LET General Education Test 1 NEW EDITED

Instructions: Read and answer each item carefully. Shade the letter of your choice on your answer sheet.
1. The words “inadequate, disembark, uneducated, and illegitimate” have prefixes that are:
A. Positive B. Common C. Negative D. Neutral
Ans. C= The bound morphemes “in”, “dis”, “un”, and “il” connote negative meanings – for example when we say
inadequate, we mean that it is not adequate
2. Which does not belong?
A. Assumption B. Summary C. Synthesis C. Generalization
Ans. A = All other options given connote “wrapping up” a particular text, while doing an “assumption” means that we
are trying to hypothesize
3. Complete the statement: “Blessed are_______poor for_______shall be welcomed in heaven.”
A. the – you B. the – they C. you – they D. they – they
Ans. B= The article “the” would connote that we are pertaining to “all” poor people, and because of that, the pronoun
to be used must also be plural in form
4. To make a fantastic group work, each member must put his/her finger in the pie. The underlined phrase means:
A. bake a pie C. join a group
B. taste a pie D. participate in a group
Ans. D= The underlined group of words is an idiom and so one must take it literally. “Putting a finger in a pie” means
“to actively participate in a group endeavour”
5. Your mother isn’t supporting you,_________?
A. isn’t she B. is she C. aren’t she D. is he
Ans. B= This item concerns “tag questions”. The rule in using tag questions is that when the first statement is negative,
the next statement must be positive and vice versa
6. The suspect was spared because all he said were all white lies. The underline phrase means: Lies that are_________.
A. harmless C. typewritten
B. illogical D. public
Ans. A= Using our context clues abilities and the archetypes of colors, we can easily state that the answer is letter A.
“White” symbolizes purity, and if we are to connect it with the word “lie” we can by all means say that “white lies” are
lies without any intention to hurt other people
7. Your essay received a low mark. Did your mentor suggest__________a new one?
A. you will make B. writing C. to write D. revise
Ans. B= At first one might think that the answer is C “to write”, but upon examining deeply, we would have to consider
B “writing” as another possible answer. “To write” and “writing” are nominals (infinitive and gerund). Nominals are
verbs that function as nouns. Infinitives often times appear after an object of the sentence. It would be awkward to
say “Did your mentor ask you writing a new one?”, a better version of this sentence would be “Did your mentor ask
you to write a new one?”. In the given sentence, the object was not given, so the best answer is a gerund, letter B
8. A person with a positive outlook in life can________with depression.
A. cope up B. cope on C. cope in D. cope
Ans. D= D is the best answer since that “cope with” means “to adapt”, while “cope up with” means “to try to follow
one’s lead”
9. Is this the place________you left your bag?
A. why B. where C. wherein D. which
Ans. B= The answer is B “where” because we are pertaining to a place
10. The towels you gave me are___________for me to dry the table.
A. very dry B. very wet C. so wet D. too wet
Ans. D= This is because the phrase “so wet” must only be used if it is followed by a that clause – for example “The
towels you gave me are so wet that I cannot dry the tables anymore”.
11. Which of the following sounds like “shine”?
A. cry B. brine C. fry D. why
Ans. B = It’s the only word that ends with “ine”
12. The speaker approached the stage with his spiel. His were shaking and he was sweating tremendously. He
experienced:
A. heart attack B. nausea C. stage fright D. epilepsy
Ans. C= All other given options would not constitute to the given symptoms in the question. There are also some
context clues present such as “speaker”, “stage”, and “spiel”.
13. “He was like a snake in the night”, what figure of speech is present?
A. personification B. simile C. metaphor D. apostrophe
Ans. B= This is because the statement is comparing the snake to the night using the term “like”. Personification is
when we give humanly attributes to inanimate objects. Metaphor is direct comparison – comparing without the use of
“like” or “as”. Apostrophe is addressing someone who is absent or deceased, inanimate or abstract concepts.
14. The Rubaiyat has the theme:
A. Always looking forward to a new day C. Grasping pleasure while you can
B. Never giving in to death easily D. Creating your own world and beautify it
Ans. C= The Rubaiyat is written by Omar Khayyam and translated into English by Edward Fitzgerald. It adheres to the
carpe diem movement that states that we should eat now drink and be merry for tomorrow you’ll die (Seize the day).
15. “He maketh me to lie down in green pastures; he leadeth me beside the still waters…” This line is taken from
“Psalm of David”. Among the statements below, which is nearest to the meaning of the given statement?
A. God will give him riches and pity.
B. God will be known in the face of the Earth.
C. The persona will always follow orders from his Master.
D. God will provide the persona peace and prosperity.
Ans. D= Using the keywords “Green Pastures” which means prosperity and “still waters” which connotes peace, we
can clearly state that the answer is D
16. What is “true learning” as exemplified in this quotation: “Only one who bursts with eagerness do I instruct. Only
one who bubbles with excitement do I enlighten.”
A. learning makes human beings a follower of instruction
B. learning involves patience and tenacity
C. learning has the ability to make a man
D. learning is coupled with commitment and passion
Ans. D= The quotation states that it is not enough for us to be eager in learning, but we must also treat it with
excitement and with much enthusiasm
17. In Kerima Polotan Tuvera’s short story “The Virgin”, why did Mrs. Mijares fail to find a man to marry?
A. because she’s perfectionist
B. because she took care of her sick mother
C. because she’s busy with her job
D. because she prioritized her studies
Ans. B= In the story , the mother of the main character was sick for a very long time and so Ms. Mijares was obliged to
take care of her.
18. In Paz Latorena’s short story ”The Small Key”, what are inside the chest when the second wife , Soledad opened it
using the small key?
A. old clothes and other things owned by the first wife
B. skeletons of two children
C. land documents
D. a small clock and letters from his husband’s previous wife
Ans. A= In the story, Soledad, the main character, is very much intrigued by the small key that her husband never
failed to treasure. So when Pedro left the key accidentally, Soledad took the opportunity and opened the chest and
found the old things of the first wife. Because of her jealousy , she burnt all the things inside the chest
19. In Nick Joaquin’s short story “May Day Eve”, what is the technique used by the author in developing the plot?
A. Telescoping C. Flashback
B. Foreshadowing D. Stream of Consciousness
Ans. B= Foreshadowing is giving clues about what is going to happen at the end of the story. Telescoping is when the
author would narrate an event and then would fast forward to the next. Flashback is narrating past events, and
Stream of Consciousness is a technique that has no specific order.
20. In Loreto Paras Sulit’s short story “The Bolo”, what did the main character treasure the most?
A. The bolo that was given to her by her husband
B. their wedding rings
C. their house and lot
D. the sword that her husband brought from Barcelona, Spain
Ans. A= The main character in this story treasures the bolo that was given to her by her husband so much because it is
the symbol of the husband’s true love towards her.
21. After conducting a classroom discussion, which question shows concern?
A. Where did you miss me, at what point?
B. Everything was covered, wasn’t it?
C. Raise your hands for further explanation.
D. Did you get me right?
Ans. A= Option B is not the answer because it is a loaded question and at the same time a tag question – meaning,
there is already an underlying and expected answer. Option C is also not the answer despite it shows concern for it’s
not a question on the first place. Option D is not the answer because it does not show any concern.
22. The novel “Without Seeing the Dawn” is the first novel in what particular period?
A. Post War B. Pre War C. During War D. Martial Law
Ans. A= Stevan Javellana is one of the prolific writers – novelists, for that matter in the post war period.
23. Corruption in far provinces is reported in the radio and TV. I don’t agree with the report, so I say:
A. No, it is not true C. Yes, at times it is.
B. Yes, it is true D. Yes, most of the time.
Ans. A= Clearly, option A is the answer since that the rest of the options started with “Yes” which contradicts the
statement “I don’t agree with the report...”
24. After hearing the campaign commercial, a voter remarked, “I am used to the same tales.” This means:
A. This is very original C. There is a miscommunication
B. There is nothing new in the story D. This is new
Ans. B= The statement “I am used to the same tales” is a common idiomatic expression. But if ever this is the first
time you heard this statement, you may use the phrase “used to” as a context clue.
25. A victim refused revenge when he uttered:
A. Don’t take the law into your hands C. Justice is always delayed
B. An eye for an eye D. That’s murder
Ans. A= Options C and D seem off tangent to the question, so we will just limit our choice to options A and B which are
both common utterances in terms of revenge. Option B is not the answer because “An eye for an eye” connotes
revenge, but in this item, it was said that the victim refused revenge.
26. What’s the meaning of this statement: “History never cited a leaderless nation.”
A. Nations can survive without leaders C. leaders are always born.
B. A leader can fade away, but another will come up. D. Leaders are matched with historical events
Ans. D= Among the given options, A and C are the most unlikely, so we will just limit it to options B and D. Option B
talks about the never ending cycle of emerging leaders while option D mentioned things like “history”, “matched”, and
“leaders” – thus, making D the correct answer.
27. Traffic was heavy. Evan was afraid of not catching his flight so he_______with a taxi cab and jumped at the
door.
A. catch-up B. caught-up C. was catching D. has caught
Ans. B= This concerns consistency on tense. The answer is B “caught-up” because clearly, the sentence is in the past
tense and not in the past progressive (was catching) – because the action is not continuous action in the past, nor in
the present tense (catch-up) – because the other verbs in the statement are in the past tense, and definitely not in the
present perfect tense (has caught) - for the action is no longer happening in the present and at the same time it
ended not in the very recent past.
28. The Renaissance___________when scientific discoveries started.
A. cited B. flourished C. ended D. commenced
Ans. D= Only options B and D are possibly valid to be the correct answer. Between the two, if we think carefully, we
should consider the clause “when the scientific discoveries started”. We just have to remember that scientific
discoveries would have to be one of the reasons for the “rebirth” and without those discoveries, the Renaissance
would not take place. Having said this, the word “flourished” is no longer appropriate.
29. Venus is an exemplification of feminine pulchritude. Pulchritude means:
A. plain B. beauty C. ugliness D. homeliness
Ans. B= Venus is the most helpful clue here for she is the Roman “Goddess of Beauty”.
30. The leader accomplished a first-rate report. The report is:
A. excellent B. mediocre C. run-of-the-mill D. ordinary
Ans. A= “First-rate” has been an utterance expressing excellence. You can also use the process of elimination if this is
something new to you. Take note that options B. C, and D are in some ways related with each other, leaving option A
isolated. Therefore it’s safe to say that the best answer is option A.
31. Nakilala ang ating alpabeto noong panahon ng Kastila sa tawag na___________.
A. alibata B. ortograpiya C. abecedario D. calendaryo
Ans. C= Alibata ang sistema ng pagsulat ng mga ninunong Pilipino bago pa ang man dumating ang mga Kastila sa
Pilipinas. Abecedario ay batay sa Romanong alpabeto.
32. Ito ang katawagan sa makabuluhang tunog ng wika.
A. diskurso B. ponema C. morpema D. sintaksis
Ans. B= Ang ponema ay tumutukoy sa mga makahulugang tunog ng isang wika
33. Ang wika ay dinamiko dahil ito ay patuloy na ___________.
A. binabasa B. ginagamit C. nagbabago D. sinusulat
Ans. B= Ang wika ay kasangkapan sa komunikasyon at katulad pa ng ibang mga kasangkapan, kailangan patuloy itong
ginagamit
34. Ano ang tawag sa makabuluhang palitan ng mga pag-uusap at kung paano ginagamit ang mga pangungusap?
A. retorika B. diskurso C. balarila D. sintaksis
Ans. B= Kapag nagkaroon ng makahulugang palitan ng mga pangungusap ang dalawa o higit pang mga tao,
nagkakaroon na ng tinatawag na diskurso
35. Ang mga ponemang /p/, /b/ at /m/ ay binibigkas ng___________.
A. pangngipin B. panggilagid C. panlabi D. velar
Ans. C= Kapag binigkas ang mga titik na p, b, at m, ginagamit ang mga labi para magkaroon ng tunog
36. Ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang yunit ng isang salita ay tinatawag na__________.
A. morpolohiya B. ponolohiya C. balarila D. sintaksis
Ans. A= Tumutukoy ang morpolohiya sa makaagham na pag-aaral ng mga makabuluhang yunit ng isang salita o
morpema.
37. Ipinakikita nito ang ugnayan ng pandiwa sa simuno o paksa ng pangungusap.
A. kaganapan B. pokus C. inklitik D. panghalip
Ans. B= Ang pangungusap ay maaari ring masuri batay sa ugnayan ng pandiwa at paksa. Ito ay tinatawag na pokus.
Naipakikita ito sa pamamagitan ng taglay na panlapi ng pandiwa.
38. Ilan ang bilang ng ponolohiya ng wikang Filipino.
A. 21 B. 23 C. 15 D. 16
Ans. A= Ang ponolohiya ng Filipino ay may 21 ponema – 5 na patinig at 16 na katinig
39. Ito ay ang teorya ng wika na nagsasaad ng matinding damdamin.
A. yoheho B. bow – wow C. ding-dong D. pooh – pooh
Ans. D= Ang teoryang pooh-pooh ay nagsimula sa masisidhing damdamin gaya ng tuwa at takot
40. Ito ay ang barayti ng wikang nalilikha ng dimensyong heograpiko.
A. sosyolek B. dayalek C. idyolek D. jargon
Ans. B= Ang bawat pook ay may sariling dayalekto
41. Ayon sa Artikulo XIV, seksyon 6 ng Konstitusyon ng 1986, ang wikang pambansa ng Pilipinas ay__________.
A. Pilipino B. Filipino C. Ingles D. Filipino at Ingles
Ans. B= Ang isinasaad sa 1986 Konstitusyon na Filipino ang wikang pambansa na batay sa mga wikain sa Pilipinas
42. Siya ang tinaguriang “Ama ng Wikang Filipino”.
A. Jose L. Manuel B. Lope K. Santos C. Jaime C. de Veyra D. Manuel L. Quezon
Ans. D= Si Manuel L. Quezon ang nagpanukala na magkaroon ng isang pambansa sa Pilipinas
43. Siya ay tinaguriang “Ama ng Balarilang Tagalog”.
A. Inigo Regalado B. Rogelio Sikat C. Rogelio Rogelio D. Lope K. Santos
Ans. D= Si Lope K. Santos ang gumawa ng ABAKADA bilang alpabetong Pilipino na batay sa Tagalog lamang.
44. Mga salitang kinikilala, tintanggapa at ginagamit ng higit na nakakarami.
A. pormal B. pampanitikan C. lalawiganin D. balbal
Ans. A= Ang pormal na salita ay mga salitang tanggap at gamitin sa mga paaralan at pamahalaan bilang wika ng
komunikasyon.
45. Tungkulin ng wika na tumutugon sa mga pangangailangan ng isang tao.
A. interaksyunal B. instrumental C. personal D. heuristic
Ans. B= Ang wika bilang instrumento ay tumutugon sa mga pangangailangan ng ato gaya ng pakikiusap o pag-uutos
46. Ito ang akto ng pagsasabi ng isang bagay.
A. lokyusyunari B. diskurso C. kompitens D. teorya
Ans. A= Ang lokyusyunari ay isang speech act na nagpapakita na akto ng pakikipag-usap ng isang tao sa kapwa
47. ito ay tumutukoy sa abilidad na sumulat nang may kohisyon at organisasyon.
A. tekstwal C. linggwistik Kompitens
B. komunikatib kompitens D. ilokyusyunari
Ans. A= Ang tekstwal kompitens ay isang kasanayan sa pagsulat nang organisado at may kohirens.
48. Sa pamamagitan nito, nakikilala at nakukuha ang mga ideya at kaisipan sa mga nakalimbag na simbolo.
A. pagkinig B. pagsalita C. pagbasa D. pagsulat
Ans. C= Dahil ang pagbasa ay hindi lamang gawaing sensori kundi gawaing pagkaisipan rin
49. Sa mga pagkakataong unos ay dumaratal, nasisilbi itong hamon at sandata nila’y dasal kalakip ang pag-asang
pagsubok ay malalampasan.
A. Dekolonisasyon B. Taglish C. Intelektwalisasyon D. Puristang paniniwala
Ans. D= Pinakikita na puro ang mga salitang ginamit na batay sa Tagalog
50. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang salitang pambansa?
A. nagdadalantao B. mapagkumbaba C. kumusta D. hello
Ans. C= Ang salitang “kumusta” ay pangkaraniwang ginagamit sa pakikipag-usap at ginagamit saanman sa bansa
51. Ano ang tuntunin ngayon na susundin sa pagtutumbas sa Filipino ng “Chocolate Hills”?
A. Hiramin ng ganap C. Tumbasan sa Espanyol at tumbasan sa Filipino
B. Gamitin ang katutubong katumbas D. Kung ano ang bigkas ay siyang baybay
Ans. A= Isa sa mga tuntunin sa ortograpiyang Filipino na kung ang salita na pantangi ay walang katumbas sa Filipino,
ito ay hiramin ng ganap
52. Ang pagkautal ay matatawag na _________ na sagabal sa pagsasalita.
A. Semantiko B. Pisikal C. Pisyolohikal D. Saykolohikal
Ans. B= Ang pagkautal ay isang depektong pisikal sa pagsasalita
53. Alin ang naganap na pagbabagong morpoponemiko sa salitang pamalo?
A. Pagpapalit B. Metatesis C. Pag-aangkop D. Asimilasyon
Ans. D= Ang salitang pamalo ay nag-asimila sa pampalo na mula sa salitang palo. Pang+palo=pampalo=pamalo
54. alin ang naganap na pagbabagong morpoponemiko sa salitang nilipad?
A. Pag-aangkop B. Asimilasyon C. Metatesis D. Reduplikasyon
Ans. C= Kapag ang salitang ugat na nagsisimula sa /l/ o /y/ ay nilalagyan ng gitlaping in-, ang /i/ at /n/ ay
nagkakapalitan ng posisyon
55. Alin sa mga sumusunod na malalalim na salita ang may kasalungat na pares?
A. marikit – maganda C. mapaniil – mapagkandili
B. maliwanag – maaliwalas D. magaling – mahusay
Ans. C= Kabaligtaran ng siil ang kandili dahil ang kahulugang mapanupil samantalang ang kandili ay may kahulugang
mapag-aruga
56. “ Hayun siya, aakyat na / wahh! / Nandyan na ako, dyan na ako.” Anong salita ang nagpapakita ng matinding
damdamin ayon sa teoryang pooh-pooh?
A. Hayun B. akyat na C. wahh! D. dyan na
Ans. C= Ang “wahh!” ay nagpapahiwatig ng matinding damdamin batay sa ibinigay na pahayag.
57. Sa panahong ito _________ sana muna ng mga mag-aaral ang pagkuha ng mataas na grado.
A. pahalagahan B. pakaayusin C. pakaisipin D. pakaunawain
Ans. B= Ang salitang pakaayusin ay mas angkop sa pagkuha muna ng mataas na grado ng mag-aaral dahil ito ang
kaganapan sa pangungusap
58. Ang mga ingay sa paligid, mga distraksyong biswal, suliraning teknikal ay sagabal na __________.
A. semantiko B. pisikal C. pisyolohikal D. sikolohikal
Ans. C= Ang ingay o sagabal na nagaganap nagaganap sa kapaligiran ay tinatawag na pisyolohikal
59. Ang mga makahulugang yunit ng isang salita katulad ng panlabi at salitang-ugat ay tinatawag na _______.
A. ponema B. morpema C. pangungusap D. diskurso
Ans. B= Ang morpema ay maliit na yunit ng isang salita na maaaring isang ponema, salitang-ugat, at salitang leksikal o
pangkayarian
60. Alin ang pinakatamang pahayag?
A. Tiningnan niya ang langit C. Tiingala niya ang langit
B. Sinulyapan niya ang langit D. Tinitigan niya ang langit
Ans. C= Ang langit ay tinitingala muna bago ito matingnan, masulyapan, at matitigan
61. During periods in increased global temperatures, which of the following is most likely to occur?
A. A decrease in earthquake C. A decrease in atmospheric CO2
B. An increase in earthquake D. An increase in atmospheric CO2
Ans. D= Global warming is the increase of Earth’s average surface due to the effect of greenhouse gases such as
carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuels or from deforestation which traps heat that would otherwise escape from
the Earth. The most significant greenhouse gas is actually water vapour not something produced directly by
humankind in significant amounts. However, even slight increase in atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide can cause a
substantial increase in global temperature
62. Which of the following human activities reduces the level of ozone in the atmosphere?
A. Using large banks of solar cells for energy production
B. Using articles lighting in scientific polar stations
C. Destroying large areas of the equatorial rain forests
D. Manufacturing CFCs such as refrigerants, aerosols, etc.
Ans. D= Chlorofluorocarbon along with other chlorine and bromine compounds from Freon and aerosol cans have
been implicated in the accelerated depletion of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere. It has been evaluated and found to
be catalytic agent in ozone depletion
63. What is the most significant cause of dwindling biodiversity?
A. A. large plant consumption C. Destruction of habitat
B. Global warming D. Depletion of ozone layer
Ans. C= Habitat destruction is the primary cause of loss of biodiversity than humans is currently ranked as the most
important cause of species extinction or loss of biodiversity like mining, conversion of land to agriculture,
deforestation, and coral reef degradation
64. The existence of extraterrestrial life may never be proven, but this idea will become more scientifically acceptable
over time if _______________________.
A. alternative hypotheses are proposed and confirmed C. no one disputes this idea
B. hypotheses are made related to the idea D. increasing scientific evidence supports the idea
Ans. A= Hypotheses regarding the origin of extraterrestrial life whether it exists are as follows: one proposes that it
may have emerged independently from different places in the universe. An alternative is panspermia or exogenesis
which hold that life emerges from one location that spreads between habitable planets. Specialized forms of
extraterrestrial life range from life with the simplicity of bacteria to sapient beings which are more advanced than
humans. To date, no credible evidence of extraterrestrial life has been discovered which has been generally accepted
by the mainstream scientific community
65. Why is incineration not favoured as a method of waste disposal?
A. it is expensive for a country like ours C. It require large energy expenditures
B. The country lacks funds to install incinerators D. it releases noxious gases
Ans. D= Incineration is a controversial method of waste disposal due to issues such as emission of gaseous pollutants.
Particular concern has focused on some very persistent organics such as dioxins which may be created within the
incinerator and which may have serious environmental consequences like releasing noxious gases harmful to plants,
animals and human health.
66. Teacher Jen showed the class the potted plants placed on the window sills. She asked them to observe the
direction of their growth. The pupils observed that the plants tended to grow outward. Then teacher Jen asked the
class this question: “Why do you think they grow outward?” What was teacher Jen engaging the pupils to do?
A. Observe C. Draw conclusion
B. Formulate hypothesis D. Design an experiment
Ans. B= The second step in the scientific method is to formulate a hypothesis. A hypothesis is a concept that has yet to
be verified, but if proven true would explain certain facts about a specific phenomena.
67. Which of the following has the smallest mass when measured in an equal arm balance?
A. ½ sheet of pad paper C. ¼ sheet of pad paper
B. 1/8 sheet of pad paper D. 1/3 sheet of pad paper
Ans. B= Mass is the quantity of matter in a body. More specifically, it is the measurement of the inertia or sluggishness
that a body, in the absence of friction, exhibits in response to any effort made to start it, stop it, or change in any way
from its original state of motion.
68. Which of the following activities help reduce water pollution?
A. Throwing only liquid waste C. treating wastewater before it is discharged
B. Cleaning with soap instead of detergents D. Using organic fertilizers in farms
Ans. C= Water pollution is the contamination of bodies of water. It occurs when pollutants are discharged directly or
indirectly into bodies of water without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.
69. Leaves are green in the sunlight because _____________.
A. they absorb the green light
B. their tints bounce off
C. they absorb the blue and yellow object and yellow light
D. they reflect green light
Ans. B= The green colour of leaves is due to chlorophyll as their tints bounce off the sunlight. Sunlight is also a
contributing factor to photosynthesis that makes the leaves green in colour.
70. Which of the following is TRUE about light and seeing?
A. Light enters the eyes enabling people to see objects
B. Light goes out from the eyes, hits an object, and then returns to the eyes
C. Light rays coming from an object meets light coming from a light source and then enters the eyes
D. Light hits an object, bounces, and then enters the eyes
Ans. A= Cones in our eyes are receivers for these tiny visible light waves. The sun is a natural source for visible light
waves and our eyes see the reflection of this sunlight off the objects around us. The colour of an object that we see is
the colour of light reflected. All other colours are absorbed.
71. A tray filled with ice was left on a table. After an hour, it was observed that some of the ice had changed to
liquid. Which of the following is TRUE about the temperature of the ice and the liquid?
I. The temperature of the ice did not change.
II. The temperature of ice became higher.
III. the temperature of water is higher than the temperature of the ice.

A. II only B. I and III C. III only D. I only

Ans. C= The temperature of water is higher than the temperature of the ice because water freezes at 0 degree Celsius
72. A stainless steel spoon feels colder than a plastic spoon because stainless steel _________.
A. absorbs less heat from the hand than plastic does
B. is really colder than plastic
C. has a lower temperature than plastic
D. conducts heat away from the hand faster than plastic does
Ans. B= It is really colder than plastic because it easily absorbs heat and cold.
73. Why does the level of water in a beaker rise after a stone is place in it?
A. The stone and water occupy the same space C. The stone has more mass than the water
B. The stone takes the place occupied by water D. The water weighs less than the stone
Ans. B= The stone takes the place occupied by water because of displacement method. Displacement can be used to
measure the volume of a solid object, even if its form is not regular.
74. The most common illness of teachers is _____________.
A. Urinary Tract Infection C. Tuberculosis
B. Anemia D. Tonsillitis
Ans. C= Tuberculosis is an earliest known infectious disease. Teachers are prone to tuberculosis due to much work
loads
75. Goiter is most commonly diagnosed among children living in mountain ranges. The cause of this could be traced
as:
A. Lack of iodine in food C. Excess of vitamins in diet
B. Excess of iodine in diet D. Lack of iron in the diet
Ans. A= Iodine deficiency causes goiter – that develops if iodine in diet is too low
76. Doctors can declare dengue fever as an epidemic in a place:
A. When two are hospitalized from the neighbourhood
B. When the proportion of patients reaches at least 15 % of the population
C. When every household of five houses is sick with high fever
D. When everyone is suffering from a cold
Ans. B= An epidemic disease or outbreak is greater than usual number of cases of a disease in a particular region
usually occurring within a relatively short period of time
77. Amidst the government’s effort to prevent pulmonary tuberculosis by visiting houses and vaccinating babies, the
WHO findings still state that:
A. Most father spit blood and infect babies
B. Babies are immune from TB
C. Most children suffer from pulmonary complex
D. Mothers sick with TB transmit their disease by breastfeeding
Ans. D= According to the World Health Organization (WHO), infectious diseases such as tuberculosis are responsible
for transmitting the disease to their babies especially during breastfeeding. The mode of transmission is high that is
why there are many cases of Koch infection or Primary complex at very young age of children and vaccination is
recommended.
78. The progressive flooding in Agusan and Davao are believed to be caused by:
A. cultural minority discrimination C. rich rice fields to be irrigated
B. wanton cutting of trees D. water transportation availability
Ans. B= The roots of the trees absorbed water. Wanton cutting of trees results in progressive flooding.
79. According to the environmentalists it is okay to:
A. open dumping sites to solve waste disposal best
B. bury plastic to ease clogging of water canals
C. classifying garbage/identify biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste
D. burn garbage as the safest approach
Ans. C= Segregation of waste includes the classification of garbage into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
80. A lot of malnourished children in Africa are found to have poor teeth and eyesight. This is believed to be caused
by:
A. deficiency in Vitamins A and D C. deficiency in Vitamin B
B. deficiency in protein D. deficiency in iron
Ans. A= Vitamin A (retinol or anti-xeropthamia) are formed in liver, egg yolk, milk, cheese, butter, cream, green and
yellow vegetables. It’s essential for correct bone and skeletal growth. It is needed for healthy skin and normal vision.
Vitamin D on the other hand, is a sunshine vitamin good for bones and teeth.
81. It is necessary for doctors and nurses to wear safety gloves while injecting AIDS patients. This is because:
A. A prick of a needle from an AIDS patient is dangerous
B. AIDS can be cured by injections
C. AIDS is transmitted by touch
D. AIDS virus easily enters open wounds and pores
Ans. A= AIDS is the most common naturally modifiable infectious disease all over the world. Medical staffs should take
extra precautions by wearing gloves while injecting because an accidental prick of a needle from an AIDS patient can
infect someone.
82. Among the given organisms below, which carries diseases?
A. butterflies B. flies C. ants D. doves
Ans. B= Infectious disease that humans acquire from animal sources are called zoonotic diseases. Many different types
of arthropods serve as reservoirs of infection including insects as mosquitoes, biting flies and fleas. When involved in
the transmission of infectious diseases, these arthropods are referred to as vectors.
83. What is shown in the behaviour of person A in this situation: A bridge fell and person A is not convinced by it, and
ordered a verification of the results?
A. objectivity B. critical analysis C. curiosity D. rationality
Ans. B= Critical analysis involves a skilful responsive thinking that facilitates judgment or decisions with reasons.
84. ____________ are professionals who are experts in handling animal diseases.
A. veterinarians B. doctors of cattle C. animal husbandry D. doctors of medicine
Ans. A= A veterinarian is a person practicing the art of healing, diseased or injured animals especially domestic
animals.
85. Scattering salt on clouds is an attempt to:
A. encourage earthquake occurrence C. drive the clouds further to the sea
B. produce rain over dry fields D. avoid water evaporation
Ans. B= Cloud seeing is a method of artificially producing rain-like growth of ice crystals, compound of silver iodide or
scattering salts in the clouds to produce rain over dry fields.
86. Mothers suffering from diabetes are usually fond of:
A. candies B. crabs C. tamarind D. meat
Ans. A= Diabetes is a disease characterized by eating too much sweets.
87. What stage in chicken pox is considered very contagious?
A. when wounds are peeling off C. when all wounds have disappeared
B. when wounds have swollen D. during the first week
Ans. A= A person with chicken pox remains infective until all the spots have crusted over. It takes 10-21 days (Average
of 14 to 16 days) after contact with an infective person for someone to develop chicken pox. It was considered very
contagious during the incubation period where a person is capable of transmitting a pathogen of a particular
infectious disease
88. The school physician prescribed ________ to children in inner towns who are suffering from night blindness.
A. vitamin C B. iron sulphate C. vitamin A D. vitamin B 12
Ans. C= Vitamin A is very essential for normal night vision. Night blindness is an early symptom of Vitamin A deficiency
89. ________ is an atmospheric condition that exists in a very short period of time.
A. weather B. air temperature C. climate D. troposphere
Ans. A= Weather is a description of physical conditions of the atmosphere at a particular area over a short period of
time
90. ________ is used to measure the volume of liquids.
A. beam balance B. meter C. beaker D. graduated cylinder
Ans. D= Graduated cylinder is used in Chemistry to measure liquid volume
91. When Jason sorts his collection of computer card games into groups of 3, 4, 5, or 8, there is always one card left.
What is the smallest number of cards john can save?
A. 80 B. 120 C. 65 D. 121
92. The product of ( xm – 1 ) ( x2m + xm + 1 ).
A. x3m +1 B. x3m – 1 C. x3m + xm + 1 D. x3m – xm + 1

93. Evaluate 3x – 2 [ 𝑥 − ( 2𝑥 + 1) ]
A. 3x – 2 B. 5x + 2 C. 3x + 2 D. 5x – 2

94. Evaluate √27 - √12 - √3.

A. 0 B. 2√3 C. 3√3 D. - √3

95. The value of 64-2/3

A. 1,8 B. 1,4 C. 16 D. − 1,16

96. Simplify 2-1 . 3-1 (2-1 + 3-1)

A. 5,6 B. 5,36 C. 36,5 D. 6,5

97. Mr. Reyes can dig a ditch in 6 days and Mr. Roxas in 8 days. In how many days can both men together dig the
ditch?
A. 20,7 C. 14
D. 7
B. 24,7

98. One-third of a certain number exceeds 12 by as much as 100 exceeds the number. What is the number?
A. 64 B. 84 C. 60 D. 80

99. Ann is two-thirds old as her sister. Twenty years from now, she will be seven-eighths as old. How old is Ann?
A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 8

100. Find the two numbers such that if 3 is subtracted from each of them they will be in the ratio 2:1, while if 5 is
added to each of them they will be in the ratio 4:3.
A. 10, 6 B. 12, 8 C. 11, 8 D. 11, 7

101. How many different committees of 4 each can be chosen from a class of 15 members?
A. 4 B. 1,365 C. 60 D. 32, 760

102. The LCM of two counting numbers is 42 and their GCF is 7. If one of them is 14, what is the other number?
A. 15 B. 21 C. 14 D. 42

103. What is 135o in radians?

34 84
A. 5 C.
6

64 34
B. 7
D. 6

104. If the points (-2, 0), (-2, 3) and (4, 3) are connected to each other, what kind of triangle is formed?

A. Equilateral B. Right C. Obtuse D. Isosceles

105. The distance between points (3,-2) and (-2,3) is?

A. 5 B. 2√5 C. 5√2 D. 50

106. In how many ways may a radiologist assign 5 patients to undergo a screening test for pulmonary tuberculosis x-
ray?
A. 10 B. 60 C. 120 D. 5

107. In how many ways can 6 different trees be planted in a circle?

A. 6 B. 120 C. 5 D. 720
108. What is the average of 1,2, 1,3, and 1,6?
A. 1 B. 1,6 C. 1,3 D. 1,4

109. A meter stick was cut into 2 pieces at the 36 cm–mark. What is the ratio of the smaller piece to the larger piece?
A. 16:25 B. 13:50 C. 9:25 D. 9:16

110. The perimeter of a rectangle is 10 ft. What is its width if the length is 4 ft.?
A. 1 ft. B. 2 ft. C. 1.5 ft. D. 2.5 ft.

111. The total surface area of a cube with volume 8 cubic centimetres.
A. 8 sq. cm. B. 24 sq. cm. C. 12 sq. cm. D. 36 sq. cm.

112. The height of a right triangle with the base 5 cm. and area 30 sq. cm.
A. 24 cm. B. 12 cm. C. 8 cm. D. 4 cm.

113. How much interest is due on P 3,500 at 6 ¾ % for 9 months?

A. P 187.19 B. P 18.71 C. P 177.19 D. P 17.71

114. If an investment of P 25,000 accumulates to P 27, 500 in 18 months. Find the simple interest rate.
A. 6 ¾ %
C. 6 2,3 % D. 6 1,3 %
B. 6%
115. The probability that a man will live 5 years more is ¾ and the probability that his wife will live 5 years more is 1,3.
What is the probability that both will still live 5 years more?
A. 2/3 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/6

116. There are 3 dozens of eggs sold at P 2.28 per piece. I a whole seller gets 5% discount, how much will be paid for
all?
A. P 78.22 B. P 77.98 C. P 92.00 D. P 82.08

117. Write in simple form: (3ab)2

A. 3a3b2 B. 9a2b2 C. 3a2b D. 27a2b

118. A mile is about 1.609 km. How many meters longer is a mile than a kilometre?
A. 600 m. B. 1000 m. C. 609 m. D. 1609 m.

119. How much is 20% of 60% of 200?

A. 120 B. 48 C. 24 D. 40

120. How much material is needed for 12 pillowcases if each pillowcase uses 1 ¼ m. of cloth?
A. 12 m. B. 18 m. C. 14 m. D. 15 m.

121. Which is NOT TRUE about the Philippines?

A. It has been colonized by two European colonial powers.
B. There have been attempts to change its government to a parliamentary form.
C. It is the only Christian country in Asia.
D. It has more than 7,000 islands.
Ans. C= East Timor is also a Christian country
122. What was the best description of our development during pre-Hispanic Era to the present?
I. We have come from a one-man rule to a government of the people by the people, and for the people.
II. We began with a one-man rule and have ended up with a dictatorial form of government that has developed into
the present democratic form.
III. We started with a dictatorial form of government that has developed into the present democratic form.

A. I and III B. III C. II D. I

Ans. A= The political history of the Philippines from Sultanate (Philippine History) to Democratic (Article II of the 1987
Constitution).
123. Which statement is TRUE of the pre-Spanish Filipino government?
 A. The chieftains exercised all powers of government.
B. There were courts created by the chieftains to hear complaints.
C. Laws were formulated by a law-making body elected by the community.
D. Laws were formulated by a law-making body appointed by the chieftain.
Ans. D= The chieftain was the head of the council of elders
124. The “La Liga Filipina” was a concrete evidence of Rizal’s desire to_________________.
I. I. unite the whole country
II. fight violence and injustice
III. revolt against the Spaniards

A. I and III B. II and III C. I and II D. II only

Ans. C= To unite the Filipinos and combat social injustice
125. Which is NOT TRUE of the historical development of the Philippines?
A. It used to been a progressive country.
B. It has been independent from Spain on June 12, 1898.
C. It has achieved full sovereignty from the very beginning.
D. It has evolved from a colony to a fully independent nation.
Ans. C= Sovereignty is the freedom from external control
126. One can enjoy the “presumption of innocence” when a suspect__________________.
A. has the right to remain silent C. is considered guilty unless proven otherwise
B. remains innocent until proven guilty D. has the right to a legal counsel
Ans. B= Article III of the 1987 Constitution – Bill of Rights
127. During Philippine Commonwealth under President Manuel L. Quezon. What is TRUE about the Philippine
Commonwealth? The Filipinos were_______________.
A. fully independent
B. partially independent
C. citizens of the United States
D. granted total freedom to course their destiny only on matters of education
Ans. B= Ten-year transition period
128. During Marcos Regime viz-a-viz Batasang Pambansa performing legislative and executive powers, which form of
government was implemented?
A. Monarchial B. Parliamentary C. Presidential D. Dictatorial
Ans. B= Semi-Parliamentary
129. As a result of People Power I in 1986, the Philippines_____________________.
A. changed its form of government to parliamentary
B. intensified its participation in international affairs
C. saw the impeachment of Joseph Estrada as president
D. became known worldwide for its peaceful revolution
Ans. D= EDSA 1 on February 22 to 25, 1986

130. As mandated by article XI of the 1987 Constitution assuring the public of accountability and transparency. what is
the best government intervention for this?
A. Rural development and agrarian reform
B. Private enterprise and incentives to needed investments
C. Full public disclosure
D. Balanced and healthful ecology
Ans. C= Declaring their assets and liabilities (Article XI – Accountbility of Public Officials)
131. This year’s SONA was focused on education and economy. What is meant by SONA
A. State of the National Assembly C. State of the Nation Advocacy
B. State of the Nation Address D. State of the Union Address
Ans. B= State of the Nation Address
132. With which are the words “Charter Change” and “Constituents Assembly” related?
A. Imposition of Martial Law
B. Return to the dictatorial form of government
C. Amendment or revision of the present constitution
D. Division between Senate and House of Representatives
Ans. C= Article XIV – Amendments or Revisions
133. The government programs on Comprehensive Agrarian Reform and cooperatives are meant to______________.
 A. make all citizens equal
B. make all citizens responsible
C. improve the country’s literacy rate
D. alleviate poverty in the country and promote social equity
Ans. D= Objectives of CARP and principles of cooperatives
134. How can the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program bring social justice and economic development in the
country?
I. By land distribution to qualified beneficiaries
II. By transferring the ownership of land to farmers for value
III. By helping the affected landowners to use their land compensation in viable business activities
IV. By providing support services to farmer-beneficiaries

A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV

Ans. D= Basic principles and elements of CARP RA 6657 – Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law of 1988
135. When one company controls the supply of rice, which term applies?
A. Economic Stability B. Monopoly C. Equilibrium D. Inflation
Ans. B= Monopolized by a single or one company
136. When parents decide to send their children to a private school and pay their tuition fee instead of instead of
sending them to public school, they don’t get their share in the benefit derived from the taxes they pay. This is a
case of_____________.
A. social inequity B. double taxation C. social injustice D. double jeopardy
Ans. C= Because the parents cannot avail the benefits from their taxes
137. Children below 18 years of age are advised to watch TV with their parents because most of the movies today are
based on:
A. discovery in Science C. historical battles and bloodshed
B. violence and sex D. adolescent stories
Ans. B= As per MTRCB’s policy, viewers below 18 years of age should be guided by the parents (Parental Guidance is
needed)
138. Voting is one of our constitutional rights. Those who are deprived their votes are normally_____________.
A. executed B. franchised C. disenfranchised D. exiled
Ans. C= Article v (Suffrage)
139. How do countries manifest or register disagreement diplomatically with another country’s standpoint.
A. Retaliate by arresting nationals of the other country’s citizens
B. File a diplomatic protest
C. Declare war immediately
D. Recall all its nations
Ans. B= Section 2, Article II (Declaration of Principles and State Policies)
140. Dr. Pedroche discovered that his research about poliomyelitis was copied verbatim by Dr. Baculao. Dr. Pedroche
will file a case against Dr. Baculao for violating his_____________.
A. right to live within one’s means C. right to choose
B. human right D. right to intellectual property
Ans. D= Campaign against plagiarism
141. The people of this country shows courtesy by leaving their footwear on the stairs.
A. Italian B. Japanese C. American D. Chinese
Ans. B= Japanese Culture. Notice Japanese movies...
142. Opening a steel plant requires what specific clearance from the Department of environment and natural
Resources (DENR)?
A. BIR C. Air pollution Clearance
B. Waste Disposal D. Environmental Clearance (ECC)
Ans. D= Environmental Clearance Certificate (ECC) is one of the requirements of DENR to ensure that the environment
will be protected at all times
143. Medical assessment is vital for the military men who are rescued from the hands of the communists. This medical
intervention should be done to ensure___________________.
A. the loyalty of the army men
B. relapses from illness while in hiding
C. the prisoner from further harassment
D. the physical and mental state of the army men
Ans. D= Commonwealth Act # 1
144. Cooperatives can eventually put up banks of their own. What are evidences of success?
A. Cooperatives are not heavily taxed.
B. Several rural banks started out as cooperatives.
C. Opening of rural banks is allowed on a cooperative concept.
D. Many banks in Metro Manila and Bulacan started out as cooperatives.
Ans. B= Rural banks started out as cooperatives
145. Los Banos, Laguna is known for its rice researches because it houses the International Rice Research Institute
(IRRI). Where do the students conduct their researches?
A. UP Manila B. UP Cebu C. UPLB D. UP Iloilo
Ans. C= Headquarters of IRRI: University of the Philippines, Los Banos, Laguna
146. Local peace negotiations is the primary concern of what government office?
A. Church hierarchy C. Philippine Marine SWAT Force
B. Philippine National Police D. Local municipal and provincial executives
Ans. D= As mandated by R.A. 7160 (Local Government Code of the Philippines) approved on October 10, 1991
147. Students from different countries especially those from the third world countries are offered scholarship grants
to European and US-based universities. What does this imply?
A. Knowledge is not a monopoly of one race
B. Students can earn degrees abroad
C. There is a university of knowledge
D. Admission of Asians in United State universities is limited to nationals
Ans. A= As a manifestation of 1st world’s support education as a key to nation building/progress
148. Philippine Commonwealth President Manuel L. Quezon is quoted after on, “I prefer a government run like hell by
a Filipino...” This means:
A. Filipinos can better run their country
B. Filipinos are not good leaders
C. Filipinos should be governed by foreigners
D. Filipinos should depend on foreigners for good governance
Ans. A= It was the very essence of Commonwealth Government (Ten-year transition period)
149. How did the passing of the Fisherman’s Act promote the interest of the Filipino fishermen?
A. Shorelines were not open to big shipping companies.
B. Foreign shipping vessels could catch fish at any distance in Philippine waters.
C. Deep-sea fishing was allowed within five kilometres from the shorelines.
D. Local government had no control of the shorelines within 15 kilometres.
Ans. A= The rationale of the Fisherman’s Act
150. Mrs. Espiritu has two children. Her husband decided to send them to Pampanga to seek jobs. The eldest child is
only 17 years old. What right is violated by the father?
A. Right of the children to assistance, proper care and attention
B. Right of family to family living wage
C. Right to education
D. Right of the child to work and exploitation
Ans. A= Section 3, Article XV: The Family

---------GOD BLESS AND GOOD LUCK!!!----------