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IIT 2011
PT 3/CMP/P(I)/Qns
03.10.2010
B.MAT PART TEST 3
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011
PAPER I

CHEMISTRY – MATHEMATICS – PHYSICS

QUESTION PAPER CODE 3


Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 252
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
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PART A: CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 178 and 348 k.cal mol−1 respectively. The energy
required for the reaction

Mg(g) → Mg
+2
+ 2e− is in k.cal

(A) 170 (B) 526 (C) − 170 (D) − 526


2. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound
CH3

CH3 − ( CH2 )4 − CH − C − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 is

CH3 CH2 − CH3

(A) 3, 4-Dimethyl-3-n-propyl nonane


(B) 6, 7-Dimethyl-2-n-propyl nonane
(C) 6, 7-Dimethyl-7-ethyl decane
(D) 4, 5-Dimethyl-4-ethyl decane.
3. Arrange the elements S, P, As in the order of increasing ionization energy
(A) S < P < As (B) P < S < As (C) As < S < P (D) As < P < S
4. The correct sequence of steps involved in the process of extraction of metals from
their ores is
Refining, Reduction, Concentration, Calcination
I II III IV
(A) III, IV, II, I (B) I, II, III, IV (C) IV, III, II, I (D) I, IV, II, III

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5. Which of the following has highest conductivity?


(A) Li+ (B) Cs+ (C) Na+ (D) K+
6. The pair of compounds which do not exist in solution together is
(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) NaHCO3 and H2O
(C) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 (D) Na2CO3 and NaOH
7. Lassaigne’s test is used to detect nitrogen in organic compounds. Which of the
following compounds respond to Lassaigne’s test?
(i) C6H5NH2, (ii) C6H5N2Cl, (iii) NH2NH2, (iv) NH2OH and (v) azobenzene
(A) All (B) i, ii, iii (C) iii, iv, v (D) i, v only
8. Which is not correct regarding S N 2 reactions?
− −
(A) Strong nucleophiles like OH , OR favour S N 2 reactions.
(B) Non polar solvents favour SN 2 reactions.
(C) Alkyl halides which give stable carbonium ion on C — X heterolysis tend to
give SN 2 reactions.
  
(D) Order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards SN 2 reaction is CH3 X > 1 > 2 > 3
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
9. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Mesomeric effect is more powerful than inductive effect.
(B) Heterolytic fission requires more energy than homolytic fission.
− − − −
(C) Among the halide nucleophiles, the nucleophilicity order is I > Br > Cl > F .
(D) Carbanions with different alkyl groups are not optically active.

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10. Which of the following statements are true regarding the electrophiles?
(A) All electrophiles are Lewis acids
(B) Transitional metal cations are electrophiles
(C) BeCl2 , SO2 and BF3 are neutral electrophiles
(D) The electrophile attacks the oxygen site in a carbonyl group
11. Which of the following mixtures can be separated by steam distillation?
(A) o-Nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol
(B) Aniline and chlorobenzene
(C) Benzoic acid and NaCl
(D) Acetone and methanol
12. Which of the following order of properties are correct?
(A) Melting points of halides: MF2 > MCl2 > MBr2 > MI2
(B) Basic character of oxides: BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO < BaO
(C) Decreasing polarity: CsF, KCl, CaO, MgO
(D) Increasing ionic character: BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2

13. Zinc and Copper can both displace silver from  Ag ( CN )2  . But zinc and not
copper is used in the hydrometallurgy of silver because
(A) copper is costlier than zinc
(B) EZn is more positive than ECu



(C) ECu is more positive than EZn
(D) Atomic mass of zinc is higher than that of copper
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. First group has 3 multiple choice questions
and the second group has 2 multiple choice questions based on the paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16


The reagents are classified into electrophiles and nucleophiles. Electrophiles are
electron deficient species. They are always in search of electrons. They may be neutral
or positively charged. Nucleophiles are electron rich species. They have a tendency to
donate electron pair.
14. Which of the following are neutral nucleophiles?
..
R3 N, RMgX, CN − ,Br − , H2S
i ii iii iv v
(A) i, ii, v (B) all
(C) ii, iv, v (D) i, iii, iv, ii
15. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Electrophiles are generated by heterolysis of covalent bond
(B) All alkenes are nucleophiles
(C) All the positive ions behave like electrophiles

(D) The reaction CH3 − CH = O + CH3 MgBr → CH3 − CHOMgBr is an example

CH3
of electrophilic addition.
16. Select the nucleophile among the following:
+
(A) NO2+ (B) CH3 (C) AlCl3 (D) CN−
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 and 18
The s-block elements represent the example of effect of increasing size of atoms or
ions on the physical and chemical properties. These are all metals, excellent
conductors of electricity. They are soft and highly reactive. They form univalent, ionic
and colourless compounds.
17. Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
(A) LiOH (B) NaOH (C) KOH (D) RbOH

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18. Which of the following ionization energy values for calcium show a sudden
increase?
(A) Third (B) Second
(C) First (D) Fourth
SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

19. The number of covalent hydrides of the following is _______.


LiH, CH4, H2O, HCl, ZrH1.5

20. The number of pairs of elements which show diagonal relationship across the
periodic table is ______.Li — Mg; Be — Al; B — Si; K — Sr; N — S; Na — Ca.
21. The number of sulphide minerals of the following is ______.
Cuprite, Argentite, Carnallite, Magnesite, Galena, Black Jack.
22. The number of carbonates and bicarbonates existing as solids is ______.
NaHCO3, LiHCO3, H2CO3, KHCO3, CsHCO3, Li2CO3.

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23. The number of compounds showing tautomerism is _______.


OH OH CHO
O

C
OH
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
O

COCH3
HCN

(v) (vi) (vii)


24. According to IUPAC, the numbering of the carbon atom with asterisk mark in the
following compound is ________
*
CH3 − CH − CH − CH3

CH2 CH2

CH3 CH3

25. The number of geometrical isomers of the following alkene


CH3 − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH = CH − Cl is______.
26. The number of resonance structures of phenoxide ion is _________
27. The ratio of bond orders in CO32 − ion and SO32 − ion is _________.
28. When bromine water is added on ethylene in the presence of NaCl, the number of
various substituted products formed is _________.

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PART B: MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
29. The equation of the circle touching the straight lines x ± y = 0 and passing
through the point (1, 3) is
2 2 2 2
(A) x + y − 6x − 2y + 2 = 0 (B) x + y − 12x + 2 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y − 4y + 2 = 0 (D) x + y − 2x − 2y − 2 = 0
30. From the origin, chords are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 − 2x = 0, then the locus of
the middle points of such chords is
(A) x2 + y2 = y (B) x2 + y2 = x + y
(C) x2 + y2 = 2x (D) x2 + y2 = x

{ }
31. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola 5 (x + 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = (x − 2y + 3)2
is
12 12 6 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5
32. The locus of a point, such that two of the normals drawn from it to the parabola
y2 = 8x are perpendicular is
(A) y2 = x − 3 (B) x2 + y2 = 4 (C) y2 = 2(x − 6) (D) None of these
x2 y2
33. If the normal at any point P of the ellipse + = 1 meets the coordinate axes
16 9
at M and N respectively, then |PM| : |PN| equals
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 16 : 9 (C) 9 : 16 (D) 3 : 4
34. A circle of radius 5 is concentric with the ellipse 3x2 + 7y2 = 105. Then the
common tangent is inclined to the major axis at an angle of
π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6 4

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35. The locus of the middle points of the chords of the hyperbola 3x2 − 2y2 + 4x − 6y = 0
parallel to y = 2x is
(A) the straight line 3x + 4y = 4 (B) a circle of radius 2
(C) an ellipse (D) the straight line 3x − 4y = 4

x2 y2
36. The ordinate at a point P on the hyperbola − = 1 meet its asymptotes at M
a2 b2
and N, then PM ⋅ PN equals
2 2 2 2
(A) a (B) b (C) a − b (D) None of these
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
37. The end points of the latus rectum of a parabola are (9, 4) and (9, 2). Then the
possible coordinates of the vertex are
 17   17   19   19 
(A)  , 3  (B)  3,  (C)  , 3  (D)  3, 
 2   2   2   2 
38. An ellipse passes through the point (2, 3) and its axes along the coordinate axes.
3x + 2y − 1 = 0 is a tangent to the ellipse. Then the equation of the ellipse is

x2 x2 y 2
(A) + 4y 2 = 1 (B) + =1
4 8 1

y2
(C) 4x2 + =1 (D) No such ellipse exists
4

39. The tangents from which of the following points to the ellipse 3x2 + 2y2 = 1 are
perpendicular?

(A) ( 3, 2 )  1 1 
(B)  ,
 3 2

 1 1 
(C)  ,
 2 3
 (D) ( 2, 3 )
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40. The line y = 2x + 5 touches


(A) x2 + y2 = 5 2
(B) y = 8x
2 2 2 2
(C) 9x + 16y = 144 (D) 11x − 9y = 99
41. If a circle passes through the points of intersection of the coordinate axes and the
straight lines x − y + 1 = 0 and λx + 2y + 3 = 0, then the value of λ is
(A) − 3 (B) 2 (C) − 2 (D) 3
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. First group has 3 multiple choice questions
and the second group has 2 multiple choice questions based on the paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 42 to 44
Suppose P(x1 , y1) is a given point in the plane of a conic S = 0. Let a chord passing
through P(x1, y1) cuts the conic in Q and R. Then the locus of the point of intersection
of the tangents at Q and R is called the polar of P(x1, y1) with respect to the conic. It is
found to be the straight line T = 0 (i.e., the equation of the tangent at (x1, y1) if it lies
on the conic). This locus is called the polar of (x1, y1). If two points are such that the
polar of one passes through the other, they are called conjugate points. The point
(x1, y1) is called the pole of T = 0. Two straight lines are called conjugate straight lines,
if the pole of one lies on the other.
42. The pole of the line 3x + 8y − 24 = 0 with respect to the ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 is
(A) (3, 2) (B) (2, 3) (C) (1, 3) (D) (3, 1)
43. The conjugate line of x − y + 1 = 0 with respect to the hyperbola 3x2 − 4y2 + 12 = 0
is
(A) 2x − 3y + 1 = 0 (B) 2x − 3y − 1 = 0
(C) x + y + 1 = 0 (D) x − y + 2 = 0

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44. The conjugate point of ( − 2, 1) with respect to x2 + 4y2 = 2 is


(A) (1, 1) (B) ( − 1, − 1) (C) (1, − 1) (D) ( − 1, 1)
Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 and 46
2 2 2 2
The circle x + y = a intersect the hyperbola xy = c in four points P (x1, y1),
Q (x2, y2), C (x3, y3) and D (x4, y4).

45. The value of y1 y2 y3 y4 is

(A) − c4 (B) c4 (C) 0 (D) None of these


46. The value of x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 is

(A) y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 (B) y1 y2 y3 y4

(C) − y1 y2 y3 y4 (D) None of these

SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

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47. From a point, the lengths of the tangents to the circles x2 + y2 − 3x − 6y + 14 = 0,


x2 + y2 − x − 4y + 8 = 0, x2 + y2 + 2x − 6y + 9 = 0 are equal. Then the length of
such a tangent is _________.
48. If one of the diameters of the circle x2 + y2 − 2x − 6y + 6 = 0 is a chord to the circle
with centre (2, 1), then the radius of the circle is ________.
49. The latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 5x + 4y + 1 is _________.
2
50. The distances of two points P and Q on the parabola y = 4ax from the focus S are
3 and 12. Then the distance of the point of intersection of the tangents at P and Q
from the focus S is _______.
51. If the normal at an end of the latus rectum of an ellipse with eccentricity e,
passes through an extremity of the minor axis, then e4 + e2 equals _______.
x2 y2
52. If the eccentric angles of two points P and Q on the ellipse + = 1 whose
28 7
centre is C, differ by a right angle, then the area of ∆CPQ is _______.
π
53. The angle between the asymptotes of a hyperbola is . Then the eccentricity of
3
the conjugate hyperbola is _______.
54. The number of points from which perpendicular tangents to the hyperbola
x2 y 2
− can be drawn is _______.
17 20
55. The difference between the distances from the foci to a point on the hyperbola
2x2 − y2 − 4x + 4y − 34 = 0 is _________.
x2 y 2
56. If x cos α + y sin α = p, a variable chord of the hyperbola − = 1 subtends a
2 4
right angle at the centre of the hyperbola, then the chord touches a fixed circle
whose radius is _______.

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PART C: PHYSICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57. A solid sphere of radius r made of a material of bulk modulus B is surrounded by
a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the
surface of the liquid. A mass M is placed on the piston to compress the liquid.
 dr 
When the mass M is removed, find the fractional change   in the radius of
 r 
the sphere.
Mg 3Mg 5Mg Mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3aB aB 3aB aB
58. A reinforced concrete column consists of concrete filled with iron rods. Iron
occupies one-twentieth of the area occupied by concrete. Young’s modulus of
concrete and iron are Yc and Yi respectively. The concrete column is under a
2
compressive load P. If the fraction of load on the concrete is , what is the ratio
3
Yi
of ?
Yc

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20

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59. A gardener holds a pipe of inside cross-sectional area


3.60 cm2 at a height of 9.8 m from ground. The opening v2
at the nozzle has cross-sectional area 0.250 cm2. Water
velocity in the segment of the hose that lies on the
ground is 50.0 m/s. From the nozzle, water issues
out and falls on to a plate moving normally towards h
the discharging jet of water at a speed of 2.80 m/s. v1
Find the force on the plate due to the jet. (Density of
water is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 10.0 kN (B) 7.50 kN (C) 12.04 kN (D) 5.50 kN
60. A vessel with a hole at its bottom is fastened
on to a cart. The mass of the vessel and cart is ℓ =1 m
2
60 kg. Area of cross-section of the vessel is 2 m .
What force F is required to pull the cart so
that minimum amount of water comes out?
The dimension of the vessel are ℓ = 1 m; b = 1 m
and c = 60 cm. Density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
(A) 17 kN (B) 19 kN
(C) 14 kN (D) 11 kN
61. The masses of blocks 1 and 2 are each equal to m. Block 1
is immersed in a liquid contained in a tall jar. The block 2
is held in the hand and let go at t = 0 sec. The block 2 is
momentarily stopped at t = 1 sec. Then, force of buoyancy
on block 1 at t = 0 sec is [Neglect viscous force]
(A) greater than that at t = 1 sec.
(B) less than that at t = 1 sec.
1 m1
(C) equal to that at t = sec.
3
m2
(D) equal to that at t = 1 sec.

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62. Three rods A, B and C form an isosceles triangle at


A
0°C. Rods AB and AC have the same coefficient of
expansion α while rod BC has α1. If the temperature
ℓ1 , α ℓ3, α
of the system is increased to ∆T°C there is change in
angle ABC  . Then, change in angle θ is θ
(initially θ = 30° and AB = AC at 0°C) B C
ℓ 2 , α1
(A) inversely proportional to ℓ1.
(B) directly proportional to ℓ2 only.
(C) inversely proportional to the product of ℓ1 and ℓ2.
(D) directly proportional to the product of ℓ1 and ℓ2.
63. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in Figure.
Choose the wrong statement. As temperature increases,

(i) (ii) (iii)


(A) density of gas is increasing in graph (i).
(B) density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii).
(C) density of gas is constant in graph (iii).
(D) (A) and (B) are correct.
64. A uniform hollow sphere has internal radius ‘a’ and external radius ‘b’. Then, the
work done in taking a unit mass from the inner surface to the outer surface in
units of 4πρG (ρ being density) is
3a 2 b − b3 − 2a 3 3a 2 b − 2a 3 + b3
(A) (B)
6b 6b
a 2 b − b3 b3 − a 2 b
(C) (D)
6 3

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SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
65. A wooden plank OP of length 1 m and uniform cross-section ‘s’ is hinged at one
end to the bottom of a tank. The tank is filled with water up to a height h m. The
specific gravity ρs of the plank is 0.5. In the
equilibrium position, the plank makes angle θ
with the vertical as shown in Figure. Then, if
θ = 45°,
θ
(A) the value of h is 0.5 m.
(B) horizontal component of reaction at O is
zero.
(C) other things remaining the same, centre of
buoyancy would get shifted if ρs is altered.
(D) location of
centre of buoyancy is
ρ 
proportional to  s  .
 ρℓ 

66. A glass capillary tube of 0.11 m length and 2 × 10−5 m internal radius has its one end
sealed. The tube is dipped vertically in a liquid of surface tension 5.06 × 10−2 N/m.
If the liquid level inside and outside the tube be the same, then (atmospheric
pressure pa = 1 × 105 N/m2)
(A) pressure of air inside the tube over and above the atmosphere is
approximately 5 kN/m2.
(B) length of the tube inside the liquid is 5.23 × 10−3 m.
(C) if the capillary tube is broken, water will overflow.
(D) if the capillary tube is broken, water level will fall.

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67. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the
same sense. Their periods of revolution are 1 hr and 8 hr respectively. The orbital
radius of S1 is 104 km when S2 is closest to S1. Then,
4
(A) the speed of S2 relative to S1 is π × 10 km/hr.
(B) the angular speed of S1 as actually observed by an astronaut in S2 is
π
rad/hr.
6
(C) the angular speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1 is

rad/hr.
4
(D) the speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1, when S1 and S2
are farthest from each other is 3π × 104 km/hr.
68. A karate master strikes a pine board with a speed of 10 m/s which decreases to 1 m/s
in a time interval of 0.002 s. The mass of hand and arm is 1 kg. The thickness of
the pine board is 1 cm and volume 9.0 cm3. The breaking stress of the pine board
is 3.6 × 106 N/m2. Then,
(A) force on the board is 3500 N.

(B) stress in the board due to the force is 5.0 × 106 N/m2.
(C) the board will break, whatever be the mass of the board.
(D) the board will not break if thickness is increased.
69. A cylinder has 40.0 cm radius and is 50.0 cm deep. It is filled with air at 20°C and
1.00 atm (Figure a). A 20.0 kg piston is now slowly lowered into the cylinder
compressing the air trapped inside (Figure b). Finally, a 75.0 kg man stands on
the piston further compressing the air, without any appreciable change in
temperature. The atmospheric pressure p0 = 1 × 105 N/m2. Then,

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∆h
50 cm
hi

Fig. a Fig. b Fig. c


(A) when the man steps on the piston, it moves down by 0.011 m.
(B) the temperature to which the gas be heated so as to raise the piston and the
man back to hi is 24.2°C.

(C) when the man stands on the piston the process involved is isothermal.
(D) when the gas is heated, the process involved is isobaric.
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. First group has 3 multiple choice questions
and the second group has 2 multiple choice questions based on the paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 70 to 72
U
Figure aside shows the variation of internal energy A C
U with the density ρ of one mole of an ideal monatomic 5U0
gas for a thermodynamic cycle A → B → C → A.
Assume the process A → B to be a part of a
rectangular hyperbola. Then, (given ℓn 2.5 = 0.916)
2U0
B
70. the process A → B is
ρ
(A) isobaric (B) isochoric 2ρ0
(C) isothermal (D) adiabatic

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71. the total amount of heat absorbed by the system for the cyclic process is
approximately in units of U0 is
1
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)
2
72. work done during the process AB in units of U0 is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) − 2 (D) − 1
Paragraph for Question Nos. 73 and 74
Two equal drops of water are falling through air with constant velocity of 0.1 ms−1.
1
They coalesce to form a bigger drop. Then, (given 2 3 = 1.259 )
73. the new terminal velocity is
(A) 0.119 ms−1 (B) 0.129 ms−1 (C) 0.142 ms−1 (D) 0.159 ms−1
74. ratio of the surface energy of the smaller drop to that of the coalesced drop when
constant velocity is reached by the bigger drop is
(A) 0.521 (B) 0.392 (C) 0.630 (D) 0.402
SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

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75. The bar in Figure below is made from a single piece of material. It consists of
L
two segments of equal length 0 and cross-sectional area A and 2A. The elastic
2
potential energy stored under the action of an axial force F is given in multiples
F2L0 n
of as . What is the value of n?
AY 24

L0
2

L0
2
76. A rod of length L is suspended from the ceiling by one of its ends. The density of the
material of the rod is ρ and its Young’s modulus is Y. The relative increment of its
 ρgL 
volume is given by  − nσ  . What is the value of n? Given σ is the Poisson’s ratio
 nY 
77. A block of wood floats in water kept in a vessel with two-third of its volume inside
water. The vessel is placed in a lift having an upward acceleration 1.2 m/s. Now
4
the fraction of volume inside water is found to be . What is the value of n?
n
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
78. Particles of sand are sprinkled on to the surface of water in a beaker, filled to a
depth of 45.45 mm to reach the bottom. The sand particles are spherical and have
a diameter of 0.10 mm. The beaker is kept in a lift moving with an upward
acceleration of 1.2 m/s2. Estimate the minimum time to reach the bottom by the
particles if viscosity of water η = 1.1 × 10−3 Nsm−2, density of water is 1000 kg/m3,
density of sand is 2000 kg/m3 and g is 9.8 ms−2. (Express your answer in s)

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79. An open end wide tube is immersed vertically in mercury in such a way that a
length 0.05 m extends above the mercury level. The open end of the tube is then
closed and the tube is raised slowly further by 0.43 m. Calculate the length of the
−1
air column above the mercury level in the tube. Express your answer in 10 m.
(p0 = 0.76 ρg)

p0 p1

80. The temperature T and density ρ of an ideal diatomic gas obey the equation
T(1 − γ) = kρ, where k is a constant. If V and V′ are respectively the volumes, then
 15 
p −   V′ 
it is found that = 2 n  when   = 32 . Then, what is the value of n?
p′ V
81. Figure shows a stream of fluid emerging from
a tube in the base of an open tank. The
expression for y in terms of θ and h is given by
y = h sinn θ. (ρ density of liquid) What is the
value of n? θ

82. Two cylinders of equal masses, one made of aluminium and the other of copper,
with their lateral surfaces thermally insulated are heated to 50°C and placed on
two large blocks of ice at 0°C. If both the cylinders have the same height, their
h 2
depths of penetration in the ice is given by Al = , under the assumption that
hCu n
no heat is lost to the surroundings. What is the value of n?
−1 −1 −1 −1 −3
(Given: SAl = 0.22 cal gm °C , SCu = 0.1 cal gm °C , ρAl = 2.7 gm-cm and
−3
ρCu = 8.9 gm-cm )

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83. There are two vessels, each of them contains one mole of a monatomic ideal gas.
−3 3
Initial volume of the gas in each vessel is 8.3 × 10 m at 27°C. Equal amount of
heat is supplied to the two vessels such that in one of the vessels, the volume of
the gas is doubled without change in internal energy, whereas the volume of the
gas is held constant in the second vessel. The vessels are now connected to allow
free mixing of the gas. The temperature of the combined system is found to be
(362.3 + n) K. What is the value of n? (R = 8.3 J/mol. K and loge 2 = 0.693)

84. Four cylindrical rods of metal are welded as shown in Figure. The rod AB is
tapped at one-third points. If R is the thermal resistance of the rod AB, the
R
effective thermal resistance of the network of rods between AB is . What is
38 + n
the value of n?
A

R R
3 R 3 =
2

D R
R 2 = 3
R
3 R
R 1 =
6
C

R
3
B

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Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:


3
Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Mathematics and Part C: Physics).
Each part has 4 sections.

14. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.

15. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

16. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. First set
consists of 3 questions and second set has 2 questions, based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct.

17. Section IV contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
instructions given at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.

19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. Partial marks will be awarded
for partially correct answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will
be awarded.

21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.

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