PRIMARY TET & UPPER PRIMARY (PRO) 3

Define Deforestation. What are the causes of deforestation in India.

t
Deforestation is clearing of vast areas covered by forest by man cause (i) Increasing human population, (ii) Forest
fire, (iii) Certain pest, (iv) Adverse weather condition, (v) Overgrazing.
What in nuclear fall out? List some radioisotopes present in the nuclear fallout?
t
Radioactive particles are thrown high up into the air as huge clouds due to atomic explosion is called nuclear fall out.
It contains radioactive elements like Sr90, Cesium–137, Iodine 131 etc.
What is the unit of noise pollution? State two ill effects of it.
t
Unit of noise pollution are decibels. Noise pollution is known to cause
(i) Partial of complete deafening of ear.
(ii) Adrenaline secretion is stimulated which increases the irritability, nervousness, neuro muscular tension, increased
blood pressure etc.
What is photo chemical smog? How does smog effect the biological world?
t
Photochemical smog is yellowish brown smog which is formed under oxidising conditions and high temperature over
cities and towns. It contains large amount of NO2 and unburnt hydrocarbon, it causes respiratory problem like asthma
and bronchitis and in plants it causes silvering, glazing and necrosis of leaves.
Distinguish between point and non point sources of water pollution.
t
(i) Point source of water pollution discharge their effluent at a specific site for example domestic sewage and industrial
effluents.
(ii) Non point source of pollution discharge their effluent over large area e.g., city storm water flow, agriculture run
off etc.

1. The term smog was coined by—

a) Schmidt b) Hertwig c) Benedon d) Des Voeux
2. Maximum green house gas is released by which of the country
a) U.S.A b) India c) France d) Britain
3. Which of following is the most dangerous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust?
a) Cadmium b) Mercury c) Copper d) Lead
4. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays is called by—
a) CO2 b) PAN c) CFCs d) Coal purning
5. The formation of Ozone hole is maximum over—
a) India b) Africa c) Europe d) Antarctica
6. The result of Ozone hole is
a) Acid rain b) CO2 c) PAN d) Aerosol
7. Green-house effect is due to—
a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbondioxide c) Ammonia d) Phosphate
8. Green house effect refers to—
a) Cooling of earth b) Trapping UV rays c) Warming of earth d) Production of cereals
9. The true statement about “green house effect” is that it is caused by—
a) CO2 and O2 b) MnO2 c) CO2 and SO2 d) CO2, CFC, CH4
10. Acid rain is due to the pollution of—
a) Pestiside b) Dust particle c) Carbon particles d) SO2 and NO2
11. Damage of [O3] i.e., Ozone layer is due to harmful effects—
a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Organic compound d) Chloroflurocarbon
12. The amount of carbon dioxide in atmosphere after pollution will be—
a) Equal to 0.03 percent b) Less than 0.03 percent
c) Greater than 0.03 percent d) At the previously calculated

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PRIMARY TET & UPPER PRIMARY (PRO) 4

13. Photochemical smog always contains—

a) O3 b) CH4 c) CO d) PO4
14. The supersonic jets causes pollution by the thining of—
a) CO2 layer b) SO2 layer c) O2 layer d) O3 layer
15. The SO2 pollution affect which of the cell component?
a) Nucleus b) Vacuole c) Chloroplast d) Mitochondria
16. Which among the following is an air pollution indicator?
a) Algae b) Lichen c) Fungi d) Ferns
17. Green house effect was first described by—
a) Suess b) Fishes c) Fourior d) Flemming
18. Which of the following components causes water pollution?
a) Ozone b) Ammonia c) Phytoplankton d) Industrial wastes
19. In minamata Bay of Japan, the animals which remained free from minamata disease are—
a) Pigs b) Rabbits c) Dog d) Cats
20. Minamata disease was caused by the consumption of—
a) Oyester with lots of pestiside b) Fish contaminated with mercury
c) Sea food containing lot of cadmium d) Sea food contaminated with selenium
21. When a huge amount of sewage is dumped into river, its BOD—
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Sharply decreases d) Remain unchanged
22. The high amount of E.coli in water, is the indicator of—
a) Hardness of water b) Industrial pollution
c) Sewage pollution d) Presence of chlorine in water
23. Pollution of soil is due to—
a) Reduction of soil productivity b) Addition of waste on soil
c) Excessive use of fertilizers d) All of these
24. The basic component of smog is—
a) PAN b) PBN c) Ozone d) All of these
25. Respiratory disorder occurs due to automobile exhaust because of—
a) Water b) Methane c) Chlorine d) Carbon monoxide
26. Depletion of Ozone layer causes—
a) Skin cancer b) Blood cancer c) Lung cancer d) Brain cancer
27. “Heat island” are produced due to—
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Land pollution d) All of these
28. One of the important effect of SO2 and SO3 on plant is—
a) Plasmolysis b) Destruction of cell wall
c) Destruction of chlorophyll d) Destruction of golgi body
29. Which of the following causes lung diseases?
a) Cotton mill b) Thermal Plants c) Petroleum refineries d) All of these
30. Increased skin cancer and high mutation rates are generally due to—
a) Acid rain b) Carbon oxide c) Ozone depletion d) Biomagnificfation
31. The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is—
a) Lead b) Copper c) Mercury d) Cadmium
32. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and chermobyl respectively accured where and when?
a) Bhopal 1980, Ukrain 1990 b) Bhopal 1986, Ukrain 1988
c) Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1986 d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
33. Which of the following metal is pollutant which causes sterility in human being?
a) Mercury b) Arsenic c) Manganese d) Chromium

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PRIMARY TET & UPPER PRIMARY (PRO) 5

34. The atmosphere pollutant which is not produced by automobile exhaust is—
a) Fly ash b) Carbon monoxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Hydrocarbon gas
35. The thermal pollution is caused due to the rise in the temperature of air and water to a harmful level. It is due to the
heat from—
a) Industries b) Automobiles c) Power plants d) All of these
36. D.D.T. is—
a) Not a pollutant b) An antibiotic
c) A biodegradable pollutant d) A non degradable pollutant
37. The phenomena, where the pollutants pass in higher concentration through the food chain and accumulate to the
maximum in the final consumer is called—
a) Eutrofication b) Biogeochemical cycle c) Biological magnification d) Biological degradation
38. The nuclear power plant causes—
a) Thermal pollution b) Disposal of Radioactive waste
c) Emission of hazardous radioactive element d) All of these
39. Which of the folowing isotopes is the most dangerous to Homo sapiens?
a) Casium—137 b) Iodine—131 c) Phosphorus—32 d) Strontium—90
40. The noise created at the launching of space rocket measures—
a) 100 to 120 db b) 130 to 150 db c) 160—180 dB d) 260—240 db
41. Knock knee disease is due to—
a) Hormonal imbalance b) Genetical abnormality in males
c) Thyrosine [amino acid] deficiency d) Excess fluoride concentration
42. Phosphate pollution is caused by—
a) Phosphate rock only b) Agricultural fertilizers only
c) Sewage and phosphate rock d) Sewage and agriculture fertilizes
43. Which of the following is related with noise pollution?
a) Buses b) Trains c) Aeroplanes d) All of these
44. CO when mixes with haemoglobin in blood to produce—
a) CO2 b) COHb c) CaOH d) ClO
45. The rocket launching explosion is an example of—
a) Noise Pollution b) Air pollution c) Water pollution d) Both (a) & (b)
46. In the coming years, skin related disorder will be more common due to—
a) Pollutant in air b) Use of detergents
c) Water pollution d) Depletion of ozone layer
47. Ozone depletion in stratosphere shall result in—
a) Forest fire b) Increased incidence of skin cancer
c) Global warming d) None of these
48. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes a reaction that produce—
a) Fluorides b) Carbon monoxide c) Sulpher dioxide d) Ozone
49. Noise pollution is measured in—
a) Hertz b) Fathoms c) Nanometer d) Decible
50. Lead is—
a) Air pollutant b) Soil pullutant c) Both (a) and (b) d) Noise pollution
51. Taj Mahal may be destroyed by—
a) Flood in Yamuna b) Temperature
c) Air pollution from Mathura refinery d) Destructive to O3

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PRIMARY TET & UPPER PRIMARY (PRO) 6

52. People have now started using more personal modes of transport. Which of the following would be the effect/effects
of this activity?
a) Increase in particulate matter in the air b) A decrease in natural resources
c) Increase in noise level d) All of these
53. A primary objective of EVS study at the primary level—
a) Preparing students for next-level study
b) To develop a deeper understanding of the basic concept of the subject
c) Helping the class to relate the life outside the school of the learner
d) Acquire the skill to perform hands-on activities independently
54. National curriculum Framework 2005 the primary objective of teaching environmental studies at primary level should
be—
a) Development of basic understanding of the basic concept of the subject.
b) To acquire the skill of using independently.
c) To remember the basic principle of the subject.
d) Linking classroom learning to life outside the school.
55. Human community is an important teaching and learning resource in environmental studies at the primary level,
because—
a) it provides learning opportunities in real condition b) it is an easily available resource
c) it comprises buying an elderly people d) all of the above opportunities are available
56. Which of the following is not an objective to include poems and stories in the textbooks of environmental studies?
a) To develop interested in the subject.
b) To promote imaginative creative ability among the learners.
c) Change in the content of continual and monotonous.
d) To provide enjoyment and fun to the learners.
57. Which one of the following characteristics and environmental studies textbook at primary level should not have?
a) It presents the natural and socio-cultural environment in an integral manner
b) It carters to deserve backgrounds for the students
c) It focuses on definitions and explanations of abstract concepts
d) It includes true stories and incidents
58. Which of the following sets correctly represent four of the six themes suggested in the EVS syllabus as prescribed
by NCF 2005?
a) Thing We make and do, Food, Materials and Plants b) Plants, Animals , Family and Food, Materials
c) Work and play, Food , Materials and Travel d) Family and Friends, Food, Water and Travel
59. What is the purpose of using visual aids, while teaching EVS?
a) To make the subject simple b) To be more knowledgeable
c) Quicker d) To make the subject harder
60. Games and riddles are important part of EVS teaching and learning as
a) They provide fun time for learners b) They are easy to transact in classroom
c) They provide break from classroom monotony d) They allow learners to discover patterns on their own

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