Test Pattern

Hindi )1/16CMD3/3819//6)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 08-12-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (PHASE : M4L8A)
bl iqfLrdk esa 36 i`"B gSaA This Booklet contains 36 pages.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k : Important Instructions :
1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1
ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gAS izR;sd 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet
iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA
5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iw o Z
mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
ds o y ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A
6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml
ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u
iq f Lrdk@mÙkj i= es a fu/kkZ f jr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u
fy[ksaA
7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh
vuqefr ugha gAS
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates
are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere
else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on
the Answer Sheet.

iz' uks a ds vuqo kn es a fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a ] va xzs th laL dj.k dks gh vaf re ekuk tk,s xkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
Form Number : in figures
: 'kCnksa esa
: in words
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj
:
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

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TOPIC : Current Electricity and Capacitor, Magnetic effect of current, EMI.
1. In figure battery E is balanced over a 55 cm length 1. fp= esa cVS jh E foHkoekih rkj dh 55 cm yEckbZ ij larqfyr
of potentiometer wire but when a resistance of 10 W gksrh gS fdUrq tc ,d 10 W dk izfrjks/k bl cVS jh ds lkFk lekUrj
is connected in parallel with the battery then it Øe esa yxk;k tkrk g]S rks larqyu yEckbZ 50 cm gks tkrh g]S rks
balances over a 50 cm length of the potentiometer cVS jh ds vkarfjd izfrjksèk dk eku gS :–
wire then internal resistance r of the battery is :–

2V
2V 1m
1m A
B
A
B E r
E r

(1) 1 W (2) 3 W (3) 10 W (4) 5 W (1) 1 W (2) 3 W (3) 10 W (4) 5 W

2. Dimension of electric field is : 2. fo|qr {ks= dh foek gksxh &
(1) [MLT3A–1] (2) [MLT–3A1] (1) [MLT3A–1] (2) [MLT–3A1]
(3) [MLT–3A–1] (4) [MLT3A1] (3) [MLT–3A–1] (4) [MLT3A1]
r
3. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region 3. ,dleku o| S qr {ks= E esa rhu fcUnq A, B ,oa C fp= esa fn[kk;s
r x;s gaSA js[kk AB oS|qr cy js[kkvksa ds yEcor~ o js[kk BC
of uniform electric field E . The line AB is
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. lekUrj gSA rc fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS ?
Then, which of the following holds good?
E
E A
A
B C
B C

(1) VA = VB = VC (2) VA = VB > VC

(1) VA = VB = VC (2) VA = VB > VC
(3) VA = VB < VC (4) VA > VB = VC (3) VA = VB < VC (4) VA > VB = VC
4. In the following figure, the equivalent resistance 4. fuEu fp= esa A vkjS B ds chp rqY; izfrjks/k gS %
between A and B is :
3W
3W

8W 4W
8W 4W A B
A B 2W 6W
2W 6W

6W
6W

(1) (17/24) W (2) (4/3) W (1) (17/24) W (2) (4/3) W

(3) 29 W (4) (24/17) W (3) 29 W (4) (24/17) W
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5. In the given current distribution, what is the value 5. fn;s gq, /kkjk forj.k esa I dk eku D;k gS \
of I ?

4A
4A 2A
I
2A
I
3A
3A 5A
5A
(1) 3A (2) 8A
(1) 3A (2) 8A
(3) 2A (4) 5A (3) 2A (4) 5A
6. A wire has non-uniform cross-section as shown 6. ,d rkj dk vuqizLFk dkV fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj vle:i gAS
in figure. A steady current flows through it and ,d fLFkj /kkjk blls iz o kfgr gks jgh g S ,oa fcUnq v ks a
electric field a points P and Q is EP and EQ, then P o Q ij fo|qr {ks= Øe'k% EP o EQ gaS] rks

P Q P Q

(1) EP < EQ (1) EP < EQ

(2) EP = EQ
(3) EP > EQ
(4) data insufficient
7. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have:-
(1) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
(2) a high resistance in series with its coil
(3) a low resistance in series with its coil
(4) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
8. In the circuit shown in the figure, each capacitor
has a capacity of 3mF. The equivalent capacity
between A and B is :
(2) EP = EQ
(3) EP > EQ
(4) vkadM+s vi;kZIr gaS
7. ,d xsYosuksehVj dks oksYVehVj ds :i esa iz;qDr djus ds fy,:-
(1) ,d de izfrjks/k dq.Myh ds lekUrj yxsxk
(2) ,d mPp izfrjks/k dq.Myh ds Js.kh Øe esa yxsxk
(3) ,d de izfrjks/k dq.Myh ds Js.kh Øe esa yxsxk
(4) ,d mPp izfrjks/k dq.Myh ds lekUrj Øe esa yxsxk
8. fp= esa fn[kk;s x;s ifjiFk esa izR;sd la/kkfj= dh /kkfjrk 3mF
gAS A vkjS B ds chp rqY; /kkfjrk gksxh %

A B
A B

(1) (3/4) mF
(1) (3/4) mF
(2) 6mF
(2) 6mF
(3) 3mF
(3) 3mF
(4) 5mF (4) 5mF

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9. Five capacitors of 10mF capacity each are 9. 10mF /kkfjrk ds ik¡p la/kkfj=ksa dks 100 oksYV ds DC foHko
connected to a DC potential of 100 volts as shown ls fp=kuqlkj tksM+k x;k gAS fcUnqvksa A vkjS B ds chp lerqY;
in figure. The equivalent capacitance between the /kkfjrk gksxh %
points A and B will be equal to :

10mF 10mF
10mF 10mF
A 10mF B
A 10mF B

10mF 10mF
10mF 10mF
100V
100V

(1) 40mF (2) 20mF

(1) 40mF (2) 20mF
(3) 30mF (4) 10mF (3) 30mF (4) 10mF
10. What is the equivalent resistance bet ween 10. A rFkk B ds e/; rqY; çfrjks/k g\
S
A and B ?

A B
R R R
A B R
R R R
R
R
R

3R
3R (1) (2) 2R
(1) (2) 2R 2
2

R R
(3) R (4) (3) R (4)
2 2

11. The equivalent capacitance between the points A 11. fn;s x;s fp= es a fcUnq A vk Sj B ds e/; rq Y ; /kkfjrk
and B in the given diagram is : gksx hA

2mF 2mF
A B A B

2mF 2mF 2mF 2mF

2mF 2mF

8 3 8 3
(1) 8 mF (2) 6 mF (3) mF (4) mF (1) 8 mF (2) 6 mF (3) mF (4) mF
3 8 3 8
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12. Two capacitances C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined 12. ,d ifjiFk essa nks la/kkfj=ksa C1vkjS C2 dks fp=kuqlkj tksMk+ x;k gS
as shown in figure The potential of point A is V1 and fcUnq A dk foHko V1 vkjS B dk V2 gAS fcUnq D dk foHko
that of B is V2. The potential of point D will be : gksxk &
A D B A D B
V1 C1 C2 V2 V1 C1 C2 V2

1 C2 V1 + C1 V2 1 C2 V1 + C1 V2
(1) (V1+V2) (2) C1 + C2
(1) (V1+V2) (2) C1 + C 2
2 2

C1 V1 + C2 V2 C2 V1 - C1 V2 C1 V1 + C2 V2 C2 V1 - C1 V2
(3) C1 + C2
(4) C1 + C2
(3) C1 + C2
(4) C1 + C2

13. If potential difference across a capacitor is 13. ;fn fdlh la/kkfj= ds fljks ij foHkokUrj 15 V ls 30 V dj
changed from 15 V to 30 V, work done is W. The fn;k tk, rks fd;k x;k dk;Z W gS rks foHkokUrj dks 30 V ls 60 V
work done when potential difference is changed rd cnyus esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk
from 30 V to 60 V, will be:
(1) W (2) 4 W
(1) W (2) 4W
(3) 3 W (4) 2 W (3) 3 W (4) 2 W
14. In the circuit shown in figure, the power which 14. ;fn 6 W izfrjks/k esa 'kfä O;; 6 W gAS rc izfrjks/k R dk eku
is dissipated as heat in the 6 W resistor is 6 W. D;k gksxk ?
What is the value of resistance R in the circuit ?
R
R 6W
6W

8W
8W

12 V
12 V

(1)6 W (2) 10 W
(1)6 W (2) 10 W
(3) 13 W (4) 24 W (3) 13 W (4) 24 W
15. What will be the equivalent resistance between the 15. A rFkk D ds e/; rqY; izfrjks/k D;k gksxk ?
points A and D ?
A 10 W 10 W 10 W B
A 10 W 10 W 10 W B
10 W 10 W
10 W 10 W C D
C D 10 W 10 W 10 W
10 W 10 W 10 W
(1) 10 W (2) 20 W
(1) 10 W (2) 20 W
(3) 30 W (4) 40 W (3) 30 W (4) 40 W

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16. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 16. 2p cm f=T;k dh nks ladsfUnz; dqaMfy;k¡ ,d nwljs ls 90º dks.k
2p cm are placed at right angles to each other ij j[kh x;h gaAS ;fn buesa fo|qr /kkjk 3 amp. rFkk 4 amp
3 amp. & 4 amp. are the current flowing in each coil. gS rc buds dsUnz ij pq- {ks= gksxk&
Magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be:-
(1) 7 × 10–5T (2) 5 × 10–5 T
(1) 7 × 10–5T (2) 5 × 10–5 T
(3) 10–5 T (4) 12 × 10–5T (3) 10–5 T (4) 12 × 10–5T
17. In the given diagram, find magnetic field at 17. fcUnq P ij pqEcdh; {ks= gksxk &
point P :-

30°
30°
d
d
P
P

m0 i æ 3ö m0 i æ 3ö
m i æ 3ö m i æ 3ö (1) ç1 - ÷ Ä (2) ç1 - ÷ e
(1) 0 ç1 - ÷ Ä (2) 0 ç1 - ÷ e 2pd è 2 ø 2pd è 2 ø
2pd è 2 ø 2pd è 2 ø

m i æ 3ö m i æ 3ö m0 i æ 3ö m0 i æ 3ö
(3) 0 ç1 + ÷ Ä (4) 0 ç 1 - ÷ e (3) ç1 + ÷ Ä (4) ç1 - ÷ e
2pd è 2 ø 4 pd è 2 ø 2pd è 2 ø 4 pd è 2 ø

r r r r
18. Rank the value of Ñò B . d l for the closed paths 18. Ñò B . d l ds eku dks fn, x, can ifjiFkksa ds fy, NksVs ls cM+s
shown in figure from the smallest to largest :- Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft, &

d d
a a
2A 2A
× 2A b × 2A b

3A 3A
c c

(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, c, d, b (1) a, b, c, d (2) a, c, d, b

(3) a, d, c, b (4) a, c, b, d (3) a, d, c, b (4) a, c, b, d
19. A current is flowing in a vertical wire in downward 19. ,d ÅèokZèkj rkj esa èkkjk uhps dh vksj çokfgr gSA rkj
direction, the direction of magnetic field of a point ds Bhd nk¡;h vksj fLFkr fcUnq ij pqEcdh; {ks= dh fn'kk
which is just right side to the wire :- gksxh%&
(1) towards north (2) towards south (1) mÙkj dh vksj (2) nf{k.k dh vksj
(3) towards east (4) towards west (3) iwoZ dh vksj (4) if'pe dh vksj
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20. Two concentric coplanar coils of turns n 1 and n 2 20. n1 ,oa n2 Qsjksa okyh nks lery ladUs æh; dq.Mfy;ksa dh f=kT;kvksa
have radii ratio 2 : 1 respectively. Equal current in dk vuqikr Øe'k% 2 : 1 gAS nksuksa dq.Mfy;ksa esa leku ifjek.k dh
both the coils flows in opposite direction. If net èkkjk foifjr fn'kk esa çokfgr gksrh gAS ;fn muds mHk;fu"B dsUæ ij
magnetic field is zero at their common centre then
ifj.kkeh pqEcdh; {ks= 'kwU; gks rks n1 : n2 gksxk %&
n1 : n2 is :-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
21. Two long straight wires are placed along x-axis 21. nks yEcs lh/ks rkj x-v{k o y- v{k ds vuqf n'k j[ks gSA
and y-axis. They carry current I 1 and I 2 ftues izokfgr /kkjk Øe'k% I1 o I2 gSA blds }kjk mRiUu
respectively. The equation of locus of zero pqEcdh; {ks= esa 'kwU; pqEcdh; izsj.k ds fcUnqiFk dh lehdj.k
magnetic induction in the magnetic field produced gksxhA
by them is :-
æ I2 ö
æ I2 ö (1) y = x (2) y = ç ÷ x
(1) y = x (2) y = ç ÷ x è I1 ø
è I1 ø

æ I1 ö æ I1 ö
(3) y = ç ÷ x (3) y = ç I ÷ x (4) y = (I1I2)x
è I2 ø
(4) y = (I1I2)x è 2ø

22. When direct current passes through a spring 22. tc fn"V /kkjk fLiazx esa ls izokfgr gksrh gS] rks ;g :-
then it :- (1) fldqMsxh
(1) Contracts
(2) izlkfjr gksxh
(2) Expands
(3) nksyu djsxh
(3) Vibrate
(4) Unchange (4) vifjo£rr
23. An electron is moving with a speed of 108 m/sec 23. ,d bys DVª k W u B rhoz r k ds ,dleku pqE cdh; {ks = esa
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 108 m/sec dh pky ls {ks= ds yEcor~ xeu djrk gAS vpkud
intensity B. Suddenly intensity of the magnetic {ks= dh rhozrk B/2 ?kV dj jg tkrh gAS iFk dh çkjfEHkd f=T;k
field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the path r dk eku vc gks tk;sxk
becomes from the original value of r (1) dksbZ ifjorZu ugha
(1) No change
(2) ?kVdj r/2
(2) Reduces to r / 2
(3) c<+dj 2r
(3) Increases to 2r
(4) Stops moving (4) xfr #d tk;sxh
24. A solid cylinderical wire of radius 'R' carries a current 24. ,d 'R' f=T;k ds Bksl csyukdkj rkj esa 'I' èkkjk çokfgr gksrh gAS
'I'. The magnetic field is 5mT at a point, which is '2R' rkj dh v{k ls 2R nwjh ij fLFkr fcUnq ij pqEcdh; {ks= 5mT gAS
distance away from the axis of wire. Magnetic field rkj dh lrg ls vUnj R/3 nwjh ij Hkhrj fLFkr fcUnq ij pqEcdh;
at a point which is R/3 distance inside from the
{ks= gksxk %&
surface of the wire is :-
10 20 10 20
mT mT (1) mT (2) mT
(1) (2) 3 3
3 3
5 40 5 40
(3) mT (4) mT (3) mT (4) mT
3 3 3 3
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25. A magnetic field is applied at perpendicular to 25. csyukdkj foltZu ufydk dh v{k ds yEcor~ ,dleku
the axis of cylinderical discharge tube then pqEcdh; {ks= vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gS rks dFS kksM ,oa èku fdj.ksa
cathode and positive rays deflected in – fo{ksfir gksrh gaS &
Cathode rays Positive rays dsF kksM+ fdj.ksa /ku fdj.ksa

– – ++ – – ++
Anode – – ++ ,uksM – –
– Cathode ++ dsF kksM+
– – –
– – ++ – – ++

Discharge tube foltZu ufydk

(1) Same direction. (1) leku fn'kk esa

(2) Opposite direction. (2) foijhr fn'kk esa
(3) Mutually perpendicular direction. (3) ijLij yEcor~ fn'kk esa
(4) No deflection for both. (4) nksuksa ds fy;s dksbZ fo{ksi ugha
26. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along 26. ,d vkos'k q ftldk æO;eku m gAS ;g x–v{k ds vuqfn'k
the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a region v osx ls ,sls Hkkx esa xfreku g]S tgka fo|qr {ks= o pqEcdh;
of electric field E and magnetic field B as shown {ks= mifLFkr g]S rks fdl fLFkfr ds fy;s vkos'k ij ifj.kkeh
in figure below. For which figure the net force cy 'kwU; gksxk :-
on the charge may be zero :- y y
y y E
B
B E
V x V x
V x V x
(1) q (2) q
(1) q (2) q
E B
E B z z
z z
y y
y y
E B
E B E
E V
V V x q x
(3) q
V x
(4) q x (3) q (4) B
B
z
z z
z
27. In following diagram there is a straight wire 27. fuEukafdr fp= esa /kkjk I okyk lh/kk rkj n'kkZ;k x;k gAS blds
carrying a current I. Consider a circular path with lehi j[ks f=T;k R okys ,d o`Ùkh; iFk ij fopkj dhft,A ;fn
r r
radius (R) near it. If B T is the tangential BT pqE cdh; {ks= dk Li'kZj s [kh; ?kVd g S rks lekdy
component of magnetic field then find the value r ur
r ur ò T .dl dk eku gksxk %&
B
of integral ò B T .dl

R
R r
BT
BT r
I
I
µ0 I µ0 I
µ0 I µ0 I (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2pR 4pR
2pR 4pR
µ0 I µ0 I
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4) Zero
2 p (r - R ) 2p(r - R )

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28. An emf induced in a coil, the linking magnetic 28. fdlh dq.Myh esa fo-ok-c- iszsfjr gksrk g]S rks lcaf/kr pqEcdh;
flux ¶yDl :-
(1) Must decrease (1) ?kVuk pkfg,
(2) Must increase (2) c<+uk pkfg,
(3) Must remain constant (3) fLFkj jguk pkfg,
(4) Can be either increased or decreased (4) c<+ Hkh ldrk gS vksj ?kV Hkh ldrk gS
29. A circular loop of radius r is moved away from 29. ,d r f=T;k dk o`Ùkkdkj ywi /kkjkokgh rkj ls nwj tk jgk gks rks
a current carrying wire then induced current in o`Ùkkdkj ywi esa iszfjr /kkjk gksxh %&
circular loop will be :-
v
v i
i

(1) nf{k.kkorZ
(1) Clock wise
(2) okekorZ
(2) Anti clockwise
(3) Not induced (3) izfs jr ugha gksxh

(4) None of them (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

30. 1 Joule of energy is to be converted into new 30. 1 tw y ÅtkZ dks ubZ ek=d i¼fr es a ifjofrZ r djuk gS]
system of units in which length is measured in ftlesa yEckbZ 10 ehVj esa] nzO;eku 10 fdyksa esa rFkk le;
10 meter, mass in 10 kg and time in 1 minute. The 1 feuV esa ik;k tkrk g]S bl ubZ i¼fr esa 1 J dk la[;kRed
numerical value of 1 J in the new system is : eku gksxk%
(1) 36 × 10–4 (1) 36 × 10–4
(2) 36 × 10–3 (2) 36 × 10–3
(3) 36 × 10–2 (3) 36 × 10–2
(4) 36 × 10–1 (4) 36 × 10–1
31. The potential energy of a particle varies with 31. fdlh d.k dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ fLFkj ewy fcUnq ls x nwjh ds lkFk
distance x from a fixed origin as : fuEu izdkj ifjofrZr gksrh gSA

A x A x
u= u=
x2 + B x2 + B

Where A and B are dimensional constants then tgk¡ A o B foeh; fu;rkad gS rks AB ds fy, foeh; lw=
dimensional formula for AB is : gksxk%
(1) [ML7/2 T–2 ] (1) [ML7/2 T–2 ]
(2) [ML11/2 T–2 ] (2) [ML11/2 T–2 ]
(3) [M 2 L 9/2 T–2 ] (3) [M 2 L 9/2 T–2 ]
(4) [ML13/2 T–3 ] (4) [ML13/2 T–3 ]
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32. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen 32. ;fn ÅtkZ (E), osx (V) rFkk le; (T) dks ewy jkf'k;k¡ ekuk
as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional tk;s rks] i`"B ruko dh foek gksxh %
formula of surface tension will be : (1) [EV–1 T –2 ]
(1) [EV T ]
–1 –2
(2) [EV–2 T–2 ]
(2) [EV–2 T–2 ]
(3) [E–2 V–1 T–3 ]
(3) [E–2 V–1 T–3 ]
(4) [EV–2 T–1 ] (4) [EV–2 T–1 ]
33. A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier 33. ,d ofuZ;j dy S hilZ ds ofuZ;j ieS kus ij 20 foHkkx ga]S tks eq[;
scale which coincide with 19 divisions on the main ieS kus ds 19 foHkkx ls feyrs gSaA ;a= dk vYirekad 0.1mm
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. gAS eq[; ieS kus dk ,d foHkkx gksxk %
The main scale divisions are of : (1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm
1 1
(3) 2 mm (4) mm
(3) 2 mm mm (4) 4
4
34. The circular scale of a screw gauge has 34. LØwxts ds o`Ùkkdkj ieS kus ij 50 Hkkx gaS rFkk fip 0.5 mm
50 divisions and pitch of 0.5 mm. Main scale g SA eq [ ; i Se kus dk ikB~ ; ka d 2 g SA xks y s dk O;kl Kkr
reading is 2. Find the diameter of sphere : dhft,s %

N H N H
S E S E
0 5
K 0 5
K
R R

M M

N H N H
A S E A S E
2 25 K 2 25 K
B B
R R

M M

(1) 1.20 mm (2) 1.25 mm (1) 1.20 mm (2) 1.25 mm

(3) 2.20 mm (4) 2.25 mm (3) 2.20 mm (4) 2.25 mm
35. A nuclear fusion reaction is given below : 35. ,d ukfHkd lay;u fØ;k nh xbZ gS :
1
H + 1H ® 2He + n + 3.2 MeV
2 2 3
1
H2 + 1 H2 ® 2He 3 + n + 3.2 MeV
How much energy will be generated when 2 kg M~;wVªkWUl ds lay;u ls yxHkx fdruh ÅtkZ izkIr gksxh
2 kg of deuterons are fused :- (approx) (yxHkx ) :-
(1) 1030 eV (1) 1030 eV
(2) 5 × 1023 MeV (2) 5 × 1023 MeV
(3) 1022 MeV (3) 1022 MeV
(4) 1033 eV (4) 1033 eV
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36. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 300 nm and 36. 300 nm rja x n S/;Z dk ijkc S a x uh iz dk'k ftldh rhoz r k
intensity. 1.0 watt/m 2 falls on the surface of a 1.0 watt/m2 gAS ,d izdk'k laons h inkFkZ ij vkifrr gksrk g]S
photosensitive material. If 1% of the incident ;fn vkifrr QksVkWuksa dk 1% izdk'k bysDVªkWu mRlftZr djrk gS
photons produce photoelectrons, then the number rks 1.0 cm2 {ks=Qy ls mRlftZr izdk'k bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k
of photoelectrons emitted from an area of 1.0 cm2 yxHkx gksxh%&
of the surface is nearly :-
(1) 9.61 × 1014 per sec
14
(1) 9.61 × 10 per sec
(2) 4.12 × 1013 per sec
(2) 4.12 × 1013 per sec
(3) 1.51 × 1012 per sec
(3) 1.51 × 1012 per sec
(4) 2.13 × 1011 per sec (4) 2.13 × 1011 per sec
37. An electron of mass m and a photon have same 37. nzO;eku m ds bysDVªkWu rFkk fdlh QksVWku dh ÅtkZ,a E ,d leku
energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths gAS buesa lac¼ Mh&czkXyh rjaxn/S ;Z dk vuqikr gS :
associated with them is :
1 1
1 E ö2 E ö2
1æ E ö
1
2 æ E ö
1
2
(1) æç ÷ (2) æç ÷
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷ c è 2m ø è 2m ø
c è 2m ø è 2m ø
1
1
1 æ 2m ö 1 1 æ 2m ö 2
(3) c (2mE ) 2
1
(4)
2
(3) c (2mE ) 2 (4) ç ÷
ç ÷ xc è E ø
xc è E ø

38. ˆ ´B
If A ˆ ˆ , then A
ˆ = - 3 A·B ˆ –B
ˆ = . ....... :- 38. ;fn Aˆ ´ Bˆ = - 3 A·B
ˆ ˆ , rc A
ˆ –B
ˆ = ........ :-

(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1

(3) –1 (4) 3 (3) –1 (4) 3

39. During motion under a line velocity position of 39. ,d js[kk esa xfr ds fy, ,d d.k dk osx&fLFkfr lac/k :
a particle is : V(x) = bx–2n
V(x) = bx–2n rc Roj.k gksxk :-
Then acceleration is :-
(1) –2nb2 x–4n–1
2 –4n–1
(1) –2nb x
(2) –2b2x–2n+1
(2) –2b2x–2n+1
(3) –2nb 2e–4n+1
(3) –2nb 2e–4n+1
(4) –2nb 2x–2n–1 (4) –2nb 2x–2n–1
40. A particle travels 10 m in first 5 sec and 10 m in 40. ,d d.k igys ik¡p lsd.M esa 10 ehVj vkSj vxys rhu lsd.M
next 3 sec. Assuming constant acceleration, what is esa 10 ehVj dh nwjh r; djrk gAS fu;r Roj.k ekurs gq, vxys
the distance travelled by particle in next 2 sec. :- nks lsd.M esa r; dh xbZ nwjh gksxh :-
(1) 9.3 m (1) 9.3 m
(2) 8.3 m (2) 8.3 m
(3) 10.3 m (3) 10.3 m
(4) 10 m (4) 10 m
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41. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of height 41. 'h' Å¡pkbZ okys Hkou dh Nr ls ,d iRFkj fxjk;k tkrk gAS 1 lsd.M
'h'. After 1 second another stone is dropped from the i'pkr~ nwljk iRFkj Nr ls 20 ehVj uhps fLFkr ckWyduh ls fxjkrs gAS
balcony 20 m below the top of the tower. Both reach nksuksa /kjkry ij lkFk&lkFk igqp
¡ rs gAS rc 'h' dk eku D;k gksxk :-
the bottom simultaneously. What is the value of 'h' :- (1) 3125 m
(1) 3125 m
(2) 312.5 m
(2) 312.5 m
(3) 31.25 m
(3) 31.25 m
(4) 3.125 m (4) 3.125 m
42. Two particles A & B are projected from a building. 42. nks d.kksa A ,oa B dks ,d bekjr ls izsf{kr fd;k tkrk gS]
As shown in figure. Which particle will hit the fp=kuqlkj rc dkSu lk d.k /kjkry ls igys Vdjk;sx k:-
ground earlier :-
V (B)
V (B) 60° 2V (A)
60° 2V (A) 30°
30°

h
h

(1) d.k A (2) d.k B

(1) Particle A (2) Particle B
(3) Both at same time (4) None (3) nksuksa leku esa (4) dksbZ ugh
43. A plane is flying horizontally at 98 m/s and releases 43. ,d gokbZtgkt {kSfrt fn'kk esa 98 m/s ls mM+ jgk gS rFkk blls
an object which reaches the ground in 10 sec. The ,d oLrq fxjkbZ tkrh gAS tks 10 sec. esa /kjkry ij igq¡prh
angle made by it while hitting the ground is :- gSA rc oLrq dk /kjkry ls Vdjkus okyk dks.k gksxk :-
(1) 30° (1) 30°
(2) 60° (2) 60°
(3) 55° (3) 55°
(4) 45° (4) 45°
44. A man runs at a speed of 4 m/s to overtake a 44. 4 m/s dh pky ls nkSM jgk ,d O;fDr ,d fLFkj cl dks vksoj
standing bus. When he is 6m behind the door, the Vsd djrk gAS tc og njokts ls 6m ihNs gS rks cl vkxs xfr
bus moves forward & continues with a constant djrh gS rFkk 1.2 m/s2 ds fu;r Roj.k ls pyrh gS] rks O;fDr
acceleration of 1.2 m/s2. The man shall access the dks njokts rd igq¡ pus esa fdruk le; yxsxk :-
door at time 't' equals to :-
(1) 5.3 s (2) 4.3 s
(1) 5.3 s (2) 4.3 s
(3) 2.3 s (4) 3.3 s (3) 2.3 s (4) 3.3 s
45. The x & y coordinates of the particle at any time 45. fdlh {k.k ,d d.k dk x ,oa y funs Z ' kka d Øe'k%
are x = 5t – 2t2 & y = 10 t respectively. Where, x = 5t – 2t2 vkjS y = 10 t g]S tgk¡ x o y ehVj es ,oa t sec
x & y in meters & t in sec. The acceleration of esa gS rc t = 2 sec ij d.k dk Roj.k D;k gksxk :-
particle at t = 2 sec :-
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) –4 m/s2 (1) 5 m/s2 (2) –4 m/s2
(3) –8 m/s2 (4) 0 (3) –8 m/s2 (4) 0
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TOPIC : p-block, f-block, d-block, Chemical kinetics (upto zero order).
Na2 B4 O7 .10H2 O ¾¾¾
Heat
46. ® X + NaBO2 + H2 O, 46. Heat
Na2B4O7 .10H2O ¾¾¾ ® X + NaBO2 + H2O,

X + Cr2O3 ¾¾¾
Heat
® Y (green coloured) X + Cr2O3 ¾¾¾
Heat
® Y (green coloured)
X and Y are :- X vkjS Y gS :-
(1) Na3BO3 and Cr(BO2)3 (1) Na3BO3 rFkk Cr(BO2)3
(2) Na2B4O7 and Cr(BO2)3 (2) Na2B4O7 rFkk Cr(BO2)3
(3) B2O3 and Cr(BO2)3 (3) B2O3 rFkk Cr(BO2)3
(4) B2O3 and CrBO3 (4) B2O3 rFkk CrBO3
47. The basic reaction involved in the synthesis of 47. ØkWl fyad flfydkWu ds la'ys"k.k esa lfEefyr ewy vfHkfØ;k
cross link silicone is hydrolysis of :- esa fuEu dk ty vi?kVu gksrk gS %&
(1) Methyl dichloro silane (1) esfFky MkbZ Dyksjks lhysu
(2) Trimethyl chloro silane (2) VªkWbZ esfFky Dyksjks lhysu
(3) Methyl trichloro silane (3) esfFky VªkWbZ Dyksjks lhysu
(4) Diethyl dichlorosilane (4) MkbZ ,sfFky MkbZ Dyksjks lhysu
48. In B2H6 : 48. B2H6 esa :
(1) There is direct boron-boron bond (1) lh/ks cksjksu&cksjku cU/k ik;k tkrk gS
(2) The boron atoms are linked through bridges (2) cksjksu ijek.kq lsrq gkbMªkt
s u ls tqM+s gksrs gaS
hydrogen
(3) lHkh B–H ca/k nwjh leku gksrh gS
(3) All the B–H bond distance are equal
(4) All the atom are in one plane (4) lHkh ijek.kq ,d ry esa gksrs gaS
49. The hybridisation state of Boron and Oxygen 49. cksfjd vEy [H3BO3] esa cksjksu o vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh
atoms in Boric acid [H3BO3] :- ladj.k voLFkk gksxh :-
(1) sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp3 (1) sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp3
50. The compound (SiH3)3N is expected to be :- 50. ;kSfxd (SiH3)3N gksrk gS :-
(1) Pyramidal and more basic than (CH3)3N (1) fijfS eMh o (CH3)3N ls vf/kd {kkjh;
(2) Planar and less basic than (CH3)3N (2) leryh; o (CH3)3N ls de {kkjh;
(3) Pyramidal and less basic than (CH3)3N (3) fijfS eMh o (CH3)3N ls de {kkjh;
(4) Planar and more basic than (CH3)3N (4) leryh; o (CH3)3N ls vf/kd {kkjh;
51. How many S–S bond, S–O–S bond, s bonds and 51. SO3 ds f=yd esa S–S ca/kksa ] S–O–S ca/kksa] s ca/kksa rFkk
p bonds are present in trimer of SO3. p ca/kksa dh la[;k Øe'k% gksxh :-
(1) 0, 3, 16, 2 (2) 0, 3, 12, 6 (1) 0, 3, 16, 2 (2) 0, 3, 12, 6
(3) 0, 6, 12, 16 (4) 0, 4, 12, 6 (3) 0, 6, 12, 16 (4) 0, 4, 12, 6
52. NH3 can be dried by :- 52. NH3 fuEu ds }kjk 'kq"d fd;k tkrk gS %&
(1) P4O10 (2) Conc. H2SO4 (1) P4O10 (2) lkUæ H2SO4
(3) Anhydrous CaCl 2 (4) CaO (3) futZy CaCl2 (4) CaO
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53. Which factor is most responsible for the increase 53. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dkjd vfØ; xSlksa ds DoFkukad ds c<+rs Øe
in boiling point of noble gases from He to Xe :- ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS (He ls Xe rd) :-
(1) Decrease in I.E. (1) vk;uu ÅtkZ esa deh
(2) Monoatomic nature (3) (2) ,dy ijek.oh; izd`fr
Decrease in polarisability (4) (3) /kqzo.krk esa deh
Increase in polarisability (4) /kqzo.krk esa o`f¼
54. Select the correct statement :- 54. lgh dFku dk p;u djks&
(1) Cr2O7–2 turns yellow in basic medium (1) Cr2O7–2 {kkjh; ek/;e esa ihyk gks tkrk gAS
+4
(2) Ce and Tb+4 are oxidising agents (2) Ce+4 rFkk Tb+4 vkWDlhdkjd gaAS
(3) In neutral medium KMnO4 oxidises KI in to (3) mnklhu ek/;e esa KMnO4, KI dks KIO3 esa
KIO3 vkWDlhd`r dj nsrk gAS
(4) All are correct (4) lHkh lgh gS
55. Select the correct statement ? 55. lgh dFku pqfu, \
(1) Oxidation state of Cl in CaOCl2 is = 0 (2) (1) CaOCl2 esa Cl dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk 0 gAS
HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4. .........(oxidising (2) HOCl < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4 . ....
character) (vkWDlhdkjd lkeF;Z)
(3) Bond angle in P4 = 60° (3) P4 esa ca/k dks.k 60° gksrk gS
(4) Red phosphorous react with NaOH to give
PH3 (4) yky QkLQksjl NaOH ds lkFk fØ;k djds PH3 nsrk gS
56. Strongest reducing agent is :- 56. izcyre vipk;d g&S
(1) Na (2) Be (3) Mg (4) Cs (1) Na (2) Be (3) Mg (4) Cs
57. Select the correct statement : 57. lgh dFku dk pquko dhft, :-
(1) NO2 is mixed anhydride (1) NO2 ,d fefJr ,ugkbMªkbM gS
(2) SO2 shows bleaching action due to reduction (2) SO2 vip;u }kjk fojatu xq.k iznf'kZr djrk gS
(3) H2S turns white lead acetate paper in to black (3) H2S 'osr yM S ,flVsV isij dks dkyk dj nsrk gAS
(4) All of them (4) mijksDr lHkh
58. Which is correct statement :- 58. lgh dFku gS :-
(1) Aq. solution of alum shows acidic nature (1) ,ye dk tyh; foy;u vEyh; gksrk gAS
(2) 12s, 3p bonds are present in Borazole (B3N3H6) (2) cksjktksy (B3N3H6) 12s, 3p ca/k gksrs gS
(3) As2O3 is amphoteric oxide (3) As2O3 mHk;/kehZ vkWDlkbM gS
(4) All of them (4) mijksDr lHkh
59. Which is correct reaction :- 59. lgh vfHkfØ;k gS :-
(1) XeF6 + CsF ¾® Cs[XeF7] (1) XeF6 + CsF ¾® Cs[XeF7]
(2) PCl3 + H2O ¾® H3PO3 + HCl (2) PCl3 + H2O ¾® H3PO3 + HCl
(3) 2F2 + 2H2O ¾® O2 + 4HF (3) 2F2 + 2H2O ¾® O2 + 4HF
(4) All are correct (4) lHkh lgh
60. Acidified K2Cr2O7 react with H2S to give :- 60. vEyh; K2Cr2O7 dh vfHkfØ;k H2S ls djkus ij izkIr gksxk&
(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (1) SO2 (2) SO3
(3) S (4) H2SO4 (3) S (4) H2SO4

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61. The rate law equation for the elementary reaction 61. fuEu izkFkfed vfHkfØ;k ds fy, nj fu;e gksxk&
A + 2B ¾¾
K
® 3C is: A + 2B ¾¾
K
® 3C
- d[A] - d[B] d[C] - d[A] - d[B] d[C]
(1) = = = k[A][B]2 (1) = = = k[A][B]2
dt dt dt dt dt dt

- d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] - d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C]

(2) = = = k[A]2 [B] (2) = = = k[A]2 [B]
dt 2 dt 3 dt dt 2 dt 3 dt

- d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] - d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C]

(3) =- = = K[A][B]2 (3) =- = = K[A][B]2
dt 2 dt 3 dt dt 2 dt 3 dt

1 d[A] -1 d[B] d[C] 1 d[A] -1 d[B] d[C]

(4) - = = = k[A]2 [B]2 (4) - = = = k[A]2 [B]2
2 dt 3 dt dt 2 dt 3 dt dt
62. The rate of reaction is expressed in different ways 62. vfHkfØ;k dh nj fHkUu&fHkUu izdkj ds iznf'kZr dh tkrh gAS
as follows:
+1 d[C] -1 d[D] +1 d[A] -d[B]
+1 d[C] -1 d[D] +1 d[A] -d[B] = = =
= = = 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
vfHkfØ;k gksxh :-
The reaction is :-
(1) 4A + B ¾® 2C + 3D
(1) 4A + B ¾® 2C + 3D
(2) B + 3D ¾® 4A + 2C
(2) B + 3D ¾® 4A + 2C
(3) A + B ¾® C + D (3) A + B ¾® C + D
(4) B + D ¾® A + C (4) B + D ¾® A + C

-d[A] -d[A]
63. For the reaction 2A ® B + 3C if = k[A]2 , 63. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fy, 2A ® B + 3C ;fn = k[A]2 ,
dt dt

d[B] d[C] d[B] d[C]

= K 2 [A]2 , = K 3 [A]2 the correct relation = K 2 [A]2 , = K 3 [A]2 buesa ls dkuS lk laca/k K1,
dt dt dt dt
between K 1 , K2 and K3 is: K2 rFkk K3 esa lgh gS :
(1) K1 = K2 = K3 (2) 2K1 = K2 = 3K3 (1) K1 = K2 = K3 (2) 2K1 = K2 = 3K3
K1 K K1 K
(3) 4K1 = K2 = 3K2 (4) = K2 = 3 (3) 4K1 = K2 = 3K2 (4) = K2 = 3
2 3 2 3
64. A2 + B2 ¾® 2AB r = K[A2 ]a [B2]b 64. A2 + B2 ¾® 2AB r = K[A2 ]a [B2]b
Initial (A2 ) Initial (B2 ) r(MS –1 ) izkjafHkd (A2) izkjafHkd (B2) r(MS–1)
0.2 0.2 0.04 0.2 0.2 0.04
0.1 0.4 0.04
0.1 0.4 0.04
0.2 0.4 0.08
0.2 0.4 0.08
order of reaction with respect to A 2 and B 2 are
respectively A2 rFkk B2 ds lkis{k vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV Øe'k% gksxh :-
(1) a = 1, b = 1 (2) a = 2, b = 0 (1) a = 1, b = 1 (2) a = 2, b = 0
(3) a = 2, b = 1 (4) a = 2, b = 2 (3) a = 2, b = 1 (4) a = 2, b = 2
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65. For a reaction the initial rate is given as : 65.
R0 = K[A]20 [B]0, by what factor, the initial rate of
reaction will increase if initial concentration of A
is taken 1.5 times and of B is tripled?
,d vfHkfØ;k ds fy, fuEu izdkj ds izkjafHkd nj nh tkrh gS :
R0 = K[A]20 [B]0, vfHkfØ;k dh nj fdrus xquk c<+sxh ;fn
A dh izkjafHkd lkanzrk 1-5 xquk rFkk B dh lkanzrk rhu xquk dj

(1) 4.5 (2) 2.25 nh tk;s\

(3) 6.75 (4) None (1) 4.5 (2) 2.25 (3) 6.75 (4) dksbZ ugha
66. The unit of rate constant of elementary reaction 66. izkFkfed vfHkfØ;k ds nj fLFkjkad dh bdkbZ fuHkZj djrh gS –
depends upon the–
(1) vfHkfØ;k ds rki ij
(1) temperature of the reaction
(2) fØ;kdkjd dh lkanzrk ij
(2) Concentration of reactant
(3) vfHkfØ;k dh lafØ;.k ÅtkZ ij
(3) Activation of energy of the reaction
(4) Molecularity of the reaction (4) vfHkfØ;k dh vkf.odrk ij
67. The units of rate of reaction and rate constant are 67. nj fLFkjkad rFkk vfHkfØ;k dh nj nksuksa dh bdkbZ leku gksxh&
same for a
(1) 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(1) zero order reaction
(2) izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(2) first order reaction
(3) f}rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(3) second order reaction
(4) third order reaction (4) r`rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
68. An elementary reaction between A and B is a 68. A rFkk B ds e/; ,d izkFkfed vfHkfØ;k f}rh; dksfV dh gAS
second order reaction which of the following rate
fuEu esa ls dkuS lh nj lehdj.k lgh g&S
equations must be correct.
(1) r = K [A]2 [B]0 (2) r = K [A]3/2 [B]1/2
(1) r = K [A]2 [B]0 (2) r = K [A]3/2 [B]1/2
(3) r = K[A]0 [B]2 (4) r = K[A][B] (3) r = K[A]0 [B]2 (4) r = K[A][B]

CH 3 COOC2 H5 + H 2 O(l) ¾¾¾®

H + (aq.)
69. CH 3 COOC2 H5 + H 2 O(l) ¾¾¾®
H + (aq.)
69. (aq.) (excess)
(aq.) (excess)

CH3 COOH + C 2 H 5 OH
CH3 COOH + C 2 H 5 OH what type of reaction is (aq.) (aq.)
(aq.) (aq.)
this? vfHkfØ;k fdl rjg dh g\
S
(1) Unimolecular (2) Pseudo first order (1) ,dkf.od (2) Nn~e izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(3) Zero order (4) Second order (3) 'kwU; dksfV (4) f}rh; dksfV
70. For the zero order reaction A ® B + C. initial 70. ,d 'kwU; dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k A ® B + C. A dh izkjafHkd lkanzrk
concentration of A is 0.1M. If A = 0.08 M after 0.1M gAS ;fn A dh lkanrz k 10 miute i'pkr~ 0.08 M gks xbZ
10 minutes, then its half life and completion time rks v}Zvk;qdky rFkk iw.kZ vk;qdky Øe'k% gksxk :
are respectively:
(1) 10 min, 20 min.
(1) 10 min, 20 min.
(2) 2 × 10–3 min, 4 × 10–3 min. (2) 2 × 10–3 min, 4 × 10–3 min.

(3) 25min, 50min. (3) 25min, 50min.

(4) 250 min, 500 min. (4) 250 min, 500 min.
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71. The hypothetical reaction A2 + B2 ® 2AB follows 71. dkYifud vfHkfØ;k A2 + B2 ® 2AB uhps nh xbZ fuEu
the mechanism as given below– fØ;kfof/k }kjk gksrh gS –
ˆˆ† A + A(fast)
A 2 ‡ˆˆ ˆˆ† A + A(fast)
A 2 ‡ˆˆ
A + B2 ® AB + B (Slow) A + B2 ® AB + B (Slow)
A + B ® AB (fast) A + B ® AB (fast)
The order of over all reaction is lEiw.kZ fØ;k dh dksfV gS
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1
1 1
(3) 1 (4) zero (3) 1 (4) 'kw U;
2 2
72. The reaction mechanism for the reaction 72. vfHkfØ;k P ® R ds fy, vfHkfØ;k dh fØ;kfof/k fuEu gS
P ® R is as follows:
ˆˆˆ
P ‡ˆˆ
1K
†
ˆ 2Q(fast) 2Q + P ¾¾
K2
®(slow)
ˆˆˆ†
K1
P ‡ˆˆˆ 2Q(fast) 2Q + P ¾¾®(slow)
K2

the rate law for the main reaction (P ® R) is

eq[; vfHkfØ;k (P ® R) ds fy, nj fu;e gS
[where K1 is an equilibrium constant] [tgkWa K1 ,d lkE; fLFkjkad g]S
(1) K1[P][Q] (2) K1 K2 [P] (1) K1[P][Q] (2) K1 K2 [P]
(3) K1 K2[P] 2
(4) K1 K2 [Q] (3) K1 K2[P]2 (4) K1 K2 [Q]
73. The rate of the reaction 2N 2 O5 ¾® 4NO2 + O2 73. vfHkfØ;k 2N2O5 ¾® 4NO2 + O2 dks rhu izdkj ls fy[k
can be written in three ways ldrs gS
- d[N 2 O5 ] d[NO 2 ]
= K[N 2 O5 ] = K '[N 2 O5 ] - d[N 2 O5 ] d[NO 2 ]
dt dt = K[N 2 O5 ] = K '[N 2 O5 ]
dt dt
d[O 2 ]
= K"[N 2 O5 ] d[O2 ]
dt = K"[N 2 O5 ]
dt
the relationship between K and K' and between
K rFkk K' rFkk K & K" ds chp lEcU/k gS –
K & K" are –
(1) K' = K ; K" = K (1) K' = K ; K" = K

(2) K' = 2K ; K" = K (2) K' = 2K ; K" = K

(3) K' = 2K ; K" = K/2 (3) K' = 2K ; K" = K/2

(4) K' = 2K ; K" = 2K (4) K' = 2K ; K" = 2K
74. In a reaction A + B ® product rate is doubled 74. A + B ® mRikn vfHkfØ;k esa ;fn B dh lkUnzrk nqxquh dj
when the concentration of B is doubled and rate nh tkrh gS rks nj nqxquh gks tkrh gS rFkk nj 8 ds xq.kd ls c<+
increased by a factor of 8 when the concentrations tkrh gS gS tc nksuksa fØ;kdkjdksa (A rFkk B) dh lkUnzrk nksxquk
of both the reactions (A and B) are doubled, rate dj nh tkrh gS vfHkfØ;k ds fy, nj fu;e bl izdkj fy[kk tk
law for the reaction can be written as: ldrk g%S &
(1) r = K[A] [B] (2) r = K[A]2 [B] (1) r = K[A] [B] (2) r = K[A]2 [B]

(3) r = K[A] [B]2 (4) r = K[A]2 [B]2

(3) r = K[A] [B]2 (4) r = K[A]2 [B]2

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75. The rate constant of the reaction A ® B is 75. vfHkfØ;k A ® B ds fy, osx fLFkjkad 0.6 × 10–3 Ms–1 gAS ;fn
0.6 × 10–3 Ms–1 . If the initial concentration of A A dh izkjafHkd lkanzrk 5M gks rks 20 fefuV i'pkr~ B dh lkanzrk
is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 min is gSA
(1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M (1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M
(3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M (3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
76. When Fe reacts with Cr2O72– in acidic medium
+2
76. vEyh; ek/;e esa Fe+2 dh Cr2O72– ds lkFk fØ;k djus ij
then Fe +3 and Cr +3 are formed. If rate of Fe+3 rFkk Cr+3 curs gS ;fn Cr2O2– ds foyqIr gksus dh nj x
7
disapparnce of Cr 2 O 2–7
is x then the rate of
appearance of Fe will be
3+ gS rks Fe3+ ds cuus dh nj gksxh
6Fe2+ + Cr2O 27- + 14H + ® 6Fe3+ + 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O 6Fe2+ + Cr2 O27- + 14H + ® 6Fe3+ + 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O

x x
(1) (2) 3x (1) (2) 3x
6 6

x x
(3) 6x (4) (3) 6x (4)
3 3
77. The rate of reaction between two reactants A and 77. nks fØ;kdkjd A rFkk B dh vfHkfØ;k dh nj 4 ds xq.kd ls
B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration
?kV tkrh gS ;fn B dh lkanzrk nksxquh dj nh tkrh gS gS rks B ds
of reactant B is doubled. The order of the reaction
with respect to reactant B is lkis{k vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gksxh-
(1) –1 (2) –2 (1) –1 (2) –2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
78. For the reaction 2A + B ® 3C + D which of the 78. fuEu vfHkfØ;k 2A + B ® 3C + D ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkuS
following does not express the reaction rate?
vfHkfØ;k dh nj dks ugha n'kkZrh g\
S
d[D] -1 d[A] d[D] -1 d[A]
(1) (2) (1) (2)
dt 2 dt dt 2 dt

-1 d[C] - d[B] -1 d[C] - d[B]

(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 dt dt 3 dt dt
79. The electron gain enthalpy of S, Se and Te are 79. bysDVªkWu xzg.k ,UFkYS ih S, Se rFkk Te ds Øe'k% –200, –195
–200, –195 and –190 kJ mol–1 respectively then rFkk –190 kJ mol–1 gaS] rks vkWDlhtu (O) dh bysDVªkWu xzg.k
what would be the electron gain enthalpy of ,UFkYS ih D;k gksxh\
oxygen (O) in kJ mol –1 ?
(1) –205 kJ mol–1 (2) –198 kJ mol–1
(1) –205 kJ mol–1 (2) –198 kJ mol–1
(3) –141 kJ mol–1 (4) +48 kJ mol–1 (3) –141 kJ mol–1 (4) +48 kJ mol–1
80. Which among the following regarding atomic radii 80. buesa ls dkSu vkf.od f=T;k ds lanHkZ esa lgh ugh g\
S
is incorrect ?
(1) Sc > Ti > V (2) Fe » Co » Ni
(1) Sc > Ti > V (2) Fe » Co » Ni
(3) Ar > Na > Mg (4) Sc < Y » La
(3) Ar > Na > Mg (4) Sc < Y » La

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81. Which of the following oxide is expected to react 81. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls vkWDlkbM+ dh lksfM;e gkbMªkDW lkbM+ ls vfHkfØ;k
with sodium hydroxide ? vkisf{kr gS\
(1) K2 O (2) BeO (1) K2 O (2) BeO
(3) CaO (4) Rb2 O (3) CaO (4) Rb2 O
82. The order of increasing ionic radii is : 82. vk;fud f=T;k dk c<+rk gqvk Øe gS &
(1) Li+ < Be+ < B+ < C+ (1) Li+ < Be+ < B+ < C+
(2) C+ < B+ < Be+ < Li+ (2) C+ < B+ < Be+ < Li+
(3) B+ < C+ < Be+ < Li+ (3) B+ < C+ < Be+ < Li+
(4) Li+ < Be+ < C+ < B+ (4) Li+ < Be+ < C+ < B+
83. The most acidic oxide among the given oxides 83. fn;s x;s vkWDlkbMks esa ls lokZf/kd vEyh; vkWDlkbM+ gS &
is :
(1) MgO (2) Al 2O 3
(1) MgO (2) Al 2O 3
(3) CO2 (4) N2 O (3) CO2 (4) N2 O
84. Which among the given formula of the 84. fn;s x;s fuEu ;kfS xd lw=ksa esa ls dkuS lgh iznf'kZr ugh djrk
compounds is not the correct representation ? gS\
(1) OF 2 (2) OBr2 (1) OF 2 (2) OBr2
(3) H2 O (4) N2 O (3) H2 O (4) N2 O
85. Highest electronegativity of the given ions will be 85. fn;s x;s vk;uks a es a ls lokZ f /kd fo|q r ½.krk fdldh
shown by : gksxh\
(1) Mn2+ (2) Mn5+ (1) Mn2+ (2) Mn5+
(3) Mn7+ (4) Mn3+ (3) Mn7+ (4) Mn3+
86. The least electron affinity will be shown by the 86. U;wure bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk iznf'kZr djus okys rRo dk bysDVªkWfud
element having the configuration : foU;kl gksxk\
(1) 2s2 2p 3 (2) 2s2 2p 1 (1) 2s2 2p 3 (2) 2s2 2p 1
(3) 2s 2p
2 5
(4) 2s2 2p 6 (3) 2s2 2p 5 (4) 2s2 2p 6
87. The highest difference in electronegativity will be 87. fo|qr½.krk dk lokZf/kd vUrj mifLFkr gksxk\
observed in :
(1) H rFkk P (2) C rFkk I
(1) H and P (2) C and I
(3) N rFkk Cl (4) Li rFkk Na
(3) N and Cl (4) Li and Na
88. Which is the incorrect option regarding order of 88. f}rh; vk;uu mtkZ ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk fodYi lgh ugha gS \
second ionisation enthalpy ?
(1) O > F (2) Li > Ne
(1) O > F (2) Li > Ne
(3) B > C (4) N > O (3) B > C (4) N > O
89. Of the given oxy acids strength, which one is a 89. fn;s x;s vkWDlhvEy esa ls muds lkeF;Z dk esy dkuS lk lgh ugh
wrong match ? gS\
(1) H2 SO4 > H2SO3 (2) HNO3 > HNO2 (1) H2 SO4 > H2SO3 (2) HNO3 > HNO2
(3) H3 PO4 > H3PO3 (4) HClO 4 > HClO3 (3) H3 PO4 > H3PO3 (4) HClO 4 > HClO3
90. The longest bond length is present in : 90. lcls vf/kd ca/k yackbZ mifLFkr gS &
(1) C–H (2) Si–H (1) C–H (2) Si–H
(3) N–H (4) P–H (3) N–H (4) P–H

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TOPIC : Principal of inheritance (upto cytoplasmic inheritance).
91. If individual contains only one Allele of a pair then 91. ;fn fdlh f}xqf.kr tho esa tksMh+ dk dsoy ,d gh dkjd mifLFkr
individual is said to be :- gks rks mls dgk tkrk g\ S
(1) Homozygous (2) Heterozygous (1) le;qXeth (2) fo"ke;qXeth
(3) Hemizygous (4) None (3) v¼Z;qXeth (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
92. Hybrid vigour develops due to :- 92. ladj vkSt fodflr fdlds dkj.k gksrh gS %&
(1) Homozygosity (1) le;qXerk ds dkj.k
(2) Heterozygosity (2) fo"ke;qXerk ds dkj.k
(3) Vegetative propagation (3) dkf;d tuu ds dkj.k
(4) Self pollination (4) Loijkx.k ds dkj.k
93. On how many chromosome genes of seven 93. esaMy ds }kjk p;fur lkr y{k.kksa dks fu;af=r djus okys thu
mendelian characters are located :- fdrus xq.klq=ksa ij mifLFkr Fks\
(1) Seven (2) Six (1) lkr (2) N%
(3) Four (4) Two (3) pkj (4) nks
94. How many statements are correct ? 94. fdrus dFku lgh g\ S
(a) Pea plant is annual plant (a) eVj ,do"khZ; ikni gSA
(b) Life cycle of pea plant is short (b) thou pØ NksVk gksrk gAS
(c) Natural cross pollination is present in pea plant (c) eVj esa izkd`frd :i ls ij&ijkx.k ik;k tkrk gAS
(d) Pea plant is easy to cultivate (d) eVj dks mxkuk ljy gksrk gAS
(e) Pea plant has many contrasting traits. (e) eVj esa vusd foijhr foHksn ds y{k.k ik;s tkrs gAS
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) One (1) ikap (2) pkj (3) nks (4) ,d
95. Which one is not exception of law of dominance? 95. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk izHkkfork ds fu;e dk viokn ugha g\ S
(1) Incomplete dominance (1) viw.kZ izHkkfork
(2) Co-dominance (2) lgizHkkfork
(3) Linkage (3) lgyXurk
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
96. Which one of the following is example of 96. fuEu esa ls dkSulk izHkkoh foHksn dk mnkgj.k g\ S
dominant trait ? (1) cht dk ihyk jax
(1) Yellow seed colour
(2) Qyh dk ihyk jax
(2) Yellow pod colour
(3) Wrinkled shaped seed (3) >wjhZnkj cht
(4) Terminal flower position (4) iq"i dh 'kh"kZLFk fLFkfr
97. In case of inheritance of one gene, 3 : 1 97. ,d thu dh oa'kkxfr esa, 3 : 1 y{k.kizk:i vuqikr fdlds
phenotypic ratio can be explained on the basis of:- vk/kkj ij le>k;k tk ldrk gS %&
(1) Incomplete dominance (1) viw.kZ izHkkfork
(2) Dominance (2) izHkkfork
(3) Co-dominance (3) lgizHkkfork
(4) Linkgage (4) lgyXurk
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98. Mendel selected .. true breeding pea plant 98. es.My us eVj dh ------ rnqzi iztuuh fdLeksa dks Nk¡Vk] ;s tksM+s
varieties, as pair which were similar except for foi;kZlh Lo:i okys---------- y{k.k dks NksM+dj leku Fks%&
........ characters with contrasting traits. :-
(1) 4, one (2) 7, one (3) 14, two (4) 14, one (1) 4, ,d (2) 7, ,d (3) 14, nks (4) 14, ,d
99. A plant of genotype AaBbDd is crossed with 99. ,d ikni ftldk thu izk:i AaBbDd dk ØkWl aabbdd
aabbdd then phenotypic ratio will be :- ikni ls djk;k tkrk g]S rc y{k.k izk:i vuqikr gksxk%&
(1) 27 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (1) 27 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
100. A red flower and golden leaf colour snapdragon 100. ,d yky iq"i rFkk lqugjh ifÙk;ksa okys LusiMsªxu ikni dk ØkWl
is crossed with pink flower and golden leaf colour xqykch iq"i rFkk lqugjh ifÙk;ksa okys ikni ds lkFk djokus ij
plant, phenotypic ratio will be :- y{k.k izk:i vuqikr gksxk\
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
101. Multiple allele can be found only when :- 101. cgq;qXefodYih dks dsoy ns[kk tk ldrk gS tc %&
(1) Population studies are made (1) tc lef"V Lrj ij v/;;u fd;k tkrk gSA
(2) Individual studies is made (2) O;fDr dk v/;;u fd;k tkrk gAS
(3) Dominance is present (4) (3) izHkkfork mifLFkr gksA
Mutation is absent (4) mRifjorZu vuqifLFkr gksA
102. A heterozygous 'A' blood group man married with 102. ,d fo"ke;qXeth 'A' jDr lewg dk vkneh AB jDr lewg okyh
AB blood group woman then which type of blood vkSjr ds lkFk fookg djrk gS rc mudh larku esa dkSuls izdkj
group is not possible in their progenies? dk jDr lewg lEHko ugha g\S
(1) 'O' (2) 'A' (3) 'B' (4) AB (1) 'O' (2) 'A' (3) 'B' (4) AB
103. Which of the following type of RBC provide 103. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lh RBC IykTeksfM;e QkWfYlisje ls
resistance against Malaria caused by Plasmodium gks u s okys eys f j;k ds fy, iz f rjks / kdrk iz n ku djrh
falciparum ? gS ?
(1) Sickle shape RBC (1) gfl;kdkj RBC
(2) Normal RBC (2) lkekU; RBC
(3) RBC which have well developes Nucleus (3) RBC ftlesa iw.kZ fodflr dsUnzd mifLFkr gksA
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) o (2) nksuks
104. Genetics is a branch of biology dealing 104. vkuqofa 'kdh foKku dh 'kk[kk gS ftlds varxZr vè;;u fd;k tkrk
with :- gS :-
(1) Heredity in living beings (1) thoksa esa vkuqoaf'kdrk
(2) Variations in living beings (2) thoksa esa fofHkUurk,¡
(3) Both heredity and variations (3) vkuqoaf'kdrk vkSj fofHkUurk,¡ nksuksa
(4) Internal structure of living beings (4) thoksa dh vkarfjd lajpuk
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105. Phenotype is due to :- 105. y{k.k izk:i dk dkj.k gS :-
(1) Genotype (1) thu izk:i
(2) Suitable environmental condition (2) mi;qDr okrkoj.kh; fLFkfr;k¡
(3) Genotype and suitable environmental condition (3) thu izk:i ,oa mi;qDr okrkoj.kh; fLFkfr;k¡

(4) Dominance (4) izHkkfork

106. Read the following five statements (A–E) and 106. uhps fn;s x;s ikap dFkuks (A–E) dks if<+, vkSj tl
S k muds vkxs
answer as asked next to them iwNk x;k gS
(A) Mendel's approach of using mathemetics to (A) tho foKkfu;ksa dks es.My dk to
S ?kVuk ds Li"Vhdj.k ds
explain biological phenomena was totally new fy, viuk;k x;k xf.kr vk/kkfjr jkLrk fcYdqy u;k vkSj
and unacceptable to many of the biologists of dbZ tho oKS kfudksa }kjk vLohdk;Z FkkA
his time.
(B) eVj esa vusd foijhr foHksn ds y{k.k ik;s tkrs gAS
(B) Pea plant has many contrasting traits.
(C) thu tks ,d ls T;knk y{k.kksa dk fu;a=.k djrh gS cgqizHkkoh
(C) Gene which controls more than one character
is called as pleiotropic gene.
thu dgykrh gAS
(D) Hybrid vigour is develops due to (D) ladj vkSt le;qXetrk ds dkj.k iSnk gksrh gAS
homozygosity. (E) izR;sd thu] DNA gS ysfdu izR;sd DNA thu ugh gAS
(E) Every gene is DNA but every DNA is not gene.
mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh g\
S
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) ik¡p (2) pkj
(1) Five (2) Four
(3) Three (4) One (3) rhu (4) ,d
107. Which one of the following is not correct 107. es.Msfy;u f}ladj ØkWl ds lUnHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku
regarding mendelian dihybrid cross ? lgh ugha gS\
(1) F2 generation is obtained from the cross between (1) F2 ih<+h] F1 ikni o nksuksa tudks esa ls fdlh ,d tud dk
F1 plants with one of the two parental plants. ØkWl djkus ij çkIr dh tkrh gAS
(2) The gametes produced by F 1 plants are of (2) F1 ikniks }kjk 4 çdkj ds ;qXed 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 vuqikr
4 types in 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 esa cuk;s tkrs gAS
(3) The F 2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) F2 y{k.k çk:i vuqikr 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 gksrk gAS
(4) Law of independent assortment can be (4) bl ØkWl ds vk/kkj ij Loa r= viO;q gu ds fu;e dks
explained on the basis of this cross le>kk;k tk ldrk gSA
108. In a dihybrid cross in garden pea 1024 plants were 108. m|ku eVj ds ,d f}ladj ladj.k dh F2 ih<+h esa 1024 ikni
obtained in F2 generation. How many plants will çkIr gq;As buesa ls fdrus ikni nksuksa y{k.kksa ds fy, vçHkkoh Lo:i
show recessive trait for both characters ? çnf'kZr djrs g\ S
(1) 576 (2) 64 (1) 576 (2) 64
(3) 256 (4) 384 (3) 256 (4) 384
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109. Correctly match the column I with column II:- 109. dkWye I dk dkWye II ds lkFk lgh feyku crkb;s :-

Column I Column II dkWy e –I dkWy e –II

Flower colour LusiMªxs u esa iq"i
I Dominance (A) I izHkkfork (A)
in snapdragon dk jax
Incomplete 'AB' blood II viw.kZ izHkkfork (B) 'AB' jDr lewg
II (B)
dominance group
Coat colour in pwgksa esa Ropk dk
III Co-dominance (C) III lgizHkkfork (C)
mice
jax

Seed shape in m/kku eVj esa

IV Lethal gene (D) IV ?kkrd thu (D)
garden pea cht dh vkd`fr

(1) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C (1) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(2) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C (2) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(3) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (3) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
(4) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D (4) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
110. Test cross involves :- 110. ijh{kkFkZ ladj.k eas D;k gksrk gS ?
(1) Crossing between two genotypes with
recessive trait (1) vizH kkoh fo'ks "kd okys nks thu iz k:iksa ds chp la dj.k

(2) Cross of F 1 hybrid with double recessive
genotype
(3) Crossing between two hybrids
(4) Cross of F 1 hybrid with double dominant
genotype
(2) F1 ladj dk ,d nksgjs vizHkkoh thu izk:i ds lkFk ladj.k
(3) nks ladjksa ds chp ladj.k
(4) F 1 la d j dk nks g js iz H kkoh thu iz k :i ds lkFk la d j.k

111. F2 generation in a mendelian cross showed that 111. ,d eaM

S yh; ladj.k esa F2 ih<+h esa ik;k x;k fd thu izk:i rFkk
both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as y{k.k izk:i nksuksa vuqikr ,d leku 1 : 2 : 1 gAS ;g ekeyk
1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of :- D;k n'kkZrk gS ?
(1) Complete dominance (1) iw.kZ izHkkfork
(2) Dihybrid cross (2) f}ladj ladj.k
(3) Monohybrid cross with co-dominance (3) lgizHkkfork okyk ,d ladj ladj.k
(4) Incomplete dominance (4) viw.kZ izHkkfork
112. Which character in garden pea, mendel did not use 112. m/kku eVj esa dkSulk y{k.k esaMy us vius iz;ksx ds fy, mi;ksx
for his experiments ? ugha fd;k ?
(1) Size of starch garins (1) e.M d.kksa dk vkdkj
(2) Pod length (2) Qyh dh yEckbZ
(3) Pod colour (3) Qyh dk jax
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
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113. In the inheritance of size of starch grain in Pisum 113. ikble lsVkboe esa LVkpZ d.kksa dk vkdkj dh oa'kkxfr esa F1
sativum, the F 1 had a phenotype that :- dk y{k.k izk:i gksrk g%S &
(1) Resemble both of the parents (1) nksuksa tudksa ds leku
(2) Resemble none of the parents (2) fdlh Hkh tud ds leku ugha
(3) Resemble either one of the parents (3) fdlh ,d tud ds leku
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
114. How many Zygotes will be produced by a plant 114. ,d ik/S ks ls ftldk thu izk:i AABbCC gS Loijkx.k ls fdrus
having the genotype AABbCC upon selfing? ;qXeut cusxas ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Nine (4) Two (1) rhu (2) pkj (3) ukS (4) nks
115. When a heterozygous tall pea plant of F 1 115. ,d f1 ih<h dk fo"ke;qXeth yEcs eVj dk ikni Lofu"kspu
generation upon self fertilization produces tall and ij yEcs vkSj ckSus y{k.k iz:i mRiUu djrk gS rks ;g fl¼
dwarf phenotypes it proves the principle of :- djrk gS %&
(1) Dominance (1) izHkkfork
(2) Segregation (2) i`FkDdj.k
(3) Independant assortement (3) Lora= viO;wgu
(4) Inheritance & purity of gametes (4) ;qXedksa dh 'kq¼rk vkjS oa'kkxfr
116. A cross between AaBB × aaBB yields a genotypic 116. AaBB × aaBB ds chp ladj.k ls dkSulk lethuh vuqikr
ratio of :- izkIr gksrk gS \
(1) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB (1) 1 AaBB : 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
(3) 3AaBB : 1 aa BB (4) All AaBb (3) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (4) lHkh AaBb
117. Mendelian ratio 9:3:3:1 is due to :- 117. es.My dk 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 dk vuqikr fdl fu;e dks iznf'kZr
(1) Law of segregation djrk g\ S
(1) i`FkDdj.k dk fu;e
(2) Law of purity of gametes
(2) ;qXedksa dh 'kq¼rk dk fu;e
(3) Law of independent assortment (3) Lora= viO;wgu dk fu;e
(4) Law of unit characters (4) ,dy & y{k.k dk fu;e
118. AABbCc genotype forms how many types of 118. AABbCc thuksVkbi fdrus izdkj ds ;qXed cuk,xk \
gametes ?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6
119. In sickle cell anaemia :- 119. fldy ly
S ,fufe;k esa &
(1) The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes (1) de vkWDlhtu ruko esa mRifjorhZ gheksXyksfcu v.kq esa
polymerisation under low oxygen tension cgqyhdj.k gks tkrk gS ftlds dkj.k RBC dk vkdkj cny
causing the change in the shape of RBC tkrk gAS
(2) Substitution of Glutamic acid by valine at the (2) gheksXyksfcu v.kq dh a-J`a[kyk esa NBs LFkku ij XywVSfed
sixth position of the a-chain of haemoglobin vEy dk osyhu }kjk izfrLFkkiu gksrk gAS
(3) The mutant haemoglobin undergoes polymerization (3) mPp vkWDlhtu ruko esas mRijhorhZ gheksXyksfcu v.kq esa
under high oxygen tension causing the change cgqyhdj.k gks tkrk gS ftlds dkj.k RBC dk vkdkj cny
in shape of RBC tkrk gAS
(4) a-globin chain is modified (4) a-Xyksfcu J`a[kyk :ikUrfjr gks tkrh gAS
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120. In multiple allele system a gamete possesses :- 120. ,d eYVhiy ,yhy ra= esa ,d ;qXed j[krk gS %&
(1) Two alleles (2) Three alleles (1) nks ,yhy (2) rhu ,yhy
(3) One allele (4) Several alleles (3) ,d ,yhy (4) dbZ ,yhy
121. Genetic constitution of an individual is 121. ,d ltho dk thuh & laxBu fdlds }kjk fu:fir gksrk g\
S
represented by :-
(1) thukse (2) thuksVkbi
(1) Genome (2) Genotype
(3) Phenotype (4) Karyotype (3) QhuksVkbi (4) dsfj;ksVkbi
122. The process of mating between closely related 122. fudVre lacaf/kr lnL;ksa ds e/; ØkWl dgykrk gS %&
individuals is :-
(1) vkÅV fczfMax (2) bUczhfMax
(1) Out-breeding (2) Inbreeding
(3) Hybridisation (4) Heterosis (3) ladj.k (4) gsVjs ksfll
123. How many types of genotypes are formed in F2 123. ,d F1 f}ladj ds Loijkx.k ls F2 lUrfr;ksa esa fdrus izdkj
progeny obtained from self polination of a ds thu izk:i curs gaS ?
dihybrid F1 ? (1) 9 (2) 3
(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 1 (3) 6 (4) 1
124. Incomplete dominance is found in :- 124. viw.kZ izHkkfork ik;h tkrh g%S &
(1) Pisum Sativum (1) eVj (ikble lsVkboe)
(2) Antirrhinum Majus (2) ,aVhjghue estl
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
125. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea 125. es.My }kjk v/;;u fd, x, eVj ds lkr tksM+h foi;kZlh y{k.kksa
plant, studied by Mendel, the number of traits
esa] iq"i] Qyh o cht ds Øe'k% fdrus y{k.k Fks \
related to flower, pod and seed respectively was:-
(1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 2, 2, 1 (1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 2, 2, 1
(3) 1, 2, 2 (4) 1, 1, 2 (3) 1, 2, 2 (4) 1, 1, 2
126. Which of the following is exception to Mendel's 126. fuEu esa dkSulk es.My ds fu;eksa dk viokn gS \
laws? (1) lgyXurk (2) viw.kZ & izHkkfork
(1) Linkage (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance (4) All of the above (3) lg izHkkfork (4) mijksDr lHkh
127. In a dihybrid cross, when one pair of alleles show 127. ,d f}ladj ØkWl ftlesa ,d tksM+h ,fyYl viw.kZ izHkkfodrk
incomplete dominance, genotypic ratio comes to n'kkZrh gAS bl ØkWl ls thu izk:i vuqikr D;k izkIr gksxk
(1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 (1) 3 : 6 :
3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 :
2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 9 :
3 : 13 :
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 1: 2 :
128. A child is blood group is 'O'. His parents blood 128. ,d cPps dk :f/kj lewg 'O' gS mlds isr`dksa dk :f/kj lewg
group can not be :- ugha gks ldrk %&
(1) B & O (2) A & O (1) 'B' & 'o' (2) 'A' & 'o'
(3) AB (4) A & B (3) 'AB' (4) 'A' & 'B'
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129. A child of O blood group, has B-blood group 129. jDr lewg 'O' okys ,d cPps ds firk dk jDr & lewg B gAS
father, the genotype of father would be :- firk dk thuksVkbi gksxk %&
(1) I0I0 (2) IBIB (1) IoIo (2) IBIB
(3) IAIB (4) IBI0 (3) IAIB (4) IBIo
130. How many types & in what ratio the gametes are 130. ,d f}ladj fo"ke;qXet }kjk fdrus izdkj ds ,oa fdl vuqikr
produced by a dihybrid heterozygous :- esa ;qXed mRikfnr fd, tk,axs %&
(1) 4 types in the ratio of 9:3:3:1 (1) 4 izdkj ds ] 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 2 types in the ratio of 3:1 (2) 2 izdkj ds ] 3 : 1
(3) 3 types in the ratio of 1:2:1 (3) 3 izdkj ds] 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 4 types in the ratio of 1:1:1:1 (4) 4 izdkj ds ] 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
131. Sickle cell anaemia induces due to :- 131. fldy lsy ,uhfe;k fdlls izfs jr gksrk gS
(1) Change of Amino Acid in a – chain of (1) gheksXyksfcu dh a & J`[a kyk esa ,ehuks vEy ds ifjorZu ls
Haemoglobin
(2) Change of Amino Acid in b – chain of (2) gheksXyksfcu dh b – Jà[kyk esa ,ehuks vEy ds ifjorZu ls
Haemoglobin (3) gheksXyksfcu dh a rFkk b Ja`[kyk nksuks esa ,ehuksa vEy ds
(3) Change of Amino Acid in both a and b chain ifjorZu ls
of Haemoglobin
(4) gheksXyksfcu dh a ;k b J`a[kyk esa ,ehuks vEy ds ifjorZu
(4) Change of Amino acid either a or b chain of
ls
Haemoglobin
132. Crossing AABB & aabb, the probability of AaBb 132. AABB o aabb dk ladj.k djus ij F2 ih<h esa AaBb dh
would be in F2 generation :- izkf;drk gksxh %&
(1) 1/16 (2) 2/16 (1) 1/16 (2) 2/16
(3) 8/16 (4) 4/16 (3) 8/16 (4) 4/16
133. Two allelic genes are located on : 133. nks ,yhfyd thu fLFkr gksrh gS %&
(1) The same chromosome (1) ,d gh xq.klw= ij
(2) Two homologous chromosomes (2) nks letkr xq.klw=ksa ij
(3) Two-non-homologous chromosomes (3) nks vletkr xq.klw=ksa ij
(4) Any two chromosomes (4) fdUgha Hkh nks xq.klw=ksa ij
134. A pure tall plant can be differentiated from a 134. ,d 'kq¼ yEcs ikni dks ,d ladj yEcs ikni ls fdl vk/kkj ij
hybrid tall plant : igpkuk tk ldrk gS %&
(1) By measuring length of plant (1) ikni dh yackbZ ukidj
(2) By spraying gibberalins (2) ftCcjsfyu ds fNM+dko }kjk
(3) If all plants are tall after self-pollination (3) ;fn Loijkx.k }kjk lHkh ikni yEcs gksa rks
(4) If all plants are dwarf after self-pollination (4) ;fn Loijkx.k }kjk lHkh ikni ckSus gks rks
135. "Like begets like" an important and universal 135. ^ykbd fcxsV~l ykbd^ thou dk ,d egRoiw.kZ o lkoZHkkfS ed
phenomenon of life, is due to :- fl¼kar g]S bldk dkj.k gS %&
(1) Eugenics (2) Inheritance (1) ;wtsfuDl (2) oa'kkxfr
(3) dominance (4) Crossing-over (3) izHkkfork (4) thu fofue;
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136. How is the arrangement of Mendel’s selected
seven characters on four chromosomes :–
(1) One in ch. no. 1, 4 in ch. no. 4, one in ch.
no. 5, and one in ch. no. 7
(2) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, one in ch. no.
5 and one in ch. no. 6
(3) 3 in ch. no. 1, 1 in ch. no. 4, 2 in ch. no.
5 and one in ch. no. 7
(4) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, 1 in ch. no.
5 and 1 in ch. no. 7
137. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature
of F 1 progeny will be :-
(1) genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(2) genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
(3) genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
(4) genotypically aa, phenotypically A
138. When certain character is inherited only through the
female parent, it probably represents the case of:-
(1) Mendelian nuclear inheritance
(2) Multiple plastid inheritance
(3) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(4) Incomplete dominance
139. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of
presence of genes in :-
(1) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes and chloroplast
140. The three different alleles of human ABO blood
types will produce how many genotypes &
phenotypes respectively–
(1)4 & 6 (2) 6 & 4
(3) 6 & 6 (4) 4 & 4
141. Other than pea plants it was found that sometimes
the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either
of the two parents and was in between the two. It
is due to
(1)Complete Dominance
(2)Incomplete Dominance
(3)Co-Dominance
(4)Complementary gene interaction
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136. es.My ds }kjk pqus x;s lkr y{k.k pkj xq.klw= ij dSls O;ofLFkr
Fks %&
(1) One in ch. no. 1, 4 in ch. no. 4, one in ch.
no. 5, and one in ch. no. 7
(2) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, one in ch. no.
5 and one in ch. no. 6
(3) 3 in ch. no. 1, 1 in ch. no. 4, 2 in ch. no.
5 and one in ch. no. 7
(4) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, 1 in ch. no.
5 and 1 in ch. no. 7
137. tc AA rFkk aa thu izk:i okys lnL; ds eè; ØkWl djok;k
tkrk gS rks F1- lUrfr gksxh:-
(1) thuizk:i AA, y{k.kizk:i a
(2) thuizk:i Aa, y{k.kizk:i a
(3) thuizk:i Aa, y{k.kizk:i A
(4) thuizk:i aa, y{k.kizk:i A
138. tc dqN y{k.kksa dh oa'kkxfr dsoy eknk irS `d }kjk gks rks ;g
laHkor;k fdls iznf'kZr djrk gS %&
(1) es.Myh; dsUnzdh; oa'kkxfr
(2) cgq & yodh; oa'kkxfr
(3) dksf'kdknzO;h oa'kkxfr
(4) viw.kZ izHkkfork
139. dsæa dcká oa'kkxfr ds fy, mÙkjnk;h thu fduesa ik, tkrs gaS
(1) ykblkslkseksa rFkk jkbckslkseksa esa
(2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k rFkk DyksjksIykLVksa esa
(3) ,aMksIykfTed jsfVdqye rFkk ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k esa
(4) jkbckslkseksa rFkk DyksjksIykLVksa esa
140. ekuo ABO jDr lewg ds rhu fofHkék ,yhYl Øe'k% fdrus
izdkj ds thu izk:i o y{k.k izk:i cukrs gaAS
(1)4 o 6 (2) 6 o 4
(3) 6 o 6 (4) 4 o 4
141. eVj ds ikS/kksa ds vykok ikS/kksa esa dHkh&dHkh F1 esa ,slk QhuksVkbi
vk tkrk gS tks fdlh Hkh tud ls ugha feyrk vkSj buds chp lk
yxrk gSA bldk dkj.k g&S
(1) iw.kZ izHkkfork
(2) viw.kZ izHkkfork
(3) lg&izHkkfork
(4) iwjd thu vU;ksu fØ;k
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142. Find out the correct match – 142. lgh ;qXe dks igpkuks &
(1) F1 resembled either of the two parents - Dominance (1) F1-nksuksa tudksa esa ls fdlh ,d ls feyrk Fkk & izHkkfork
(2) F1 resembled in between -incomplete dominance (2)F1-e/; y{k.kksa okyk feyrk gS & viw.kZ izHkkfork
(3) F1 resembled both parent - Co-dominance (3)F1-nksuksa tudksa ls feyrk&tqyrk gS & lgizHkkfork
(4) All are correct (4) lHkh lgh gAS
143. Which of the followig is a good example of 143. fuEu eas ls dkSulk cgq;qXe fodYih dk vPNk mnkgj.k g&
S
multiple allele– (1) ABO :f/kj lewg
(1) ABO blood groups
(2) eVj esa LVkpZ d.kksa dk vkdkj
(2) Size of starch grain in pea
(3) cht dh vkd`fr
(3) Shape of seed
(4) Flower colour in pea (4) eVj esa iq"i dk jax
144. In case of ABO blood group allele IA and IB if 144. ABO :f/kj lewg dh fLFkfr esa tc IA o IB ,fyy ,d lkFk
present together then – mifLFkr gksrh gS rc&
(1) Ony I allele expresses
A
(1) dsoy IA ,fyy O;Dr gksxh
(2) Only IB allele expresses (2) dsoy IB ,fyy vfHkO;Dr gksrh gAS
(3) Both IA and IB alleles express (3) nksuksa IA o IB ,fyy vfHkO;Dr gksrh gAS
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
145. Find out incorrect statement about the human kidney: 145. euq"; ds o`Dd ds fy, xyr dFku dk pquko djs :
(1) Left is little higher than the right one (1) cka;k o`Dd nka,s dh rqyuk esa FkksM+k Åij gksrk gAS

(2) Retroperitoneal in position (2) jsVªksisfjVksfu;y gksrk gAS

(3) Contains millions of nephrons (3) dbZ fefy;u o`Ddk.kq gksrs gAS
(4) Located in abdomen at the level of T12 to L3 (4) nsg xqgk esa T12 ls L3 Lrj esa ikbZ tkrh gAS
146. The opening of urinary bladder is guarded by two 146. ew=k'k; dk }kj nks vojks/kuh is'kh;ksa }kjk fu;a f=r gksrk gSA
urethral sphincter, which one is involuntary in buesa ls dkSu lh vojks/kuh vufS PNd izdkj dh gksrh gS :-
function :-
(1) vkarfjd vojks/kuh
(1) Internal sphincter
(2) ckgjh vojks/kuh
(2) External sphincter
(3) Both the sphincters (3) nksuksa vojks/kfu;ka

(4) Both the sphincter are voluntary
147. Find out incorrect statement about the cortical
nephrons :-
(1) Most common nephrons in human kidney
(2) Bowman's capsule lies close to kidney surface
(3) Vasa recta is reduced or absent
(4) Control volume of plasma under dehydration
condition
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147. oYdqVh; usÝkWu ds lanHkZ eas xyr dFku dk pquko djsa :-
(1) ;g euq"; ds o`Dd esa cgqr vf/kd la[;k esa mifLFkr gaAS
(2) buds ckseus lEiqV o`Dd ds lrg ds ikl jgrs gaSA
(3) oklk jsDVk vuqifLFkr gksrh gAS
(4) ;g fMgkbMªs'ku esa IykTek ds vk;ru dks fu;af=r djrk
gSA
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148. Which of the following cannot be considered as 148. fuEu esa ls fdldks Uriniferous tubule dk Hkkx ugha ekuk
part of structure of uriniferous tubule ? tk ldrk ?
(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Convoluted tubule (1) ckseus lEiqV (2) dqaMfyr ufydk
(3) Henle's loop (4) Collecting duct (3) gsuys dk ywi (4) laxzkgd ufydk
149. Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+ etc. in 149. Xywdkst] vehuks vEy, Na+ vkfn dk iquoZ'kks"k.k fdl fof/k
the filtrate are reabsorbed by :- }kjk gksrk gS :-
(1) Active transport (1) lfØ; ifjogu
(2) Passive transport (2) fuf"Ø; ifjogu
(3) Both active and passive transport (3) lfØ; rFkk fuf"Ø; nksuksa
(4) Facilitated diffusion (4) ifjogu
150. In case of dehydration, secretion of all hormones 150. futZyhdj.k dh voLFkk esa fuEu esa ls ,d dks NksM+ dj lHkh
increases except one, mark this except one :- gkWeksZuksa dk L=ko.k c<+ tkrk gS :-
(1) Renin (2) Aldosterone (1) jsfuu (2) ,YMksLVhjksu
(3) Vasopressin (4) ANF (3) oslksizfs lu (4) ANF
151. Find out wrong reaction of digestion of food & 151. Hkkstu rFkk lacaf/kr ,atkbZe ds lkFk gksus okyh fØ;k ds lanHkZ esa
related enzyme. xyr dk pquko dhft,A

Substance inkFkZ
Enzymes Product ,atkbZe mRikn
[food] ¼ Hkkstu½
(1) Dipeptides peptidases amino acid (1) MkbZiIs VkbZM isIVhMst vehuks vEy
glucose & Xywdkst o
(2) Sucrose sucrase (2) lwØkst lwØst
galactose xSyDs Vkst
Di & mono fatty acid MkbZ o eksuks olk vEy o
(3) lipases (3) ykbZi t
s
glycerides & glycerol fXyljkbZM fXyljksy
glucose & Xywdkst o
(4) Maltose Maltase (4) ekYVkst ekYVst
glucose Xywdkst
152. What is common among pepsin, trypsin, amylase 152. fVªfIlu] isfIlu] ,ekbZyst rFkk jsfuu esa D;k lekurk gS ?
and rennin? (1) lHkh vek'k; esa curs gaSA
(1) these all are produced in stomach (2) lHkh 7 ls de pH ij dk;Z djrs gaAS
(2) these act at a pH lower than 7.
(3) lHkh izkVs hu gaAS
(3) these all are protein
(4) these all are proteolytic enzymes (4) lHkh izksVhu ij fØ;k djrs gaAS
153. Trypsin differs from pepsin in that 153. fVªfIlu] isfIlu ls fHkUu gS D;ksafd
(1) trypsin digests protein in an acidic medium (1) fVª fIlu] iz ksV hu dk ikpu vEyh; ek/;e esa djrk gS
while pepsin does so in an alkaline medium tcfd is fIlu {kkjh; ek/;e esa
(2) trypsin digests proteins in an alkaline medium (2) fVª fIlu] iz ks V hu dk ikpu {kkjh; ek/;e es a djrk gS
while pepsin does so in an acidic medium tcfd isf Ilu vEyh; ek/;e es a
(3) trypsin is secreted from the gastric glands while (3) fVª fIlu vek'k; xz a f Fk;ksa }kjk L=kfor gksrk gS tcfd
pepsin is secreted from the pancreas isfIlu vXuk'k; }kjk
(4) trypsin is produced by beta cells while pepsin (4) fVªf Ilu chVk dksf'kdkvksa }kjk curk gS tcfd isfIlu
is produced by alpha cells. vYQk dksf 'kdk }kjk
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154. Lacteals take part in 154. ysfDV;y fdl dk;Z esa Hkkx ysrk gS
(1) digestion of milk (1) nw/k ds ikpu esa
(2) absorption of fat/fatty acids and glycerol (2) olk vEy o fXyljksy ds vo'kks"k.k esa
(3) digestion of lactic acid (3) ysfDVd vEy ds ikpu esa
(4) conversion of milk into curd (4) nqX/k ds ngh esa ifjorZu esa
155. The most common ailment of alimentary canal is:- 155. vkgkj uky dk lcls lkekU; jksx gAS
(1) Jaundice (2) Vomiting (1) ihfy;k (2) oeu
(3) Inflammation (4) Indigestion (3) 'kksFk (4) vip
156. In birds exchange of gases occurs 156. if{k;ksa esa xSlksa dk fofu;e gksrk gS
(1) first in the lungs and then in air sacs (1) igys QqQql esa ckn esa] v'koluh; Fky S ksa esa
(2) first in the air sacs and then in lungs (2) igys v'oluh; Fky S ksa esa] ckn esa QqQql esa
(3) simultaneously in lungs and air sacs (3) v'oluh; Fky S ksa rFkk QqQql esa ,d lkFk
(4) in the lungs only and not in air sacs (4) dsoy QsQM+ksa esa rFkk v'o'kuh; Fky S ksa esa ugha
157. Ring like cartilage of larynx is known as 157. d.B dh eqfnzdk leku mikfLFk dkSu gksrh g\ S
(1) thyroid cartilage (1) Fkk;jkbZM mikfLFk
(2) arytenoids cartilage (2) ,fjfVukbZM mikfLFk
(3) cricoids cartilage (3) fØdksbZM mikfLFk
(4) cartilage of santorini (4) lsaVksfjuh dh mikfLFk
158. Which of the following muscle contract during 158. lkekU; fu%'olu (expiration) ds le; dk S u lh is 'kh dk
normal expiration? la d q p u gks r k gS?
(1) internal intercostals muscles (1) vkUrfjd varjki'kqZd is'kh;ka
(2) diaphragm (2) Mk;Ýke
(3) abdominal muscles (3) mnjh; isf'k;ka
(4) none of these (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
159. Functional residual capacity (FRC) include 159. fØ;kRed vo'ks"kh vk;ru esa lfEefyr gS
a. TV b. IRV a. TV b. IRV
c. RV d. ERV c. RV d. ERV
(1) a + c (2) b + d (1) a + c (2) b + d
(3) c + d (4) a + b + d (3) c + d (4) a + b + d
160. Which of the following is not possible when 160. U;weksVsfDld dsanz }kjk izcy la n's k Hksts tkus ij fuEu esa ls D;k
pneumotaxic centre is sending a strong signal? laH ko ugha gS ?
(1) rate of breathing increases (1) 'olu nj dk c<+ tkuk
(2) complete filling of lungs (2) QsQM+ksa dk iw.kZ :i ls Hkjuk
(3) decreased duration of inspiration (3) var%'olu ds le;kof/k dk de gksuk
(4) decreased duration of expiration (4) cfg%'olu ds le;kof/k dk de gksuk
161. Percentage amount of CO2 carried or transported 161. Hb }kjk CO2 dh fdruh % ek=k ifjogu gksrk g\ S
by Hb is (1) 10% (2) 80%
(1) 10% (2) 80%
(3) 70% (4) 23% (3) 70% (4) 23%
162. Blood platelets are the fragments of 162. fcEck.kq fdu dksf'kdkvksa ds VqdM+s gksrs gSa\
(1) megakaryocyte (2) normocyte (1) esxkdsfj;kslkbZV (2) ukseksZlkbZV
(3) reticulocytes (4) Monocytes (3) jsfVdqykslkbZV (4) eksukslkbZV
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163. Universal recepient blood group is 163. lkoZf=d jDrxzkgh lewg gS
(1) A + (1) A +
(2) B + (2) B +
(3) AB + (3) AB +
(4) O+ (4) O+
164. Second largest component of plasma is 164. IykTek dk nwljk eq[; ?kVd D;k gS
(1) albumin (1) ,Ycqfeu
(2) globulin (2) Xykscqfyu
(3) fibrinogen (3) QkbZfczukstu
(4) prothrombin (4) izksFkzksafcu
165. Type of WBC which will be minimum in number is 165. fuEu eas ls fdl WBC dh la[;k U;wure gS
(1) neutrophils (1) U;wVªkfs Qy
(2) basophils (2) cslksfQy
(3) eosinophils (3) bZvksfluksfQy
(4) monocytes (4) eksukslkbZV
166. A cardiac cycle involves 166. ân; pØ esa lfEefyr gS
(1) joint diastole ® ventricular systole ® (1) joint diastole ® ventricular systole ®
auricular systole auricular systole
(2) auricular systole ® ventricular systole ® (2) auricular systole ® ventricular systole ®
complete cardiac distole complete cardiac distole
(3) auricular systole ® joint diastole ® (3) auricular systole ® joint diastole ®
ventricular systole ventricular systole
(4) auricular systole ® ventricular diastole ® (4) auricular systole ® ventricular diastole ®
joint diastole joint diastole
167. Centre for heart beat regulation is present in 167. ân; fu;eu dsUnz dgk¡ ik;k tkrk g\S
(1) pons (1) iksUl
(2) cerebrum (2) lsjscze (vxz efLr"d)
(3) cerebellum (3) lsjhcsye
(4) medulla (4) esM~ ;wyk
168. Time interval between the closure of semilunar 168. Semilunar rFkk AV okYo ds ca n gksu s esa fdruk var j
valve and closure of AV valve is gks r k gS
(1) 0.3 sec (1) 0.3 sec
(2) 0.5 sec (2) 0.5 sec
(3) 0.1 sec (3) 0.1 sec
(4) 0.7 sec (4) 0.7 sec
169. Which of the following sets includes the bacterial 169. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl lewg esa dsoy thok.kq tfur jksx gaSA
disease only? (1) gt
S k, Vk;QkbM(risfnd), eEil (xylqvk)
(1) cholera, typhoid, mumps
(2) fVVsul, V~cjdqyksfll] ehlYl ([kljk)
(2) tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(3) eysfj;k] eEil(xylqvk), iksfy;ksek;fyfVl
(3) malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
(4) diphtheria, leprosy, plague (4) fM¶Fkhfj;k] ysizkslh(dq"B)] Iysx

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170. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve 170. thok.kq tfur lHkh jksxksa dk funku ,.Vhck;ksfVd ugh dj ldrh
all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is g]S bldk eq[; dkj.k D;k g\
S
(1) insensitivity of the individual following (1) T;knk ,.Vhck;ksfVd ds mi;ksx ds ckn O;fDr dk vlaosnh
prolonged exposure to antibiotics gksukA
(2) inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes (2) thok.koh; ,Utkbeksa }kjk ,.Vhck;ksfVd dh vfØ;k'khyrk
gksukA
(3) decreased efficiency of the immune system
(3) izfrj{kk ra= ds lkeF;Z esa dehA
(4) the development of mutant strains resistant to
antibiotics (4) izfrtSfodks ds izfr izfrjks/kh mRifjofrZr LVªSu dk fodklA
171. Interferons are 171. bUVjQsjkWUl ga&S
(1) Antiviral proteins (1) çfrfo"kk.kq çksVhUl
(2) Antibacterial proteins (2) çfrthok.kq çksVhUl
(3) Cancer promoter proteins (3) dSalj dks c<+kus okyh çksVhUl
(4) Lysozyme (4) ykblkstkbe
172. Plasmodium enters the human body as : 172. IykTeksfM;e ekuo 'kjhj esa fdl :i esa izo's k djrk gS &
(1) Female anopheles mosquito (1) eknk ,uksQsyht ePNj
(2) Sporozoite (2) LiksjkstkWbV~l
(3) Trophozoite (3) VªksQkstkWbV~l
(4) Haemozoin (4) ghekstksbu
173. Allergens are 173. ,ytZu (Allergens) D;k gksrs gaS\
(1) Infectious and increase secretion of IgE (1) laØked rFkk IgE dk vf/kd ózko.k djkrs gaS

(2) Non-infectious and increase secretions of IgE (2) vlaØked rFkk IgE dk vf/kd óko.k djkrs gaS

(3) Infectious and increase secretion of IgG (3) laØked rFkk IgG dk vf/kd óko.k djkrs gaS

(4) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgM
174. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can
distinguish self-cells and non-self cells. If this
property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it
attacks self-cells, then it leads to :
(1) Active immunity
(4) vlaØked rFkk IgM dk vf/kd óko.k djkrs gaS
174. mPprj d'ks:fd;kas esa] izfrj{kk ra= Lo&dksf'kdkvksa vkSj
xjS &dksf'kdkvksa esa Hksn dj ldrk gAS ;fn vkuqofa 'kd vilkekU;rk
ds dkj.k ra= dk ;g xq.k u"V gks tk, vkjS og Lo&dksf'kdkvksa dks
u"V djus yxs rks blds ifj.kkeLo:i D;k gksxk\
(1) lfØ; izfrj{kk

(2) Allergic response (2) ,sythZ vuqfØ;k

(3) Graft rejection (3) fujksi vLohdkj dj nsuk

(4) Auto-immune disease (4) Loizfrj{kk fodkj

175. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due 175. fdlh jksxh esa izR;kjksfir o`Dd(fdMuh) dks vLohdkj fdl
to dkj.k fd;k tk ldrk g\ S
(1) Cell-mediated immune response (1) dksf'kdk ekf/;r izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k
(2) Passive immune response (2) fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k
(3) Innate immune response (3) lgt izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k
(4) Humoral immune response (4) g~;weksjy izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k

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176. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
show symptoms of AIDS ?
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper
T-Lymphocytes
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase
177. Which one of the following is not a property of
cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ?
(1) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
(2) They do not remain confined in the area of
formation.
(3) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(4) They show contact inhibition.
178. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct answer
176. HIV laØe.k dh dkSulh voLFkk ij dksbZ O;fDr lkekU;r;k
AIDS ds y{k.k n'kkZrk g?S
(1) ,d laØfer O;fDr ds lkFk ySafxd lEidZ ds 15 fnuksa ds
Hkhrj
(2) tc ,d laØked fjVªks okbjl iks"kh dksf'kdkvksa esa izo's k djrk gAS
(3) tc HIV, lgk;d T-fyEQkslkbV~l dh ,d cgqr cM+h
la[;k dks u"V dj nsrk gAS
(4) tc fjolZ VªkalfØIVst }kjk okbjy DNA mRiUu fd;k tkrk
gSA
177. fuEufyf[kr esa ls og dkSu lk ,d y{k.k gS tks dSalj dksf'kdkvkssa
esa ugh gksrk] tcfd 'ks"k rhu gksrs gaS ?
(1) vko';d iks"kdksa gsrq ;s dksf'kdk,a lkekU; dksf'kdkvksa ls
izfrLi/kkZ cuk, j[krh gS
(2) ;s vius fuekZ.k {ks=ksa esa gh lhfer ugha cuh jgrh gS
(3) buesa vfu;af=r foHkktu gksrk jgrk gS
(4) buesa laidZ laneu ik;k tkrk gS
178. [k.M I dks II ls lqefs yr dj lgh mRrj pquas

dkWye-I dkWye-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) fuvksIykTe (p) fgesVksik;ksfVd
(a) Neoplasm (p) Haematopoietic dksf'kdk V~;wej
cell tumours
(b) csukbZax V~;wej (q) vfLFk rFkk mikfLFk
(b) Benign (q) Bone, cartilage
(lqne vcqnZ ) dk dsalj
tumour tissue cancers
(c) Carcinoma (r) Malignant tumor (c) dkflZuksek (r) nqnZe vcqnZ
(esfyXuaV V~;wej)
(d) Sarcoma (s) Cancer of
epithelial tissues (d) lkjdksek (s) midyk Ård dk
(e) Lymphoma (t) Non-cancerous dSl
a j
tumor
(e) fyEQksek (t) dSl
a j jfgr V~;wej
(u) Initiation of new
tumours (u) u;s V~;wej dk çkjEHk

(1) (a) - (r), (b) - (t), (c) - (s), (d) - (q), (e) - (p) (1) (a) - (r), (b) - (t), (c) - (s), (d) - (q), (e) - (p)
(2) (a) - (r), (b) - (t), (c) - (s), (d) - (p), (e) - (q) (2) (a) - (r), (b) - (t), (c) - (s), (d) - (p), (e) - (q)
(3) (a) - (u), (b) - (r), (c) - (s), (d) - (q), (e) - (p) (3) (a) - (u), (b) - (r), (c) - (s), (d) - (q), (e) - (p)
(4) (a) - (u), (b) - (s), (c) - (r), (d) - (q), (e) - (p) (4) (a) - (u), (b) - (s), (c) - (r), (d) - (q), (e) - (p)

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179. Note the following : 179. fuEu ij fopkj dhft,
(A) Skin (B) Phagocytes (A) Ropk (B) QSxkslkbV~l
(C) B-cells (D) Inflammation (C) B-dksf'kdk;sa (D) lwtu
(E) Antibodies (F) T-cells (E) ,UVhckWMht (F) T-dksf'kdk;sa
(G) Fever (H)Antimicrobial proteins (G) cq[kkj (H) ,UVhekbØksfc;y çksVhUl
(I) NK-cells (J) Mucosa (I) NK-dksf'kdk;sa (J) E;wdkslk
Identify the factors involved in 2nd line of defence mijksDr esa lqj{kk dh f}rh; iafDr esa mi;ksxh dkjd dkuS ls g\
aS
(1) B, D, G, H and I (1) B, D, G, H rFkk I
(2) B, C, H, E and I (2) B, C, E rFkk I
(3) B, D, F, H and J (3) D, F, H rFkk J
(4) B, C, E, G and H (4) C, E, G rFkk H
180. Heroin is 180. gjS ksbu D;k g\
S
(1) Diacetyl morphine (1) MkbZ,flVkby ekWfQZu
(2) Triacetyl morphine (2) VªkbZ,flVkby ekWfQZu
(3) Tetra acetyl morphine (3) VSVªk ,flVkby ekWfQZu
(4) Mono acetyl morphine (4) eksuks ,flVkby ekWfQZu

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2019 - 2020)

LEADER COURSE : PHASE : M4L8A

MINOR CURRENT PREVIOUS SYLLABUS
TEST NO. UNIT PREVIOUS UNIT FROM TOPIC
NLM, FRICTION VISHAL GAUR
P
SYLLABUS MODERN PHYSICS M. K. NAGAR
CURRENT
COVERED DURING
05 SYLLABUS OF CHEMICAL BONDING,
09-12-2019
05-01-2020
TO
TEST DATE C S-BLOCK, HYDROGEN & HARI OM SHARMA
08-12-2019 ITS COMPOUNDS
04-01-2020
B ECOLOGY YOGESH SHARMA

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dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg

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Read carefully the following instructions :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the
Examination Hall without handing over their
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4.
prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5.
Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6.
shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7.
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
fuEufyf[kr funs Z 'k /;ku ls i<+ s a :
1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
i= fn[kk,A
2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
LFkku u NksM+sA
3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
gSA
ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
gksxkA
fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
vyx u djs aA
ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
uEcj fy[ksaA

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+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

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