IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY –
Formation of hybridoma in
EXAM/FINALS
Question 1
Fill in the blanks
B
Flow cytometry results on a
patient reveal a lack of cells with CD2 and CD3.
What does this indicate?
A. Lack of B cells B. Lack of T cells
C. Lack of monocytes D. Lack of
natural killer cells
B A
Which cell surface marker is
termed the common acute lymphoblastic
leukemia marker?
A. CD19 B. CD10 C. CD23
D. CD21
D C.SLE D. Gonococcemia
Which of the following
activates both T and B cells?
A. PHA B. Con A C. LPS D. PWM
C be associated with which of the following
C- Reactive protein is
synthesized in the:
A. Bone marrow B. Lymphatics
B. C. RES D. Epithelial cells
C B
Measurement of CRP levels can
be used for all of the following except:
A. Monitoring drug therapy with anti-
inflammatory agents
B. Tracking the normal progress of surgery
C. Diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection
D. Determining active phases of rheumatoid
arthritis
A B.Type II hypersensitivity reactions
Actively acquired immunity can
be caused by all of the following, except:
A. The specific disease
B. Exposure to subclinical doses of the
disease causing organism
C. Vaccination with the appropriate
antigen
D. Injection with immune serum
containing appropriate antibodies
D
monoclonal antibody production: Spleen cells
are fused with myeloma cells and then plated in
restrictive medium 1.A mouse is immunized,
and spleen cells are removed 2.Hybridoma cells
grow in the HAT medium, where they
synthesize and secrete a 3.monoclonal
immunoglobulin specific for a single
determinant on an antigen
A.1-2-3 B.2-1-3
C.3-1-2 D.3-2-1
Hereditary deficiency of early
complement components (C1, C4, and C2) is
associated with:
A. Pneumococcal septicemia B. Small bowel
obstruction
D
Hereditary deficiency of late
complement components (C5, C6, C7, or C8) can
conditions?
A.Pneumococcal septicemia B.Small bowel
obstruction C.SLE D.Gonococcemia
Hereditary angioedema is
characterized by:
A.Decreased activity of C3 B.Decreased activity
of C1 esterase inhibitor C.Increased activity of
C1 esterase inhibitor D.Increased activity of C2
A
Elevated IgE levels are typically
found in:
A.Type I hypersensitivity reactions
C.Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D.Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
A
In skin tests, a wheal and flare
development is indicative of:
A.Immediate hypersensitivity B.Delayed
hypersensitivity C.Anergy D.Arthus reaction
B
Incompatible blood
transfusions are examples of:
 A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
B
What is the immune
phenomenon associated with the Arthus
reaction?
A. Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells
B. Deposition of immune complexes in blood
vessels
C. Removal of antibody-coated red blood cells
D. Release of histamine from mast cell
B
Contact dermatitis is mediated
by:
A.B lymphocytes B.T lymphocytes
C.Macrophages D.PMNs
A
A patient deficient in the C3
complement component would be expected to
mount a normal:
A.Type I and IV hypersensitivity reactions
B.Type II and IV hypersensitivity reactions
C.Type I and III hypersensitivity reactions
D.Type II and III hypersensitivity reactions
B
Individuals who are at risk for
ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one
of the following alleles?
A.HLA-A3 B.HLA-B27
C.HLA-B7 D.HLA-DR4
A
The concentration of hCG is
generally at a particular level in serum about 2-
3 days after implantation. This is the
concentration at which most sensitive
laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG
result. What is the lowest level of hormone for
which most current serum hCG tests can give a
positive result.
A.25 mIU/mL B.50 mIU/mL C.100 mIU/mL
D.100,000 mIU/mL
C
CA 15-3 is used conditionally in
the monitoring of:
A.Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
B.Colonic adenocarcinoma
C.Breast adenocarcinoma
D.Hairy cell carcinoma
Question 2
A
Destruction of myelin sheath of
axons caused by the presence of antibody is
characteristic of which disease?
A.Multiple sceloris B.Myasthenia gravis
C.Grave’s disease D.Goodpasture’s disease
D
Which disease might be
indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?
A.Atrophic gastritis B.Chronic active hepatitis
C.Myasthenia gravis D.Hashimoto’s
D
High titers of antimicrosomal
antibodies are most often found in:
A.Rheumatoid arthritis B.SLE C.Chronic hepatitis
D.Thyroid disease
C
A positive ANA with the
pattern of anticentromere antibodies is most
frequently seen in patients with:
A.Rheumatoid arthritis B.SLE C.CREST syndrome
D.Sjogren syndrome
B
Which of the following is
characteristic of the end point method of RID?
A.Readings are taken before equivalence
B.Concentration is directly in proportion to the
square of the diameter.
C.The diameter is plotted against the log of the
concentration
D.It is primarily a qualitative rather than a
quantitative method.
C
All are true for Mancini RID
technique, except:
A.Involves measurements of the diameters after
diffusion has ceased
B.Requires 2 to 3 days before results are
available
C.Preferable since results are available much A
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
sooner
infections are associated with which antibodies?
D.Provides a more reliable estimation of low
A. Cold agglutinins
levels of antigen
B. Antibodies to ATPase
C
In which of the following tests C. Antibodies to DNase
is patient antigen determined by measuring the D. Antibodies to proteus
number of nonagglutinating particles left after C
A patient report states the
the reaction has taken place?
presence of serum antibody to OspC. What
A.Direct agglutination
disease does the patient most likely have:
B.Coagglutination
A. Syphilis B. Strep throat C. Lyme disease D.
C.PACIA
Rubella
D.Coomb’s testing
B
C The first diagnostic blood test
Diagnostic reagents useful for
for syphilis.
detecting antigen by the coagglutination
A.VDRL B. Wasserman test C.RPR D. Colloidal
reaction may be prepared by binding antibody
gold
to killed staphylococcal protein A. The class of
C
antibody bound by this protein is: Which of the following is true
A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM of reagin?
B A. It can be detected in all patients with primary
A classic technique for the
syphilis
detection of viral antibodies is:
B. Reagin tests remain positive after successful
a) Passive hemagglutination
treatment
b) Indirect hemagglutination
C. It is antibody directed against cardiolipin
c) Hemagglutination inhibition
D. It is only found in patients with syphilis
d) Latex particle agglutination
D
C False positive nontreponemal
In the complement fixation
tests for syphilis may be due to which of the
procedure, a negative result is manifested by:
following?
A.Antigen-binding
A.Infectious mononucleosis B.Systemic lupus
B.Lysis of guinea pig cells
C.Pregnancy D.All of the above
C.Lysis of sheep red blood cells
C
D.Agglutination of sheep red blood cells A 24 YEAR old man who had
just recovered from infectious mononucleosis
A had evidence of a genital lesion. His RPR test
Which of the following
was positive. What should the technologist do
indicates the presence of anti-DNAse B activity
next? A.Report out as false positive B.Do a VDRL
in serum?
C.Do a confirmatory treponemal test D.Have the
A.Reduction of methyl green from green to
patient return in 2 weeks for a repeat test
colorless
C
B.Inhibition of red blood cell hemolysis Which of the following
C.Clot formation when acetic acid is added identifies the pattern of antibody cross-
D.Lack of change in the color indicator reactivity that is generated during infection with
R. rickettsii?
A.P. vulgaris OX-19 (+), P. vulgaris OX-2(+), P.
mirabilis OX-K (-)
B. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2(+), P.
mirabilis OX-K (-)
C. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2(+), P.
mirabilis OX-K (+)
D. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2(-), P.
mirabilis OX-K (+)
Question 3
B
Which of the following terms
describes the second stage of B. pertussis
infection?
A. Catarrhal B. Convalescent C. Paroxysmal
D. Virulence stage
A
The most common cause of
congenital infections is
A.CMV B.Rubella C.VZV D.HTLV-1
B
The serologic marker during
the “window period” of hepatitis B is:
A.Anti-HBS B.Anti-HBc C.Anti-HBe D.HBsAg
C
The most common means of
HIV transmission worldwide is through:
A.Blood transfusions B.Sharing needles in
intravenous use C.Intimate sexual contact
D.Transplacental passage of the virus
D
The confirmation of a
heterophile antibody of infectious
mononucleosis would be:
A. Agglutination with horse cells
B. Agglutination with guinea pig cells
C. Agglutination of sheep cells after incubation
with guinea pig cells, no agglutination of sheep
cells after incubation with beef cells
D. Agglutination of sheep cells after incubation
with beef cells, no agglutination of cells after
incubation with guinea pig cells
C A.Extension>annealing>denaturation
A rapid method for the
diagnosis of blistering disorders such as herpes
simplex; performed by staining cells from a
lesion and examining for the presence of
multinucleated giant cells.
A.Elek’s test B.Frei’s test C.Tzanck smear
D.Sabin feldman
B
Which of the following fungal
organisms is often diagnosed by a serum
antigen detection test as opposed to serum
detection assay?
A.Histoplasma B.Cryptococcus C.Candida
D.Aspergillus
C
Which one of the following
tests measures the production of parasitic
lactate dehydrogenase?
A.RIDASCREEN B.ProSpect C.MalaQuick
Standby D.OptiMal
D
HBV may be stable in dried
blood specimens at room temperature for up to:
A.24 hours B.48 hours C.5 days D.7 days
A
HIV retains infectivity for more
than HOW MANY days in dried specimens at
room temperature
A.24 hours B.48 hours C.3 days D.2 days ANSW
B
A technician who is pregnant
should avoid working with:
A.Organic chemicals B.Radioisotopes C.HIV
positive serum D.Needles and lancets
A
Which technique is used to
detect DNA containing a specific base sequence
by applying a labelled probe to DNA bands
immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following
electrophoresis?
A.Southern blot B.Northern blot C.Dot blot
D.Western blot
B
The PCR involves three
processes. Select the order in which these occur.
B.Denaturation>annealing>extension
C.Annealing>denaturation>extension
D.Denaturation>extension>annealing
Question 4
 C treponemes are immobilized, the test is
First attenuated vaccines:
A. Chinese B. Edward Jenner C. Louis
Pasteur D.Elie Metchnikoff
C
Macrophages have specific
names according to their tissue location.
Macrophages in the liver are:
A.Alveolar B.Microglial cells C.Kupffer cells
D.Histiocytes
C
Individuals who are at risk for
ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one
of the following alleles?
A.HLA-A3 B.HLA-B8 C.HLA-B27 D.HLA-B7
B
Treatment of IgG with papain
results in how many fragments?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
B
The immunoglobulin class
typically found to be present in saliva, tears,
and other secretions is:
A.IgG B.IgA C.IgM D.IgD
C
Which of the following is used
to detect allergen-specific IgE?
A.RIST B.IEP C.RAST D.CRP
B C
C1 consists of three subunits:
C1q, C1r and C1s, which are bound together by:
A.Magnesium B.Calcium C.Iron D.Chloride
D C. C. cayetanensis
High titers of antimicrosomal
antibodies are most often found in:
A.Rheumatoid arthritis B.SLE C.Chronic hepatitis
D.Thyroid disease
D
A biomarker that exhibits
greater specificity than other proinflammatory
markers in identifying patients with sepsis and
can be used in the diagnosis of bacterial
infections:
A. Ceruloplasmin B. Cytokines
C. CEA D. Procalcitonin
A
In the Treponema pallidum
immobilization (TPI) test, if 10% of the
regarded as:
A. Negative B. Positive C. Doubtful D. None
of these
C
Which of the following
combinations of bands would represent a
positive Western Blot for HIV Antibody?
A.P24 and p55 B.P24 and p31 C.Gp41 and gp120
D.P31 and p55
B
In FLUORESCENCE
POLARIZATION IMMUNOASSAY (FPIA), the
degree of fluorescence polarization is
proportional to concentration of the analyte.
A. Direct B. Inverse C. Variable D. No effect
A
Specimens for serological
testing suspected of measles should be taken
not less than upon onset of symptoms.
A.72 hours B.24 hours C.32 hours D.12 hours
B
Latex agglutination for
cryptococcal is now recommended test for
Cryptococcus neoformans.
A. Polysaccharide capsule B. Antigen
C. Antibody D. Nucleic acids
Autofluorescence is
characteristic of this organism:
A. E. histolytica B. T. vaginalis
D. C. parvum
C
Year of discovery of the T cell
receptor gene: A.1964 B.1974 C.1984 D.1994
B
What is the most potent
phagocytic cell in the tissue?
A. Neutrophil B. Dendritic cell
B. C. Eosinophil D. Basophil
B
Antigenic groups identified by
different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar
manner to certain standard cell lines best
describes:
A. Cytokines B. Clusters of differentiation
C. Neutrophil granules D. Opsonins
 B B
A 40 year old male who is a
smoker develops symptoms of EMPHYSEMA.
The symptoms may be caused by a deficiencyof
which of the following acute phase reactants? A.
Haptoglobin B. Alpha-1-antitrypsin C. Fibrinogen
D. Ceruloplasmin
C
Which of the following is the
most common congenital immunodeficiency?
A. Severe combined immunodeficiency
B.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
C. Selective IgA deficiency
D. Common variable immunodeficiency
Question 5
B
What is the most common
congenital immunodeficiency?
A.C1 B.C2 C.C3 D.C4
B
Which best describes the role
of Factor H?
A.Acts with DAF to breakdown C3b
B.Prevents binding of Factor B to C3b
C.Binds to the C567 complex
D.Binds to C1q to shut down the classical
pathway
A
What is the role of properdin in
the alternative pathway?
A.Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase
B.Conversion of B to Bb
C.Inhibition of C3 convertase formation
D.Binding and cleavage of factor B
C B.Anaphylactic transfusion reaction
Anticoagulant for the direct
AHG Test (DAT):
A.Citrate B.Oxalate C.EDTA D.Heparin
B All of the following are correct
What is the portion of an
antigen that binds specifically to the binding site
of an antibody?
A.Hapten B.Epitope C.Paratope D.Adjuvant
B
PCR is a/an WHAT TYPE OF
assay. A.Cellular B.Molecular C.Serologic
D.Biologic
Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an WHAT TYPE OF
assay. A.Cellular B.Molecular C.Serologic
D.Biologic
C
HBV is transmitted through the
parenteral route by intimate contact with HBV-
contaminated blood or other body fluids, most
notably:
A.Semen
B.Semen and vaginal secretions
C.Semen, vaginal secretions, and saliva D.Semen,
vaginal secretions, saliva and sputum
C
Which of the following is not
considered as HBV serologic marker A.HBc Ag
B.HBe Ag C.Anti-HBe ag D.Anti-HBcAg
D
The fourth-generation ELISA
tests for HIV detects:
A.HIV-1 and HIV 2 antigens B.P24 antigen
C.HIV-1 and HIV 2 antibodies
D.HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies, p24 antigen
C
The presenting reaction with a
maculopapular rash (often pruritic, typically
starting centrally and extending to the
extremeties), fever, watery diarrhea
(accompanied by bloody stools and abdominal
pain), elevated liver function tests, and
pancytopenia occuring between 3 and 30 days
post transfusion:
A.Hemolytic transfusion reaction
C.Graft versus host disease
D.Iron overload
D
match except:
A.Elie Metchnikoff: Phagocytosis
B.Koehler,Milstein: Monoclonal Antibodies
C.Snell, Dausset, Benaceraf: MHC D.Thomas,
Murray: Radioimmunoassay
D
In searching for a cure for TB,
Koch was first to observe which phenomenon?
A.Bacterial agglutination B.Precipitation C
A cut on a person fingers
C.Phagocytosis D.Delayed Hypersensitivity
becomes contaminated with the bacterium
A
Chronic granulomatous disease Staphylococcus aureus. The first response by
represents a defect of: the immune system consists of the activity of:
A.Oxidative metabolism B.Abnormal granulation A.B cells B.Monocytes C.Neutrophils
of neutrophils C.Diapedesis D.Chemotaxis D.T cells
B A
A primary function of the Monocytes and macrophages
eosinophil is: A.Phagocytosis B.Reacting in acute, plays a role in the mononuclear phagocytic
systemic hypersensitivity reactions system. For an antibody coated antigen to be
C.Suppression of the inflammatory response phagocytised, what part of the antibody
D.Antigen recognition molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic
D cell?
Proteins that are released by
A.Fc region B.Fab region C.Hinge region
eosinophils and are toxic to helminthes is (are):
D.Variable region
A.Major basic protein B.Eosinophil cationic
C
protein C.Perforin D.Both a and b A function of the cell-mediated
D immune response not associated with humoral
Of the circulating lymphocytes
immunity is:
in peripheral blood, which are in the greatest
A.Defense against viral and bacterial infection
percentages?
B.Defense against fungal and bacterial infection
A.Null cells B.Natural killer cells C.B
C.Initiation of rejection of foreign tissues and
lymphocytes D.T lymphocytes
tumors D.Antibody production
D
Large granular lymphocyte (LGL) B
The main role of cytotoxic T
is synanymous with:
cells and natural killer cells is to destroy:
A.B cell B.T helper cell C.T cytotoxic cell
A.Extracellular bacteria B.Intracellular bacteria
D.Natural killer cell
C.Virally infected cell D.Helminthes
A
The major role of natural killer C
Which one of the following
cells is lysis of virally infected cells. Which one
cells recognizes a cell surface complex
of the following molecules is released by
consisting of antigenic peptide complexed with
activated NK cells and causes destruction of the
MHC protein? A.Phagocytes B.Eosinophils C.T
infected cell?
cells D.B cells
A.Major Basic Protein B.Superoxide C.Perforin
C
D.Lysozyme An individual is recovering from
A a bacterial infection and tests positive for
The major role of neutrophils is
antibodies to a protein normally found in the
phagocytosis. Which one of the following
cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the
events is not associated with some aspect of
following statements is true of this situation?
neutrophil functions? A.Recognition of antigen
A.Class I molecules have presented bacterial
via primitive pattern receptor patterns
antigen to CD8+ T cells B.Class I molecules have
B.Recognition of opsonins on bacteria
presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells
C.Secretion of protein D.Activation of NADPH
C.Class II molecules have presented bacterial
oxidase
antigen to CD4+ T cells D.B cells have
Question 6
recognized bacterial antigen without help from
T cells
A
A living donor is being sought
for a child who requires a kidney transplant. The
best odds of finding an MHC compatible donor
occur between the child and:
A.Sibling (brother or sister) B.An unrelated
individual C.The child’s father D.The child’s
mother
A
Which of the following is a
potent mediator in acute-phase response?
A.IL-1 B.IL-2 C.IL-3 D.IL-4
B
Which of the following
enhances the cytolytic activity of lymphokine-
activated killer cells (LAK)?
A.IL-1 B.IL-2 C.IL-3 D.IL-4
D
Which of the following are
target cells for IL-3?
A.Myeloid precursors B.Lymphoid precursors
C.Erythroid precursors D.All of the above