yw tang, Ry, NATIONAL LAW TRAINING INSTITUTE & CLAT Mock TEST SERIES NLTI ALL INDIA OPEN Mock (AIOM) Duration: 120 Minutes Name of the Candidate: Maximum Marks: 150 Contact Number: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES . The test Paper is for Five Year integrated Law Programme for 150-marks containing 150 multiple Choice Questions. . There will be Negative marking for multiple choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer or where candidates have marked more than one response. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for writing the roll No. and other details on OMR response Sheet . Indicate only the most appropriate answer by shading from the options provided. the answer circle should be shaded completely without leaving any space. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take necessary precautions before marking the appropriate circle, ENROL NOW: clatnlti.com Join us on Telegram! https://t,me/lawNLTIEnglish You may readily conceive of "running the film backward" if you think of the expanding cosmos as a movie. If you do this, you will notice that the cosmos is getting smaller and smaller until its entire mass is compressed into one spot that is infinitely dense. It didn't exist before that point, or at least not in its current form. The majority of cosmologists are inclined to accept that the universe has existed for between ten and twenty billion years, notwithstanding considerable disagreement regarding its actual age. This can be scaled up to the age of the solar system, which is four and a half billion years old, the time since the extinction of the dinosaurs (65 million years), and the age of the human race (about three million years). ‘The Big Bang was the name given to the phenomenon that ushered in the cosmos, and the phrase has since become common usage. Astronomers now refer to the entire developmental process of the birth and expansion of the cosmos when using the name, which Was once'limited to the one initial event. Astrophysicists no longer need t0 be reminded of the obvious trltth that the cosmos had a beginning at some point in time. However, it is a statement with significant ramifications, Most cultures adhere to one of two opposing views of time. While eyclical time, as its name suggests, goes round and round forever, linear time has a start, a length of time, and an end. The question of creation never arises in &cosmos that runs on cyclical time; the universe has always been and always will be. When you transition to linear time, you are instantly faced with the difficult question of both creation and the Creator. ‘Many individuals hold the belief that if something comes into existence, it must do so as'a result of the actions of some rational being, even when there is no logical justification for the claim, Because of that conviction, astronomers who often avoid theological debates find themselves in one when they propose the Big Bang theory for the origin of the universe. They are now directly in the middle of a long-running argument, ‘The idea that the global expansion is comparable to the explosion of an artillery shell is one widespread misperception about the Big Bang that needs to be dispelled right away. The galaxies do not resemble shards of shrapnel flying off the centre of an explosion, The analogy of the raisins inthe dough is a more fruitful approach to consider the entire procedure, QI. The author's comparison of the universe to a motion picture serves to: a) illustrate that the universe has operated according to linear time. b) demonstrate that the universe is actually older than most astronomers believe. ¢) show that galaxies were formed about five billion years ago. d) prove that the universe was created by a rational being. Q2. According to the passage, which of the following statements is false? a) Many people believe that a rational impetus created the universe. b)_ The solar system was created immediately after the Big Bang. c) The universe is larger today than it was in the past. ) Different societies measure time differently. Q3. Think about the passage’s key argument from the author. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage in some way? a) The Big Bang proves that God exists. b)_ The universe will eventually be destroyed. ©) The universe continues to expand in size.) Linear time is more accurate than cyclical time. Q4. Suppose that the solar system was actually found to be about twenty—five billion years old, What impact would this information have on current thinking about the universe's age? a) It would support that thinking. b) Tt would undermine that thinking. ¢) It would neither support nor undermine that thinking. 4) It would support that thinking only if the universe has expanded over time. Q5. Which of the following would most support skeptics’ arguments against the passage's assertion on galaxy motion? a) The discovery that galaxies'are made up of different materials than the rest of the universe b) The discovery that thé universe is growing faster in some directions than in, others ©) The discovery that galaxies frequently collide with each other, even though the universe is constantly growing larger 4) The discovery that galaxies have continued to move, even though the universe has not increased in size for the past 5 billion years The lack of theaters and the outrageously expensive'logisties of the lyric stage make it challenging to meet demand as opera becomes more popular in America. Many large, prosperous communities are capable of running and maintaining a modest live opera theater, but they are reluctant to do so since it would be unfair to compare it to the splendors of New York's Metropolitan Opera. Unknown to many, the numerous small municipal theaters in Italy and Germany that alternate repertory theater and opera are largely responsible for their countries’ rich operatic cultures. Due to these circumstances, what were formerly the exception, concert ot "semi-staged" performances are now the norm for entire companies created just for this purpose. However, under the ftozen formality of the concert platform, stage music, or actual opera, frequently falls short of exerting its full force. Since gesture is an expression of emotion, staging and acting are essential to a true opera's ability to convey its unique charm and strength. Additionally, costumes and décor help to summarize the exterior elements and provide the audience a clear picture of the entire action. Both are influenced by the music to a large extent, but they also enbiance it. An opera is a musical play. If itis performed live, it shouldn't make a’half-hearted attempt to acknowledge the theater. Even worse than the concertsstyle performances are the "partially staged ones. The soprano is visibly dying, yet she continues to stand; the tenoris.really thrilled, although you do not know why. The illusion is not helped by the immobile chorus, whose members are turning the pages of their scores without glancing at the subject of the song. Concert music and theatrical music are governed by various aesthetic principles because they take place in disparate realms that require different kinds of imagination from both performers and audiences. The most involved, orate, and dramatic type of theater is opera. The Italian word "opera" is much more inclusive than the English translation because it refers to the entire theater production, or "the work," in addition to the musical composition. ‘Without a stage, the lack of musical ideas is immediately apparent and even uncomfortable. Consider Richard Strauss, whose later operas are currently being played in concerts. Strauss was a composer who had an unparalleled understanding of the lyric theater. However, when taken out of its natural setting, what might sound extremely pleasant on stage—despite not being particularly inventive—appear barren and forced.Some could contend that ends justify means. T think it makes sense to stage operas that would not otherwise have a chance to be heard or that lack true theatrical aspects but yet have great musical appeal in a concert setting. However, Strauss, Bellini, and Donizetti are not suitable for such a role. Even if we ignore the crucial role of staging, it is essentially impossible to present such a work on the concert platform for musical reasons. Even when led by an accomplished opera conductor, the enormous orchestra belongs in the pit and is almost impossible to manage when put on stage with the singers. (Q6. Based on the information in the passage, with which of the following statements would the author most likely NOT agree? a) Staging and acting are an integral part of operatic work. b) Some acting in a concert is better than no acting at all. ) An opera is a much more involved production than is a contert, d) Understanding thé characters is essential to an appreciation of operatic music. Q7. The author discusses "opera" in a very particular way in the fourth paragraph of the passage. Implicit in the author's discussion of the term is the idea that; a) Italian words typically have broader meanings than English words. b) The term "opera " in English refers to only some part of the theatrical work. ©) The same word can have different meanings in only two different languages. d) There is a fundamental difference between Italian and American opera. Q8. In the passage, the author uses the phrase "the end justifies the means. " In context of the passage, what is doing the justifying is a) the exposure of the public to operatic music. b) the resolution to discourage the concert performance of operatic works ©) the placement of the large orchestra on the stage next to the singers. @) the performance of an opera on a concert platform without staging or acting, Q9. Bellini’s works have historically been considered to possess both true theatrical quality and genuine musical value. What is the relevance of this information to the passage? a) It supports the author's claim that many great works have no hope of being heard. b) It supports the author's claim that Bellini does not meet his criteria for concert performance. ) Tt weakens the author's claim that Strauss and Bellini exhibit a paucity of musical ideas. 4d) Tt weakens the author's claim that presenting an opera in concert can tarnish its image. QUO. Take, as an example, an opera that contains strong musical ideas throughout its score and suppose that it will be performed in concert. According to the passage, the presentation will: a) succeed, because without staging the strong musical ideas will become evident. b) fail, because the orchestra will have to be on stage with the singers. ©) succeed, because the composer knew every facet of the lyric stage. 4) fail, because the music is secondary to the staging and acting in an opera.Even then my only friends were made of paper and ink, At school I had learned to read and write long before the other children, Where my school friends saw notches of ink on incomprehensible pages, I saw light, streets, and people. Words and the mystery of their hidden science fascinated me, and I saw in them a key with which I could unlock a boundless world, a safe haven from that home, those streets, and those troubled days in which even I could sense that only a limited fortune awaited me, My father didn’t like to see books in the house. There was something about them—apart from the letters he could not decipher—that offended him. He used to tell me that as soon as I was ten he would send me off to work and that P’d better get rid of all my scatterbrained ideas if | didn’t want to end up a loser, a nobody. I used to hide my books under the mattress and wait for him to go out or fall asleep so that I could read. Once he caught me reading at night and flew into a rage. He tore the book from my hands and flung it out of the window. “If I catch you wasting electricity again, reading all this nonsense, you'll be sorry.” My father was not a miser and, despite the hardships we suffered, whenever he could he gave me a few coins so that I could buy myself some treats like the other children, He was convinced that I spent them gn licorice sticks, sunflower seeds, or sweets, but I would keep them in a coffee tin under the bed, and when I'd collected four or five reales I’d secretly rush out to buy myself a book. ‘My favorite place in the whole city was the Sempere & Sons bookshop on Calle Santa Ana. It smelled of old paper and dust and it was my’sanctuary, my refuge. The bookseller would let me sit on a chair in a comer and read any book I liked to my heart’s content, He hardly ever allowed me:to pay for the books he placed in my hands, but when he wasn’t looking I'd leave the eoins I'd managed.to collect on the counter before I left. It was only small change—if I'd had to buy a book with that pittance, I would probably have been able to afford only a booklet of cigarette papers. When it was time for me to leave, I would do so dragging my feet, a weight on my soul. If it had been up to me, I would have stayed there forever. ‘One Christmas Sempere gave me the best gift have ever received: It was an old volume, read and experienced to the full. “Great Expectations, by Charles Dickens,” I read on the cover. I was aware that Sempere knew a few authors who frequented his establishment and, judging by the care with which he handled the volume, T thought perhaps this Mr. Dickens was one of them. “A friend of yours?” “A lifelong friend. And from now on, he’s your friend too.” That afiernoon I ook my new friend home, hidden under my clothes so that my father wouldn't see it. It was a rainy winter, with days as gray as lead, and I read Great Expectations about nine times, partly because I had no other book at hand, partly because I did not think there could be a better one in the whole world and I was beginning to suspect that Mr. Dickens had written it just for me. Soon I was convinced that I didn’t want to do anything else in life but learn to do what Mr. Dickens had done. QIL. The narrator indicates that he pays Sempere a) less than Sempere'expects him to pay for the books. b) nothing, because Sempere won't take his money c) the money he makes selling Sweets to the other children. d) much less for the books than they are worth, QI2. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between Sempere and Charles Dickens? a) Sempere models his own writing after Dickens's style. 1b) Sempere is an avid admirer of Dickens's work. ) Sempere feels a personal connection to details of Dickens’s biography d) Sempere considers himself to be Dickens's most appreciative reader QI3. With which of the following statements about his father would the narrator most likely agree? a) He lacked affection for the narrator. b)_He disliked any unnecessary use of money.©) He would not have approved of Sempere’s gift 4) He objected to the writings of Charles Dickens. QI4. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the main reason that the narrator considers Great Expectations to be the best gift he ever received is because a) reading the book convinced him that he wanted to be a writer. b)_ he'd only ever been given sweets and snacks as gifts in the past ©) the gift meant that Sempere held him in high regard d) Sempere was a friend of the book’s author. QIS. The word “friend” is used twice in the italicized line to a) underline the importance of the narrator’s connection to Sempere, b) stress how friendships helped the narrator deal with his difficult home Situation ©) emphasize the emotional connection Sempere feels to reading, d) imply that the narrator's sentiments caused him to make an irrational decision, ‘When wealth came into existence, a moral structure was made around money. The Puritan legacy inhibited luxury and self-indulgence. Thoughtful people spread a practical gospel that emphasized hard work, temperance and frugality and the result was quite remarkable. ‘The world has been affluent since its founding. But it was, by and large, not corrupted by wealth. For centuries, it remained industrious, ambitious and frugal. Over the past 30 years, much of that has been shredded. The social norms and institutions that encouraged frugality and spending what you earn have been undermined. The institutions that encourage debt and living for the moment have been strengthened. The moral guardians are forever looking for decadence out of movies and reality shows. But the most rampant decadence today is, financial decadence, the trampling of decent norms about how to use and harness money, ‘The deterioration of financial traditions has meant two things. First, it has meant an explosion of debt that inhibits social mobility and ruins lives. Second, the transformation has led to a stark financial polarization. On one hand, there is what is called an investor class, It has tax-deferred savings plans, as well as an army of financial advisers. On the other hand, there is the lottery class, people with little access to financial planning but plenty of access to payday lenders, credit cards and lottery agents. ‘The loosening of financial inhibition has meant more options for the well-educated but more temptation and chaos for the most vulnerable. Social norms;'the invisible threads that guide behavior, have deteriorated. Over the past years, people have been more socially conscious about protecting the environment and inhaling tobacco. They have become less socially conscious about money and debt. The agents of destruction are many and State governments have also played a role. They hawk their lottery products with aggression, which some people call a tax on stupidity. Twenty percent of the world’s population consists of frequent players, spending, about $60 billion a year. Aside from the financial toll, the moral toll is comprehensive. Here is the government, the guardian of order, telling people that they don't have to work to build for the future. They can strike it rich for nothing. Payday lenders have also played a role. They seductively offer fast cash-at absurd interest rates-to 15 million people every month, Credit card companies have played a role. Instead of targeting the financially astute, who pay off their debts, they have found that they can make money off the young and vulnerable. Fifty-six per cent of students in their final year of college carry four or more credit cards. The nation’s leaders have played a role as they have always had an incentive to shove costs for current promises onto the backs of futuregenerations, Tt has only now become respectable to do so. The market itself has played a role. Software stalwarts built socially useful products to make their fortune, But what message do the salary packages that their top managers get send across the country when they ignore millions of fellow countrymen who suffer from poverty, malnutrition or hunger ? Austerity has become a thing of the past. The list could go on. But there could be some recommendations. First, raise public consciousness about debt the way the anti-smoking activists did with their campaign. Second create institutions that encourage thrift. Foundations and religious institutions could issue short-term loans to cut into the payday lender’s business. Colleges could reduce credit card advertising on campus. The tax code should tax consumption not income. But the most important thing is to shift values. The ‘wise’ made it prestigious to embrace certain middle class virtues. Now it’s socially acceptable to undermine those virtues. It is considered normal to play the debt game and imagine that decisions made today will have no consequences in the future. Q16. What does the author mean by the phrase “the transformation has led to a'stark financial polarization’ as used in the passage a) The deterioration of social norms has benefited only the wealthy andithe knowledgeable while the vulnerable class of people has fallen into a debt trap b) Since moral inhibitions no longer exist, the debt agents provide loans only to the affluent class thus widening the gap between the rich and the poor ©) The debt culture is being utilized as a measure to draw, money from the wealthy class by credit card companies d) Both A and B QI7. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? a) Credit card companies are discreet enough to provide credit cards to only those people who guarantee to repay the money in the future b) Governments throughout the world have been putting a tax on the amount of consumption of an individual rather than his/her income. ©) Government has taken many initiatives to control the rampant money lending business to protect vulnerable sections of society. d) None of the above is true, QI8. The author of the given passage seems to be definitely. a) Suggesting that the agents of debts be banned from the society b) disappointed with easy-lending trend which has taken the vulnerable sections of the society to abyss ©) in favour of bringing back the financial restrictions once imposed by the society 4) not supportive of campaigns related to anti-tobacco and saving the environment QI9. Which one of the following is a synonym of the word “Gospel” as used in the passage? a) Testament b) Market©) Comprehensive @ Opinion 20. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage ? a) The debt Culture and government initiatives of curtail it b) Effect of ‘consumerism’ on the world market ©) Breaking social barriers-taking the route of financial indulgence @) Lack of perseverance for saving money in India Robin Hood was the best archer in the land at using a bow and arrow. He made Sherwood Forest his home, along with his company of Merry Men. The King kept his royal deer in those forests. A few years ago, King Richard was in charge of the country. King Richard opened Sherwood Forest to the underprivileged. To provide food for their family, they might go deer hunting. But King Richard's troops needed to depart from England as soon as possible. After he left, his younger brother John ascended to the kingdom. The evil King John forbade anyone from entering Sherwood Forest to hunt the royal deer. Anyone caught hunting the King's deer in Sherwood Forest afier that would be executed! Robin Hood did not like that one bit. He moved into Sherwood Forest. Dressed in green from his cap to his boots, the trees of Sherwood Forest could hide him as he hunted the King’s deer. Sometimes other brave men came into Sherwood Forest. One by one they joined Robin Hood, and became his Merry Men, Robin Hood and his Merry Men would hide when rich nobles and dukes passed through the woods, Then all at once, they would jump out and rob those rich men. And Robin Hood would give the money to the poor. The rich men who were robbed were not happy about it. They went to the King. They told Bad King John what was going on in Sherwood Forest. They said, "Something must be done about this!" The King put the Sheriff of Nottingham in charge of Sherwood Forest. It would be his job to catch Robin Hood - once and for all! But the man in green was too quick. His Merry Men would warn Robin Hood each time they saw the Sheriff of Nottingham or one of his guards in the woods So the Sheriff came up with a new plan. “I will call for a great contest,” he said, “to find out who is the best in the land with a bow and arrow. The winner will go home with a Golden Arrow.” The Sheriff said in a low voice, “If I know Robin Hood, he will not be able to stay away from such a contest, And when he comes, we will catch him!” “Robin Hood, don’t go to the contest!” said Little John. Ofall the Merry Men, Robin Hood trusted Little John the most, “It isa trap!” he said. “When they see you, they will get you.” Robin Hood said nothing. He wanted togo. On the day of the contest, ten fine bowmen lined up. The round target was so far away it was hard to see its black and red circles. One by one, each young man shot his best arrow. Some of the arrows landed on the target. None came close to the center. The Sheriff turned to one of his guards “Do you see him? Is he here? No, Sir Robin Hood has red hair None of the ones who are shooting has red hair.” “That wimp!” said the Sheriff “He fears me! That is why he stayed away ”Two bowmen were left. The first was William, the Sheriff's man. With care, William, took aim. His arrow landed at the very center of the target - a bull's eye! The crowd cheered for William. It was time for the last bowman. His arrow sailed through the air, too. It landed right through the bull’s eye arrow, cutting it in half! In a flash, the bowman let go of two more arrows. Each one flew to where the Sheriff sat, pinning him to his seat, one arrow on each side. ‘The Sheriff did not know what was going on! Then the man in green pulled off a black wig and threw it on the ground. “Get him, you fools!” shouted the Sheriff “It's Robin Hood!” But our hero jumped over the wall to a horse waiting for him. He was gone! Robin Hood had escaped! Q21. Which among the following is correct regarding the rulé of King Richatd in England, as described in the passage? King Richard was not the actual King of England and that is. why he had\to leave the country after certain years, King Richard could not understand the significance of engaging in welfare of his subjects and that is, why he was overthrown by the public. King Richard was very considerate towards thé poor and he used to think about them a lot. King Richard was so bad that he did not want anyone to come to his palace with their problems and he only wanted to be involved in music and dance. 22. Which among the following statements can be considered as correct regarding William, as described in the passage? a) William did not appear in the competition despite giving his name for that since he knew that he would lose to Robin Hood. b) William was a very, good archer but he was not in the same class as Robin Hood. ©) William was a part of the Army,of Robin Hood though he could:not make it to the competition along with other members of the army. 4) William was one of the King’s Meit'who were keeping anv éye on Robin Hood but he also took part in the bow and arrow competition Q23, What happened to Robin Hood ultimately, as per the information given in the passage? a) Robin Hood escaped and the King’s Men could not catch him despite their best efforts to arrest him b) Robin Hood was caught by the King’s Men and he was put to death as per the orders of the King ©) The King’s Men could not understand what to do as Robin Hood offered them a lucrative deal to join him and leave the government job. 4) The King’s Men were overpowered by the Robin Hood army and all of them were killed brutally 8|PageQ24, Which among the following is /are correct regarding Robin Hood, as described in the passage? 1. Robin Hood is very good with bow and arrow but he is better with guns. IL, Robin Hood used to live with his own family members and no outsider was allowed in their house. II, Robin Hood was a government servant who used to serve the government whenever required by the King a) Only I b) Only and IIT ©) Allof the above d) None of the above Q25. What convinced the King’s Men that Robin Hood had not come to take partin the competition organized by the King? a). The Sheriff’sMen were convinced that Robin Hood would come into his normal self and they could not locate anybody like that b) The Sheriff's Men wanted to show that they Were at the job all the time without even checking the presence of Robin Hood in the competition. c) Robin Hood used to come with his army of Green Men but there was no such indication in the competition. 4) None of the above You define beauty yourself. You are more than a number on a scale. Love yourself the way you are. Body- positive messages like these seem to be everywhere from social media to TV ads. But while some find the body positivity movement to be uplifting and helpful, others have begun calling the movement “toxic” and suggesting it may be time to move on from this way of thinking Body positivity has its roots int radical fat activism that began in the late/1960s. Alongside activism among ethnic minority women, these groups protested against structural biases and discrimination, especially from the fashion and beauty industries that profited from making people and communities feel inadequate. Over time, this evolved into the body positivity movement as we know it today. Initially, the movement was driven by popular social media accounts that challenged narrowly defined societal standards of appearance. But some say the movement shifted away from its radical roots when it went mainstream. This was largely thanks to corporate brand campaigns, such as Dove's Real Beauty campaign and promises by fashion magazines to show a more diverse array of bodies. Body positivity’s aim to promote acceptance and appreciation of a diversity of body types and sizes may explain why it has such a broad appeal. And indeed, there’s evidence that such messaging can have a positive impact. Studies show that women exposed to social media accounts and content about body positivity have better mood, as well as greater body satisfaction and emotional wellbeing. But despite the positive effect body positivity can have, mote recently some have voiced concerns. They are worried the movement itself is exclusionary and that it may actually do more harm than good. For example 9|Pagethe singer Lizzo says that the movement has been “co-opted by all bodies” and has become about celebrating “medium and small gitls and people who occasionally get rolls” Others feel that the movement continues to exclude marginalized bodies, with the most influential body positive accounts and posts typically depicting conventionally attractive white women. One analysis of almost 250 body positivity posts on Instagram found that 67% of the posts featured white women, with men and ethnic minority women seriously under-represented. Others have said that the emphasis on loving your looks actually reinforces society’s preoccupation with appearance over other attributes, One study found that when women watched a lifestyle television programme aimed at promoting body positivity, they experienced similar increases in anxiety about their body and dissatisfaction compared to women who watched a programme about fashion models. Such body positivity content may have a negative impact on viewers because it does little to challenge the underlying idea that people are valued primarily for their appearance. Despite its positive spin,-the movement still encourages people to work On their body and engage in beauty practices. And if you fail to be body positive, it’s you that’s at fault, Likewise, some commentators find the involvement of corporations and the “performative activism” (doing something because of how it looks rather than what it achieves) of the movement to be problematic. In her influential article Body Positivity is a Scam, writer Amanda Mull argued that in divorcing itself from radical past, the movement ignores the structural reasons that lead (o negative body image, such as gendered inequalities and systems of oppression. Instead, the messaging now shifts the focus onto individuals and their ability to feel happy in their body. Q26. Which of the following could be a suitable title of the passage? a) The Body Positivity Movement risks tuning toxic. b) Love Your Body, Love yourself. ©) You're more than a number ona scale. 4) Is Body Positivity a Scam? A white woman’s analysis Q27. Which of the following questions cannot be answered using the contents of the passage? a) What was the title of Amafida Mall's book that made her doubt the fundamentals of body positivity? b) What were the results of a study comparing. women's'Tesponses to lifestyle television programmes promoting body positivity and those to programmes showcasing fashion models? ©) What is the status of ethnic minorities and men in the body positivity campaign? @) What is the aim of the beauty positivity campaign and whether it has been able to be successful to some extent? Q28, Which of the following does not illustrate the practice of “performative activism” as per the passage? a) In order to share the photo on her Instagram account, Deepika Padukone posed among JNU protesters before departing the location of the demonstration as soon as it was finished,b) An affluent white Hollywood actor launched a new t-shirt bearing the slogan "Black lives matter," but the majority of the layout was taken up by his company's logo. ©) An openly homophobic CEO of a company, asks his marketing team to add rainbow flags to their social media accounts and flood their stores with themed merchandise. @) After the iconic George Floyd event occurred in the US, a person of color from the country went on a week-long hunger strike Q29, Which of the following best expresses the tone of the author? a) Sarcastic b) Dogmatic ©) Concerned d) Populist Q30. Which of the following is not one of the problems being faced by the body positivity campaigns nowadays? a) The campaign has been termed exclusionary by some of its critics b) The campaign disproportionately under-represents ethnic minorities and one of the two sexes. ©) The campaign has been able to réach more people through the advent of social media and popular company advertisements on television, 4) The campaign in certain instances has also led to the practice of “petfotifative activism", something being critiqued by the observers.General Knowledge ‘The secretive Nobel committees never hint who will win the prizes in medicine, physics, chemistry, literature, ‘economics or peace. It's anyone's guess who might win the awards being announced starting Monday. This year's Nobel Prize season approaches as Russia's invasion of Ukraine has shattered decades of almost uninterrupted peace in Europe and raised the risks of a nuclear disaster. The secretive Nobel committees never hint who will win the prizes in medicine, physics, chemistry, literature, economics or peace. It's anyone's guess who might win the awards being announced starting Monday. Yet there's no lack of urgent causes deserving the attention that comes with winning the world’s most prestigious prize: Wars in Ukraine and Ethiopia, disruptions to supplies of energy and food, rising inequality, the climate crisis, the ongoing fallout from the COVID-19 pandemic. The science prizes reward complex achievements beyond the understanding of most. But the recipients of the prizes in peace and literature are often known by a global audience and the choices — or perceived omissions — have sometimes stirred emotional reactions. Members of the European Parliament have called for Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy and the people of Ukraine to be recognized this year by the Nobel Peace Prize committee for their resistance to the Russian invasion. While that desire is understandable, that choice is unlikely because the Nobel committee has a history of honoring figures who end conflicts, not wartime leaders, said Dan Smith, director of the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute Smith believes more likely peace prize candidates would be those fighting climate change or the International Atomic Energy Agency, a past recipient. Honoring the IAEA again would recognize its efforts to prevent a radioactive catastrophe at the Russian-occupied Zaporizhzhia nuclear power plant at the heart of fighting in Ukraine, and its work in fighting nuclear proliferation, Smith said. “This is really difficult period in world history and there is not a lot of peace being made,” he said. Promoting peace isn't always rewarded with a Nobel. India's Mohandas Gandhi, a prominent symbol of non-violence, was never so honored. Q31. Who among the following was declared as the winner of 2022 World Food Prize a) Cynthia Rosenzweig b) Sally Ride ©) Sheryl Sandberg 4d). Katherine Joseph Q32. Which of the following statements about the World Food Prize is true? a) The first World Food Prize was awarded in the year 1985 before the advent of the Green Revolution in India, b) The idea of the World Food Prize was introduced by a two time Nobel laureate, Norman Borlaug. ©). The award ceremony of the world food prize is held at Des Moines, Towa, Canada, d) None of the above. Q33. The recently issued, Global Food Policy Report is issued by? a) Concern Worldwide b) Center for Food and Policy Research Organization, ©) UN Food and Agricultural Organization,@) International Food Policy Research Institute. Q34. Choose the correct option from the following (i) The theme of the 2021 Global Food Policy Report was Transforming Food Systems after COVID-19. (ii) The first Global Food Policy Report was the 2011 Global Food Policy Report. a) (i) is true, (i) is false. ‘b) (ii) is true, (i) is false. ©) Both (i) and (ii) are true, d) Both (i) and (ii) are false. Q35. What is the theme of the 2022 Global Food Policy Report? a) Building Inclusive Food Systems. b) Rural Revitalization to Achieve the SDGs. ©) Globalization and Rising Anti Globalism. @) Climate Change and Food Systems Leaders of 15 nations have started gathering in__X___ for the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit. The most prominent among them have taken a more staunch anti-West stance since they last met in- person for the SCO summit in Bishkek in 2019. This includes Russia, China and the to-be latest entrant to the group, Iran, Ambassador Prabhat said, "India is very clear that the SCO is not an organization which is against any other bloc of countries or any other country. The SCO is a venture for constructive cooperation and peace and stability in the world. There could be concerns of different countries on various kinds of issues, but the forum is there to talk about these issues." Among the most shrill anti-West or anti-America voices currently is Russian President Vladimir Putin who is quite literally at war. Since the invasion of Ukraine, Russia has been facing tough Western sanctions. The latest to hit the country will be the Russian oil price cap that the G7 countries have decided to impose by year- end. Putin has cited the US attempts to expand NATO as one of the reasons for Russia's war against Ukraine. ‘Meanwhile, China has been sparring with the US over Taiwan, House speaker Nancy Pelosi's visit only added to the anti-US sentiment, with the Chinese foreign minister Wang Yi calling the visit "manic, irresponsible and irrational.’ Iran, which will be the latest entrant to the SCO this year, is also facing US sanctions. Iran most recently said that the US must stop making baseless allegations if they want to see a restart of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action ~ an agreement on the Iranian nuclear programme. Belarus, an observer at the SCO who wants to be a full member, is also facing US sanctions for supporting Russia in the Ukraine invasion, Also interesting is the role of Turkey, a NATO member and an invitee to this SCO summit. President Recep Erdogan has on two occasions in the past expressed interest in being a part of the SCO too.The basis of the SCO was the Shanghai Five formed in 1996. It then became the Shanghai Cooperation Organization in 2001 with the addition of Uzbekistan,India and Pakistan were added in _Y__, making this a grouping of eight members. This Eurasia grouping will be expanded to nine during the Samarkand summit, with Iran due to get full membership. Q36. In 1996, which of the following states did not sign the Treaty on Deepening Military Trust in Border Regions? a) China b) Russia ©) India @) Kazakhstan Q37. Which of the following exercises is a Multilateral and Joint Counter Terrorism Exercise, which is conducted biennially as part of military diplomacy between Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) member states? a) Exercise Kakadu b) Exercise Desert Strike ©) Exercise Peaceful Mission d) Exercise Vajra Prahar Q38, Which of the following has been redacted by X in the passage? a) Samarkand, Uzbekistan. b) Tashkent, Uzbekistan ©) Bukhara, Uzbekistan 4) Andijan, Uzbekistan Q39, Which of the following statements about SCO is incorrect? a) India takes over the SCO presidency in 2023, b) The Shanghai Five comprised Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan ©) India became an observer at the SCO in 2018 and has generally participated and observed in the ministerial level meetings of the grouping. d) All of the above are correct. Q40. Which of the following statements is true? a) Kochi was declared as the SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022-2023 to promote the rich cultural and historical heritage of the people and the tourism potential of the SCO member states, b) The official languages of SCO comprises of Russian, English and Chinese.) The SCO secretariat is located in Shanghai, China. d) The Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is located in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, Every year on the __X_, Rhino lovers and conservationists across the world observe World Rhino Day, to create awareness on the five species of surviving Rhinoceros. What started as a regional event in Africa when the World-Wide Fund for Nature, South Africa celebrated the first Rhino Day in September, 2010, it assumed global proportions in the subsequent years through the efforts of two conservationists Lisa Jane Campbell of Zimbabwe and Rhishja Cota-Larson of the United states. This day celebrates the five species of Rhino that are still surviving on the face of Earth and also to highlight the dangers they face and to work towards eliminating global demand for Rhino hom by debunking myths associated with Rhino horns. Rhinoceros (Greek word meaning nose-horned) are some of the primitive largest mammals on Earth, the adults weighing over 1000 kg in all the species. There are five species of Rhinos surviving in Asia and Africa besides numerous species that had gone extinct in the past. The most familiar Indian Rhino is found in parts of India and Nepal; majority of them living in selected protected areas of Assam along the Brahmaputra Valley. The African White Rhino is the largest species of Rhino and the five countries in the southern part of Africa namely South Africa, Namibia, Zimbabwe, Kenya, and Uganda hold almost the entire population of this species. Its estimated that about 18000 individuals of this species remain in the wild now. The African black Rhino _ ‘a and the population estimates hovers around 5300-5600 individuals spanning over several countries. The Javan Rhino is one of the rarest mammals confined exclusively to Ujung Kulon National Park in Java Province of Indonesia. The current population estimate stands at mere 75 individuals and is categorized as critically endangered. The Sumatran Rhino or Asian two-horned Rhino is the smallest of all Rhino species and is known from a few locations in Sumatra and in East Kalimantan province of Indonesia. The total number of individuals is also estimated at a precarious 80 individuals and is another critically endangered species. Q41. Which of the dates has been redacted by X in the passage? a) 20th September b) 27th September ©) 22nd September 4) 23rd September Q42. Which of the following statements are not true? a) In 2010, World Wildlife Fund-South Africa declared _X__ as World Rhino Day. b) The theme for this year’s World Rhino Day is “Keep the Five Alive’ ©) The Indian rhinoceros, also called the Indian rhino, greater one-horned rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List d) All of these Q43. CITES is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade. The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into force on 1 Julya) b) ° @d Q44, Which of the following statements is untrue? a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature was founded in 1948. b) IUCN is headquartered at Gland, Switzerland, ¢) Indian Rhino Vision 2020 (IRV2020) was launched in 2010, was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Meghalaya by the year 2020. d) Allof the above are true. Q45. Which of the following has been matched incorrectly? (i) World Lion Day- 12th August (ii) World Elephant Day- 10th August (iii) World Wildlife Day- 22nd May (iv) World Biodiversity Day- 3rd March a) (i) and (iv) b) (i) and Gii) ©) Gi) and (ii) d) All of the above Since Russia's invasion of Ukraine, UNESCO says it's verified damage to at least 53 cultural sites in the country. The organization says it assesses damage reported in the media or by Ukrainian officials and has a system to monitor main Ukrainian sites and monuments via satellite imagery. "Our experts continue to verify each report and it is feared that other sites will be added to this list," a UNESCO spokesperson told NPR. As of March 30, UNESCO said, the confirmed damaged sites, located in several regions across Ukraine, include 29 religious sites, 16 historic buildings, four museums and four monuments. When the war began, UNESCO implemented some emergency measures in order to best protect these cultural sites. It held regular online meetings with World Heritage site managers, museum directors, national monument officials and local heritage protection associations in Ukraine to provide expertise and practical advice. UNESCO says it has experts available 24/7 to respond to emergencies. We assist them in identifying safe havens in which to store items which can be moved; and in assessing and strengthening fire fighting procedures,” the spokesperson said. The agency says it’s also communicated with Russian Minister of Foreign Affairs Sergey Lavrov to reiterate that heritage sites are obligated to be protected and sent him location data of the heritage sites in Ukraine.Both Russian and Ukraine have signed on to an act by the __X___that protects cultural property during armed conflict. It prohibits and condemns all attacks and damage to cultural heritage. If cultural sites are marked with a blue shield — the convention's emblem — it means they are under the protection of the convention. If attacks are committed against these sites, UNESCO says, the perpetrators will be held responsible for acts constituting war crimes. Q46, Which of the following conventions has been redacted by X in the passage? a) Minamata convention b) Kiev Convention ©) Hague Convention d) Moscow Convention Q47. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the concerned convention? 4) Considering that the preservation of cultural heritage is of great importance for all peoples of the world and thus needs universal protection, the Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict was adopted in 1952 under the auspices of UNESCO. b) Iti the first and the most comprehensive multilateral treaty dedicated exclusively to the protection of cultural heritage in times of peace as well as during an armed conflict. ¢) The convention aims to protect cultural property, such as monuments of architecture, art or history, archaeological sites, works of art, manuscripts, books and other objects of artistic, historical or archaeological interest, as well as scientific collections of any kind regardless of their origin or ownership. a) None: of, these Q48. Which article of the __X____ states that cultural property may bear a distinctive emblem so as to facilitate its recognition? a) Article 5 b) Article 6 ©) Article 7 d) Article Q49, Which of the following is untrue about UNESCO? a) German vice-chancellor, Angela Merkel was recently conferred with UNESCO Peace Prize 2022. 'b) Garba was nominated to be inscribed on UNESCO's list of intangible cultures in 2022, ©) As of September 2022, 14 elements from India have been inscribed in UNESCO’s list of intangible culture, 4) All of the above are true.Q50, Which of the following statements is untrue? a) World Heritage Day every year is celebrated on 18 April. b) The theme of World Heritage Day 2022 was “Heritage and Climate" c) The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) organisation was established on the principles set forth in the Venice Charter, also known as the 1964 International Charter on the Conservation and Restoration of Monuments and Sites. 4) All of the following are correct. NEW DELHI: The noise inside Vande Bharat train is 100 times less than that in an airplane, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said on Friday after travelling in the indigenously designed train, He said this feature in the train, which the officials have not highlighted so far, may be an attraction for air passengers to take the train instead of airlines. Officials said the main reason for less noise inside the train is that the gangway in this train is fully sealed just like Metro trains. While this ensures comfortable movement of passengers and service providers from one coach to another, this ensures that no noise from outside enters the train. Addressing a public function in Ahmedabad after he travelled in the third semi high speed train, Modi said: "I enjoyed the journey in Gandhinagar-Mumbai Vande Bharat train. It was a journey of a few minutes, but it was a proud moment. When T was travelling, officials were giving details of special features of the train such as speed. But another aspect, which they did not focus on, I would like to mention here. I am not a mathematician or scientist. But I can make a rough assessment that the noise inside an airplane is 100 times more than that inside Vande Bharat train. It is difficult to talk inside an airplane. But I was able to easily talk inside the train,” ‘The PM said this is the country's third and Gujarat's "first Vande Bharat train. Currently, two trains are running on New Delhi-Varanasi and New Delhi-Katra routes. Though the first train to Varanasi was flagged off by the PM, this is for the first time that he travelled in the train. Earlier, railway minister Ashwini Vaishnaw had announced that the new version of the Vande Bharat Express broke the record of the bullet train on its trial run between Ahmedabad and Mumbai by achieving the speed of 100 kmph seconds while Japan-made bullet train catches this speed in 55 seconds. QS1. Whatis the other name for Vande-Bharat Express? a) Train 17 b) Train 15 ©) Train 19 d) None of the above Q52. Which of the following is true for Vande Bharat Trains? a) Itis an indigenously designed and manufactured semi-high speed, self-propelled train b) The first Vande Bharat was manufactured by the Integral Coach Factory (ICF). ©) The train set configuration, though complex, is faster, easier to maintain, consumes less energy, and has greater flexibility in train operation. d) All of the aboveQ53. Which of the following railway station has the world’s longest railway platform in India? a) Gorakhpur Railway Station b) Kollam Junction, Kharagpur ©) Bilaspur Railway Station @) Hubbali Junction Q54. Which technology is being provided by Japan to India in order to facilitate its Bullet train ambitions? a) Yakencsen b) Porbiasn ©) Shinkansen @) Quinshu Q55. Which of the following is untrue about India-Iapan Relations? a) India Japan Nuclear Deal 2016 aims to build the six nuclear reactors in southern India, increasing nuclear energy capacity ten-fold by 2032. b)_ India and Japan conduct a bilateral exercise called Ajeya-Guardian on an alternate basis, ©) India’s Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC) project is funded by a soft loan provided by Japan International Cooperation Agency under Special terms for economic partnership (STEP). @)_ None of the above Pakistan's parliament has selected Shehbaz Sharif as the country's new prime minister, after Imran Khan was ousted in a no-confidence vote in the early hours of Sunday. The opposition coalition leader - who had worked to depose Mr Khan - won the support of a majority in parliament. Shehbaz Sharif will now form a new government that can remain in place until elections are due in August 2023, Mr Khan, 69, was voted out after days of high political drama, He had attempted to block a previous attempt to bring a no-confidence motion against him by dissolving parliament and calling fora snap election. However, the country’s Supreme Court upheld an opposition petition that his actions were unconstitutional and ordered the no-confidence vote to go ahead. On Monday Mr Sharif was elected in parliament unopposed and will be Pakistan's _X__ prime minister. Rival candidate Shah Mahmood Qureshi had announced the Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf party led by Mr Khan was boycotting the parliamentary vote and staged a walkout. The former PM and most of his party's MPs resigned from their seats ahead of the vote. Q56. Which of the following replaces X in the passage? a) 21st b) 22nd) 23rd @) 24th Q57. No Pakistani prime minister has ever completed a five-year term in office in the country’s 75-year history. Who was the first Prime Minister of Pakistan? a) Sir Khawaja Nazimuddin b) Liaquat Ali Khan ©) Mohd. Ali Jinnah @) Mohammad Ali Bogra QS8. Which of the following statements is/are correct? a) The National Assembly is the lower legislative house of the bicameral Majlis-e-Shura, which also comprises the Senate of Pakistan (upper house). b) The National Assembly is a democratically elected body consisting of a total of 342 members who are referred to as Members of the National Assembly (MNAs). c) 272 members are directly elected members and 70 reserved seats for women and religious minorities. d) Allof these Q59. Which of the following has been incorrectly matched? a) First Governor General of Pakistan: Mohd. Ali Jinnah b) First woman Prime Minister: Benazir Bhutto ) First President: Iskander Mirza d) First Pakistan Citizen to get Bharat Ratna: Mohd. Ali Jinnah Q60, Which of the following is untrue? a). The first No confidence motion in India was moved by Acharya Kriplani in 1963 b) The motion can only be introduced in the lower house when the motion is supported by at least 50 members of the house. c) Maximum number of No confidence motion were faced by former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi ie., 15. d) All of these India’s premier foreign policy conference- “The Raisina Dialogue” being hosted from April 25 to April 27 ‘comes as a huge opportunity for those interested in a wide range of geo-political and geo-economic issues confronting the global community. 290 leaders from 90 counties are participating in this mega event held every year in New Delhi, where top people from politics, business, media, academia and civil society converge 20|Pageto discuss and deliberate a wide range of contemporary and pressing global issues ranging from democracy to technology to global health and securities exploring opportunities for close cooperation The event is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion that involves heads of state, cabinet ministers, local government officials, academicians, students, journalists, politicians, researchers and scholars, who are either interested in or working on international relations, global securities, Indian foreign policy and other related and relevant issues. ‘The Raisina Dialogue is organized on the lines of the Shangri-La Dialogue held on regular interval in Singapore and takes its name from the Raisina Hills, often used as a metonym for the seat of the Government of India, housing country’s most important government buildings including Rashtrapati Bhavan and the secretariat building housing the Prime Minister’s Office and several other important ministries. Raisina Hills are also surrounded by the Parliament of India, Rajpath and India Gate. Q61. Which edition of the Raisina Dialogue was held in-person in New Delhi from 25 April to 27 April 2022? a) 7th b) 6th ) 9th d) 8th 62, What was the theme of Raisina Dialogue 2022? a). "Terra Nova: Impassioned, Impatient, and Imperilled” b) "Navigating the Beta Century” ©) “The New Normal: Multilateralism with Multipolarity” d) None of these Q63. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? a) The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference held annually in New Delhi b)_Tt-was started in the year 2012 c) The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation, an independent think tank, in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs of India, d) All of these Q64. Who was the inaugural chief guest at the Raisina Dialogue 2022? a) David Malpass b) Gita Gopinathan ©) Ursula Von Der Leyen d) Allof theseQ65. Which of the following statements is/are correct? a) The Raisina Dialogue is India’s 2nd foreign policy conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. b) It is organized on the lines of the Seoul Dialogue which takes place annually in South Korea. ©) The name Raisina Hills comes from the place where India’s seat of power resides. It is an area in Delhi where the Rashtrapati Bhavan, the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and other important government offices are situated. All of the above.Legal Reasoning ‘The recently passed Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 will help to promote foreign investment in India for firms looking to invest outside of the US and China following their trade war, said Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, The much awaited Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Lok Sabha on 2nd December. The bill will reduce the base corporate tax rate to 22 per cent from the earlier 30 per cent for companies that do not seek tax exemptions, For new manufacturing companies, the rate of interest has been lowered to 15 per cent from 25 per cent. These new domestic manufacturing companies should be registered after September 30, 2019, and should start manufacturing before April 1, 2023. However, the Bill has strictly laid guidelines for certain businesses that will not qualify as manufacturing businesses. “These include businesses engaged in: (development of computer software; (ii) printing of books (iii) production of cinematograph film, (iv) mining, and (v) Any other business notified by the central government,” the Bill stated, Ttalso states that the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) will not apply to companies opting for the new tax rates. MAT is the minimum amount of tax required to be paid by a company, in case its notmal tax liability after claiming deductions falls below a certain limit, The Bill adds that the provisions regarding MAT credit will also not apply to companies opting for the new rates. The Ministry of Finance has estimated the revenue impact of new tax rates and other measures under the Ordinance (now a bill) at INR 1.45 lakh crore. This, could increase the fiscal deficit for the year 2019-20 from 3.3 per cent of GDP to 4 per cent of GDP. ‘The new tax laws are slated to have a huge impact on manufacturing businesses. The Bill affects 69 per cent of the total income tax-paying companies in 2017-18. The Bill allows these, companies a lower statutory tax rate option of 25.17 per cent as against 29 per cent. The finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman believes that the tax cut will bring investment in the country as firms are looking to invest outside of the US and China following their trade tensions. India’s GDP growth slipped to 4.5 per cent in the July-September quarter, lowest in six years. Experts see this Bill as a slight relief to the distressed economy. 66. Gurdyal , who is 28 years old opens up mew printing press business to manufacture novels in Mumbai. He starts his business on 30th September 2019 but registers his company on 1st October 2019. Which rate of interest should he be paying as per the recently passed Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019? a. 22 per cent b. 25 per cent c. 15 per cent d. None of the above 67. According to the given passage, the recently passed Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019, will have a huge impact on the income tax paying manufacturing companies, as the bill has provided such companies with reduced statutory tax rate. Reliance and HDFC are such income tax paying companies, what will be the rebate in tax which they will be paying:- a, 30.0 per cent b. 15.0 per cent ©. 25.17 per cent4.22.1 per cent 68, Sandeep Singh, who belongs to Ghaziabad, opened up a company named S.S. MANUFACTURERS LTD. which deals with manufacturing tube lights and led bulbs, on 3rd October 2019. Sandeep applies for the new tax rates with regard to payment of tax by his company. Will (MAT) apply to his company:- a. Yes, because his company applies for new tax rates as stated in the bill. b. No, because his company applies for new tax rates as stated in the bill. c. The application of MAT to Sandeep’s company is not in accordance with the given passage d. None of the above. 69. ONEC, is one of the oldest compiiny of our country. It was founded in 1956, ONEC used to pay 30% of base corporate tax till now and also doesn’t solicit for tax exemption. According to the given passage, what is the new corporate tax'that is Specified and appointed to such companies? a. 22 per cent b. 15 per cent ©. 30 per cent 4.25 per cent 70, Which statement according to the given passage is true:- a. The rate of interest for new manufacturing companies has been lowered to 22 per cent from 30 per cent. If they are registered after September 30, 2019. b. MAT is the minimum amount of tax that is paid by a company if its normal tax liability falls above a certain limit after claiming deductions. c. The Finance Minister said that the tax cut will bring investment in the country as firms are looking to invest outside of the US and China. d. All of the above ‘The sexual assault of two boys by a maulana if’a’Katraj orphiinage, the assault of a deaf-mute tribal boy in Madhya Pradesh, and onslaughts on several others by the man who ran two state government-funded hostels are some examples. It’s tempting to avert a collective gaze after calling it a tragedy associated only with abandoned or orphaned, or runaway children. But child sexual abuse is a crime that cuts across class and gender. POCSO is applicable for girls and boys till they are 18. Indian Penal Code Section 377 was read alongside POCSO provisions for both, girls and malechildren. The anti-rape law takes over for young women from 18 but IPC Section 377 is the only law that would apply to young men from 18. A male executive at a corporate party where a knock-out is slipped into his drink by a mid-level boss and when he wakes he is a video'd-vietim to future sexual harassment at the workplace unless he keeps bending over? Or homosexual ‘godmen’ and priests starting to abuse teens as part of ‘rituals’ and it continuing after they have grown because they are keeping quiet from the shame of it? Or the male castings couch in Bollywood itself.If IPC Section 377 is struck down in its entirety then at risk is the largest population of Indians the heterosexual male, age 18 and upwards. Then, would it be alarmist to wonder whether, with the glaring absence of an anti- male-rape law, Indian men could be sodomized? First, if there is to be a judgment decriminalizing same-gender sex then no loophole should be left for allowing male-to-male prostitution to flourish. Second, money can make consensual meaningless. So what should consensual comprehensively mean, It would go the longest way, even for women’s rights, if the highest court in the land defines explicit consent. Not written, or implied, or implicit by silence/inaction consent. But informed, spoken, ‘explicit’ consent where every “no means no”. The need for ‘explicit consent” acquires urgency from this case, so that homosexuals can understand boundaries (just as males are expected to around females). The Bombay High Court had recently reduced the jail terin (from life imprisonment) of a mid-30s man who stabbed his friend who had attacked him for refusing to indulge in anal sex. The man, the court agreed, had legitimate “gay panic defense” (earlier used in American courts to.lessen charges to culpable homicide not amounting to murder). 71. Rahul, a 16 year old boy is a tribal who goes.to school in a nearby/village away from home. On certain occasions his teacher makes him stay after the other children have left and touches him in inappropriate ways. Based on the information given in the passage Rahul would a. be protected against such sexual abuse under the POCSO act b. not be protected against such sexual abuse as he is tribal boy ¢. be protected against such sexual abuse under the IPC 4. be protected against such sexual abuse by a conjoined reading of the provisions in the IPC and POCSO act. 72. With respect to facts given in the previous question (71) , if such sexual abuse takes place against Rohan, 20-year-old college student (in Delhi), by his professor: a. Rohan would be protected as he is a college student in a city b. Rohan would not be protected against such abuse as he is a mature person c. Rohan would be protected against such abuse under the POCSO act 4. Rohan would not be protected against such abuse as POCSO will not apply. 73. Based on the information given in the passage, the example of a male executive video-victimized by his boss who is sexually abused: . would have protection under the POCSO act. b. would have absolutely no protection as he is giving his implied consent for pleasing his boss. c. would be protected under section 377 of the IPC. d. would have protection under anti-rape law. 74, With respect to girls who are under 18 years of age:a. they are not protected under the anti-rape law of the IPC b. they are also treated in the same way as male children under 18 years of age, in terms of POCSO act c. No protection is given to them against sexual abuse d. they are only protected under section 377 of IPC. 75. As per the information given in the passage, “explicit consent” would mean: a. consent which is given in an implied manner or by one’s silence b. consent given by way of gestures or signs c. consent which is given in an informed and spoken manner 4. consent which is given in awritien manner Moving the legislation in the Upper House, Union Minister of State for Home G Kishan Reddy said effective control over arms afd ammunition is very important for safety and security in the country. He said the bill seeks to bring in stringent punishment for people involved in illegal manufacturing of arms while ensuring easier provisions for people with licensed arms, Parliament on Tuesday approved a legislation providing for a maximum punishment of life imprisonment for manufacturing and carrying illegal arms. The Arms (Amendment) Bill, 2019, which also has @ provision for imprisonment of two years or fine which may extend to Rs 1 lakh or both for those using firearms in a rash or negligent manner in celebratory gunfire, endangering human life or personal safety of others, was passed by a voice vote in Rajya Sabha. Replying to a debate on the bill in the Upper House, Minister of State for Home G Kishan Reddy said heirloom or heritage weapons could be kept if they have been de-activated. This was a demand made by several MPs from both the opposition as well as treasury benches. "The heritage weapons which have been inherited can be kept after de-activation," Reddy said amid thumping of desks. Earlier, moving the bill, Reddy said effective control over arms and ammunition is very important for safety and security in the country. "It is for national security that we have brought in this legislation, [egal manufacturing of arms is going on in some places like small scale industry. We are proposing stringent punishments for people involved in such acts,” the minister said. The bill for changes in the six-decade-old Arms Act has also accorded special status to sportsperson who need firearms and ammunition for practice and participating in tournaments: As per the bill, those who own more than two firearms will have to deposit the third one with police station concerned or authorised gun dealers. ‘The new legislation has a provision for life imptisonment for those who snatch or loot arms and ammunition from police or other security forces. Further, the Bill amends a Section of the Arms Act, 1959, to give punishment from the usual life term of 14 years to "imprisonment for the remainder of that person's life" for manufacturing, selling, repairing and possessing "prohibited" arms. The minimum punishment under this section will be 14 years. Under the present law, the offence invites imprisonment of not less than seven years but may extend to life imprisonment mostly up to 14 years. 76. Munna, Maharaja of Jaipur, was attending the wedding of his younger brother Shayam. While everyone was proceeding at the wedding location, Munna started shooting in the air. It was a pistol that Munna had received from his father and has been passed on from centuries into the family. Is Munna liable? a. Yes as he has committed the crime of murder.b. No, as it was a family heirloom c. Yes, as the gun was not deactivated. d. No, as Ravi receives immunity from prosecution because of his status of Maharaja. 77. Mr. Mishra is a national level shooting champion, He has to his credit three guns. He keeps a pistol at his residence, a gun at his office and another at the shooting range. Which of the following is correct a. Mr.Mishra has not committed any offense as he is a s b. Mr.Mishra has violated the provisions of the bill. c. Mr, Mishra is liable as no one is allowed to keep more than tiwo guns. 4d, Mr.Mishra has not committed any offense'as he has been authorized and ficensed to keep the guns. 78. The Reserve Bank of India sends to State Bank of India a truck with cash flow needed to sustain the bank, While the truck was On ifs way to the State Bank of India it met with'an accidents The Security forces were badly hurt, Meanwhile, group of young men eame and tried to steal money in the truck. One of the security forces tried to stop the loot from taking place but one of the members of the gang pushed and snatched the gun from the hand of a security person, Has any crime been committed under the bill’? a. Yes, because they have acquired the money in an illegal manner b. Yes as per the legislation. c. No, they had the intention of stealing money. D. None of the above 79. Abhi was driving a car. While crossing the signal a policeman stopped him and then found a pistol in his possession, Abhi could not provide any kind of document for the pistol. The matter was taken into the court and Abhi was sentenced to prison for 9years, Do you think that the judgment given by the court is correct assuming that the bill has become an act? a. Yes as the minimum punishments 7 years and the maximum punishment is 4years. b. No as itis less than the minimum term of punishment mentioned under the act. c. It is a matter to be dealt by the tribunal formulated to deal cases télated to arms and ammunition, d. None of the above 80. What has been the main aim of the amendment? a. Safety and security of the citizens of India b. To bring in stringent punishment for those involved in illegal manufacturing of arms. c. To accord special status to the sportsperson 4. To increase the punishment to life imprisonment in case of looting of arms and ammunitionsAaya Ram Gaya Ram was a phrase that became popular in Indian politics after a Haryana MLA Gaya Lal changed his party thrice within the same day in 1967. The anti-defection law sought to prevent such political defections which may be due to reward of office or other similar considerations. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies. Are there any exceptions under the law? Yes, legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at-least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members, who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification. Also, the memberSare bound-to lose their membership if they go against the party whip in,important and crucial matters. Various expert committees have recommended that rather than the Presiding Officer, the decision to disqualify a member should be made by the President (in case of MPs) or the Governor (in case of MLAs) on the advice of the Election Commission. This would be similar to the process followed for disqualification in case the person holds an office of profit (.e. the person holds an office under the central or state government which ities a remuneration, and has not been excluded ima list made by the legislature). How has the law been interpreted by the Courts while deciding on related matters? ‘The Supreme Court has interpreted different provisions of the law. We discuss some of these below. The phrase “Voluntarily gives up his membership’ has a wider connotation than resignation. The law provides for a member to be disqualified if he voluntarily gives up his membership”. However, the Supreme Court has interpreted that in the absence of a formal resignation by the member, the giving up of membership can be inferred by his conduct. Decision of the Presiding Officer is subject to judicial review. The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer's decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Pre \g Officer gives his order. But, the caveat here is thatthe time has to be reasonable and non-arbitrary. Is there a time limit within which the Presiding Officer has to decide? The law does not specify « time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made, There have been several cases where the Courts have expressed concern about the unnecessary delay in deciding such petitions. In some cases this delay in decision making has resulted in members, who have defected from their parties, continuing to be members of the House. There have also been instances where opposition members have been appointed ministers in the government while still retaining the membership of their original parties in the legislature, Axticle 102 (1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (b) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament Explanation: For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State (2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule 81, Rekha and Jaya are members of Bharatiya Lokayukt-Sangh, On the floor of the house, they decide to vote against the Tribunal Reforms Bill; 2022;*Which would have otherwise passed:the majority numbers of the house as the Bharatiya Lokayukt Sangh fell short by only two votes. However, the bill was vague and diluted the separation of powers as prescribed under the constitution. But, during the last meeting of the party, it decided to vote in favour of the bill and both of them agreed to it. Is this a ground for defection? a) Yes, they went against the whip and popularVéte of the party. b) No, the bill was not in the interest of the country. ©) Yes. d) No, as the bill was vague, they were allowed to go against the whip of the party. 82. BLD, the party enjoying the power at the Centre, disqualified three of its members as they were a part of eva se Siksha” rally organised by the opposition party. The rally was to increase awareness about education of the children under 10 years. They were subsequently expelled from the party. 4) The expulsion is not valid, as politicians they were entitled to be engaged in such noble causes. b) The expulsion is valid, as they went against the whip of their party, ) The expulsion is valid, as they voluntarily gave up their membership through their conduct. d) The expulsion was not Valid. 83. A private member bill to reduce thé drinking age Was introduced in the Lok Sabha. The introduction of the bill notified to the members of the house, but the provisions were to be tabled on that particular day. The majority of the “Rashtriya Bandhu Sanghathan* voted against the bill as, in the opinion of their leader, it is against the principles of India to drink alcohol. While two members voted in favour of the bill. Can this lead to disqualification? a) Yes, as they disobeyed the principles of the party on a vote. b) No, there was no mandate of the party to begin with. ©) Yes, as there was a mandate of the party and the same violated by the members on the floor of the house. d) No, as they violated the whip of the party 84, Assertion: Defection is a rule to provide for a stable government.Reason: The members need to adhere to the popular mandate of the party. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true. 85. Mrs, Renuka Chaudhary is one of the top actors of the country. She has been the superstars of the 90s and for the past 3 years has also been a MP. She has been offered the position of the Director of the Indian School of Acting under the aegis of the government. As shejis wealthy and wants to work the prosperity of the nation, she decided to forego her income that she would have otherwise gained. a) She can take up the position as she has decided to let go of the income b) She cannot not take up the position because it is a government offered and held position. c) She cannot take up'the position, 4) She cannot take the position because the particular position makes her eligible for.a profit. Classification of an offer An offer can be of many types, ranging across the spectrum Express offer ‘* Implied offer © General offer © Specific Offer * Cross Offer Counter Offer —_« Standing Offer Express offer and implied offer In so far as the proposal of any promise is made in words, the promise is said to be expressed. In so far as such a proposal or acceptance is made otherwise than in words, the promise is said to be implied. General offer A General Offer is an offer that is made to the world at large. In cases of such offersi.e- general offers, there no need for communication of acceptance, anyone who is aware of the offer, and performs the conditions of the contract is said to have communicated his/her acceptance. When a generaloffer is of continuing nature, it can be accepted by a number of people till it is retracted. However, when a general offer requires information regarding a missing thing, it is closed as soon as the first information comes in. Specific offer A Specific offer is an offer that is made to a specific or ascertained person, this type of offer can only be accepted by the person to whom it is made. Cross offer ‘When two parties make an identical offer to each other, in ignorance to each other’s offer, they are said to make cross offers. Cross offers do not constitute a valid contract, since there is no acceptance. Counter offer When the offeree offers a qualified acceptance of the offer subject to modifications and variations of the terms of the original offer, he is said to have made a counter offer. A counter offer is a rejection of the original offer. Standing offerAn Offer which remains open for acceptance over a period of time is called a standing offer. Tenders that are invited for supply of goods is a kind of Standing Offer. Difference between an offer and Invitation to offer Although Invitation to Offer is not a type of offer per se, it is imperative to distinguish both to even construe what an actual offer is. An invitation to offer is an offer to negotiate, an offer to receive offers, offers to chauffeur. An offer is a final expression of willingness to get into a contract upon those following terms. 86. Based on the definition in the passage, which of the following is an example of an “implied offer"? a A bid made at an auction b. There was a fire at X°s house. X called a cominetcial firelbrigade service and sought their assistance, without discussing the price c. Both aandb d. Neither a or b. 87. Bharatiya Biotechnology developed a vaecine called “Coronil™ to combat the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic. It was approved by the government for distribution. The company took out a front page ad in several newspapers, stating that anyone who took the vaccine, and still contracted COVID-19, could claim Rs. 10,000 from the company, To indicate its seriousness, it deposited Rs. 10,00,000 in a bank account in State Bank of India to cover the costs of such claims. Moody took the vaccine, and yet contracted COVID-19. He sued the company to claim Rs. 10,000, as offered. A. This is an example of a standing offer, and the company is liable to pay Moody Rs. 10,000. b. This is an example of a general offer, and the company is liable to pay Moody Rs. 10,000. c. This is an example of an invitation to offer, and the company is not liable to pay Moody Rs. 10,000. d. Both aandb 88, Lalman sent his servant, Rakesh to look for his missing daughter, Gauri. He later offered a reward of Rs. 10,000 to whoever would bring his missing daughter, Gauri, home. Rakesh ultimately found Gauri in a nearby village and brought her back home: On returning, he became aware of the reward offer made by Lalman, and sought the same from Lalman, Lalman refused, and Rakesh sued him in court. a. This is an example of a general offet,/and Lalman is obligated to pay Rakesh Rs. 10,000. b. This is an example of a general offer, but Lalman is not obligated to pay Rakesh Rs. 10,000 since Rakesh was not aware of the offer when he brought Gauri back. ¢. This is an example of a cross offer, and Lalman is not obligated to pay Rakesh Rs. 10,000. 4. Both b and c 89, Lalman offered a reward of Rs. 10,000 to whoever would bring his missing daughter, Gauri, home. Rakesh found Gauri in a nearby village and brought her back home. Lalman refused to pay Rs. 10,000 to Rakesh. Gauri ran away from home again. This time, Ramesh found her and brought her back, believing that the offer for reward was still in force. Lalman refused to pay Rs. 10,000, and Ramesh sued him in court. Decide a, Lalman is obligated to pay Rakesh Rs. 10,000, since he fulfilled the terms of the general offer. 31|Pageb. Lalman is obligated to pay Ramesh Rs. 10,000, since he fulfilled the terms of the general offer. . Lalman is not obligated to pay Ramesh Rs. 10,000, since where a general offer involves finding something which is missing, once that thing is found, the general offer is deemed closed. d. Both a and c. 90. X contracted with Picasso, the famous painter, to paint his portrait in return for a fee. It later emerged that in fact, one of the disciples of Picasso had painted the portrait, and not Picasso himself. X sued Picasso. a. This is an example of a specific offer. b, Picasso is liable since he violated the terms of the contract. c. Both a and b, d. Neither a or b. Vicarious liability means liability which is imposed on a person for afunlawful act or omission by another person. Here even if a person did not do any wrongful act himself, he can still be held liable if someone else does such act. This liability arises in those cases where there is a special relationship which exists between the wrongdoer and the person who is held liable such as master and servant relationship. Vicarious liability is based on 2 very important principles or maxims which are: Qui facit per alium facit per se As per this maxim, a person who-acts through another person is deemed by aw to have done that act himself, Thus whenever a person authorised another person to at on his behalf, if any liability arises out of such act the person who gave the authorisation will be held liable vicariously because as per the law, he has done that act himself through another person and therefore he will be liable. Respondeat Superior-According to this maxim, the superior should be held responsible by law for the acts done by his subordinate. Vicarious liability by Authorisation-When the vicarious liability arises because of an act which is done by another with the authority being given to act on their behalf, such liability is known as a vicarious liability by authorization. In such cases, there is an express or implied authority which is given to another person and since the act is done on behalf of another person, such a person for whose benefit the act has been done will be held liable. In these situations, a person also becomes liable for the direct consequences which occur in the commission of the authorized act. Vicarious Liability by Ratification Usually, when a person is-acting through another person, that other person is given authority by such person to do an act. Ratification means that the person for whom an act is done by another approves of such an act after it has been done. So, the authority for acting on his behalf is given after the act has already been done. In the law of torts, the effect of ratification is that, it will be treated as if the act was done with the authority from the beginning. Absolute liability-,implies that whenever an enterprise is engaged in any dangerous or hazardous activity that threatens the people working in the enterprise and those living nearby, it owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community that no harm will be caused. If harm is indeed caused, ]. The enterprise can‘t claim that the harm has not been caused due to negligence (absence of due care) or accident or by act of god or that it hhad taken all reasonable precautions. 91. Consider the following statements.1. A person can be held vicariously liable when there is a special relationship which exists between the wrongdoer and the person who is held liable. 2. A person can be held vicariously liable when he authorizes another person to act on his behalf. 3. Vicariously liability is based on the Principal of Absolute liability. ‘Which of the above statements are not correct? A. Lonly B. 2and3 C.1,2and 3 D. 3 only 92. Mr. X employed Mr» ¥.as his‘driver. One day Mr. X asked Mr.Y to take his wife to the market. While returning from the market Mr. Y caused an accident which resulted in some damage to the car of one Mr. A. Mr. Z wants to sue Mr. X and Mr. Y for the damage. Will he succeed? ‘A. Yes, only Mr. Y will be liable as he was driving the car. B. Yes, and Mr. X will be liable as he authorized Mr. Y to drive his car. C. Yes, and Mr. Y will be liable as Mr. X was not present in the ear D. Yes, and the wife of Mr. X will be liable as she was giving instruction how to drive and what route to follow. 93. According to the passage which of the following statements can best describe the difference between Vicarious Liability by Authorisation and Vicarious Liability by Ratification? A. For vicarious liability by authorization the authority is given prior to the act but for vicarious liability by ratification the authority can be given before or after the act. B. For vicarious liability by authorization the authority is given prior to the aet and for vicarious liability by ratification the act is ratified after the act has already been done. C. There is no substantial differeitee between the two, and authority ean be given prior to or after the act D. For vicarious liability by authorization the authority is given prior to the act but for Vicarious liability by ratification there is no need for authority or ratification of the act already done. 94, Mr. X owned a fertilizer factory which involved use of hazardous chemicals for the production of fertilizers. Mr. X installed all safety measure in the factory including a safety alarm. One fateful night due to the negligence of one of the workers the factory caught fire and poisonous gas leaked from the factory and spread out to nearby area and caused damage to people living nearby. Decide on the liability of Mr. X. Choose the most appropriate answer. A. Mr. X is liable on the basis of absolute liability principle. B. Mr. X is vicariously liable because he was the master of negligent worker and authorized him to work in the factory 33|PageC. Mr. X is not liable as the worker was negligent in his work and Mr. X had no opportunity to rectify workers mistake. D. Mr. X is not liable because he took all reasonable precautions to avoid such accident. 95. Mr. A.was a servant at Mr. B’s house. Even though he was not employed to drive, Sometimes Mr. B used to send Mr. A to the market to buy vegetables and allowed him to use his car for the purpose. Mr.A did not have driver’s license, but he did not tell this fact (o Mr. B. One day when he went to the market, he met with an accident one Mr. Z suffered injuries. Decide: A. Mr. A is liable as he did not disclose the fact to Mr. B that he is not having a driver's license. B. Mr. B is liable as Mr. A was his servant. C. Mr. B is not liable as Mr. A.was only a servait and was nt employed to drive the ear. D. Mr. Bis liable because he authotized Mr. A to drive his Agency can be defined as the relationship between two persons, wherein) person has the authority to act on behalf of another, bind hinvher into a legal relationship with the third party It is based on the fact that one person cannot performall the transaetions and so he can appoint another perform or act on his behalf. A contract of agency, in its essence, is nothing but a fiduciary relationship between two parties where one party (the principal) contracts-with and authorizes (implicitly ot explicitly) another person (the agent) to act on his behalf and provides him with the capacity to create legal relationships between the principal and third parties. Agent have ability to make the principal directly liable to third parties. An agent has authority, in an emergency, to do all such acts for the purpose of protecting his principal from loss as would be done by a person of ordinary prudence, in his own casey under similar eircumstances". Agency by Necessity: Sometimes, owing to the exigencies of circumstances, the law confers agency on some persons to act as an agent of another person without waiting for the consent of that person. However, before an agency of necessity can be inferred, the following conditions have to be satisfied: (i) There should be an actual and definite necessity for acting on behalf of the principal; (di) the person acting asagent must have acted bona fide. In such situations, the principal is bound by the acts of the agent. The principal-agent relation cannot be formed without the essential element of eOnsent. Here the consent given need not be explicit; it may not even in all éases be given explicitly for forming the contractual principal-agent relationship. The court of law presumestthe consent for the formation of a contractual relationship if they have consented to a situation that would have in afty'way established the contractual principal-agent relationship; even if the ‘principal’ and the ‘agent’ stay adamant on not accepting the association, Essentials are the Principal should be competent to contract i.e major and of sound mind. The basic rule of thumb here is that the principal should be capable of performing the tasks (in law), which he wants his agent to do for him. But anyone can be agent, regardless of its age or soundness of his mind. However, they (the agent) will not be liable to the principal unless they have attained the age of majority and are of sound mind. Further even consideration is not an essential element for the creation of an Agency; However, it do not deprive the agent of his legal and justified remunerations unless proven to be specified otherwise in the contract. 96. Which of the following jeopardize the argument of the author pertaining to contract of agency? 34|PageA. Anyone can be a Agent regardless of his/her age or soundness of his mind B. Anyone can be principal but he /she should be of sound mind C. Consideration in case of contract of agency need not to be adequate D. None of the above 97. A is residing in Delhi and he has an agriculture farm at Bombay. A appoints B, by a deed called the power of attorney, as a caretaker of his farm. In this way, the relationship of principal and agent has been created between A and B by an A. Implicit agreement B. Explicit agreement C. Agreement by virtue of fiduciary félationship D. None of the above 98. Abhishek was the owner of the departmental store in Mumbai. Recently lockdown caused due to covid19 resulted in huge loss to Abhishek; He was on the verge of becoming bankrupt. Further the health of his wife also deteriorated, to bear the medical expenses he decided to,sell his diamond ring worth Rs 100000. He entrusted Balram who used to work for Abhishek in his store. Balram was born on 1 Jan 2008. Abhishek instructed Balram not to sell the diamond ring below Rs 90000 or on credit basis, But Balram sells the diamond ring to Chetan on credit basis and for Rs 50000. Decide whether Abhishek can claim damage from Balram or not ? a. Abhishek will have no right to claim damages as against Balram for his misconduct b, Abhishek will have right to claim damages as against Balram for his misconduct. ¢. Balram will be responsible as the act was not authorized by Abhishek. 4d. Can’t Say 99. Mr Farhan was the owner of Dairy shop in Kolkata, He was a renowned and trustworthy person when it comes to supplying milk and imilk products. Once Mr Farhan received an order to supply 5000 kg of butter worth rupees Fifty Thousand. The order was placed by Mr Kishore who lived in Goa around 2500 km away from Bombay. Mr Farhan in pursuance of the same appointed Papu (21years old ), who used to work for him in his dairy shop , to supply the order of butter ; through train. But when Papu was in middle of the journey, he came to know that order of Lockdownr-was imposed due.to"Covid-19 , hence the trains were stopped abruptly and the passengers were sent for quarantine. Papu seeing that butter was in danger of becoming useless owing to delay in transit decided to sell the butter for Rs 20000 at the nearby shop. Decide whether the sale is binding on Mr Farhan? ‘A. Yes ,but Mr Farhan can claim damages from Papu for the loss suffered as he is major and is liable to the principal . B. No, as the act of selling butter at lower price was not authorized by Mr Farhan, had the same been authorized then the sale would have been binding on Mr Farhan C. Papu has acted negligently hence the action of Papu is unjustified and it does not come under the purview of Principal and Agent relationship.D. Yes considering the emergency, the action of Papu is justified. 100. Mr Jaswani was the owner of Dairy shop in Bombay. He was a renowned and trustworthy person when it comes to supplying milk and milk products. Once Mr Jaswani received an order to supply 5000 Litre of Milk worth rupees Fifty Thousand. The order was placed by Mr Jyotinjay who lived in Pune around 1500 km away from Bombay. Mr Jaswani in pursuance of the same took the help of Kanishk, who runs the business of supplying commodities, and products from one place to another. Mr Jaswani booked a tanker from Kanishk to carry milk. During the journey the tanker met with an accident due to the negligence of the third party. The driver seeing the nature of milk i.e. being perishable decided to sell the milk for Rs 20000 at the nearby shop. Decide whether the sale is binding on Mr Jaswani? A. Yes ,but Mr Jaswani can claim damages from Kanishk for the loss suffered B. No, as the act of selling milk at lower price Was not authorized by/ Mr Jaswani, had the same been authorized then the sale would have been binding on Mr Jaswani C. There is no relation of agent and principal hence the act of driver is unjustified and as it does not come under the purview of Principal and Agent relationship. D. None of the above. Criminal Conspiracy can be defined as an act when two or more persons agree to do or cause to do :Any illegal act or any legal act which is done through illegal means: ILis important to note that the objective todo such a crime is very important in this act. In the case of Muleahy v. Regina, it was said that the criminal intent of doing an act is very indispensable from constituting an act of conspiracy. In Rex v. Jones, it was first held that “Criminal Conspiracy ought to charge a conspiracy, either todo an unlawful act or a lawful act by unlawful means”. The idea of intent extends in various cases in national and international law. Many have argued on the constitution of the ‘unlawful’ act. The real meaning to that is still getting scrutinised by the courts, however, we can still count that as anything which is against the law. In the Indian Penal Code, criminal conspiracy is mentioned in chapter V in the section/120 A and 120 B. It states that the act should be committed by 2 or more persons and there should be an agreement between them to commit an illegal actor a legal act by illegal means. This is an inchoate offence. ‘The Proximity rule is used in finding the liability of the defendant in conspiracy. This rule means that the act or series of acts done in order for the commission of the substantive offence should be proximate to the intended offence, then only it canlead to liability on the part of the defendant. Further it is to be noted that existence ofall the alleged facts is relevant, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places There are few defences available to the person charged with the conspiracy. These defences vary in different jurisdictions. Once of which is Abandonment-In this defence, the person states that he had abandoned his effort to perform the crime. Although he might have been involved in planning, he did not prepare or attempt to commit the crime. This can be done by showing that he had stopped working to commit the crime, or tried to stop the crime while it was ongoing, or tried to stop other people involved in such activity with him. Other defence is of Impossibility of conducting the crime. Impossibility can be legal Impossibility where, the defendant claims that the act that he intended to commit or the act for which he made an attempt is actually not a ctime according to law, then the defense of legal Impossibility can be taken. Or impossibility can be Factual Impossibility where the act of the defendant becomes impossible to commit crime due to the situation of the case. In this, circumstances develop in such a manner that crime cannot be committed.101. Read the passage mentioned above and based on the argument decide which of the following is an example of an inchoate crime? A. attempt B. murder C. rape D. forgery 102. ‘A’, a citizen of England, is accused of committing murder of 'B' in India by taking part in a conspiracy hatched in England, Decide which of the following will be a releyant fact pertaining to conspiracy? A. Only the fact that ‘A’ citizen of England is accused of committing murder of 'B' in India is relevant B. ‘A’ citizen of England cannot be tried in India C. Only the fact that 'A"is accused of conspiracy hatched in England is relevant, D. The facts that 'A’Citizen of England is accused of commission of murder in India and of Conspiracy hatched in England are relevant facts. 103. Kunal was having a huge crush on Mia, who was the girlfriend of Kanishk. Ayush who was the classmate of Mia , also had liking for her, he often used to text Miia on instagram, he had also proposed her once in front of whole class, but Mia not only rejected the proposal of Kunal but also slapped him left, right and centre in front of whole class. Since then Ayush has decided to teach Mia a lesson. Both Ayush and Kunal had disliking and grudges on Kanishk.Once Kunal got intoxicated and he went to Ayush and told him them that he will kill Kanishk very soon , as he cannot see Mia with another guy to Which’A yush listened and smiled he also assured Kunal to bring poison for killing Kanishk. Next day, before they can start with there plan in order to kill Kanishk, Kunal came to know that Kanishk died a couple of days before due to road accident. Decide as the judge which of the following is correct pertaining fo conspiracy. ‘A. Kunal and Ayush both are liable for conspiracy to kill Kanishk B. Ayush will be liable since he was the one who bought poison to kill Kanishk. C. Kunal will not be liable Since he was intoxicated and was not in his true sense. D. None of the above 104. Continuing from the facts in the previous question, what if Kanishk did not die in the car accident and in the next day Kunal asked Ayush for the arrangement of poison to which Ayush not only vociferously denied but also urged Kunal not to kill Kanishk. Infuriated by the denial Kunal himself bought the poison and he rushed to the house of Kanishk, and eventually killed Kanishk, Decide. A. Kunal and Ayush both are liable for conspiracy to kill Kanishk B. Kunal will only be liable since he was the one who bought poison to kill Kanishk. C. Kunal will not be liable since he was intoxicated and was not in his true sense. D. Ayush will not be liable since he has abandoned the effort.105. Mr X, Mr Y, Mr Z decided to steal valuable from the house of Mr Kailash who was the omament merchant. Mr X, Y, Z came to consensus that Mr X and Mr Y will break open the door and will enter the house of Mr Kailash, whereas Mr Z will stand at the end of the road to observe that no one comes inside the house, and he was also supposed to raise alarm for Mr X and Mr Y if police comes. Everything was going as per the plan, but hearing the police siren Mr Z got scared and decided to abandon the crime and hence he ran away from the road in order to save himself. Decide as the judge which of the following is correct pertaining to conspiracy. A. Only Mr X and Mr Y will be liable sinee Mr Z has abandoned to perform the crime. B. Mr X, Mr Y, Mr Z will be liable for conspiracy and the act of abandoning the crime will not protect Mr Z C. MrZ will not be liable since he has abandoned the effort to commit the crime D. None of the aboveCritical Reasoning To most consumers, computer chips are all the same: magical artifacts that permit smartphones to perform miraculous feats. Expert technologists instead see a diverse range of highly specialized products of human ingenuity, each with their own unique characteristics and function. Until recently investors in semiconductor companies behaved more like the uninitiated consumers, piling into virtually all chipmakers with the expectation of conjuring up preternatural returns. As the pandemic cra chip boom turns to bust, they are increasingly coming to resemble the discerning nerds. In particular, investors are distinguishing between firms whose fortunes are tied to “logic” chips, which process information, and the manufacturers of “memory” chips, which store it. Although demand for all types of semiconductors has cooled this year, the memory market is feeling considerably frostier than the one for logic. That in turn has opened up a geographical divide between the world’s silicon superpowers, South Korea and Taiwan—and between their respective semiconductor champions, Samsung and TSMC. South Korea, home of the world’s largest producers of memory'ehips, exported just $5 bn -worth of such devices in August, a decrease of 239% compared with a year ago. Across the East China Sea, in contrast, the ‘Taiwanese foundries churning out logic chips are humming away. TSMC’s August sales soared by 59% year on year, to a monthly record of $7bn or so. As a result, the company looks likely to go from a relatively distant third in the ranking of global semiconductor sales to number one, dislodging Samsung from the top spot and overtaking Intel, America’s chip champion, at one fell swoop. The share prices of most chipmakers worldwide are down since their peaks in the pandemic, which boosted demand for all sorts of digital devices by stranding shoppers, workers and funseekers on their sofas, Now Samsung’s market capitalization looks as though that eovid-19 surge never happened, That of its closest rival in memory chips, SK Hynix, also of South Korea, is likewise back below its pre-pandemic level. TSMC’s market value, by contrast, remains comfortably higher, this year’s slide notwithstanding, One reason for TSMC’s outperfarmance is that the semiconductor shortages of the past two years have been concentrated in logic processors rather than in memory silicon, That backlog; combined with TSMC’s commanding position in the market for cutting edge logic chips, allows it to control capacity and set prices for its products. The South Korean firms’ wares are too commoditised and their market too fragmented to enable them to do the same, They have been pouring money into expanding their logic businesses but as the cycle turned in the first half of this year it sealed back its capital spending plans, ‘The boom and bust in memory chips is a relatively predictable phenomenon: demand rises, pushing up prices: chipmakers respond by investing in capacity; new production lines arrive a year or two later, just as demand cools; prices crash and chipmakers rein in investments. So far logic chips have avoided as deep a slump as memory thanks in part to the acuteness of the shortages over the past couple of years. Still over time the logic downturn “may go on longer and'be deeper than expected; we may well see’a sort of second leg crashing the prices QI06. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage regarding the geographical divide in the chip market. a) The south Korean chip manufacturing champion tops the ranking of global semiconductor sales pre~ pandemic b) South korea is the world’s largest producer of memory chips ©) The pandemic has narrowed the geographical divide between world’s silicon giants as Taiwan’s logic chips sale soar and covers the gap 4) The market capitalization of Samsung is similar to pre pandemic level as demand for memory chips become frostier.Q107. What is the central idea of the passage a) Chip market is geographically divided and acts as two different markets. b) The pandemic has widened the gap between logic and memory chip producers, with the top logic chip producer growing due to internal and external factors. ©) The boom and bust in the chip market as a whole is a predictable phenomenon which led to investment going in vain. 4) Computer chips could be both singular and identical depending on who the consumer is. Q108. What were the reason for high chip demand during pandemi a) Rise in the demand of electronic items due to technological advancement b) Commoditised nature of chip market along with the commanding position of major producers to control quantity ©) Boosted demand of all sort of digital devices by stranded shoppers, workers and funseekers at home Jed to the rise in chip demand 4) Work from home and the additional requirement of electronic devices to Stay connected during pandemic . Which of the following factors does not distinguish the two geographical markets of chip. semiconductor shortages of the past two years have been concentrated in one of the markets. Commoditised and fragmented nature of one market does not enable it to control the quantity and set the price for its product. ‘The boom and the bust is a relatively predictable phenomenon in one market while not in another, The geographical location of one market over another is an advantageous factor responsible for the growth. ), Suggest a suitable title for the above passage amongst the given titles Uneven hurting: memory chip suffers more post pandemic chip on one's shoulder: unfair treatment of memory chip Boom and bust of the chip market investors dilemma: investing behavior in chip market Given the plethora of fantasy books available, starting to read one can seem rather daunting. Epic fantasy, high fantasy, low fantasy, urban fantasy, historical fantasy, and magical realism are just a few of the many subgenres that make up the enormously diverse fantasy genre. In this weekly series, A Thousand Lives will offer concise lists of fantasy book recommendations based on authors, subgenres, and specific elements found in fantasy stories. Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone comes firstOkay, T guess it's not a surprise to you that this series made the list. JK Rowling's tale, characters, and Wizarding World have enchanted readers ever since the first novel, Harry Potter and the Sorcerer's Stone, was released in 1997. Harry Potter, a shy, slender youngster with a scar in the form of a lightning bolt on his forehead, has a miserable, monotonous life with his vindictive and cruel aunt, uncle, and cousin. But on his eleventh birthday, a giant appears to Harry and informs him that Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry has accepted him as a wizard, Never again will Harry's life be the same. Harry will have to contend with forces who want to see him destroyed throughout the next years, All of them were sent by Lord Voldemort, the evil wizard who unsuccessfully attempted to kill Harry as a newborn, Harry must battle the Dark Lord year afier year to safeguard everyone who refuses to stand by Voldemort, along with his best friends Ron and Hermione and a group of other strong wizards and witches. You'll want to keep reading these stories over'and over again: There is nothing else like The Wizarding World that you will ever read. You'll be right there by Harry's side wherever he goes, studying magic at Hogwarts, playing Quidditch, battling evil forces, and discovering this magical world. Harty Potter's magic is intriguing, and never-ending. Almost every aspect of fantasy you might imagine can be found in one of these tales. You won't get tired of reading this series because the core idea of the novel has several facets and supporting stories. Having said that, these books are incredibly simple to read and understand, The Harry Potter stories, which combine magical realism with fantasy literatures will enthrall you and make you start looking for magic in regular situations. ‘The Hobbit is the second When a haphazard number of dwarves arrive at Bilbo Baggins! front door and help themselves to his delectable offerings, he is not at all happy. Suddenly, he finds himself taking part in a mission to recover riches that Smaug, a crafty and evil dragon, has taken from the dwarves. Bilbo and his companions encounter a variety of creatures on their adventure around Middle Earth and wind up going to areas they never imagined they'd go. Destiny eventually takes Bilbo to the Misty Mountains, where a mysterious, potent ring and a peculiar creature named Gollum are hidden under the gorgeous landscape Before starting The Lord of the Rings trilogy, this book is the ideal method to get acquainted with Tolkien's lovely and evocative style. The first chapter is where the action starts and doesn't stop until the very finish. You'll quickly become engrossed in the Middle Earth universe and get to know Bilbo, Gandalf, Thorin, and all the other characters that set out on this amazing voyage. Afier reading The Hobbit, you'll understand Tolkien's brilliance and why he's regarded as one of the finest fantasy authors of the 20th century, if not the best. QUILL. What is the main point of this passage? a) The paragraph offers some suggestions for readers new to fantasy. b) The paragraph argues that The Hobbit and Harry Potter are the best fantasy books. ¢) The text compares Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone to The Hobbit to determine which book is superior. d) The chapter demonstrates how there are many different subgenres within the fantasy reading genre. . Which of the following weakens the claim made by the author in the bold-faced statement? ‘There are numerous fantasy novels that are far superior to the Lord of the Rings trilogy. Before realizing that The Hobbit is the prequel, the majority of people read The Lord of the Rings trilogy. In terms of action scenes and fantasy recreation, The Hobbit falls short of The Lord of the Rings trilogy. 41Some readers later decide against reading the trilogy since they did not enjoy The Lord of the Rings as much as they did The Hobbit. What can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage? After reading The Hobbit and The Lord of the Rings series, Tolkien's brilliance is generally acknowledged, ‘Tolkien has only written The Lord of the Rings sufficiently enough to merit praise for his genius. One book to read to appreciate Tolkien's genius is The Lord of the Rings. All of Tolkien's writings are recognized for their genius. QI14, What is the assumption behind the statemeiit “The Harry Potter stories, which combine magical realism with fantasy literature, will enthrall you and make you start looking for magic in regular situations Only the Harry Potter stories can leave one feeling spellbound. and cause them to look for magic in their lives There is currently no magic in anyone's life It is desirable to find magic in one’s everyday life Magic realism is’ commonly found style of writing. QIL5. Which of the following would support the authors claim “You'll want to keep reading these stories over and over again.”? a) Magic is a well-liked reading genre where quality writing is harder to come by. b) Magic stories are a popular genre among youngsters and are frequently created for them. ©). Given the option, serious readers don't favour fantasy. d) Harry Potter and the Wizarding World is a collection of novels that are written in a coming-of-age style No matter how we feel about them, digital devices are everywhere around us. Some ofjus find it difficult to put them down, even when we are with loved ones and close friends. These gadgets can improve education and foster a sense of community, but they can also obstruct everything from creativity to sleep. Michael Rich, a pediatrician, iS interested in learning ways to assist parents and kids in controlling their online behavior in this constantly evolving digital environment. Rich, director of the Center for Media and Child Health at Boston Children's Hospital, explains that what matters most is how we use screens and what happens to our brains’as a result. Digital media consumption actively contributes to the growing human brain's ongoing process of creating new neural connections while removing inactive ones, according to Rich. According to him, a lot of what occurs on screen offers "impoverished" stimulation of the developing brain as compared to reality. Children require access to a variety of online and offline activities, as well as the freedom to let their thoughts roam. He claims that boredom is the environment where imagination and creativity flourish. ‘The HMS team has demonstrated that utilising blue light-emitting screens like smartphones before bed can interfere with sleep cycles by reducing the release of the hormone melatonin, Sleep is also essential for brain development. Many teenagers who stay up late texting receive less sleep overall and don't get enough deep REM sleep, which is necessary for processing and storing information from that day in memory.Therefore, Rich explains, "they might not remember what happened in class yesterday, even if they stay awake in algebra class.” Young individuals who engage in excessive gaming, social media use, and other online activities that negatively impact their health and day-to-day lives at home and at school are treated at the Center's Clinic for Interactive Media and Internet Disorders, Rich advises using screens in moderation. “We must be adaptable enough to advance with technology while making wise usage decisions. Fire was a wonderful invention for cooking our food, but we had to realize it could also be dangerous and deadly "He claims. "Because children are staring at smartphones, we don't want to experience a moral crisis. What is happening to them in terms of their cognitive, social; and emotional development while they are glued to their smartphone, is a question we need to be addressing. Like most things, thete will likely be a mix of good and bad. How can we improve the good and lessen the bad as we move forward, eyes wide open” QII6. Refer to the Bold-faced statement. Which of the following has been implied through it? a) Young minds benefit from distractions. b) Children benefit more from technology than adults do. ) A child's development can be aided by giving them access to technology. d) The developing mind benefits from a range of exposure. QII7. Which of the following is an assumption the author makes while forming his opinion on the use of technology? a) Things that are inevitable should not be questioned. b) It's important to try to prevent the inevitable. ©) There is no substitute for the use of technology. d) When technology rises, it will bring with it some challenges. QI18. Rich, whose viewpoint is full of uncertainties, is quoted by the author to close out the section. Which of the following would provide the most useful information? We must acknowledge that kids will keep staring at their devices. We must make sure kids receive different forms of mental development. Using technology does not really raise any moral concerns. We Must overcome these restraints. ‘Technology has two sides to it. We must-refrain from using it. Our reliance on technology won't go away. We simply need to establish some secure boundaries for managing the side effects. QU19. The analogy of fire used in the penultimate line is crucial in the section because: It validates the author’s core argument, which is that ground-breaking inventions might come with difficulties that must be overcome. It dispels the widespread belief that new technologies must be shunned in order to maintain the use of the current resources, It corroborates the author's claim that each new innovation in the past was accompanied by a unique set of difficulties. Ttemphasizes the value of welcoming new developments without prejudice or bias.Q120. Refer to the following statements which talk about factors influencing the development of the human brain. Select the appropriate code: (i) Adequate sleep and rest (ii) Excessive online experiences (ii) Exposure to real life stimulations (iv) Remaining awake for their lessons a) None of the above ) (ii), (iii) and (iv) ©) (i) and Gi) 4d) Allof the above Metropolitan areas are often associated with horrendous traffic. The all-too-common causes of the nightmare include the prioritizing of private vehicles over mass transit networks as well as shrinking road space brought on by encroachment. An illustration would be Calcutta. The city's increasing car density, which is a commuter's nightmare, was recently brought to light in a news piece. According to data, there are an astounding 432 automobiles travelling each kilometer of the city’s roads. This is unsettling. While Calcutta has fared better than Mumbai, the city with the highest vehicle density in the nation, which is roughly 600 vehicles per square mile, its position is still worse than that of other major cities. There are other difficulties as well. With only roughly 1,850 kilometres of roadways, Calcutta has far fewer than Delhi, Mumbai, and Bangalore. The increase in private transportation makes things worse. Due to worries about sharing forms of transportation, Calcutta saw a sharp increase in the sales of cars and two- wheelers, especially during the epidemic. The city currently has an 8 lakh vehicle fleet, and more than 78,000 cars have been added to it in the last two years. Unfortunately, the increase in private automobiles has not coincided with a corresponding expansion of available road space, which is the main contributor to traffic jams. The situation has gotten worse due to haphazard attempts to deal with encroachment and elevated sections intended mostly for smaller vehicles. ‘The consequent vehicle congestion has two negative effects. First, there is a significant loss of manpower, which has a negative impact on economic production. According to a 2016 research by Calcutta University, traffic congestion cost roughly Rs 3 crore in total. Other victims of this spectre include the environment and public health. Multiple fronts must be considered when planning interventions. A fleet of more modern, environmentally friendly automobiles should replace the older, polluting ones. Additionally, steps must be done to lessen encroachment and parking on highways. To lessen the number of cars on the road at any given time, commuters should be encouraged to use public transportation. Many cities are experimenting with different strategies to lessen the impact of automotive traffic. In this setting, the city fathers must be informed of national and international advances in urban planning. QI21. What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author? a) In comparison to Caleutta, the traffic is better managed in Delhi, Mumbai, and Bangalore. b) The serious traffic congestion issue in Calcutta needs to be fixed as soon as possible.