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IIT 2011
PT 3/CMP/P(I)/Qns
03.10.2010
B.MAT PART TEST 3
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011
PAPER I
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 84 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 25) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
SEAL
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which
appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Filling the ORS
9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and
Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in
box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this.
12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET.
C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the informations
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.
…………………………………… …………………………………
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
PART A: CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 178 and 348 k.cal mol−1 respectively. The energy
required for the reaction
Mg(g) → Mg
+2
+ 2e− is in k.cal
10. Which of the following statements are true regarding the electrophiles?
(A) All electrophiles are Lewis acids
(B) Transitional metal cations are electrophiles
(C) BeCl2 , SO2 and BF3 are neutral electrophiles
(D) The electrophile attacks the oxygen site in a carbonyl group
11. Which of the following mixtures can be separated by steam distillation?
(A) o-Nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol
(B) Aniline and chlorobenzene
(C) Benzoic acid and NaCl
(D) Acetone and methanol
12. Which of the following order of properties are correct?
(A) Melting points of halides: MF2 > MCl2 > MBr2 > MI2
(B) Basic character of oxides: BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO < BaO
(C) Decreasing polarity: CsF, KCl, CaO, MgO
(D) Increasing ionic character: BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
−
13. Zinc and Copper can both displace silver from Ag ( CN )2 . But zinc and not
copper is used in the hydrometallurgy of silver because
(A) copper is costlier than zinc
(B) EZn is more positive than ECu
(C) ECu is more positive than EZn
(D) Atomic mass of zinc is higher than that of copper
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. First group has 3 multiple choice questions
and the second group has 2 multiple choice questions based on the paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
(D) The reaction CH3 − CH = O + CH3 MgBr → CH3 − CHOMgBr is an example
CH3
of electrophilic addition.
16. Select the nucleophile among the following:
+
(A) NO2+ (B) CH3 (C) AlCl3 (D) CN−
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 and 18
The s-block elements represent the example of effect of increasing size of atoms or
ions on the physical and chemical properties. These are all metals, excellent
conductors of electricity. They are soft and highly reactive. They form univalent, ionic
and colourless compounds.
17. Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
(A) LiOH (B) NaOH (C) KOH (D) RbOH
18. Which of the following ionization energy values for calcium show a sudden
increase?
(A) Third (B) Second
(C) First (D) Fourth
SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
20. The number of pairs of elements which show diagonal relationship across the
periodic table is ______.Li — Mg; Be — Al; B — Si; K — Sr; N — S; Na — Ca.
21. The number of sulphide minerals of the following is ______.
Cuprite, Argentite, Carnallite, Magnesite, Galena, Black Jack.
22. The number of carbonates and bicarbonates existing as solids is ______.
NaHCO3, LiHCO3, H2CO3, KHCO3, CsHCO3, Li2CO3.
C
OH
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
O
COCH3
HCN
CH2 CH2
CH3 CH3
PART B: MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
29. The equation of the circle touching the straight lines x ± y = 0 and passing
through the point (1, 3) is
2 2 2 2
(A) x + y − 6x − 2y + 2 = 0 (B) x + y − 12x + 2 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y − 4y + 2 = 0 (D) x + y − 2x − 2y − 2 = 0
30. From the origin, chords are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 − 2x = 0, then the locus of
the middle points of such chords is
(A) x2 + y2 = y (B) x2 + y2 = x + y
(C) x2 + y2 = 2x (D) x2 + y2 = x
{ }
31. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola 5 (x + 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = (x − 2y + 3)2
is
12 12 6 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5
32. The locus of a point, such that two of the normals drawn from it to the parabola
y2 = 8x are perpendicular is
(A) y2 = x − 3 (B) x2 + y2 = 4 (C) y2 = 2(x − 6) (D) None of these
x2 y2
33. If the normal at any point P of the ellipse + = 1 meets the coordinate axes
16 9
at M and N respectively, then |PM| : |PN| equals
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 16 : 9 (C) 9 : 16 (D) 3 : 4
34. A circle of radius 5 is concentric with the ellipse 3x2 + 7y2 = 105. Then the
common tangent is inclined to the major axis at an angle of
π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6 4
35. The locus of the middle points of the chords of the hyperbola 3x2 − 2y2 + 4x − 6y = 0
parallel to y = 2x is
(A) the straight line 3x + 4y = 4 (B) a circle of radius 2
(C) an ellipse (D) the straight line 3x − 4y = 4
x2 y2
36. The ordinate at a point P on the hyperbola − = 1 meet its asymptotes at M
a2 b2
and N, then PM ⋅ PN equals
2 2 2 2
(A) a (B) b (C) a − b (D) None of these
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
37. The end points of the latus rectum of a parabola are (9, 4) and (9, 2). Then the
possible coordinates of the vertex are
17 17 19 19
(A) , 3 (B) 3, (C) , 3 (D) 3,
2 2 2 2
38. An ellipse passes through the point (2, 3) and its axes along the coordinate axes.
3x + 2y − 1 = 0 is a tangent to the ellipse. Then the equation of the ellipse is
x2 x2 y 2
(A) + 4y 2 = 1 (B) + =1
4 8 1
y2
(C) 4x2 + =1 (D) No such ellipse exists
4
39. The tangents from which of the following points to the ellipse 3x2 + 2y2 = 1 are
perpendicular?
(A) ( 3, 2 ) 1 1
(B) ,
3 2
1 1
(C) ,
2 3
(D) ( 2, 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(A) y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 (B) y1 y2 y3 y4
SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
PART C: PHYSICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57. A solid sphere of radius r made of a material of bulk modulus B is surrounded by
a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the
surface of the liquid. A mass M is placed on the piston to compress the liquid.
dr
When the mass M is removed, find the fractional change in the radius of
r
the sphere.
Mg 3Mg 5Mg Mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3aB aB 3aB aB
58. A reinforced concrete column consists of concrete filled with iron rods. Iron
occupies one-twentieth of the area occupied by concrete. Young’s modulus of
concrete and iron are Yc and Yi respectively. The concrete column is under a
2
compressive load P. If the fraction of load on the concrete is , what is the ratio
3
Yi
of ?
Yc
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
65. A wooden plank OP of length 1 m and uniform cross-section ‘s’ is hinged at one
end to the bottom of a tank. The tank is filled with water up to a height h m. The
specific gravity ρs of the plank is 0.5. In the
equilibrium position, the plank makes angle θ
with the vertical as shown in Figure. Then, if
θ = 45°,
θ
(A) the value of h is 0.5 m.
(B) horizontal component of reaction at O is
zero.
(C) other things remaining the same, centre of
buoyancy would get shifted if ρs is altered.
(D) location of
centre of buoyancy is
ρ
proportional to s .
ρℓ
66. A glass capillary tube of 0.11 m length and 2 × 10−5 m internal radius has its one end
sealed. The tube is dipped vertically in a liquid of surface tension 5.06 × 10−2 N/m.
If the liquid level inside and outside the tube be the same, then (atmospheric
pressure pa = 1 × 105 N/m2)
(A) pressure of air inside the tube over and above the atmosphere is
approximately 5 kN/m2.
(B) length of the tube inside the liquid is 5.23 × 10−3 m.
(C) if the capillary tube is broken, water will overflow.
(D) if the capillary tube is broken, water level will fall.
67. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the
same sense. Their periods of revolution are 1 hr and 8 hr respectively. The orbital
radius of S1 is 104 km when S2 is closest to S1. Then,
4
(A) the speed of S2 relative to S1 is π × 10 km/hr.
(B) the angular speed of S1 as actually observed by an astronaut in S2 is
π
rad/hr.
6
(C) the angular speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1 is
7π
rad/hr.
4
(D) the speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1, when S1 and S2
are farthest from each other is 3π × 104 km/hr.
68. A karate master strikes a pine board with a speed of 10 m/s which decreases to 1 m/s
in a time interval of 0.002 s. The mass of hand and arm is 1 kg. The thickness of
the pine board is 1 cm and volume 9.0 cm3. The breaking stress of the pine board
is 3.6 × 106 N/m2. Then,
(A) force on the board is 3500 N.
(B) stress in the board due to the force is 5.0 × 106 N/m2.
(C) the board will break, whatever be the mass of the board.
(D) the board will not break if thickness is increased.
69. A cylinder has 40.0 cm radius and is 50.0 cm deep. It is filled with air at 20°C and
1.00 atm (Figure a). A 20.0 kg piston is now slowly lowered into the cylinder
compressing the air trapped inside (Figure b). Finally, a 75.0 kg man stands on
the piston further compressing the air, without any appreciable change in
temperature. The atmospheric pressure p0 = 1 × 105 N/m2. Then,
∆h
50 cm
hi
(C) when the man stands on the piston the process involved is isothermal.
(D) when the gas is heated, the process involved is isobaric.
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. First group has 3 multiple choice questions
and the second group has 2 multiple choice questions based on the paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 70 to 72
U
Figure aside shows the variation of internal energy A C
U with the density ρ of one mole of an ideal monatomic 5U0
gas for a thermodynamic cycle A → B → C → A.
Assume the process A → B to be a part of a
rectangular hyperbola. Then, (given ℓn 2.5 = 0.916)
2U0
B
70. the process A → B is
ρ
(A) isobaric (B) isochoric 2ρ0
(C) isothermal (D) adiabatic
71. the total amount of heat absorbed by the system for the cyclic process is
approximately in units of U0 is
1
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)
2
72. work done during the process AB in units of U0 is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) − 2 (D) − 1
Paragraph for Question Nos. 73 and 74
Two equal drops of water are falling through air with constant velocity of 0.1 ms−1.
1
They coalesce to form a bigger drop. Then, (given 2 3 = 1.259 )
73. the new terminal velocity is
(A) 0.119 ms−1 (B) 0.129 ms−1 (C) 0.142 ms−1 (D) 0.159 ms−1
74. ratio of the surface energy of the smaller drop to that of the coalesced drop when
constant velocity is reached by the bigger drop is
(A) 0.521 (B) 0.392 (C) 0.630 (D) 0.402
SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective
question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers
to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
75. The bar in Figure below is made from a single piece of material. It consists of
L
two segments of equal length 0 and cross-sectional area A and 2A. The elastic
2
potential energy stored under the action of an axial force F is given in multiples
F2L0 n
of as . What is the value of n?
AY 24
L0
2
L0
2
76. A rod of length L is suspended from the ceiling by one of its ends. The density of the
material of the rod is ρ and its Young’s modulus is Y. The relative increment of its
ρgL
volume is given by − nσ . What is the value of n? Given σ is the Poisson’s ratio
nY
77. A block of wood floats in water kept in a vessel with two-third of its volume inside
water. The vessel is placed in a lift having an upward acceleration 1.2 m/s. Now
4
the fraction of volume inside water is found to be . What is the value of n?
n
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
78. Particles of sand are sprinkled on to the surface of water in a beaker, filled to a
depth of 45.45 mm to reach the bottom. The sand particles are spherical and have
a diameter of 0.10 mm. The beaker is kept in a lift moving with an upward
acceleration of 1.2 m/s2. Estimate the minimum time to reach the bottom by the
particles if viscosity of water η = 1.1 × 10−3 Nsm−2, density of water is 1000 kg/m3,
density of sand is 2000 kg/m3 and g is 9.8 ms−2. (Express your answer in s)
79. An open end wide tube is immersed vertically in mercury in such a way that a
length 0.05 m extends above the mercury level. The open end of the tube is then
closed and the tube is raised slowly further by 0.43 m. Calculate the length of the
−1
air column above the mercury level in the tube. Express your answer in 10 m.
(p0 = 0.76 ρg)
p0 p1
80. The temperature T and density ρ of an ideal diatomic gas obey the equation
T(1 − γ) = kρ, where k is a constant. If V and V′ are respectively the volumes, then
15
p − V′
it is found that = 2 n when = 32 . Then, what is the value of n?
p′ V
81. Figure shows a stream of fluid emerging from
a tube in the base of an open tank. The
expression for y in terms of θ and h is given by
y = h sinn θ. (ρ density of liquid) What is the
value of n? θ
82. Two cylinders of equal masses, one made of aluminium and the other of copper,
with their lateral surfaces thermally insulated are heated to 50°C and placed on
two large blocks of ice at 0°C. If both the cylinders have the same height, their
h 2
depths of penetration in the ice is given by Al = , under the assumption that
hCu n
no heat is lost to the surroundings. What is the value of n?
−1 −1 −1 −1 −3
(Given: SAl = 0.22 cal gm °C , SCu = 0.1 cal gm °C , ρAl = 2.7 gm-cm and
−3
ρCu = 8.9 gm-cm )
83. There are two vessels, each of them contains one mole of a monatomic ideal gas.
−3 3
Initial volume of the gas in each vessel is 8.3 × 10 m at 27°C. Equal amount of
heat is supplied to the two vessels such that in one of the vessels, the volume of
the gas is doubled without change in internal energy, whereas the volume of the
gas is held constant in the second vessel. The vessels are now connected to allow
free mixing of the gas. The temperature of the combined system is found to be
(362.3 + n) K. What is the value of n? (R = 8.3 J/mol. K and loge 2 = 0.693)
84. Four cylindrical rods of metal are welded as shown in Figure. The rod AB is
tapped at one-third points. If R is the thermal resistance of the rod AB, the
R
effective thermal resistance of the network of rods between AB is . What is
38 + n
the value of n?
A
R R
3 R 3 =
2
D R
R 2 = 3
R
3 R
R 1 =
6
C
R
3
B
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Mathematics and Part C: Physics).
Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
16. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. First set
consists of 3 questions and second set has 2 questions, based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct.
17. Section IV contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
instructions given at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. Partial marks will be awarded
for partially correct answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will
be awarded.
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.