NURSING PRACTICE -1

The Philippine government shows its serious effort to combat poverty through the continuing expansion of the
4Ps, the Philippines’ version of the conditional cash transfer (CCT) program modeled by Latin American
countries. The 4Ps by far is the most comprehensive and also, controversial poverty reduction program of the
Philippine government because of the huge amount of money the government is spending for this.

1. The 4P’s is more than a welfare program; it addresses structural inequities in society and promotes
human capital development of the poor, thus, breaking the intergenerational cycle of poverty. What
is the meaning of 4 P's?
a. Programa ng mga Pilipino Para Sa Pilipinas
b. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
c. Programang Pangkalusugang Para sa Pamayanan
d. Pangkabuhayan Program Para sa Pilipino

2. The poorest households in the municipalities are selected through a proxy-means test.. Who
conducts the selection process?
a. BHW b. Public health Nurse c. DOH d. DSWD

3. The 4Ps helps the Philippine government fulfill its commitment to the Millennium Development
Goals (MDGs). 4Ps provides conditional cash grants to beneficiaries to which of the following?
1. health and nutrition grant: P500 per household every month, or a total of P6,000 every year
2. education grant: P300 per child every month for ten months, or a total of P3,000 every year a for a
maximum of three children for the program
3. education grant: P500 per child every month for ten months, or a total of P3,000 every year a for
a maximum of four children for the program
4. For a household with three children, a household may receive P1,400 every month, or a total of
P15,000 every year for five years
5. P1,400/month during the school year or P15,000 monthly as long as they comply with the conditional
ties

a. 1-3-5 b. 1-2-4 c. 1-3-4 d. 2-34

4. What conditions need to be com-plied with to remain in the program?

1. Pregnant women must avail of pre- and post-natal care and be attended during childbirth by a
trained health professional
2. Parents must attend family development sessions
3. O-5 year old children must receive regular preventive health check-ups and vaccines
4. 3-5 year old children must attend day care or pre-school classes at least 95% of the time.
5. 6-14 year old children must enroll in elementary or high school and must attend at least 85% of the time.
6. 6-14 year’s old children must receive deworming pills twice a year

a. 1-2-3-4-5-6 b. 1-3-4-5 c. 1-2-3--5 c. 1-2-3-5-6

5. How do beneficiaries get their money?

a. The cash grants shall be received by the most responsible person in the household, usually the
mother through a Land bank cash card.
 b. The cash grants shall be received through over-the-counter transactions from the nearest
remittance centers
c. The cash grants shall be received by the most responsible person in the household, usually the
Father through a Land bank cash card.
d. The cash grants shall be received by the most responsible person in the household, through DSWD

6. The 4Ps has a purpose as the flagship poverty alleviation program. What is the purpose of 4 P’s?
1. Social assistance
2. Giving monetary support to extremely poor families
3. Social development
4. Breaking the intergenerational poverty cycle
5. investing in the health and education of poor children
6. Giving free housing to extremely poor families

a. 1-2-3-4-5-6 b. 1-2-3-4 c. 1-3-6 d. 1-2-3-4-5

7. How long will the beneficiaries receive cash grants?

a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 3 years with renewal d. 12 years.

8. In general, the following criteria must be satisfied to become eligible for the program:
1. Residents of the poorest municipalities, based on 2003 Small Area Estimates (SAE) of
the National Statistical Coordination Board (NSCB)
2. Households whose economic condition is equal to or below the provincial poverty threshold
3. Households that have children 0-18 years old and/or have a pregnant woman at the time
of assessment
4. Households that agree to meet conditions specified in the

program a. 2-3-4 b. 1-2-3-4 c. 1-3-4 d. 1-3 only

The WHO defines epidemiology as the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or
events (including disease), and the application of this study to the control of diseases and other health
problems. Various methods can be used to carry out epidemiological investigations: surveillance and
descriptive studies can be used to study distribution; analytical studies are used to study determinants.

9. An individual is established as HIV positive after:

a. 1 positive and 2 positive Western blot
b. a positive ELISA and 1 positive Western blot
c. 2 positive ELISA and 1 negative Western blot
d. 2 positive ELISA and 1 positive Western blot

10. A patient who arrives at the clinic with a report of fever, nonproductive cough, and fatigue. To
determine the presence of HIV infection in the body the confirmatory test is ?
a. ELISA b.Western Blot c.CD4 count test d.Wassermans test
11. Epidemiology studies have shown that the ff. cluster of the body fluids can transmit the
highest percentage efficiency of the AIDS virus:
a. blood, semen, urine c. semen, saliva, tears
b. semen, vaginal secretion, breast milk d. blood, semen vaginal secretion

Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a severe lung infection posing a global threat to human health.
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus (Middle East
respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that was first identified in Saudi
Arabia. Coronaviruses are a large family of viruses that can cause diseases in humans, ranging from the
common cold to Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS).

12. Mers corona virus is believed to be transmitted by

a. Bat
b. Camels
c. Monkey
d. Deers

13. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV) is a viral respiratory illness caused by
a coronavirus that has not been found in people before. The first cases were reported on
a. April 2014 B. April 2012 C. April 2014 D. September 2012

14. Infection prevention and control measures are critical to prevent the possible spread of MERS-CoV in
health care facilities.A patient suffering from MERS cov must be placed into a?
A: Respiratory isolation in negative room pressure B:
room of a patient suffering with with same condition C:
Normal isolation room
D: Room That always closed the door

15. In 2015, the largest outbreak of Middle East respiratory syndrome ... infection outside the Middle
East occurred in
a. Republic of South Korea b. Republic of the Philippines c. Republic of North Korea d.
China
16. 16.

17. Who is high risk to acquire MERS cov infection?

a. PTB patient
b. Patient with Pneumonia
c. Patient with Cancer
d. man working in farm milk and cheese factory

Rationale : Until more is understood about MERS-CoV, people with diabetes, renal failure, chronic lung
disease, and immunocompromised persons are considered to be at high risk of severe disease from MERS‐CoV
infection. Therefore, these people should avoid close contact with animals, particularly camels, when visiting
farms, markets, or barn areas where the virus is known to be potentially circulating. General hygiene measures,
such as regular hand washing before and after touching animals and avoiding contact with sick animals, should
be adhered to.

18. Cohort study is to risk ratio as:

A. Hippocrates is to scrotal cancer.
B. Genetics is to environment.
C. Case-control study is to odds ratio.
D. Sir Percival Pott is to John Snow.

19. John Snow is

A. The father of Epidemiology
B. Established postulates for transmission of infectious disease
C. Argued that the environment was associated with diseases such as malaria
D. Was a London surgeon who identified an environmental cause of cancer

20. He identified the specific causative agents of tuberculosis infection?

 a. John Snow
b. Percival Pott
c. Robert Koch
d. Gerhard Armeur

21. John Snow is the epidemiology of an infectious disease that became a major threat to health during
the 1800s causing a severe outbreak of a certain disease occurred near Broad Street in the Soho
district of London, England.
a. Cholera b. malaria c. Pertussis d. TB

Ebola virus is one of the most deadly pathogens known to infect humans. The most recent Ebola epidemic that
began in late 2013 alerted the entire world to the gaps in infectious disease emergency preparedness and
response. The regional outbreak that progressed to a significant public health emergency of international concern
(PHEIC) in a matter of months killed 11,310 and infected more than 28,616 (WHO, 2016).
22. Ebola virus was first identified in 1976 and since then all outbreaks occurred in Africa. Ebola sources
can be the following ;select all that applies
1.chimpanzees
2.gorillas
3.fruit bats
4.monkeys
5.antelope
6.porcupines
a. 1, 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 4 only
d. 1,2,3,4,5,6

23. The most recent and largest outbreak of EBOLA as yet have been reported is from
a. Central Africa b. North America c. West Africa d. Asia

24. To prevent infection and transmission of Ebola, health workers or those caring for Ebola patients
at home have to
a. Wear protective clothing such as masks, gloves, gowns, and goggles
b. Use complete equipment sterilization and use disinfectants Isolate
c. Ebola patients from contact with unprotected persons
d. All of the above

25. Which animal is considered a natural Ebola virus host?

a. Deer b. monkey c. Fruit bat d. cow

26. Which symptom is common in the later stages of Ebola?

a. Diarrhea b. Muscle aches c. Sore throat d. Bleeding

27. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases of notifiable diseases. What
law mandates reporting of cases of notifiable diseases?
a. Act 3573 b. R.A. 3753 c. R.A. 1054 d. R.A. 1082
 28. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some
other countries inthe Western Pacific Region, “free” of which disease?
A.Pneumonic plague B.Poliomyelitis C.Small pox D.Anthrax

29. Cholera is caused by:

a. Heliobacter pylori
b. Heliobacter cholerae
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Vibrio pylori

30. Cholera is spread through:

a. polluted air
b. contaminated food and water
c. insect bites
d. helminthes

31. A way to prevent the spread of cholera is to:

a. take vitamin C
b. cover mouth while coughing
c. wash hands after using the restroom
d. use mosquito repellant

32. A major symptom of cholera is:

a. difficulty breathing
b. constipation
c. rice water diarrhea
d. skin rashes

A widespread pandemic with high mortality was known as the "Black Death" during the fourteenth century,
causing more than 50 million deaths in Europe. This is an infectious disease caused by the bacteria Yersinia
pestis.

33. What animal carried the Black Death and transferred it to humans?
a. Fleas b. Birds c. Dogs d. Rats

34. The Black Death was also known as

a. Malaria b. Smallpox c. Bubonic Plague d. Influenza

35. Which of the three forms of plagues was the rarest?

a. Bubonic b. Pneumonic c. Septicemic d. Small pox

36. What were the symptoms of the Black Death?

a. High fever, expectoration of the blood from the lungs
b. Nausea, fatigue, and dizziness
c. Nose bleeds, diarrhea, and migraines
d. Numbness, short term memory loss, hallucinations

37. What caused the Black death?

a. poor sanitation in crowded European cities.
 b. a highly contagious virus spread by human contact.
c. rats that carried the disease through crowded cities.
d. fleas on rats that carried the deadly bacteria through trade routes.

38. Black death is especially contagious and can trigger severe epidemics through
a. air droplets b. airborne c.foodborne d. bloodborne

39. Pelvic inflammatory disease can produce acute symptoms and result in infertility, ectopic pregnancy,
and chronic pelvic pain. It includes inflammation of the fallopian tubes, ovaries and the pelvis which
is also secondary brought by another type of infection like?
A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. HIV D. Syphilis

40. The most common STD in the country is?

a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. HPV d. Syphilis

The World Health Organization (WHO) used the term "Alternative Medicine" to describe a wide range of
health care practices that are not part of the country's own tradition and are not integrated into the local health
system.

41. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for parasites as antihelminthic is:
a. Akapulko b. Sambong c. Tsaang gubat d. Niyog niyogan

42. The interval of deworming of antihelminthic drugs for uderfive children is;
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. one year d. none of the above

43. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medicinal herb
is given for colds?
A.Sambong B.Tsaang gubat C.Akapulko D.Lagundi

44. Garlic and its preparations have been widely recognized as agents for prevention and treatment of
cardiovascular diseases. The wealth of scientific literature supports the proposal that garlic consumption
have significant effects on lowering blood pressure. What we could counsel our patients about the use of
garlic?
a. Take it anytime
b. Take it as needed
c. Take it before meals
d. Take it after meals

45. It is effective used for mild non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus:

a. Bayabas c. bawang
b. Ampalaya d. ulasimang bato

46. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:
a. Akapulko b. Sambong c. yerba buena d. ulasimang bato

47. Sputum Specimens collected under the supervision of a DOTS facility staff if the nurse is assigned to
collect sputum specimen to a client for DSSM she must instruct the patient to expectorate and collect
at least how many ml of sputum
a. 2-3 ml b. 3-5 ml c. 5-7 ml d. 5-10 ml
 48. The basis for the improvement in strategies in maternal and neonatal care is on
Millennium Development Goals, which are
a. MDGs 1 & 2 b. MDGs 2 & 4 c. MDGs 3 & 5 d. MDGs 4 & 5

49. In Public health nursing who is the primary focus of care?

a. family
b. community
c. individual
d. groups and special populations

50. Which of the following nurse leaders formulated the first theory-based conceptual model for
nursing care?
a. Nancy Milio b. Lillian Wald c. Florence Nightingale d. Dorothea Orem

51. What SDG focuses access to safe water and sanitation and sound management of freshwater ecosystems
are essential to human health and to environmental sustainability and economic prosperity.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1

52. What is the color of the bag where the nurse should place radioactive wastes?
a. Yellow b. green c. black d. orange

53. Which of the following represents the three Rs?

a. Reduce - Rearrange - Recycle
b. Reduce - Reuse - Recycle
c. Reduce - Respect – Recycle
d. Reduce - Reconsider - Respect

54. Which of the following items cannot be recycled?

a. Empty vials b. empty IV bottles c. kitchen meals d. market plastic

55. In hospital waste management, color red is intended for:

a. Toxic waste c. Non- infectious waste/wet
b. Infectious waste d. Non- infectious waste/dry

Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and
selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the
process on how this information became processed and consolidated.

56. What is the fundamental building block or foundation of the field health service information system?
A. Target Client list
B. Family Treatment record
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

57. Three mothers died of postpartum hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony. This should be recorded in
a. FHSIS Form E2 c. HBMR
b. FHSIS E3 d. Municipality Form 102
 58. The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in
public health care in the Philippines. The Monthly Field Health Service Activity Report is a form used
in which of the components of the FHSIS?
a. Tally report. c. Target/client list
b. Output report. d. Individual health record

The new Sustainable Development Agenda ‘Transforming Our World: the agenda for sustainable development’
was adopted by the UN General Assembly in September 2015. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
reflect a significant change in thinking about how to accelerate sustained improvements in development – in
general and in health more specifically

59. The world’s population is constantly increasing. To accommodate everyone, we need to build
modern, sustainable cities. For all of us to survive and prosper, we need new, intelligent urban
planning that creates safe, affordable and resilient cities with green and culturally inspiring living
conditions. This Goal focuses to make cities and communities sustainable.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1

60. The disease focus of SDG’s

a. Cholera b. Tb c. pertussis d. malaria

61. In health, it puts a strong focus on Universal Health Coverage: ‘To promote physical and mental health
and well-being, and to extend life expectancy for all, Health in the Sustainable Development Goals we
must achieve universal health coverage and access to quality health care. Health is also framed as a
contributor to, and beneficiary of, progress in many other SDGs. What SDG number is health
centered?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1

62. What year is the target for SDG’s

a. 2020 b. 2025 c. 2030 d. 2040

63. In what way do the SDGs differ from the MDGs?

1. The SDGs are definitely more ambitious. An example: they want to eliminate poverty instead
of halving it. Moreover they strongly highlight sustainability: we must ensur e a healthy
planet for future generations.
2. The SDGs, conversely, mainly served as a guideline for the (poor) South, supported by the
(rich) North by means of debt reduction, trade and aid. However, the classical North-South
relationship is no longer valid today. ‘We are all in this together
3. Precisely because these challenges concern the whole world, the sustainable development
goals does not apply to all countries and all individuals unlike MDG which apply to all
countries and all individuals
4. Compared to the MDGs, the SDG’s are much broader. They also include human
rights, peace and security, respect for the rule of law and good governance.
a. 1 -2-3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

64. Among which of the following is a Health centered SDG

a. 3 b. 6 c. 1 d. 10

65. Treatment of leptospirosis is symptomatic but this drug is prescribed at 200 mg orally once a week
for prevention. What is the drug of choice?
A. Doxycycline b. Chloramphenicol c. Gentamycin d. amoxicillin
 66. What are the vaccines administered with 3 doses
a. BCG 3. OPV 5. Measles
b. DPT 4. Hep B. 6. MMR
a. 1-3-4 b. 2-3-4 c. 3-4-6 d. 2-4-6

Aromatherapy is a Integrative and Complementary Practices (ICP) which uses volatile concentrates extracted
from plants, called Essential Oils (EO), which are natural chemical compounds, complex and highly volatile
characterized by a strong aroma and produced as secondary metabolites of aromatic plants

67. Aromatherapy can be defined as the intentional use of Essential Oils (EO) to promote or improve
health, well-being and hygiene. It is the aroma therapy used for cough and colds
a. lemon grass b. eucalyptus c. lavender d. ginger

68. An incident which helped spark the rediscovery of essential oils involved an accident in which
chemically burned hands were plunged into a bucket of liquid. The liquid was not water, but an
essential oil that is extremely popular for treating burns. What oil is this?
a. Peppermint b. Lavender c. Lemon d. Oregano

Rationale: These burned hands belonged to the "Father of Aromatherapy", Rene-Maurice Gattefosse. Gattefosse
sustained severe burns in a chemical fire and decided to test out the reputed pain-relieving properties of
lavender oil on his burns. To his surprise and delight, Gattefosse found that the lavender oil not only relieved
the pain but also aided the scar less and infection less healing of his wounds!

69. What is the tool used for survey?

a. Questionnaires b. checklist observation d. records

70. What is the symbol used to represent the independent variable of research?
a. Y B. N C. X D. Z

71. Greenhouse gases from human activities are the most significant driver of observed climate
change. Which gas is not produced by greenhouse?
A.Oxygen b. Water vapor c. Methane d. Carbon dioxide

72. Greenhouse effect refers to

A) ability of atmosphere to retain water vapor
B ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the planet relatively warm
C) ability of cloud to scatter electromagnetic radiation
D) none of the above

73. PhilHealth and beneficiaries have access to a comprehensive package of services. How can a
Philhealth member avail his philhealth upon discharge.
A. The doctors PF is free.
B. Discount from the total bill plus the doctors Pf.
C. Discount from the total bill w/o the doctors PF
D. Reimbursement of the paid total bill upon discharge

74. The annual contribution for Philhealth is

a. 600.00 b. 1200.000 c. 2400.00 d. 4000.00
 75. To use PhilHealth benefits how can you claim from PhilHealth?
1. the PhilHealth ID must be valid for the current year
2. the patient must be a member or a dependent of the member
3. the patient must use a PhilHealth-accredited rural health unit, clinic or hospital 15 for
hospital admissions
4. the period of confinement must be for at least 12 hours
5. the maximum number of days per confinement is a total of 45 days for the member and a total of
45 days to be shared among all dependents
a. 1-2-3-4 b. 1-2-4-5 c. 1-2-3-5 d. 1-2-3-4-5

76. Philhealth recently made changes in the implementation of its outpatient benefit package (OPB).What
are the out-patient Philhealth coverage?
A. Vasectomy
B. Appendectomy
C. Cataract surgery
D. TB-DOTS
E. Hysterectomy
a. C and E b. A-C-D c. A and D d. A-B-C

A home visit is considered as the backbone of community health service. A home visit is a family –nurse contact
which allows the health worker to assess the home and family situation in order to provide the
necessary nursing care and health-related activities.

77. What is the first step in home visit?

a. Assess the environment
b. Perform the bag technique
c. Record all data
d. Greet the client and introduce self

78. The Guidelines to consider regarding the frequency of home visit should be considered, which is
not included?
A. Consider the acceptance of the family for the services rendered.
B. Careful evaluation of past services given
C. The ability of the patient and family to recognize their own needs
 D. Ability of the nurse to provide their socio economic needs

79. Who is the unit of care in CHN?

a. Individual b. Family c. Population group d. Community

80. The public health bag contains all necessary articles to render care in the community. Only
necessary articles and equipment’s should be contained inside the PHN bag. Which of the following
must be remove by the nurse inside the bag
A. Hypodermic needle 0.5”
B. Bandage scissors
C. Cord clamp
D. Paper lining

81. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is
an early sign of leprosy?
A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nose bridge

82. What is the most dangerous and fatal part of the body affected by the rabies?
A. Head
B. hands
C. leg
D. Foot

83. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her
roles?
A.Health care provider
B.Health educator
C.Health care coordinator
D. Environmental manager

The family, being the foundation of the nation, is a basic social institution which public policy cherishes and
protects. Consequently, family relations are governed by law and no custom, practice or agreement
destructive of the family shall be recognized or given effect. The Collins family includes a mother, Jean;
Stepfather, Adam; two teenage biological daughters of the mother, Lisa and Laura; and a biological daughter
of the father, 25-year-old Stacey. Stacey just moved home following the loss of her job in
another city. The family is converting a study into Stacey's bedroom and is in the process of distributing
household chores.

84. When you talk to members of the family, they all feel that their family can adjust to lifestyle
changes. This is an example of family:
a. Diversity b. Durability c. Resiliency d. Configuration

85. The Collins family, which includes a mother, Jean;Stepfather, Adam; two teenage biological daughters
of the mother, Lisa and Laura; and a biological daughter of the father, 25-year-old Stacey is an example
of an:
a. Nuclear Family
b. Blended Family
c. Extended Family
d. Alternative Family

86. What is the role of the Father in the family?

a. Bus driver b. Care taker c. housekeeper d. nurturant

87. The man who has the role of father, husband, professional businessman, son, and community leader
may experience:
a. role confusion.
b. isolation.
c. internal role conflict.
d. diminished self-esteem.

88. A young couple is deciding if they should get married and start a family. Which of Erikson's life stages
are they experiencing?
a. Ego integrity vs. despair
b. Intimacy vs. isolation
c. Identity vs. role confusion
d. Generativity vs. stagnation

89. A nurse is assessing a community from both a developmental and risk perspective. Which of
the following characteristics would be of most interest to the nurse?
a. Race b. Age c. Gender d. Socioeconomic level

90. A nurse is using a genogram to represent a family. Which of the following statements is accurate?
a. A genogram can be used to make connections about family health patterns.
b. A genogram identifies the genetic disorders of the family.
c. A genogram includes information about the past two generations.
d. A genogram begins with a circle in the center of the page.

91. A Bowen therapist working with an individual family member in treatment is most likely to do which
of the following?
a. create a therapeutic triangle
b. use displacement stories
c. model how to take an "I" position
d. work with a genogram
A. C and D b. A,B and C c. B, C and D d. A and B
 92. Which individual typically would be responsible for collecting the subjective data on a client during
the initial comprehensive assessment?
a. Physician b. Nurse c. Secretary d. Technician

93. A nurse is creating a genogram of a client’s family health history. The nurse should
use which of the following symbols to denote the client’s female relatives?
a. Circle b. Square c. Triangle d. Rectangle

94. The role of community health nurse should

include 1- Patient centered care
2- Focuses on wellness
3- Monitors the quality of services
4- Provide physical care
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 2,3,4

95. Function of community health nurse is effective when

1- Measuring and monitoring the health status of the community
2- Determining present and future decisions affecting the public
health 3-Establishing policies into services
4-Neglect rules of public health in services
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c.1,3,4 d. 2,3,4

96. The essential elements of PHC are:

1- Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries
2- Appropriate technology that the people can use and
afford 3-Adequate, safe water supply and basic sanitation
4-Provision of essential basic household drugs
a) 1,2,3 b 1,2, 4 c. 1,3,4 d 2,3,4

97. The primary health care principles include:

1- Community participation.
2- Appropriate technology
3- Accessibility
4- Acceptability
a. 1,2,3 b. 2, 3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,4

98. The role of community health nurse in secondary prevention include:

1- Provide health education for individuals to promote their health
2- Provide health education for individuals based on their
diagnosis 3- Help patients to participate in their care
4- Participate with the health team in providing care
a. 1,2,3 b. 1, 3,4 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,2,4

99. The nurse is assessing a client who is suffering from diarrhea, fever, headache, abdominal pain, and
nausea. The client reports having eaten home-canned tomatoes. What foodborne illness should the
nurse suspect?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Cyclospora cayetanensis
d. Listeria monocytogenes
100. What is the route of transmission of Hepatitis C infection?
a. Foodborne b. vectorborne c. bloodborne d. waterborne