Time: 60 minutes Max.

Marks:40
Max.Marks:4

Class: 9

INSTRUCTIONS
 Read the instructionss on the ANSWER SHEET and fill in your NAME,CLASS
and OTHER INFORMATION
 Use a black ball pen for darkening the circles in ANSWER SHEET
 Do NOT use a pencil
 You MUST record your answers on the ANSWER SHEET
 Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers
 There are 40 MULTIPLE
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
 You are NOT allowed to use a calculator and other electronic devices.

Name: ___________________ Class & Section: _______________

Father’s Name: ______________ Adm.NO:_____________________

:_____________________
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Questions from 1 to 40 are single answer questions; darken the correct option
as your answer in the OMR sheet provided. Each question carries 1 mark.
1. Study the following statements and choose the correct option:
1. Parenchyma tissue consists of living cells only.
2. The palisade layer of the leaf is composed of photosyntheticparenchyma cells.
3. The cells that make up themeristematic region of a plant are specialised and differentiated.
4. Meristematic tissues are without anucleus.
a. Only 1 is correct b. Only 2 is correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

2. Match the following:

Column I Column II
(Nutrients) (Deficiency diseases)
I. Niacin 1. Scurvy
II. Vitamin C 2. Kwashiorkor
III. Vitamin K 3. Xerophthalmia
IV. Protein 4. Pellagra
V. Vitamin A 5. Bleeding disease
a. I – 4, II – 1, III – 5, IV – 2, V – 3 b. I – 1, II – 4, III – 5, IV – 2, V – 3
c. I – 5, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 3, V – 2 d. I – 5, II – 4, III – 1, IV – 3, V – 2

3. A car going at 22 m/s passes a motorcycle at rest. As it passes, the motorcycle starts up,
accelerating at3.2 m/s2. If the motorcycle can keep up that acceleration, how long will it take for
it to catch the car:
a. 11s b. 6.875s c. 68.7s d. 0.687s

4. Read the given statements and select the correct option:

Statement 1: The forces of action and reaction always appear due to actual physical contact of
two bodies.
Statement 2: A particle can move only under the action of a force.
a. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
b. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
c. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d. Both statement 1 and 2 are false.

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5. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice
melts?
a. Rises b. Falls c. Remains same d. First rises and then falls

6. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules?
a. 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2 b. 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
c. 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2 d. 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2

7. A deficiency of which one of the following minerals is most likely to lead to an

immunodeficiency?
a. Calcium b. Zinc c. Lead d. Copper

8. Consider the following sentence and choose the correct option:

The heat of damp grain in storage occurs due to _______.
a. infestation by insects b. decrease in atmospheric pressure
c. decreases in humidity d. high moisture content and growth of moulds

9. The diagram below shows a tree whose bark at the base of the stem has been scraped away by
wild forest dogs. Why did the tree die after several weeks?

a. The xylem had been destroyed. b. Microorganisms attacked the tree.

c. The root lacked the supply of food. d. Water had been lost at the wound.

10. The diagram shows an experimental set-up to measure the rate of water absorption and
transpiration of a leafy shoot. Which of the following conditions would result in the greatest
distance moved by the bubble in 30 minutes?
a. No wind, cold and bright condition b. No wind, hot and dark condition
c. Windy, cold and bright condition d. Windy, warm and dark condition

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11. A motor rated at 200 W is used to lift up a mass of 50 kg at a constant speed. What is the
time taken to reach a height of 6 m?(Take g = 10 m s-2)
a. 3s b. 15s c. 30s d. 60s

12. In which of the following situation is the greatest quantity of energy converted from one
form to another?
a. A load of mass 40 kg lifted 4m from the ground.
b. A car of mass 500 kg coming to rest from a speed of 2 m/s.
c. A 1000 W electric motor running for 1.5 s.
d. A 60 W bulb switched on for 20 s.

13. James dropped an object of mass 4.0 kg from the height of 20 m above the ground. It is
travelling at a speed of 20m/s when it hits the ground. The object does not rebound and the
gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg. How much energy is converted into heat and sound on
impact?

a. 40 J b. 80 J c. 800 J d. 1600 J

14. The graph given below represents the uniform heating of a substance, starting from below its
melting point, when the substance is in its solid state. Which of the following line segments
represents an increase in average kinetic energy?

a. AB and BC b. AB and CD c. BC and DE d. DE and EF

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15. A coin and a feather are released from rest in vacuum as shown in the diagram. Which of the
following is/are correct deduction(s) from this experiment?

I. The masses of the coin and the feather are identical in a vacuum.
II. The coin and the feather fall with the same acceleration in a vacuum.
III. The forces acting on the coin and the feather in vacuum are identical.
a. I only b. II only c. I and III d. II and III

16. Refer to the given Venn diagram. Select the correct option for P, Q, R, S and T:

a. P-Rhinitis, R-Mumps, T-Malaria b. Q-AIDS, S-Tuberculosis, RDiabetes

c. P-Dengue, Q-Chikungunya, S-Polio d. Q-Cancer, R-Diphtheria, SRingworm

17. A javelin thrower expended 250 J of energy when he threw his 0.8 kg javelin. The path taken
by the javelin is shown below: At which point in the figure shown below, does the javelin have:
i. the highest potential energy
ii. the highest kinetic energy?

a. i – R, ii – S b. i – P, ii – S c. i – S, ii - P d. i – S, ii – R

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18. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that ___________.
a. necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of
the train
b. no frictional force may be produced between the tracks and the wheels of the train
c. necessary centripetal force may be obtained from horizontal component of the weight of the
train
d. the train may not fall down inwards.

19. The weight of a body is the force with which a body is attracted by the earth towards its
centre. What is the weight of an object at point A shown in the figure? Where R is the radius of
the earth

a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. R times the weight at the surface of the earth
d. 1/ 2 times the weight at the surface of the earth

20. An organism is given below. Observe it carefully and identify its main characteristics which
represent its kingdom

a. It is an unicellular eukaryote, with a cell wall, cilia and flagella representing kingdom-Protista.
b. It is an unicellular prokaryote, with a cell wall, cilia and flagella, representing kingdom-
Monera.
c. It is an unicellular eukaryote, without a cell wall but with cilia representing kingdom-Algae.
d. It is a multicellular prokaryote with a cell wall, cilia and flagella representing kingdom-
Protista.

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21. Which one of the following represents a group of human disease caused by virus?
a. Measles, Chickenpox and Hepatitis-A b. Chickenpox, Malaria and Hepatitis-A
c. Measles, Polio and Typhoid d. Measles, Typhoid and Tuberculosis

22. State 'T' for true or 'F' for false:

I. The highest limit of audible frequency is 20000 Hz.
II. The roof of the auditorium is covered with sound absorbent material to decrease pitch of the
sound.
III. The distance between the source of sound and the obstacle must be more than 10.5 m to
produce an echo.
IV. Reflection of sound follows the laws of reflection of light.
V. The hard surfaces reflect sound better than soft surfaces.
a. I-T, II-F, III-F, IV-T, V-T b. I-F, II-T, III-F, IV-F, V-T
c. I-F, II-F, III-T, IV-T, V-F d. I-F, II-T, III-T, IV-T, V-T

23. Which statement about an atom is correct?

a. Each element has only one nucleon (mass) number.
b. The nucleon (mass) number can be less than the proton (atomic) number
c. The nucleon (mass) number can be equal to the proton (atomic) number.
d. The number of neutrons never equal to the number of electrons

24. Robert's teacher wrote the following statements about an organism A.

A. Organism A is a plant.
B. Organism A feeds on other organisms.
C. Organisms A needs energy to stay alive.
D. Organisms A can be seen with the naked eye.
Which of the statements can Robert use to conclude that organism A is an organism made up of
many cells?
a. Only C b. B and C c. A and D d. A, B, C and D

25. A compound is formed by the combination of two or more atoms of different elements.
Phosphine is also a compound of phosphorus, obtained when it combines with hydrogen.
Phosphorus + Hydrogen → Phosphine
How many atoms of phosphorus are present in phosphine?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3

26. An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational force of attraction F1 between the earth
and apple. If F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by apple on the earth, then _________
a. F1 > > F2 b. F2 > > F1 c. F1 > F2 d. F1 = F2

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27. A submarine is a water craft capable of independent operation underwater. A small
submarine of mass 1000 kg sinks in water with a uniform speed of 2 m/s.
What is the resultant force exerted on the submarine as it sinks?
a. 0 N b. 500 N c. 2000 N d. 10,000 N

28. Which of the following involves both neutralization as well as precipitation?

a. Reaction between baking powder and H2SO4 b. Reaction between BaCl2 and Na2SO4
c. Reaction between AgNO3 and HCl d. Reaction between slaked lime and H2SO4

29. In a beaker of two liquids, solid X floats on liquid Y, but sinks in liquid Z.
Which of the following is true?
a. Liquid Z is water and liquid Y is oil. b. Solid X is less dense than liquid Z.
c. Liquid Y is denser than liquid Z. d. Liquid Z is denser than liquid Y.

30. Emily made the following setup to identify the product of the combustion of substance X,
which is made up of only carbon and hydrogen. She observed that on heating X, the substance of
A turns blue and of B turns milky. The products as identified by Emily on the basis of her
observations are:

a. CO and CO2 b. CO2 and H2O vapours

c. CO and H2O vapours d. H2O vapours and CO2.

31. The figure shows the displacement of a particle going along the X-axis as a function of time.
The force acting on the particle is zero in which region?

a. AB b. BC c. CE d. DE

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32. The neutral atom 'Y' has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 5. What is the electronic
configuration of the ion Y+?
a) 2, 8, 5 b) 2, 8, 6 c) 2, 8, 4 d) 2, 8, 7

33. Consider the number of protons and neutrons in the following elements.
Element 1: 7 protons, 8 neutrons
Element 2: 8 protons, 7 neutrons
Element 3: 7 protons, 9 neutrons
What can you conclude about this information?
a) Elements 1 and 2 are isotones. b) Elements 1 and 2 are isotones.
c) Elements 1 and 3 are isotopes. d) Elements 1, 2, and 3 are isobars.

34. Imagine a scuba diver diving into deep water. As the diver goes deeper, the surrounding
pressure increases. How does the increased pressure affect the state of nitrogen gas in the diver's
scuba tank?
a) Nitrogen gas will turn into liquid nitrogen.
b) Nitrogen gas will freeze into a solid.
c) Nitrogen gas will evaporate into the surrounding water.
d) Nitrogen gas will remain in its gaseous state but with a higher density.

35. The molar mass of element X is 64 g/mol and the molar mass of element Y is 32 g/mol. If the
molar mass of the compound they form is 128 g/mol, what is the molecular formula of the
compound?
a) XY b) X2Y c) XY2 d) X3Y2

36. An experiment was conducted by passing a beam of light through different fluids. The
observations were noted as follows:
 In fluid A, the path of light was clearly visible and appeared scattered.
 In fluid B, the path of light was not visible at all.
 In fluid C, the path of light was faintly visible but not scattered.
Based on the observations, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
a) Fluid A is a true solution, fluid B is a colloid, and fluid C is a suspension.
b) Fluid A is a suspension, fluid B is a true solution, and fluid C is a colloid.
c) Fluid A is a colloid, fluid B is a true solution, and fluid C is a suspension.
d) Fluid A is a colloid, fluid B is a suspension, and fluid C is also a suspension

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37. A car's tires experience more wear and tear during summer compared to winter. How can the
behaviour of particles in the tire material explain this phenomenon?
a) The particles in the tire material freeze during winter.
b) The particles in the tire material vibrate less during summer.
c) The particles in the tire material move more rapidly in warm temperatures.
d) The particles in the tire material become more rigid in cold temperatures.

38. A farmer notices that a portion of the potato crop is affected by a fungal disease. To manage
the disease, which practice should the farmer adopt to reduce the disease's spread to other crops?
a) Intercropping b) Crop rotation c) Monoculture d) Mixed cropping

39. A solar panel with a power rating of 300 W generates electricity for 6 hours per day. How
much energy does it produce in a week?
a) 1800 Wh b) 1800 kWh c) 12.6 kWh d) 12600 kWh

40. On a field trip, students collected samples of various organisms from a pond ecosystem.
They found algae, mosses, and ferns among the collected samples. What is the classification of
these organisms based on your knowledge of plant diversity?
a) All are angiosperms.
b) All are gymnosperms.
c) Algae are pteridophytes, mosses are angiosperms, and ferns are bryophytes.
d) Algae are thallophytes, mosses are pteridophytes, and ferns are pteridophytes.

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