SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN

THANH HÓA Năm học 2018-2019

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề dùng cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)
Ngày thi: 09 tháng 06 năm 2018
(Đề thi có 05 phần, gồm 06 trang) Thời gian: 150 phút

PART A: LISTENING (15 points)

I. Complete the form below. Use THE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer (5 pts).
Surname: Jones
First names: Louise Cynthia
Address: Apartment 1, 72 (1)________ Street, High bridge
Post code : (2)____________
Telephone: 9835 6712 (home)
(3)____________ (work)
Driver's licence number: (4)_____________
Date of birth: Day: 25th, Month: (5)_____________, Year: 1977
II. You will hear a boy called Thomas and a girl called Ruby talking about the poster for their
school sports day. Listen and decide if the sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, choose
the letter A for YES. If it is incorrect, choose the letter B for NO (5 pts).
YES NO
6. Thomas thinks a rough copy should be drawn on the poster first. A B
7. Thomas doesn’t want to change the last year’s poster size. A B
8. Ruby and Thomas agree that the poster should be in colour. A B
9. Thomas wants the school name to be in the top of the poster. A B
10. Thomas suggests they use the same photograph as last year. A B
III. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world
in a helicopter. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear
(5 pts).
11. The main reason for Angela’s trip was to ________.
A. make money for her business
B. make money for other people
C. have an exciting adventure.
12. What does Angela say about her life?
A. She feels much older
B. She likes to be active and busy
C. She is lonely without her children
13. When Angela had the flying lesson, ___________.
A. her course lasted five months
B. her husband took lessons as well
C. she got to know her teacher well
14. During the trip, Angela and her teacher ___________.
A. did very little sightseeing
B. carried all the water they needed
C. had engine problems several times
15. What did Angela enjoy most about the trip?
A. Flying at night
B. Walking in the desert
C. Watching the changes in the scenery

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 PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in
the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (3 pts).
16. A. hour B. honey C. honor D. honest
17. A. steady B. feature C. meat D. cheat
18. A. cough B. enough C. though D. rough
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same line
and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (2 pts).
19. A. cognitive B. concentrate C. spectacular D. fabulous
20. A. memory B. charity C. tendency D. collection
PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet
(7 pts).
21. His roommate ( always enter) ______ the room without knocking first, which annoys him a lot.
22. By the time you come here again, this palace ( build) _____.
23. It is required that tax increases _______ (announce) in tomorrow’s budget.
24. I (see)____ an aunt in Chicago a couple of months ago, but I cancelled the trip because she got ill.
25. They (not sack) ______ Joss. He was the most creative person in their team.
26. The chancellor is constantly receiving suggestions for simplifying the tax system. These
(on occasion be) _________quite sensible.
27. Lam is in the garden now. He ( water)_______ the flowers for 2 hours.
II. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet
(8 pts).
28. A_________ is a health professional who provides information about (PHARMACY)
the drugs their doctors have ordered for them.
29. The bathroom is dirty. I must get a bottle of toilet cleaner to _______the (INFECT)
floor and the bath.
30. Increasingly, parents are continuing to ______ assist their children well (FINANCE)
into adulthood.
31. Burning coal is an ______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (ECONOMY)
32. The inquiry was set up after the _______ of a train near Leeds, the third (RAIL)
accident on the line this year.
33. The sun and the moon are often ________ in poetry. (PERSON)
34. Don’t worry about the volcano. It’s been ________ for years. (ACT)
35. Julia Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 _______, are taking (RESPECT)
part in the competition.
III: The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from questions 36 to 40 ). Find out the mistakes and
write the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Example: line 1: always is  is always
TRAVEL INSURANCE
1 When you go on holiday, it always is a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is
2 just in case something goes wrongly along the way. You could lose your luggage, you
3 could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions
4 of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution which will help it have an
5 enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for other, travel insurance is a way of earning
6 money by making false claims against insurance companies. For example, some people
7 pretend that they have had expensive equipment stole and then claim large sums in
8 compensation. Such claims cost insurance companies a total of £ 50 million per year, but
9 the cheats’ luck is about to run out. Thanks to a new computer system, companies will be
10 able to tell at a glance if someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest
11 travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose to other people’s dishonesty.

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IV. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following sentences and write
A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (10 pts).
41. The guidelines are an important tool for ________ awareness about current management thinking.
A. expressing B. raising C. lifting D. developing
42. Mary has only one eye, she lost ________ years ago.
A. another B. other C. the other D. others
43. John: “Shall we go out to choose a birthday gift for Emma?”
Peter: “__________”
A. Good idea! B. Happy birthday! C. Yes, please do! D. Are you sure?
44. ________, I was pleased it was over.
A. Though strange it was B. Despite it may sound strange
C. Strange though it may sound D. Even though being very strange
45. The child is so full of _______ that it’s tiring to be with him.
A. nuts B. peas C. berries D. beans
46. Up ________ when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump
C. the dog jumped D. did jump the dog
47. My car was so old that I could only sell it for ________.
A. rubbish B. scrap C. debris D. waste
48. Nancy wanted a _________ cake for her birthday party, and her mother was trying to buy her one.
A. delicious chocolate round B. round delicious chocolate
C. round chocolate delicious D. delicious round chocolate
49. They own an original Picasso painting, ______ is over a million dollars.
A. of which the value B. the value of which
C. which of the value D. of the value which
50. Please put ______ your cigarette because I am allergic to smoke.
A. out B. down C. up D. aside

PART D: READING (30 points)

I. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers
on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
Our love of the fuel-burning car with its poisonous exhaust fumes has had a devastating effect
(51)________ our environment and oil supplies. It is unlikely we will abandon our cars in large
enough numbers to resolve this problem, so there is a pressing need to find an (52)________fuel.
Many car companies are exploring ecofriendly energy sources. Hybrid cars were first developed in
1997 and they are likely to become more commonplace in the future. Hydrogen vehicles that use
solar panels to extract hydrogen from water are likely to be (53)________in the near future. These
vehicles (54)_______only water (55)_______and so do not contribute to greenhouse gases.
However, critics say that building a network of fueling stations and converting existing petrol stations
to hydrogen will prove too (56)_______and will limit this vehicle’s potential. Nevertheless, countries
(57)_______ as the US, Germany, Japan and Iceland already have ambitious hydrogen plans.
Others believe that biofuels are the future. These fuels are based on plant oils and so can be
grown. The concept of using vegetable oil as a fuel (58)_______ back to 1895 when Dr Rudolf Diesel
developed the first diesel engine to run on vegetable oil. He demonstrated his engine at the World
Exhibition in Paris in 1900 and described an (59)_______ using peanut oil as fuel in his engine. In
1912, Diesel said, ‘The use of vegetable oil for engine fuels may seem negligible today. But such oils
may become in the course of time as important as (60)_______ and the coal tar products of the
present time.’
II. Read the text and choose the most suitable word from the ones given below to fill in each
gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

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 A POWERFUL INFLUENCE
There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. However,
most parents worry that children spend too much time browsing the Internet or playing computer
games, hardly (61)________ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents want to know
if these activities are harmful to their children. What should they do if their children spend hours
(62)________ a computer screen?
Obviously, if children spend too much time being(63)________ in some games instead of
doing their homework, then something is wrong. It is a good idea if parents and children decide
together how much use should be (64)_________ of the Internet, and the child should (65)_________
that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child does not (66)_________ to this arrangement,
parent can take more drastic (67)_________.
Any parent who is (68)_________ alarmed about a child’s behavior should make an
appointment to (69)_________ the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of a computer screen
does not (70)_________ affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a youngster seems obsessed
with the computer, he or she is probably just going through a phase, and in a few months parents will
have something else to worry about!
61. A. always B. ever C. never D. rarely
62. A. peeping at B. glancing at C. staring at D. seeing
63. A. involved B. occupied C. taken D. absorbed
64. A. done B. had C. made D. taken
65. A. promise B. assure C. secure D. claim
66. A. commit B. stick C. follow D. hold
67. A. rules B. procedures C. steps D. regulations
68. A. actually B. heavily C. seriously D. urgently
69. A. speak B. discuss C. talk D. debate
70. A. possibly B. consequently C. probably D. necessarily

III. Read the text and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it
became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland.
Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more
kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the
townspeople.
The High Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it
reached from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine
and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.
Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even
after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of
bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings
from Germantown, for example, were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail
merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and
auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the
merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants
became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in
addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Philadelphia's agriculture importance.
B. Philadelphia's development as a marketing center.
C. The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia.
D. The administration of the city of Philadelphia.
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72. The word "hinterland” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. tradition B. association C. production D. region
73. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held _______.
A. on the same day as market says B. as often as possible
C. a couple of times a year D. whenever the government allowed it
74. The word "eradicate" in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. eliminate B. exploit C. organize D. operate
75. What does the author mean by stating in line 15 that "economic development was on the
merchants' side"?
A. Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.
B. Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.
C. Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence.
D. Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.

IV. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable phrase from A – F to fill in each
gap. There is one extra phrase that you don’t need to use. Write the answers on your answer
sheet (5 pts)
A. using cheaper book covers, as happened in Canada
B. saving an estimated 40,000 of them
C. strong enough to withstand a lifetime’s reading
D. used to make books
E. have consumed 6,5 million trees so far
F. have reached an estimated 7 million

ROWLING’S PROMISE TO SAVE FORESTS

The popular writer J.K Rowling has agreed to end her part in the destruction of the world’s
forests by having her books printed on paper which is environmentally friendly. The multi-millionaire
author, whose novels about a teenage wizard (76) ________, is one of a number of high-profile
authors who have pledged their support for the environment by stipulating that only recycled paper
should be used for their books. Techniques pioneered in Canada mean that, for the first time, paper
made from such materials as office waste paper can be (77) _______. The Canadian edition of
Rowling’s last book was printed without chopping down a single tree,(78) _________.
In the past, it was difficult to print books on recycled paper because the paper was not (79)
_________. Technological advances mean that paper which is manufactured from waste material is
now just as durable as paper made from virgin fiber in terms of quality and strength.
Despite the high cost of developing recycled paper that has the required strength and whiteness
needed for books, there will not necessarily be a price rise for the reader. Instead, publishers are likely
to compensate for the higher paper cost by (80) ________.
PART E: WRITING (20 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the
same (5 pts).
81. It’s pity you told everyone what we were up to.
 I’d rather _______________________________________________________________.
82. I have frequently made stupid mistakes like that.
 Many’s ________________________________________________________________.
83. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.
 Not until________________________________________________________________.
84. I have little confidence that he will be able to do the job.
 I have serious ____________________________________________________________.
85. Success depends on hard work.
 The harder ______________________________________________________________.
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II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word so that it keeps the same
meaning (5 pts).
86. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test. ( SURPRISE)
 It came __________________________________________________________________.
87. Many people believe that Edison has the ability to become the world judo champion.
(CAPABLE)
 Edison __________________________________________________________________.
88. It was Peter who pointed the mistake out to me. (ATTENTION)
 It was ___________________________________________________________________.
89. When I heard her speak, it affected me profoundly. (IMPACT)
 When I __________________________________________________________________.
90. If your order is delayed, we will contact you. (DELAY).
 Should __________________________________________________________________.

III. Paragraph writing (10 pts).

What are the benefits of getting a job in foreign countries?
Write a paragraph about 120-150 words using your own reasons and any relevant examples to
justify your answer.

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Họ và tên thí sinh ....................................................... SBD ........................

Chữ ký của giám thị 1 ............................. Chữ ký của giám thị 2 ......................

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN
THANH HÓA Năm học 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM (Dùng cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)
(Gồm 03 trang) Ngày thi: 09 tháng 06 năm 2018
Thời gian:150 phút

PART A: LISTENING (15 points)

I. Complete the form below. Use THE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer (5 pts):
1. Black 2. 2085 3. 94561309 4. 2020 BD 5. July
II. You will hear a boy called Thomas and a girl called Ruby talking about the poster for their
school sports day. Listen and decide if the sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, choose
the letter A for YES. If it is incorrect, choose the letter B for NO (5 pts):
6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B
III. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world
in a helicopter. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear (5
pts):
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)

I. Pronunciation (3 points)
16. B 17. A 18. C
II. Stress (2 points)
19. C 20. D

PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)

I. Verb form (7 pts)
21. is always entering/ is ….. entering
22. will have been built
23. (should) be announced
24. was going to see
25. shouldn’t have sacked
26. have on occasion been/ have …. been
27. has been watering
II. Word formation (8 pts)
28. pharmacist
29. disinfect
30. financially
31. uneconomical
32. derailment
33. personified
34. inactive
35. respectively
III. Error identification (5 pts)
36. line 2: wrongly  wrong
37. line 4: it  them
38. line 5: other  others
39. line 7: stole  stolen
40. line 11: to other people’s dishonesty  for other people’s dishonesty

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IV. Multiple choice (10 points)
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D
46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. A

PART D: READING (30 points)

I. Cloze reading (10 points)
51. on
52. alternative/ecofriendly
53. available
54. emit
55. vapor
56. costly
57. such
58. dates
59. experiment
60. petroleum
II. Gap filling (10 points)
61. B 62.C 63. D 64. C 65. A
66. B 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. D
III. Reading comprehension 1 (5 points)
71. B 72. D 73. C 74. A 75. B
IV. Reading comprehension 2 ( 5 points)
76. E 77. D 78. B 79. C 80. A

PART E: WRITING (20 points)

I. Rewriting 1 (5 pts)
81. I’d rather you hadn’t told everyone what we were up to.
82. Many’s the time I have made stupid mistakes like that.
83. Not until I left home could I realize how important the family is.
84. I have serious doubts about his ability to do the job.
85. The harder you work, the more success you have/achieve/gain.
or The harder you work, the more successful you are/become.
II. Rewriting 2 (5 pts)
86. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.
87. Edison is believed to be capable of becoming the world judo champion.
88. It was Peter who drew my attention to the mistake.
89. When I heard her speak, it made a profound impact on me.
90. Should there be a/any delay to your order, we will contact you.

III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)

- If the contents are not relevant, the paragraph IS NOT COUNTED.
- If the contents are relevant, ASSESS in accordance with this scale
Criteria Details
- Is a solid unit with 3 parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences,
concluding sentence).
Appearance - Paragraph should be indented only in the first line.
( 1 point) - If Ss’ writing looks like an essay, subtract 0.5 point.
- Number of words is about 120-150. Less than 120 words or more than
150 words, subtract 0.3 point.
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 - Topic sentence: Ss must mention that they will talk about benefits.
- There should be 2 or 3 supporting sentences and examples or
Structure
explanations for each supporting idea.
(2 points)
- Concluding sentence(s): Ss can summarize the main ideas in supporting
sentences, or paraphrase the topic sentence.
- Topic sentence and supporting sentences must be relevant
Coherence
- Examples/explanations must be relevant to the supporting idea that they
(1 point)
support.
- If Ss’ writing has a good use of linking words -> 0.5 point
Unity
- If Ss’ writing has a flexible use of unfamiliar transitional signals ->1
(1 point)
point.
- If Ss’ writing is free of grammatical mistakes and spelling mistakes ->2
Grammar and points.
vocabulary - If Ss’ writing has a wide range of sentence patterns, wide range of
(3 points) vocabulary and less common vocabulary ->3 points.
- Subtract 0.25 point for one mistake.
Persuasiveness
The writing is convincing.
(2 points)

* Lưu ý:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1 điểm.
- Quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 10.

Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu đúng

10

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