HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG ĐỀ THI HSG KHU VỰC DH & ĐBBB

DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ XIV – NĂM 2022
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẢO LỘC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10
TỈNH LÂM ĐỒNG Thời gian: 180 phút
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Đề thi gồm: 15 trang

I. LISTENING (50 points)

PART 1: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
Example
Company name: Burnham Coaches
Name of client: (1) ______________________
Address: Down Language School
Down House
(2) ______________________
Brighton
Contact number: the school secretary to be contacted on 01273 512634
Pick up time: 7:30
Return time: (3) ______________________
Purpose of Hire: Visit to Stonehenge and Bath
Question 4 and 5
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
4. What does the cost of hiring the coach include?
_____________________________________________________
5. Who does the customer have to speak to before confirming the booking?
_____________________________________________________
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 2: Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F).
You will listen TWICE. (10 points)
1. The Flirtey delivery service is still waiting for government approval.
2. The drone uses GPRS to fly to the customer’s location.
3. The drone can deliver hot food such as pizza.
4. The company hopes to complete local deliveries with 10 minutes.
5. The drone are powered by solar panels.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 3: You will hear part a radio programme in which two people, Sally White and Martin
Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books (books recorded on tape), and the
problems involved with abridging books before taping them. From question 1 – 5, choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording TWICE. (10 points)
1. Sally believes that most people listen to audio books
A. When they’re doing housework
B. before they go to sleep
C. On the way to work
D. when they’re with their children

2. Sally feels that the main advantage of audio books is that they
A. encourage children to read more
B. are read by experienced actors
C. make more books accessible to children
D. save parents from having to read to children

3. Martin says that in the USA there is a demand for audio books because people there
A. were the first to obtain audio books
В. have to drive long distances
C. feel that they do not have time to read books
D. are used to listening to the spoken word on the radio

4. According to Sally, successful abridgements depend on

A. the length of the original
B. their closeness to the original
C. the style of the author
D. the type of story

5. Books are not commisioned specifically for the audio market because
A. writers are too busy working for the BBC.
B. such books have failed in the past.
C. there are not enough people buying audio books.
D. people only want familiar stories.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 4: Complete the summary with one word or number from the lecture in each gap. (20
points)
The lecture covers some of the latest research and the main arguments involved in the Nature
versus nurture debate; or how much your personality is determined by genetics, and how much by
your (1) ______________________.
Some scientists believe that genes don’t determine by personality directly, but rather provide (2)
______________________. It is discovered that 35,000 genes each of us carries affect personality,
such as impulsivity, (3) ______________________ and addition to some substances. For instance,
a malfunction in the speech gene FOXP 2 can lead to (4) ______________________. On the other
hand, scientists who believe that (5) ______________________ shapes personality disagree on
who influences children more: parents or peers and friends. Children acquire their parent’s habits
by (6) ______________________, while the need to be part of a group comes from a primitive (7)
______________________.
The latest research suggests that both factors have influence on an individual to approximately the
same extent: (8) ______________________ % by nature, (9) ______________________ by
nurture.
From the research, we'll be in a better position to (10) ______________________ how to change
someone's personality.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (40 points)

PART 1: Choose the word / phrase which best complete each sentence. (20 points)
1. You story is interesting and lively, but it contains several historical inaccuracies. For example,
your hero___________ have offered Miss Swinton shelter under his umbrella, as they weren’t
invented until a hundred years later.
A. couldn’t   B. might not   C. shouldn’t   D. wouldn’t

2. The coach worked long and hard into the night ___________ the team’s strategy for the next
game.
A. for preparing B. for the preparation of
C. to prepare D. in order for proper preparation of

3. During the day tigers usually lie ___________, ___________ in the long grass.
A. rested – hidden B. rested – hiding
C. resting – hidden D. resting – hide

4. Not only ___________ more brittle than hard maples, but they are also less able to withstand
high winds.
A. soft maples are B. they are soft maples C. are soft maples D. soft maples
5. ___________ that dynamic, departmental recommendations against using pepper spray on
nonviolent arrestees may be needed.
A. in light of B. At the forefront of C. On the verge of D. In accordance with

6. It is mandatory that smoking in public ___________.

A. prohibited B. prohibit C. be prohibited D. is prohibited

7. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ___________ is at
the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. anyone
8. My dog’s being very difficult at the moment; I don’t know what the trouble is but he just
___________ not eat.
A. shall B. will C. may D. has
9. The Red Cross is ___________ an international aid organization.
A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D. intrepidly
10. ___________ Jim’s support, I wouldn’t have got the job.
A. As for B. But for C. Except for D. Just for

11. ___________ the initial fears of the Commander-in-Chief, the campaign was a resounding
success.
A. Despite B. Although C. Besides D. Whereas

12. My sister showed great ___________ in selling her house when she did because soon
afterwards the market fell dramatically.
A. premonition B. forecasting C. prediction D. foresight

13. She ___________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in
the game at all.
A. apologetically B. shamefacedly C. grudgingly D. discreetly
14. You shouldn’t have been ___________ to your elders by raising those matters.
A. ill-mannered B. immaterial C. impertinent D. inapposite
15. Once the story ___________ the headlines, everyone was talking about it.

A. crashed B. struck C. smashed D. hit

16. It is public knowledge that new magazines often use free gifts or other ___________ to get
people to buy them.
A. gimmicks B. snares C. plots D. scams

17. I know you're upset about breaking up with Tony but there are plenty more ___________.
A. horses in the stable B. cows in the field C. tigers in the zoo D. fish in the sea
18. Lauren is often labelled easy-going as she tends to appear mild and relaxed rather than tense
and ___________.
 A. sullen B. likeable C. humorous D. excitable

19. Gabriel’s mentor ___________ him to change his dishonest ways before it was too late.
A. dislodged B. notified C. admonished D. informed

20. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ___________.

A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink D. over the moon
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

PART 2: WORD FORM Supply the correct form of the word provided in blankets in each
sentence. (10 points)
1. You won’t persuade him to change his mind. His decision is ___________ (REVOKE)
2. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to ___________ between the
two. (DIFFERENT)
3. In Scotland there is greater emphasis on ___________ by individual school. (VALUE)
4. The sun and the moon are often ___________ in poetry. (PERSON)
5. Many fabrics are specially treated so as to be ___________ (SHRINK)
6. Jim is one of the most ___________ members of the committee. (SPEAK)
7. The fauna is becoming comparatively ___________ due to the isolation, young geological age of
the island and forestry activities within habitats. (PAUPER)
8. Heavy rain and excessive use have the soil____________. (POVERTY)
9. He made a ____________ attempt to climb the tree to recover his kite. (FOOL)
10. Management decided the office was ____________ and sacked three junior typists. (MAN)

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 3. PHRASAL VERBS Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
(10 points)
1. Can you tuck your shirt _________ your trousers?
A. with B. around C. into D. at
2. Erica is an excellent worker. She goes _________ her job calmly and efficiently.
A. on B. with C. about D. at
3. The school ran _________ financial trouble when 80%of the staff went on strike.
A. about B. into C. with D. for
4. He wants to get the scholarship and is making _________ that he is poor.
A. up B. out C. over D. for
5. His latest work have come _________ for a great deal of criticism.
A. up B. in C. across D. through
6. Many factories break the anti-pollution laws and _________.
A. put up with it B. take it over C. get away with it D. come round to it
7. When I started my business, I had to take out a bank loan. It took me four years to pay it
_________.
A. off B. out C. up D. over
8. You shouldn’t have sent Sebastian that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve scared him _________.
A. back B. down C. off D. through
9. I thought the movie was going to an end, but it just _________.
A. dragged in B. dragged on C. dragged into D. dragged up
10. This is the time of the year when stores _________ their prices, so you can get good deals.
A. mark on B. mark through C. mark up D. mark down
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. READING (60 points)

PART 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
THE MEDITERRANEAN WAY

There is more evidence proving the Mediterranean diet to be heart healthy and most likely helpful
in (1)_____________ pounds and keeping them off. Although Mediterranean cuisine is not
technically low in fat, the type of (2) _____________acids it does contain, such as those that come
from nuts and olive oil, is a much healthier form of (3) _____________ fat than what exists in other
foods. In a recent study, participants who were overweight and suffering from (4)
_____________were placed on either a regular low-fat diet or a Mediterranean diet. The ones on
the latter diet fared better than their counterparts in terms of health risks. The results showed that it
is not just a matter of eating low-fat (5) _____________ of food, but it is the addition of nuts and
olive oil that improves the indicators of good health. The ones who followed the regular low-fat
diet also (6) _____________ the risk of returning to old habits that caused them to (7)
_____________on the pounds in the first place. A Mediterranean diet is easier to follow because it
is filled with healthy yet (8) _____________ foods such as fish, walnuts and fresh fruit and
vegetables. Those who follow the diet are less likely to suffer from (9) _____________for less
healthier foods, thus making it easier to (10) _____________ the urge to eat meat and high-fat
dairy products. Ultimately, the Mediterranean diet
 contains all the nutrients needed for lifelong health, making it a diet people can live on for their
entire lives.
1. A. scraping B. shredding C. shedding D. cracking
2. A. fattening B. fat C. fatty D. fattened
3. A. diet B. dieting C. dietician D. dietary
4. A. obesity B. disorder C. malnutrition D. indigestion
5. A. toppings B. servings C. coverings D. flavourings
6. A. packed B. ran C. played D. quenched
7. A. stuff B. stack C. place D. pile
8. A. sharp B. bitter C. bland D. appetising
9. A. cravings B. passions C. urges D. appetites
10. A. whip B. resist C. polish D. feed
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
THEATRICAL GHOSTS

Britain has many haunted theatres. The Theatre Royal in Drury Lane, London, prides
(1)_____________on being regarded as the most haunted theatre (2) ______________ showbiz. The
most legendary ghostly inhabitant is an 18th-century gentleman known (3)______________the ‘Man
in Grey’. Spotted by dozens of cleaners over the years, a sighting of him is usually considered to be
good luck and indicates the show will go (4) ______________ a hitch. It is thought that he is
associated with a skeleton uncovered by workmen in the theatre in 1843. The skeleton was found
with a knife in (5) ______________ ribs.

There is also the ghost of an Irish man Charles Macklin, an actor (6) ______________ profession.
He stabbed a fellow actor, Thomas Hallam, in 1735. Macklin’s ghost has (7) ______________seen
in a backstage corridor. Joseph Grimaldi was a famous clown who performed at the Theatre Royal
for many years. When he died in 1837, he left a request that he be buried near the theatre. Since then,
his ghost appears during shows (8) ______________ occasion, sometimes sitting in the audience,
smiling encouragement up at performers on the stage. Every once in a while, performers (9)
______________ felt his presence on stage with them. Some have spoken of feeling his hands
guiding them to a better spot on stage, or even kicking them in the rear if they weren’t (10)
______________ their best!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

The tide means the rising and falling of ocean levels that are affected by the moon, the sun,
and the earth’s own rotation. Although the sun gives about 200 times the gravitational force on the
earth as the moon does, the moon exerts more than twice the tidal force. As the closer astronomical
body, the moon has greater influence on the earth’s tides. Although other factors do affect the tide,
the positions of these two bodies have by far the greatest determinant roles.

It is easy to imagine that the ocean level closest to the moon bulges upward. However, a bulge
occurs on the opposite side of the earth as well. [A] As the moon’s tidal force counteracts the
earth’s gravitational force, water bulges on both sides. Because there are two major oceanic bulges,
there are two high tides in a daily cycle. [B] A lunar day, not a solar day, must be used in this
calculation. It takes the earth 24 hours and 48 minutes to make one rotation. As with a solar day,
the earth rotates once in 24 hours. [C] Thus, high tides generally occur every 12 hours and 24
minutes, an interval of half a lunar day. [D] Exact intervals will vary depending on local land
features.

The sun has a similar but less visible effect on water levels. Oceanic bulges occur on the sides
of the earth. While these bulges resulting from the sun’s tidal forces are smaller than the greatest
swells caused by the moon, they can amplify the moon’s effect. Furthermore, the bulges in water
levels caused by the sun can make predicting the tides tricky, since both the sun and the moon must
be taken into consideration.

When the moon and the sun are aligned – that is, when both are on the same side of the earth or on
opposite sides of the earth – the oceanic bulges are at their greatest size. Known as spring tide, this
powerful phenomenon results in abnormally high tides, abnormally low tides, and abnormally
strong tidal currents. In general, seven days after the spring tide comes, the neap tide comes. The
results are weaker tidal currents and less variation in water levels between high tide and low
tide.

Because the moon and the sun are major factors in tide formation, researchers have tried to
investigate these factors under assumptions of the earth with no land masses, smooth ocean floors,
constant distances from the moon and the sun, and an unchanging environment. Even under these
simplified imaginary conditions, it has been difficult to construct complete and conclusive models
of tidal phenomena. With the additional factors of huge land masses, wildly variable underwater
terrain, the elliptical orbits of the moon and the earth, and climate change, tidal analysis become
increasingly more complex.

Land masses block tidal ebbs and flows, affecting the timing, volume, and strength of the
tides. Submarine terrain also has great effects on tides and their movements and variation. As for
the principal astronomical bodies, one must remember that the moon’s orbit around the earth and
the earth’s orbit around the sun are elliptical. Therefore, tidal forces vary with changing relative
distances between the earth and the moon and between the earth and the sun. Finally, weather and
climate change always pose challenges to tidal prediction. Now, with global warming, rising ocean
levels, and weather phenomena, study of the tides is becoming more challenging than ever before.

1. According to the passage, all of the following are true of tides EXCEPT
A. The earth’s rotation affects water depth.
B. Solar gravitational force is the biggest influence on tidal flow.
C. The moon is a more important factor than the sun.
D. Tidal force is related to distance from the earth.

2. The word “counteracts” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. stops B. intensifies C. offsets D. resists

3. Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be
added to the passage.
However, the moon is constantly moving around the earth, so an additional 48 minutes is
required for the moon to complete the rotation.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square where the sentence should be added to the
passage.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

4. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.

A. bulges B. forces C. swells D. bodies

5. The word “abnormally” has been repeated three times in order to ___________.
A. emphasize the power of spring tides
B. accentuate unpredictability of tidal movement
C. note how infrequently spring tides occur
D. highlight the complexities of tidal formation

6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Neap tide features weaker water currents and less difference between high and low tide levels.
B. Lower current speeds result in little change in water levels between high tide and low tide.
C. As a result, neap tide is difficult to detect due to little tidal variation and slow-moving tidal currents.
D. The effects of these tidal bulges are less water movement between tides.
7. In the passage, what does the author say about simplified conditions?
A. They are unnecessary for a complex understanding of tides.
B. They have been inadequate factors in tidal models.
C. Even they have not helped scientists make models of tides.
D. They were created to study major factors in tidal behavior.

8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as something that complicates study of
the tides?
A. Land formations change the way tidal waters move.
B. Underwater land formations affect changes in tidal levels.
C. The orbit between the sun and the earth affects tidal phenomena.
D. Increasing water depths may be causing unusual weather.

9. The word “volume” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. duration B. sound C. size D. direction

10. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below.
“Several factors make the tide a complicated phenomenon.”
Which of the following DOES NOT belong in the summary?
A. The moon is the major cause of high and low tides.
B. The sun exerts much more gravitational force than the moon does.
C. The moon and the sun create conditions for spring tide and neap tide.
D. Land formations, orbital irregularities, and climate change complicate tidal study.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
AN ANCIENT FEAT OF ENGINEERING
In 1900, Dimitris Kontos, the captain of a Creek sponge diving boat, and his crew, from the
island of Symi, took shelter from a storm in a cove by the island of AntiKythera. While waiting for
the winds to become more favourable, before heading for the coast of Tunisia for a sponge diving
expedition, the bored crew decided to do some diving. Down to a depth of nearly fifty metres a
crew member descended, in a bulky diving suit, to search the sea floor. When he resurfaced, telling
tales of bodies strewn on the seabed surrounded by horses, Captain Kontos thought his shipmate
had become drunk on the nitrogen that was fed into his breathing tube and decided to go down to
see for himself. He returned with an arm from a 4th century BC bronze statue.
 When Kontos informed the Greek authorities of his findings they sent a Creek Navy vessel
and officials to assist the sponge divers in what turned out to be the world's first ever maritime
archaeological excavation. The operation lasted for a year and led to an astonishing collection of
finds - hundreds of different artefacts, from colossal 4th century BC statues, to small daily artefacts,
plus one of the greatest wonders ever to be found from the ancient world - the Antikythera
Mechanism. The operation was ended not because they had managed to recover all the artefacts
from the lost Roman ship using nothing but the most rudimentary diving equipment and a wooden
platform with a winch, but because one sponge diver had lost his life and another two were
paralysed from decompression sickness. They had succeeded in raising many treasures for the
heritage of the world but it was a high price to pay.
The artefacts were taken to Athens for storage in the National Archaeological Museum, and
its director, Valerios Stais, noticed that one small fragment, encrusted with rust from two thousand
years on the sea floor, contained a gearwheel and his conjecture was that it must have been from
some kind of astrolabe - a clockwork mechanism - one that he guessed must have been from
Hellenistic times. But eminent archaeologist though he was, his observations were categorically
refuted as impossible, because the world's leading authorities on the history of mechanics only
recognised geared mechanisms as an invention of the 14th century and not the 1st century BC of
Greece. Thus, Stais had to accept their pre-eminence and so he merely catalogued the find and then
archived it in the museums vaults.
And there it lay forgotten for the next half a century until a British science historian, Derek
de Solla Price, requested to examine it. He soon came to the same conclusions that Valerie Stais
had arrived at. The item was from the 1st century BC and was some type of geared mechanism. It
was, undoubtedly, the oldest clockwork mechanism in the world, preceding the later invention of
geared mechanisms by 1600 years. That much de Solla Price was certain of and he set out to find
out the answers to all the other unanswered questions - what was it for? Who made it and why?
Solla Price and the Greek nuclear physicist Charalambos Karakalos proceeded to make X-
ray and gamma-ray images of the 82 fragments and in 1974 their findings were published. Solla
Price believed that the mechanism was the world's first analogue calendar computer. Now the
world was interested. The mechanism was not simply a rusting piece of bronze from the middle
ages that had accidentally become mixed up with real ancient artefacts. It was now recognised as
the earliest known example of a clockwork mechanism. Scientists, archaeologists and
mathematicians the world over wanted to find out more about this astonishing find and the
Antikythera Mechanism Research Project was born.
It took more than 40 years of study to reveal the secrets in the fragments using modern
computer X-ray tomography to enhance the inscriptions that were hidden within it and that led to
understanding what the mechanism is and how it worked. The detailed imaging revealed a machine
with 37 gear wheels that allowed it to follow the movement of the sun and moon through the zodiac
and to predict eclipses. The construction of the item was based on 2nd century BC Greek theories
of astronomy and mathematics. It is the first extant construction of a differential gear system in
history. It is remarkable for both the level of its miniaturisation and the complexity of its gear
system. It is widely regarded as the most important find in the history of technology.
But although it is, without doubt, unbelievably sophisticated technology for its era,
preceding anything like it by hundreds and hundreds of years, it still didn't work very well. First of
all, its theoretical accuracy was hampered by the theories of the time, which were not entirely
accurate and, although it is a brilliant feat of engineering, the hand-built gears do not have the fine
precision tooled features that would allow it to work in the way it was designed to. This takes
nothing from it as an achievement and the ongoing research project may find out even more about
this wonder of the world if more pieces are unearthed from the seabed in coming years. But even as
it is, it remains the world's first real computing machine and it was created over 2000 years ago.

Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with what the writer says in the text?
For questions 1-5 write:
YES If the statement agrees with the writer says
NO If the statement contradicts what the writer says
NOT GIVEN If there’s no information on this in what the writer says
________ 1. The sponge diving crew were trapped in the cove at Antikythera for weeks.
________ 2. The crewman who discovered the Antikythera ship wreck had been drinking.
________ 3. Serious incidents curtailed the Antikythera shipwreck excavation.
________ 4. Valerios Stais’ findings on the mechanism were contradicted by leading
archaeologists.
________ 5. The type of Greek used in the inscriptions helped to date the mechanism.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Questions 6-10
Complete the summary below
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text from each answer.

PROVEN RIGHT IN THE END

A serendipitous storm led a sponge diving expedition to sit it out in a Greek island cove and this
resulted in the discovery of an ancient shipwreck. The subsequent maritime excavation led to the
recovery of hundreds of (6)_____________from the era of the shipwreck and an unidentified
machine. Due to (7)_____________ one person died and two others were disabled and the
excavation was stopped.
As the findings from the wreck were being catalogued for storage, a museum director noticed one
artefact was embedded with a (8)_____________ leading him to surmise the artefact was a
(9)_____________, such as an astrolabe. However, it was believed at the time that machines of that
type did not predate the 14th century.
It was only in recent years that it was discovered that the machine was in fact an early type of
analogue computer used to track celestial movements as well as
(10)_____________. Although it is now agreed to be a great achievement, the gears were not made
with the precision only possible with modern tools and it was therefore inaccurate in its
calculations.

Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (50 points)

PART 1: GRAPH DESCRIPTION (20 pts)
The chart below gives information on the percentage of British people taking holidays at home, abroad,
or both, or no holidays for the years 2014 and 2015.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where
relevant.
Write at least 150 words.
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PART 2: ESSAY WRITING (30 points)

 As mass communication and transport continue to grow, societies are becoming more
and more alike leading to a phenomenon known as globalization. Some people fear that
globalization will inevitably lead to the total loss of cultural identity.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience. Write at least 250 words.
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