1) Which of the following anti-viral drugs is a reverse transcriptase

inhibitor?
a) Acyclovir.
b) Ribavirin
c) Azidothymidine. (AZT)
d) Idoxuridine

2) Yellow fever virus vaccine is: 17 D ‫ سنوات‬10 ‫يعطى مناعه‬

a. live attenuated virus vaccine
b. Heat killed virus vaccine
c. Recombinant vaccine
d. Subunit vaccine
e. Formalin inactivated

3) Which of the following is a factor that hinders the development of

vaccine to human immune-deficiency virus (HIV)?
a. The virus is oncogenic
b. The virus is highly mutagenic, ( No ideal animal & spread by fusion)
c. The virus is non immunogenic
d. The virus cannot grow in tissue culture
e. The virus is lethal to most laboratory animals

4) An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of
him progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one of the following tests
would be most useful?
a. CD4 lymphocyte count
b. HIV antibody test
c. HIV RT-PCR
d. Neopterin
e. HIV p24 antigen

5) The latest and most effective therapy for AIDS patients includes
azidothymidine (AZT), dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar
agents. Use of these three drugs would inhibit which of the following
viral processes?
a. RNase, DNase
b. gp120 formation
c. p24 antibody expression
d. All membrane synthesis
e. Reverse transcriptase, protease

6) This HIV-positive patient with a viral load of 750,000 copies of HIV

RNA/ml and a total CD4 count of 50 is at an increased risk for a number
of infectious diseases. For which of the following diseases is the patient
at no more added risk than an immune-competent host?
a. Pneumocystic pneumonia
b. Mycobacterial disease
c. Kaposi's sarcoma
d. Pneumococcal pneumonia (as it pathogenic not opportunistic)
e. Herpes simplex virus

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7) The clinical picture of arbo-virus infection fits one of three categories:
encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever with myalgia. One of the
characteristics of arbo viruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses

8) Which is RNA oncogenic virus? ©

a) HIV.
b) HBV.
c) Human T-lymphotropic virus. (HTLV)
d) EBV.

9) Which of the following is the target cell of Parvovirus B19? b

a) Adult hepatocytes.
b) Immature RBCs. (SS DNA, icosahedral & naked) (aplastic anemia)
c) Mature RBCs.
d) None of the above.

10) All the following viruses are arthropod borne viruses EXCEPT:
a) Dengue fever virus
b) Yellow fever virus
c) Cytomegalovirus virus (CMV not arbo virus)
d) Rift valley fever virus
11) Yellow fever virus vaccine is:
a) Live attenuated virus vaccine
b) killed virus vaccine
c) Recombinant vaccine
d) Subunit vaccine
12) Aedes aegyptii mosquito can transmit:
a) EBV
b) Rabies virus
c) Yellow fever virus
d) Hantavirus
13) The most important HIV antigen that attach to host cell is:
a) gp 120.
b) gp 160.
c) P 24.

14) HIV can be transmitted by:

a) Sexual intercourse.
b) Blood transfusion.
c) Transplacental.
d) All of the above.

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15) Parvo virus infection characterized by:
a) Acute respiratory dis.
b) Gastroenteritis.
c) Acute hemolytic anemia.
d) Whooping cough.
16) Treatment of human immunodeficiency virus infection includes the
following EXCEPT:
a) Antiviral drugs e.g. Azidothymidine.
b) Antibiotics.
c) Immunotherapy as cytokines and soluble CD4.
d) Coticosteroides.

17) Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is d.t.:

a) Small pox.
b) HCV.
c) Adenovirus.
d) HIV.

18) The 1st step in HIV diagnosis: ©

a) Virus isolation.
b) PCR.
c) Detect antibody by ELISA.
d) Western blot.

19) Parvovirus infection, the cause of mild exanthema in children, is

characterized by:
a) Acute epidemic respiratory disease.
b) Gastroenteritis.
c) Whooping cough like disease.
d) Acute hemolytic anemia.

20) Function of HIV-RT enzymes: ©

a) Production of ab.
b) Cleavage of viral protein.
c) Synthesis of DNA copy from viral RNA during replication.

21) HIV except:

a) Human oncogenic virus. (a)
b) SS RNA.
c) Sensitive to chlorine.
d) Homosexual at high risk.

22) HIV except:

a) Infect CD4.
b) Cause AIDs.
c) Oncogenic virus.
d) Inversion of CD4/CD8. CD4‫ ولكن الفيرس بيققل‬2:1 ‫الطبيعى انها‬

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23) Francisella tularensis is the bacterium that causes tularemia, a
disease not uncommonly seen in hunters. Which one of the following
statements best characterizes this bacterium?
a. It secretes erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of
scarlet fever
b. It produces toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and
carries a lytic bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for
toxin production
c. It produces at least one protein toxin consisting of two subunits, A
and B, that cause severe spasmodic cough usually in children
d. Survive and multiply inside MQs
e. It secretes exotoxin that has been called "verotoxin" and "Shiga-like
toxin"; infection is mediated by specific attachment to mucosal
membranes

25) About brucellosis, the following statements are true EXCEPT; ©

a) Fever that come and go over a long period of time gave it the name
"undulant fever".
b) The causative agent can infect via mucous membranes.
c) The causative agent is readily killed by phagocytes.
d) Butchers are advised to wear personal protective equipment to help
protect against the disease

26) Yersinia pestis is characterized by one of the followings:

a) It is a motile organism. (b)
b) It grows on sulphite blood agar.
c) Optimum temperature for Growth is. 37°C.
d) It is not pathogenic to laboratory animals.

27) Arthropods are vital in transmission of: (d)

a) Chlamydia.
b) Mycoplasma.
c) Treponema.
d) Rickettsia.

28) A 30-year-old veterinarian presents with a 2-month history of

malaise, chills, swears, fatigue, and weakness. He has intermittent
fevers that range up to 19.4° C. A physical examination reveals
generalized lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely etiologic
agent?
a. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis d
b. Yersinia cnterocolitica
c. Ycrsinia pestis
d. Brucella abortus
e. Campylobacter jejuni

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29) The pathogenesis of plague depends on: c
a. Production of a heat labile enterotoxin.
b. Production of a neurotoxin
c. Multiplication of the organism and capsular formation
d. Multiplication of the organism in the gut mucosa.
e. Delayed type hypersensitivity