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SSC CGL 2022 Tier-2 Compilation

(Exams held in March 2022)


All 4 shifts
GK Subject-wise
(One Liner) [English]
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Index:

No. of Quesitons
GK Questions per shift
BIOLOGY 14 3.5
CHEMISTRY 4 1
PHYSICS 11 2.75
ECONOMICS 9 2.25
GEOGRAPHY 19 4.75
HISTORY 12 3
POLITY 15 3.75

CURRENT AFFAIRS 16 4
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SSC CGL 2022 Tier-2 General Awareness ALL SUBJECTS (ONE LINER) by Shubham Jain (RBE)

BIOLOGY
Q1. Which of the following options is correct this group are commonly called algae. These
regarding sexually transmitted disease (STD)? plants are predominantly aquatic. Thallophyta
Statement A: Sexually transmitted diseases
Q9. Who explained the structure and
(STDs) are infections transmitted from an
reproductive system of algae in 1935? FE
infected person to an uninfected person
Fritsch
through sexual contact.
Statement B: HIV, HPV and Hepatitis B virus is Q10. Which is a specialised excretory cell
responsible for STD. Both Statements A and B found in Platyhelminthes that acts like a
correct kidney, removing waste material through
filtration? Flame cell
Q2. What do you call the type of drugs that
mimic the natural messenger by switching on Q11. Match the columns.
the receptor? Agonist
Nutrients Examples
Q3. Deficiency of which of the following a. Protein i. Calcium,
vitamins causes excessive bleeding from Phosphorous
wounds? Vitamin K b. Carbohydrates ii. Cholesterol
c. Fat iii. Glucose
Q4. Which of the following was the first B
d. Minerals iv. Myosin
vitamin discovered in 1897? Thiamine
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Q5. Which group of animals are named Q12. Nutritional care during illness is an
because of their spiny skin and have a peculiar organised group of activities which consists of
water-driven tube system that they use for all of the following,
moving around? Echinodermata EXCEPT: assessing psychological stress

Q6. Which of the following is essential to form Q13. What do you call the drugs that bind to
haemoglobin in blood? Iron the receptor site and inhibit its natural
function? Antagonists
Q7. Which of the following can degrade
detritus into simpler inorganic substances? Q14. When did the Constitution of WHO come
Fungal enzymes into force - a date which we now celebrate as
World Health Day every year? 7 April 1948
Q8. Plants that do not have well-differentiated
body design fall in this group. The plants in

CHEMISTRY
Q1. Identify a class of compounds that has a Q2. Which law was studied in the year 1787, in
functional group –OH. Alcohol which it was said that the volume of a gas
increases with its absolute temperature and if

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its absolute temperature decreases, then its Q4. In 1845, which German chemist published
volume will decrease? Charles's law a method for the synthesis of acetic acid, a
natural product containing two carbon atoms?
Q3. Hydrogen resembles the properties of
Hermann Kolbe
which two groups of the periodic table? Group
1 and group 17

PHYSICS
Q1. Which scientist suggested that the magnet Q7. The induced current is the highest when
must also exert an equal and opposite force on the direction of motion of the coil is: at right
the current-carrying conductor? Andre Marie angles to the magnetic field
Ampere
Q8. Which of the following is correct about
Q2. A light bulb working on a 18 V battery uniform acceleration? An object under free fall
draws a current of 3 A. What will be the is an example of uniform acceleration.
resistance of the bulb? 6 Ω
Q9. Match the columns.
Q3. Identify the correct statement. Resistance
Column-A Column-B
of a wire depends on the length and cross-
i. Electric current a. Henry
section of the wire.
ii. Potential difference b.
Q4. In which year did Albert Einstein predict a Farad
new state of matter, the Bose-Einstein iii. Capacitance c.
condensate (BEC), based on a quantum Volt
formulation by the Indian physicist Satyendra iv. Inductance d.
Nath Bose? 1924 Ampere
i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Q5. What is the correct order of radiations in
descending order of frequencies? X-rays > Q10. Who found an empirical relationship
Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves between the half-life of alpha decay and the
energy of the emitted alpha particles in 1911?
Q6. In which year was the Doppler effect
Geiger and Nuttall
discovered by Austrian scientist Christian
Doppler, that describes the change in Q11. Identify the correct statement. Newton is
frequency of any kind of sound or light wave a unit of force.
produced by a moving source with respect to
an observer? 1842

ECONOMICS
Q1. Which of the following is considered a employment.
capital expense? Construction of school III. It was dissolved in 2018. Only statements I
buildings and II

Q2. In India, which of the following statements Q3. In India, which of the following is NOT an
is true about the National Investment Fund? objective of the National Manufacturing
Statements: Policy? To double the exports of
I. It was created in 2005. manufacturing goods by 2022.
II. 75% of its annual income was to be used for
schemes promoting health, education and
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Q4. Which of the following is an indirect tax? (A) Zero Hunger
Goods and services tax (B) Climate Action
(C) Life Below Water
Q5. The Reserve Bank of India introduced a
(D) Quality Education A, B, C and D
comprehensive regulatory framework for
NBFC-MFI on __________. 2 December 2011 Q8. Assume that exchange rate between the
US Dollar and Indian Rupee is $1= ₹55. Now if
Q6. The intervention of the government
this exchange rate increases to $1 = ₹60, then
whether to expand demand or reduce it
in this case the Indian Rupee has ____ in
constitutes the ___________. stabilisation
comparison to the US dollar. depreciated
function
Q9. In India, according to the Insolvency and
Q7. Which of the following is/are one of the
Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of
United Nations Sustainable Development
insolvency resolution for companies should be
Goals?
completed in how many days? 180

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Identify a type of season that is NOT a part Q6. Below are few statements given about
of the four seasons of India. The southeast afforestation.
monsoon season A. Afforestation could prevent flooding.
B. Afforestation can balance our ecosystem.
Q2. Identify which of the following statements
Which of above statements is/are correct?
are correct.
Both A & B
1. Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) was
incorporated on 9 November 1967. Q7. In 1962, who published 'The History of
2.The Khetri Copper Complex (KCC) is located Ocean Basins', which outlined the theory of
in Rajasthan. how tectonic plates could move, later called
3.The headquarters of Mineral Exploration 'sea floor spreading'? Harry Hammond Hess
Consultancy Ltd. is located in Jaipur. 1 and 2
Q8. Match the columns.
only
Mineral Reserves region
Q3. Identify which of the following statements
(A) Bauxite (I) Lohardaga
about agriculture in India are correct.
(B) Mica (II) Bhilwara
1. Rabi crops are sown in India from October
(C) Coal (III) Jhunjhunu
to December and harvested from April to June.
(D) Copper (IV) Jharia
2. Important crops grown during Rabi in India
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
are paddy, maize, gram, soyabean and
Q9. Identify which of the following statements
mustard.
are correct.
3. Aus, Aman and Boro are three crops of
1.The headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of
paddy in Assam, West Bengal and Odisha. 1
Groundnut Research is located in Junagarh.
and 3 only
2.The headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of
Q4. Which state recorded the lowest literacy Rapeseed & Mustard Research is located in
rate in the 2011 census? Bihar Bharatpur.
3.The headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of
Q5. Which of the following states has the
Soybean Research is located in Indore. 1, 2 and
highest fertility rate in India according to the
3
2011 census? Bihar
Q10. Following statements are made regarding
global warming.
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A. Global warming is the long-term heating of Q16. Match the columns.
Earth's surface observed since the pre-
Slash and burn agriculture Associated
industrial period due to human activities,
State
primarily fossil fuel burning, which increases
(A) Dahiya (I)
heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth's
Jharkhand
atmosphere.
(B) Kuruwa (II) Odisha
B. Global warming causes climate change,
(C) Bringa (III) Andhra
which poses a serious threat to life on Earth in
Pradesh
the forms of widespread flooding and extreme
(D) Penda (IV) Madhya
weather.
Pradesh
Which of these statements are correct? Both A
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
&B
Q17. Consider the following statements about
Q11. Which of the following statements is/are the main reasons for the excessive cold in
true? north India during the cold weather season
(A) COP28 is proposed to be held in New and identify which of the statements are
Delhi, India. correct.
(B) The first UN Climate Change Conference 1.States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan,
was held in 1995. being far away from the moderating influence
(C) The first UN Climate Change Conference of sea, experience continental climate.
was held in Paris, France. Only B 2.The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan
ranges creates a cold wave situation.
Q12. The national census does NOT recognise
3.Around February, the cold winds coming
______ groups within India. ethnic
from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring
Q13. Match the columns. a cold wave along with frost and fog over the
northwestern parts of India. 1, 2 and 3
Institutions
Headquarters Q18. Which crops are benefitted from the
(A) ICAR-Central Institute for Arid Horticulture temperate cyclones arising from the
(I) Bikaner Mediterranean Sea that cause rainfall in
(B) ICAR-Central Institute of Cotton Research Punjab? Rabi crops
(II) Nagpur
Q19. Match the columns.
(C) ICAR- National Rice Research Institute
(III) Cuttack Season Month according
(D) ICAR-Indian Institute of Horticultural to Indian Calendar
Research (IV) Bengaluru (A) Vasanta (I) Chaitra-Vaisakha
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (B) Grishma (II) Asvina-Kartika
Q14. Name the hot, dry oppressing winds that (C) Varsha (III) Sravana-Bhadra
blow in between Delhi and Patna. Loo (D) Sharada (IV) Jyaistha-Asadha
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Q15. The population of India is _____ according
to Census 2011. 1.21 billion

HISTORY
Q1. The Act that is also known as ‘Morley- Q3. Zafar khan was a famous General of which
Minto Reformsʼ is: Indian Councils Act, 1909 of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate?
Alauddin Khilji
Q2. Who composed Tabaqat-i-Nasiri in the
Delhi Sultanate period? Minhaj-us-Siraj
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Q4. What was the distance (around in km) Q8. Who among the following was the
covered by the first-ever train between President of the Indian National Congress
Bombay and Thane in 1853? 34 during the 1915 session? Satyendra Prasanna
Sinha
Q5. Which of the following books was written
by the Roman writer Pliny the elder? Natural Q9. In which year, the Koya rebellion took
History place in the eastern Godavari tract? 1879-1880

Q6. Pushyamitra, who was the commander of Q10. India was named ‘Bharatʼ after the name
Brihadratha, the last Mauryan emperor, killed of the Bharat tribe. In which of the following
the king and established a new dynasty. Which Vedas is this tribe first mentioned? Rigveda
of the following was his dynasty? Shunga
Q11. Who had assumed the title of Balban?
Q7. Which officer under Alauddin Khilji was Ulugh Khan
required to maintain a register of merchants to
Q12. Bhimbetka, a noted site of the
ensure an adequate supply of goods? Shahna-
Palaeolithic period, is located in which state of
i-Mandi
India? Madhya Pradesh

POLITY
Q1. Which of the following statements are B. Hattee community
correct regarding the benefits of the retired C. Kadu Kuruba community
President of India? D. Kapu community A, B and C only
A. The former President of India will also be
Q6. Which Article of the Constitution of India
entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5 lakh.
empowers a high court to issue a writ? Article
B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff
226
comprising a private secretary, a personal
assistant, an additional private secretary, two Q7. In India, which of the following bills
peons, and office expenses up to ₹1 lakh per CANNOT be introduced in the Rajya Sabha?
annum. The money bill
C. He/She is also entitled to free highest-class
Q8. Which Article of the Constitution of India
travel anywhere in India, accompanied by one
lays down that an Indian citizen has the right
person, by rail, air, or steamer. A, B and C
to use any restaurant, road or public place?
Q2. In which year was the Estimates Article 15 (2)
Committee constituted for the first time in
Q9. In India, who among the following is
India? 1950
responsible for auditing all receipts and
Q3. Which of the following is constituted expenditure of the Union and State
under Article 280 of the Constitution of India? governments? Comptroller and Auditor-
Finance Commission General

Q4. Which part of the Constitution of India Q10. How many types of writs can be issued
consists of the idea of a Welfare State? under Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution of
Directive Principles of State Policy India? Five

Q5. With the 2022 amendments to the Indian Q11. Article 148 of the Constitution of India
Constitution, which of the following provides for an independent office of the
communities have been granted the Scheduled ________. Comptroller and Auditor General of
Tribes status by the Government of India? India
A. Narikoravan community
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Q12. In India, who appoints the Advocate judgement on validity of 103rd Constitutional
General of a State? Governor of the State Amendment Act?
A. The Supreme Court of Indiaʼs Constitutional
Q13. When was the None of the Above (NOTA)
Bench for this case consisted of 5 judges.
ballot option first implemented in India? 2013
B. The Constitutional Bench upholds the 10%
Q14. Which of the following Articles mentions of EWS reservation with 3-2 majority.
about a Uniform Civil Code throughout the C. As per the Supreme Court judgement, the
territory of India? Article 44 103rd Constitutional Amendment is valid
although it is violating the Basic Structure of
Q15. Which of the following statements are
the Indian Constitution. A and B only
correct regarding the Supreme Court

CURRENT AFFAIRS
Q1. What was India's rank in the Asia-Pacific Q5. Match List-I and List-II regarding the BCCI
Personalised Health Index released by the awards for the year 2022.
Economist Intelligence Unit in January 2021?
List-I List-II
10th
(a) Rishabh Panth (i) Best Batsman in
Q2. Which of the following statements is/are test matches for the year 2022
correct regarding changes to Atal Pension (b) Jasprit Bhumra (ii) Best Bowler in
Yojana Scheme (APY) done in 2022? the test matches for the year 2022
A. According to the new criteria, any citizen (c) Surya Kumar Yadav (iii) Best Batsman
who is or has been an income-tax payer, shall in the One Day
not be eligible to join APY after 1 October International
2022. matches for the
B. Subscribers would receive the guaranteed year 2022
minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000 or ₹2,000 (d) Shreyas Iyer (iv) Best Batsman
or ₹3,000 or ₹4,000 or ₹5,000 at the age of 80 in T20 matches for the year 2022
years. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
C. As per the new rules, subscribers can make Q6. What is the name of the scheme launched
contributions to APY on a monthly basis only. in 2021 for students to attain foundational
A only literacy and numeracy up to class 3? NIPUN
Bharat
Q3. Which option correctly represents the
countries in decreasing order of HDI, as Q7. Which of the following statements is/are
released in September 2022? Switzerland – correct regarding the changes made to small
Denmark – Japan - Niger savings schemes by the Government of India in
December 2022?
Q4. Match List-I and List-II regarding the
A. The interest rate of five year National
National Sports awards 2022.
Saving Certificate has been increased to 7 per
List-I List-II
cent from 6.8 per cent.
(a) Arjun Award (i) Jiwanjot Singh Teja
B. The interest rate on senior citizen saving
(b) Dronacharya Award Regular (ii) Seema
schemes increased to 8 per cent from 7.6 per
Punia
cent.
(c) Dronacharya Award Life time (iii) Ashwini
C. The interest rate on Public Provident Fund,
Akkunji
Sukanya Samriddhi Account and Saving
(d) Dhyanchand Award (iv) Dinesh Jawahar
Deposit have been changed 9% from 7.5%. A
Lad
and B only
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
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Q8. Which of the following statements is/are ‘Cooperative Election Authorityʼ to bring
correct about the neighbouring countries of electoral reforms.
India? C. The Bill also has a Section — 63A that
(A) India supported Maldives in 2022 with a relates to ‘establishment of the Cooperative
grant of nearly $4 billion to support the Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and
dwindling economy. Development Fundʼ for revival of ‘sick multi-
(B) India has the highest GDP in dollar terms as state cooperative societiesʼ. A, B and C
compared to Sri Lanka, Bhutan and
Q14. The Supreme Court of India rejected the
Bangladesh. Only B
plea of ___________ to quash the summons
Q9. Which of the following launched NEAT 3.0 issued by the Delhi Legislative Assemblyʼs
to provide best developed ed-tech solutions, Committee on Peace and Harmony for inquiry
in January 2022? Ministry of Education related to the Delhi riots in February 2020.
Facebook
Q10. In August 2021, the Ministry of Labour
and Employment launched the ________ portal Q15. Which of the following statements is/are
for creating a National Database of CORRECT with respect to Draft Information
Unorganized Workers (UWs). eShram Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and
Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021,
Q11. Which artificial element has been
proposed in 2022?
provisionally named seaborgium by American
A. Online games will have to register with a
researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate Glenn
self-regulatory body, and only games cleared
T Seaborg? Element 106
by the body will be allowed to legally operate
Q12. Match List-I and List-II regarding the in India.
medal tally in National Games 2022. B. Online gaming companies will not be
allowed to engage in betting on the outcome
List-I (Team) List-II (Medals)
of games, the proposed rules say.
(a) Services team (i) Highest Number of
C. According to the rules, there could be more
Medals (Including Gold, Silver, Bronze)
than one self-regulatory body. A, B and C
(b) Maharashtra (ii) Highest Number of
Gold Medals in the entire games Q16. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Haryana (iii) 3rd position in medal correct regarding Government of Indiaʼs New
tally (according to the number gold medals) Integrated Food Security Scheme?
(d) Karnataka (iv) 4th position in medal A. This New Integrated Food Security Scheme
tally (according to the number gold medals) has been started from 1 January 2023.
a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv B. The Government of India targeted to supply
Q13. Which of the following statements is/are food grains to more than 80 crores
correct regarding the Multi-State Co-operative beneficiaries under the National Food Security
Societies (Amendment) Bill, 2022? Act.
A. The Lok Sabha referred this Bill to the joint C. First time this food grains supply
committee of parliament comprising 21 programme was brought under the Ministry of
members from the Lower House and 10 from Social Justice for effective implementation. A
the Upper House. and B only
B. This Bill also proposed to establish a

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