmidt been banking at Union Bank?
(A) For 48 hours.
(B) For one week.
(C) For a little less than 15 years.
(D) For more than 15 years.
195. Where can Mr. Schmidt find the information he needs?

(A) On the back of his debit card.
(B) In a booklet of bank rules.
(C) On his account statement.
(D) In his checkbook.
196. What is probably Elena Ugarte's job?

(A) Customer service representative.
(B) Credit card specialist.
(C) Loan officer.
(D) Teller.
Questions 197-200 refer to the following advertisement and letter.

Local cable television provider has an opening in its accounting
department for a customer account representative. Responsibilities
include answering customer telephone inquiries about billing and
resolving billing disputes. Must have at least two years experience in
customer service. Experience with accounting, wiling, or collections
desirable. Proficiency with word processing and spreadsheet software
required. College degree in accounting or related field desirable. The
right candidate will also have excellent communication and organization
skills. Send resume and cover letter to: Ms. Ahmad, Human Resources
Director, Universal Cable Company, 1123 25th Street, Putnam, OH
44408.
June 25, 20_

Ms. Ahmad
Human Resources Director
Universal Cable Company
1123 25th Street
Putnam, OH 44408
Dear Ms. Ahmad:

I am interested in applying for the position you advertised in the Sunday
edition of the Local Times. I have all the qualifications for the job, and
more. I have worked for several years as a customer service
representative for a mail order company—in fact, for three more years
than you require.
Prior to that, I worked for four years in the billing department of a local
magazine. Though my college degree is in French, I took two semesters
of accounting classes. I also have experience using the computer
software your ad mentioned.
LPIDB UMS
I hope you will consider me as a candidate for the position. I look
forward to hearing from you.
Sincerely,
Joe Butler
197. What kind of job is Joe applying for?

(A) Accountant.
(B) Software engineer.
(C) Human resources director.
(D) Customer account representative.
198. What should job applicants send to Ms. Ahmad?

(A) A resume.
(B) A billing statement.
(C) A letter of recommendation.
(D) A copy of their college diploma.
199. Where does Joe work now?

(A) For a magazine.
(B) For a French company.
(C) For a mail order company.
(D) For a cable television provider.
200. How long has Joe had his current job?

(A) Two years.
(B) Three years.
(C) Four years.
(D) Five years.

Free Practice Tests for Learners of English. http://www.examenglish.
com/ TOIEC/index.php5.
Lougheed, L. 2004. How to Prepare for TOEIC Test. Jakarta: Bina

Rupa Aksara.
Lougheed, L. 2006. Preparation Series for New TOEIC: Introductory

Course. New York: Pearson Education Inc.
OXFORD. 2007. OXFORD Practice Tests for the TOEIC Test with Key.
OXFORD: OXFORD University Press.
Stupak, S.A. 1995. The Prentice Hall Regents: Prep Book For The
TOEIC Test. New Jersey: Prentice Hall Regents
LPIDB UMS

2021-Buku Standar English Test Preparation 2021-Lbipu Ums

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

2021-Buku Standar English Test Preparation 2021-Lbipu Ums

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Standardized

Compiled and Written by:

Reviewer and Editor:

Standardized English Test Preparation

TOEP REVIEW .......................................................................... 1

PRACTICE TEST 1 .................................................................... 107

TRY OUT 1 ................................................................................ 167

TRY OUT 2 ................................................................................ 209

REFERENCE .............................................................................. 254

Structure and Reading

Part 2 : Question – Part 6 : Error

Part 4 : Short talks:

Standardized English Test Preparation

Twenty TOEP Tips

2. Understand the Test

3. Make a Study Plan

4. Divide Study Time Appropriately

5. Build a Strong Vocabulary

Standardized English Test Preparation

6. Isolate Your Weak Points

9. Don’t Try to Translate

10. Guess as a Last Resort

11. Be Aware of Time Management

Standardized English Test Preparation

12. Listen Quickly

13. Practice Reading Aloud

14. Use Mass Media

16. Teach a Native English Speaker Your Language

17. Keep an English Journal

Standardized English Test Preparation

19. Manage Your Stress

20. Don’t Cram

2. Tantangan dalam Listening Comprehension

Standardized English Test Preparation

3. Tips dan Strategi

Cara terbaik untuk menjawab pertanyaan-pertanyaan ini adalah

Selanjutnya, kita akan mempelajari kata-kata yang sering

Standardized English Test Preparation

Example of Listening Section

In the Listening test, you will be asked to demonstrate how well

Penjelasan: jawaban yang tepat adalah C. Kita dapat melihat dari

2. (A) His hand is extended

Penjelasan: Jawaban yang tepat adalah C. Subyek yang terlihat

Standardized English Test Preparation

Penjelasan: Gambar menunjukkan situasi dimana ada beberapa

4. (A) The truck is towing the

Penjelasan: Soal di atas dapat dijelaskan sebagai berikut. Situasi

Penjelasan: Subyek dalam kalimat bisa ditandai dengan pakaian

1. (A) The man is retired.

Standardized English Test Preparation

3. (A) The women are

4. (A) The houses are new.

5. (A) The man is wearing a

7. (A) The fool surface is

8. (A) The boys and girls are

9. (A) The sun is very bright.

Standardized English Test Preparation

Di bagian kedua dari bagian Listening TOEP, peserta akan ditanyai

ii. Pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang masuk dalam kategori WH

iv. Pertanyaan ya dan tidak terkadang tidak memiliki jawaban ya

Dalam menjawab pertanyaan dan jawaban bagian Listening

Standardized English Test Preparation

Penjelasan: Jawabannya adalah A karena hanya jawaban A yang