@ CODE-A thaws Corporate Office: Akash Tower, 8, Pusa Read, Now Delt 10005, Ph 011-47623455, INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023 MMM: 720 PST-2 Time :3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Physics: Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatics Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves Chemistry: The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, Tha p-Block Elements (Group-15 to 18), The d ‘and FBlock Elements ‘Reproduction in organism, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of inheritance and variations, Molecular Basis of inheritance, Reproduction in Organisms, Reproductive Health, Human Health and Disease, Strategies for Enhancement In Food Production - Animal Husbandry, 0 @ Each queston caries 4 mars, Fop every | Wrong fespotice 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered /unattemted questions wile given no marks. Use buerbiack batlpint pen only to darken the appropiate crt, (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle. (¥)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough werk must not be dona on the Answer sheet and do not use white-luid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. aPST.2 (Cod Program for NEUT.2023 ‘Choose the correct answer: SECTION‘A™ a] 4, 1. Which pat of electromagnatic spectrum ts used in disinfecting water? (1) Infrared (2) Ultraviolet (3) X-Rays (4) Microwaves, 2. The ratio of displacement current and conduction current in a circuit is equal to GUE 1 ND « 2) M6 @) 1 et «ay % 3. In the adjoining circuit operated under a source of alternating emf of frequency 50 Hz, The ms. valve of current flowing will be 200, 50 Hz * 4 a) 4 2) ZA «yaa @ (3) 42a ‘across an LC circuit. If the generat E= 10sin{ot + ¢), then average po across this circuit will be () sow (2) 30W (3) 4ow (4) Zero S.__ In the figure, the wire AB of length 20 cm is bent in the form of a semi-circle and dragged at a speed of x mvs in a transverse uniform magnetic field of 40 T. The potential difference developed ‘across ends A and B af wire is @iv (4) 16 (2) 10, 1 Tho given rod AB Ie rotated with an angular speed of 20 rpm in Aa uniform transvera magnolle fleld of magnitude 10 7, about its contro ©, Tho om Induced betwoen points A and B is a @ (4) Zoro In the givan section of circult If current decays at 0.5 A" then Va~ Vis equal to 19 Veov a o 3 20 @+7v @)s3V North pote to equator the angle continuously 3) fagps continuously renses thon decroases eit decreases then incroases lich of the following materials have a Negative One of relative magnetic permeabiity? (1) Diamagnetic (2) Paramagnotic (3) Ferromagnetic (4) None of these A circular loop of area 2.4 cm?, carrying current 4 A Is placed in a magnatic field of 0.1 T Perpendicular to the plane of loop. The torque ‘acting on the loop will be (1) Zero (2) 9.6 «104m @)48«102Nm (4) 9.6% 10°Nm A galvanometer Is to be converted into an ammeter. This can be done by (1) Adding a suitable small resistance in series vith it (2) Adding a suitable targe resistance in series wath it (3) Adding a suitable small resistance in parallel vith It (4) Adding a suitable large resistance in parallel wath itJntonsive Program for NEET.2029, PST-2_(Code-A) 42, ‘The equivalent capacitance of the combination | 16. Consider a situation shown in figure where ‘q's ‘between point A and B in the circuit shown below kept at centre of semi-circle ABC and the work ic dane in taking another point charge from P10 A, Po B and Pto Cis Wa, Ws and We respectively. 20 aia “B A c 8 2c «2c aac @ m2 (1) Was We < We (2) Wa > Wa> We (3) Wa>We= Wa (4) Wa Wa = We 47. In the circuit given below the potential drop across 300 0 resistor as measured by an idea! voltmeter Is 60 V. What error wil be observed if 19. A capacitor of capacitance 1 HF, intially has charge 2 nC. It Is connected to a battery of emt 10V as shown, The work done by battery is 2c ‘one measures this using a voltmeter of 600 27 a ‘Weal voltmeter Practical vokmeter tH -~ Orson] yey aoa 200 aon 2000 t00v tov al ie &—'— 41 ee @) 300) Jp O50 @) 40v @) 80nd @) 40s Sy) 20V_ (4) 10V 14 A hemisphere for radius Ris Kept in uniform 18." Which’of the following materials have negative electric field of intensity Ex. The el valde ¢f thermal coetficient of resistivity? ‘associated with tho hemisphere Ath) Copper (2) Netrome = (Oe siver (4) Germanium 19) An Infinite ine charge produces a field of 236 x 10° NIC ata distance of 4 metre trom it The ‘charge density is (1) 105 cim @) 4* 108 cim () Bx108CIm (4) $¥ 104 Cm 20. The net torque acting on dipole in uniform electric (1) FFE (2) 2aFeE field may be (where symbol have thei usual w meaning) o) 2B (4) Zer0 sil OF (2) Zero 15, A point charge Is brought In an external electric, ) Seid. @) V2PE (4) Bot (1) and (2) The electric feld at a nearby point 21. A capacitor of 20 uF is charged to 400 V is (1) Wi certainly Increase Sonnecad Ie patel wih roe caps of i Valcedices iim {OF charged to 100 V. Te common poten (8) May increase oF decrease (1) 300 (@) 400 (6) Wal become zer0 (@) 600 (a) 100 aPST-2_(Codo-A) 22. Determine the elect field strength vector at point (1, 1, 1) ifthe potential ofthis field depends on x, y coordinates as V= 10ay (1) t0a( (2) -10a(7+j) (3) -ali+j) (4) afi +]) ‘The emf of a battery A is balanced by a length 60 cm on a potentiometer wire. The emt of a standard cell 2 V is balanced by 50 cm on the ‘same potentiometer wire. The emf of Ais, a tay (2) 24V @) 32V aay A current of 3 A flows in a cireuit shown in the figure. The potential diference between A and B is 23, 24. a 8 @av i (4) 5V Abbar magnet of magnetic moment 1 = (i +J)its placed in a magnetic field induction B= (3i~4]+48), the torque acting on the magnetis may @2v 25 (2) 14k: waar (6) isd rk ‘A magnetic field exerts no force on (1) Astream of electron (2) Astream of proton (9) Unmagnetized piece of ron (4) Stationary charge Jn the given figure the magnetic induction at the point Ois 26 27. Lotonsive testa for NEET-2023. (1) fet @ tah fel f sil _ ial ®) fol et “ 4 4nr 28. Displacement current between the two plates of capacitor during charging or discharging arises duo to (1) Time rate of change of electric ux (2) Time rate of change of electric field (3) Space rate of change of magnetic field (4) Both (1) and (2) A square coil of side 0.5 m has movable sides. It is placed such that its plane is perpendicular to uniform magnetic field 0.2 T. If all the sides are allowed to move with a speed of 0.1 mis for 4s ‘outwards, average induced emf is (1) Zefa oom 2) 001 (3) 0028V." (4) Oo72V In asthagneti¢yfield of 0.05 T, area of a coll 29, 30. } changes ‘from 101 cm? to 100 em? without efehanging the resistance which Is 2 9, The amount of charge that flow during this period is 1 y/2satore (2) 2x10%¢ *(3) 10% (4) 8x 104C 31, Beedrrent of zhis flowing in a long straight -»/ Conductor. The line integral of magnetic induction “" around a closed path enclosing the current carrying conductor is (1) 4107 Woim 2) 2 107 Weim (3) 16x? 107 Whim (4) Zero 32. Impedance of the circuit as shown in the figure is rt 2ah 40V 30 () 200 @ 250 @) 300 @) 409 93. A transformer has 400 primary tums and 40 Secondary turns. If Vp is 200 V, the secondary voltage (Vs) in an open circuit will be () 4ov (2) 80v @).20V (@) 10V @)Sotensive Program for NEET-2023 34. 35. 38. mw 38. 38, 40. ‘The power factor of good choke col is (1) Nearly zero (2) Infinite (3) Neary one (4) Exacty one The resistance of an ideal voltmeter Is (1) Zoro (2) Infity (9) Finite and very smait (4) Finite and largo SC SECTION xe Kirchofts voltage rule is an outcome of the fact that (1) Charges are conserved in nature (@) Charges are quantised in nature @) Electrostatic force is repulsive as well as tractive (4) Electrostatic force is conservative in nature ‘An electromagnetic wave propagates in a ‘medium such that its magnetic feld vector varies a8 By = 4 © 104 sin(02 * 10% + 04-10%) tesla. The amplitude of electric field vector for this electromagnetic wave in this modium (1) 800 vim (2) 1200%m |) (3) 400 Vim ® Sum Consider the given LCR circuits in resonance Circuit 1: X. = 40.9, Xc= 400, R= 100.0" Gircuit 2X, = 809, Xe= 80.0, RS, ‘The rato of factor of cei 1 eeu aad 21:4 ¢ @ 2:4 @in ‘An LC oscillator has an inductor of 100 H and a ‘capacitor 400 jF is turned into a clock. The time period for this clock will be approximately ® 2e (1) J seconds (2) Z seconds (8) Zseconds (4) Eseconds ‘A charged particle moves along a circular path under the action of constant electric and ‘magnetic field, Based on above information choose the correct option (1) €=0and (2) £=0and B20 (@) Ex0andB=0 (4) ExOand Be 0 PST-2 {Codo-A} ‘A block of mass 'm’ carrying charge ‘g’ is attached {0 a spring of spring constant It is kept on a smooth horizontal table as shawn. Tho amplitude of resulting SHM when a uniform electric field (€,) is switched on is 4h. es ‘Smooth ima] 206, i 246, = a 2B @ 26 “ m 42. In the adjoining cicult the current through 6 V battery is 10Y an 10 30 (3A TA Wa long hollow copper wire caries a current, tien the magnetic field produced willbe Oia) ta ~.0) 5A 43 CAG Inside the pipe only * (2) Outside the pipe only (3) Neither inside nor outside the pipo (6) Both inside and outside the pipe 44, A bulb rated (60 W, 120 V) Is connected fo 80 V ‘mains, The current through the buib will be 1 2 MM ZA @ 5A 5 3 @) 5A «4 3A 45. The resistance of galvanometer is 100.9. A ‘shunt of 5 22 is connected to it to convert it into ‘an ammeter. The resistance of the ammeter is ‘approximately (520 @ 440 2480 (4) 420 (8)PST-2_(Cotlo-A) 48. st $2 $3 A charge Q is placed at the comer of a cube of edge length L. The electric fx linked to one of the faces not touching the charge Qis ° ° se ae 8) & (4) Zero Which graph best represents the variation of electric potential as a function of distance from the centre a uniformly charged shell of radius R? SECTIONALS | A compound is formed by two elements X and Atoms of the element Y make cop lattice:ar those of element X occupy half of the octahedral voids. The formuta of the compound will be ( |) avo Intonsive rogram for NEET.2023, 48. Light with energy flux 36 Wier? Is incident on a well polished metal square plate of side 2 em. The force experienced by itis (1) 0.96 wv (2) 0.24 uN (8) 042 j1N (4) 0.36 uN ‘When 9 current changes from +2 A to -2 A In 0.05 9, an emf of 8 V induced in a coll, Tho coofficient of self induction of coll is (1) 04H (2) 08H @) 04H (4) 02H ‘The ratio of the mean value aver half cycle to the rms. value of an AC is: 49. Which ofthe following is incorrect for ideal ne8. / | pao SOlution? “> (2) AnwS > 0 GG Smt <0 (4) Bea <0 [Ss molatty of ethanol in water Is 5 m then (whw)% of ethanol in the solution will be (1) 26.2% 2) 9.1% 8) 92.5% (4) 187% A solution of siver nitrate is electrolysed between, Platinum electrodes using a current of 5.79 amperes for 100 minutes. The mass of siver deposited at cathode is (Atomic mass of sliver 108 u) (1) 38.99 (2) 1959 (3) 22.19 (4) 58.59 Correct order of limiting motar conductivity of the ‘given lons in water at 25°C is (1) OH » SOP > cr >Br (2) SOP > OH > Br scr (3) OH" > SOP » Br > cr 87. (0) xY xv 4 @) XY: (4) Ys, oy Packing fraction for cep crystal lattice Is z K m § @ 58 2 x oss Od Which among the following is a covalent solid? (1) toe Qk (3) 205 (4) 5102 112.9 of ures is dissolved in 200 g of water thon ‘freezing point of solution wil be (Ke of water ® 1.66 K kg mot) ay are 2) -1.65°C (2) 242°C @) -321°C (4) SO} » OH > Cr > BreIntonsive Program for NEET.2023 ‘59, Statoment4: A catalyst is a substance which Increases the rate of a reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change. catalyst catalyses the forward as well as the backward reactions to the same 'm light of the above statements, choose the correct option, (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement il is Incorrect (2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 1 is correct (8) Both statements | and 1! are correct (4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect 60. The enzyme which converts sucrose into glucose and fructose is (1) Matase (2) Diastase @) Zymase (4) lnvertase nm 81. Consider the following stator, physisorption, ‘ 1. Itdepends on the nature of the gas. } a ,_ No appreciable activation energy i needed. ©. It results into multimolecular tayers.-f on | adsorbent surface at high pressure “Tho corec statements are (1) aandeony —@) vangeon (3) aand b only 4) ab ic ‘Which among the following isnot g 2 Bmulsion? © (1) Cell fuids Mik © (3) Butter (4) Hair cream 63. If time required for the completion of half of a first order reaction is 50 minutes then the rate ‘constant of the reaction will be (1) 693% 10954 (2) 2.31 x 104s (8) 462% 10251 (4) 462% 105 5 64. Copper matte contains (1) CusSandFeO (2) CuO and FeS (8) CusS and Fe:0s (4) CurS and FeS 65, Which among the following metals cannot be 62. ‘extracted by carbon reduction? (1) Zn 2) Fe @) cu (4) Na PST-2 (Code-A} 66. If resistance of a conductivity cell filed with 0.2 mol L-+ NaC! solution is 125 9 and conductivity is 1.60 Sim then the cell constant value willbe (1) 0.012 cm" (2) 0.83 cart (3) 1.875 cmt (4) 187.5 cor" 67. Copper sol is most easily coagulated by (1) ape (2) sor (3) Ba® (4) POF 68. Match the metals given in list with refining processes given in list-!1 and choose the correct option. usta Lista a. [Tin 1) [Zone refining b. [indium (@ |Liquation fe. |Titanium, i) |Etectrotytic Ea refining 2 |eepper (| Vapour phase refining $C), ai); B60, 6), div) (2) a), BAD, efi), ein) AB). al). bE, chil), Afi) (4) ati), BA), etiv), d{it) a, “AiH" iss“negative for which of the given ‘compounds? ()'SbH (2) Ast », GY PHs (4) NHa 78a ic of te follwing reacts ivogen gat is obtained as one of the products? (1) (NH4)250« + NaOH > (2) NHWCI+ NaNO? > (3) NH:CONH2 + H0 > (4) NHCI+ Ca(OH)2 -» 71. The catalyst used in the pie reaction is ANH3(9) +502(9) Seg 4NO(g) + 6H,0(9) (1) V20s (2) Mo (8) PURH gauge (4) Cuch 72. In whieh of the given compounds, phosphorous: hhas +1 oxidation state? (1) Phosphinic acid (2) Phosphonic acid (8) Pyrophosphoric acid (4) Pyrophosphorous acid amPST-2_(Codo-A) Intonsive Program for NEET-2023 73. Orthophosphorous acid on heating gives 80. Match the crystal system given in list with the (1) Hypophosphorus acid and hypophosphoric ‘axial angles given in ist-Il and choose the correct acid ‘option. (2) (2) Phosphine and hypophosphoric acd ia ist (3) Phosphine and orthophosphotic acid | Lat ae (4) Hypophosphorous acid and metaphosphorlc Totragonal () Jax y= 90% By acid 90° 74, Statement-t: Manganate ion is purple in colour, Ib. [Trigonal ti) [a= p=y= 90° ‘Statomentsll; Manganate lon is paramagnetic in nature. je. | Tricine (i) Ju= pe ye 90° Wy wo ot the above statements, choose the ‘3. [Monoclinic tn |arpeye oo (1) Both statements | and statement Il are (1) ati, BA), eft), dA) (2) afi, BG, et), A) correct (3) af), bilv), efi), Atti) (4) aviv), b(t), eG), dCi) (2) Both statements 1 and statemont MI are | 94. Assertion (A): A mixture of chloroform and ancora ‘acetone forms a solution which shows negative (3) Statement | is correct but statement Il Is deviation from Raoult's law. incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II's, correct 75 Mole of dichromate ions required to completely f oxidise 3 moles of Fe ions in acidic medium is _olt Wig ef) the above statements, choose the 1 1 eal answer from the options given below Os as , a is correct but (R) is not correct 1 1 yp) ein nol correct but (R) is correct Os Ms (@)\Bbth (A) and (R) are comect and (R) is the 76. Comect onier of boule stenginea| 1 die i 5 Gort explanation of (A) compounds is <€-Y(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not (3) Ce(OH)s > Pm(OH)s > Er(OH)s 2 the comrect expieniaton of (4) (2) Pm(OH)s > Er(OH)s > Ce(OH)s 82. Products of electrolysis of aqueous sodium (3) Ce(OH)s > Er(OH)s > Pm(OH)s chloride solution are 5G (4) E(OH)s > Pm(OH)s > Ce(OH)s (1) Na,OzandHe (2) NaOH and Cie only 77. The pair of ions which show colour in aqueous (3) NaOH, Cl and Hz (4) NaOH and He only medium is 83, Which among the following is the correct graph (1) Zn?* and Mn? (2) Sc and NP* for first order reaction? (3) V™ and NF (4) Zn? and Tit* + Mi 78 Most common oxidation states of Ti and Cu = = respectively are a4 @ (1) #2and+4 (2) +4 and +2 es te (3) #3and 42 (4) +4 and +4 t t 79. Which among the following has highest value of v = enthalpy of atomisation? a & ws (1) Fe (2) Co @) Mo av — Um @Intensive Program for NEET.2023 PST-2_(Code-A) ‘84, Critical micelle concentration for soaps is 82, Which among the following is not formed on the (1) 107t0107M——@) 10" to102M _ feaction of XeFs with H:07 Q) 104 t0 105M (4) 104 to 102M (1) Xe (2) XeOs 88. The metal which wil not reduce H? ions in BY: 79D F ec aqueous solution is 83. EXs.qe. in volt is negative for which of the (1) 2n ca following metals? () Fe (4) Cu (1) Co (2) Fe TSECTIONB oy @) Mn (4) cr ‘86. In Lecianche cell, the anode used is ‘94, Negative hydration enthalpy of which of the given (1) Graphite rod ions is highest? * o (2) Zinc (1) Zn (2) Cu (@) Paste of KOH and 2n0 @ Fer ve 4) Vand 95, 100 mL of 5 M NaOH solution is mixed with 400 ey mL of 1 M NaOH solution. The molarity of the 87. Unit of rate constant of second order reaction is resultant solution becomes: (1) molt st (2) mo Ls (1) 26m (32M (3) moF L= s-* (4) Mob" L=* sch, @) 18M 4 (4) 14M 88. Brown coloured complex formed jd’ Brawn ring\} 96. For the given cell/teaction, AG" for the reaction testis y will Be (1 FFetzONoaF 2) (FettkONO | o(Ghen Es y =-1.66 V, EE aig, =0.94V @) FFecteOn(nosryr (4) [Fe(tsoP 7 DD sis tecp 2h *och $a) Correct erder lof (mating| point! ot! te, » © ¢ 2AX8) +30u?* (2a) —> 2AP*(aq) +3Cu's) compounds is (1) -388 kJ'mot-* (2) -1158 kJ mot" (1) HiTe > H:0 > H:Se > HS e (3)-878 kJ mob" (4) =193 kJ mol-* (2) H:0 > HiTe > H:Se > H:S 97, “finial concentration of the reactant is 2.4 M and @) Hongo Here eee ear Ce veie ereiioee (1) 1505 (2) 2508 90. Consider the following statements. (3) 500s (4) 750s ‘a Sulphur dioxide reacts with chlorine in the | 9g. 13.68 g of sucrose is present in 500 mL. of Presence of charcoal to give sulphury aqueous solution at 27°C. The osmotic pressure ey of the solution will be (Molecular mass of sucrose bd. SOz is the resonance hybrid of two canonical =342u) forma. (1) 3.42 atm (2) 5.12 atm © Sulphur dioxide is used in refining petroleum (3) 1.97 atm (4) 225 atm ‘and sugar. 99. Which among the following is a sulphide ore? eee (1) Siderte 2) Zincte (1) aandb only @) band conty (8) Malachite (4) Copper glance @) aandconly (@) a bande 100. Which among the following is acidic in nature and ‘$1. Chlorine in presence of water converts iodine to blue in colour? (1) HOI @) Hox (1) NOs (2) NOs @) Hilo Ic (3) N05 @ NO 8)PST.2 (Ce {ee Intensive Program for NEET-2023 ui “EES | 107. Typo.of pottination in water. tly and Zostora 101. Under unfavourable conditions, the Amooba fospectivaly Is wathdrows its pseudopodia and secretes a three. (1) Hydrophity only layered hard covering or cyst around itself. This (2) Anemophity and entomophil phenomenon Is called od a (3) Hydrophily and anemophily (1) Sporutation (2) Eneystation (4) Entomophily and hydrophily (3) Bud formation (4) Binary fission 108. Select the correct statements w.r.t. vegatative 102. Solect the corroct match. Cell of the pollen grain. gs Plant group oF 5 a a. It ls smaller than generative cell r pas ol jamote gamete transfer by b. Ithas abundant food reserve ¢. Ithas a largo Imegularly shaped nucleus Bryophyt (1 [Brvophytes |isogamotes [Water (1) Onyaands —-@) Onlynande (2) algae Heterogametes Potion @) Onlybandc (4) Alla bande. (3) |Ptoridophytos |Hoteropamotos [water 109, Match the column-1 with column-ll and select the (4) |Gymnosperms|isogametos | Pollen. > Column-lt 103. Allof the following plants are. dioecious, ‘oxcopt. ° (i) |Beet (1) Cycas circinalis (2) Cored papaya ; (3) Marchantia (4) Zon mays... j 104, Both autogamy and geltonogamy can be ,| prevented in ,|Peitspermic seed [(iy [Mango {]Exatbuminous |i) [Banana e j=] seed’ d, (1) Moneecious plants (2) Dioecious plants {Partienocarpie frit |(iv) [Groundnut 0) AQ), Ui, e(iv), dtl) (2) (i), e€il), (tv) (3) ali, BOD, efiv), Ai) (4) ai), BGil), (tv), di) 410; Which ofthe fllawing plants came into India as a (3) Plants having bisexual flowers’. (4) Plants having only cleistogamous flowers 108. All of the following statements are_ttus for wind Grete) Gujeeraaal pollinated plants, except alergy? (1) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky (1) Zoa mays @ Parthonium (2) Well exposed stamens and stigma are (3) Mictotia (#) Popavor present 4111. Innermost anther wall ayer Is (@) Many ovules are found in each ovary (1) Protective in function (4) Flowers are small and not brightly coloured (2) Muttple layered 4108. Wich ofthe folowing plants produces both the (@) Nuttive in nature leistegamous and chasmogamous type of (4) Primarily involved in dehiscence flowers? 112, Pollen grains () Commelina (1) Represent the microspore mother ceil (2) Papaya (2) Represent the male gametophyte (3) Date palm (3) Are produced by mitotic division onty (4) Maize - (4) Are always diploid (10)3.How many of the following statements is/are correct? 8. ‘The proximal end of the filament of stamen is ‘attached to thalamus or the petal of the flower, b. The hard outer layer of pollen grains is made up of cellulose and pectin, ©. Butterflies are the dominating pollinating ‘agents among the insects. d. Wind pollination is common in grasses: (1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three 114, How_many true_breeding pea. varieties did Mendel select for studying characters of seed? () 14 27 @4 6 115. Experimental verification of a. of inheritance was done by ( Qe (1) Bateson and Punnet (2) 7.H. Morgan} (3) Watson and Crick (4) Sutton and: Bover'” 116, Skin colour in humans is an example of (1) Incomplete dominance (2) Co-dominance (8) Polygenic inheritance (4) Multiple allelism 117, The disorder that can be inherited es from a carrier female is (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Haemophilia (3) Thalassemia (4) Cystic fibrosis, 118. A person has both IA and I? alleles of gene I. His, blood group willbe “A_ dueto 8. Select the corroct option to fil in the blanks A and B A B (1) AB Incomplete dominance aA Pleiotropy os Dominance (4) AB Co-dominance PST-2_(Code-A) 119. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Plelotropic gene controls multiple traits in an individual (2) Multiple alleism is observed in a population. (3) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of agene (4) Alleles tightly "linked. on the same chromosome clearly show law of independent assortment. 120. Snapdragon plant, producing the pink flowers is self pollinated, What will be the percentage of the red flower bearing progeny? 1) 12.5% (2) 25% 8) 50% (4) 100% 121. In the following human pedigree chart, the shaded symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify, themtype of disorder inherited and ‘genot¥pe‘of (C) IIL from given pedigree chart. O70 > wrx inked dominant, X°Y (3) Autosomal recessive, aa Qo Xelinked recessive X°Xe 122. The purpose of doing monohybrid test cross is to (1) Determine the genotype of an organism with dominant phenotype (2) Predict whether the two genes are linked (G) Assess the number of alleles of a gene (4) Predict phenotypic ratio in F1 generation 123, Choose odd one out w.r.t multiple allelism. (1) Ils occurrence of more than two alleles for one particular gene (2) Multiple alleles are present on the same locus of the homologous chromosomes. (8) ABO blood group in humans is an example of ‘multiple allelism, (4) A single individual can have all the three alleles for 1 gene, controling blood group in humans. ayPST.2_(Codo-A) 124, According to the human genome project, number of genes on chromosome 1 and Y chromosome are respectively (1) 296 and 2250 (2) 2968 and 231 (3) 460 and 261 (4) 231 and 2368 125. RNA polymerase | transcribes all of the following, ‘oxcopt (1) 8.88 RNA (2) 18S FRNA (3) SSiRNA (4) 285 rRNA 126. Which of the following is not found in the dinucleotide? (1) Glycosidic inkage (2) Phosphoester bond (3) Peptide bond (4) Phosphodiester linkage 127. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic ‘material came from the experiments of (1) Watson and Crick (2) Avery, Macleod, McCarty (3) Hershey and Chase (4) Mesolson and Stahl 128. Which of the following steps is post transcriptional ‘modification of 5° end of hnRNA? (1) Tailoring (2) Taiting (3) Splicing (4) Capping 128, The codon having dual function is (1) UAG (2) AUG (3) GAG (4) UAA 130. Sigma (0) factor and Rho (p) factor i prokaryotes are involved in transcription, respectively in (1) Termination and initiation (2) Elongation and termination (3) Initiation and termination (4) Termination and elongation 131, Match the following genes of lac operon in column-I with their respective proteins produced in column-tl Column Column-lt a. jigene () |Permease b. |zgene (i) [Repressor ic. |agene (Gi) | p-gatactosidase 9. |y gene (iv) |Transacetylase Intensive Program for NEET-2023, (1) aid, BOD, efiv). 46) (2) aC, BEA, ef), dG) (3) aii), BG), efiv), dQ) (4) ali, BG), cG, avy 132, Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of a. Genetic mapping of human genome, b. DNA fingerprinting ¢. Expressed sequence tags (1) Onlya (2) Only b (3) Only a and b (4) Only a and & Select the incorrect statement. (1) Split-gene atrangement is a characteristic feature of eukaryotes, (2) During splicing introns are removed and exons are joined (8) In prokaryotes, MRNA does not require any processing to become active. (4) For the transmission of genetic information, DNA Is better material 14, H1 histone helps in (1) Tratscfiptin in eukaryotes (2) Replication of DNA in prokaryotes (3);DNA condensation into chromatin fibre (4) Tyansiaton of mRNA in Ecol 135. IntRNA” (1) Aminoacy! synthetase binding loop is first loop from 3' end. (@) Ribosomal binding loop is also called DHU ) paesoca Sequence is present at 3' end, which is amino acid attachment site 7 “w) TYC loops first loop from 5° end Te SECTIONS ia 136. Choose the odd one out wrt. flowering and fruiting pattern, 133, (1) Carrot (2) Wheat (3) Mango (4) Rice 137. Which of the following statements is not true watt. water hyacinth? (1) Itis also known as scourge of water bodies (2) It is one of the most invasive weeds found growing in running water (3) It drains oxygen from the water (4) Itleads to death of fishes 138, Choose the plant which provides the pollinator, a safe place to lay eggs as floral reward. (1) Amorphophaltus (2) Orchids (3) Hydnita (4) Sunflower (12)Intensive Program for NEET.2023 0 PST-2 (Code-A) 188. Which among the following is an outbreedi 140. 141, 142. 143, 144. 145. device? (1) Bisexuatity (2) Homogamy (3) Seltincompatiilty (4) Cleistogamy Inbreeding depression (1) 18 a resut of continued self pollination (2) Occurs when pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised (@) Is encouraged when the anther and stigma ‘are placed at different positions in a lower (4) Is seen in plants with dioecious condition Read the following statements and select the correct option, Assortion (A): Apomixis is a type of asexual Feproduction which mimics sexual reproduction, Reason (R): In apomixis seeds are formed without syngamy. (1) (A) Is correct but (R) is incorrect (2) (A)is incorrect but (R) is correct (3) Both (A) and (R) are comect and" (R)sis correct explanation of (A) f ‘ (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (Ajis:nat correct explanation of (A) B The primary endosperm cell (PEC), is “formed” from (1) Polar nuciel by triple fusion (2) Central cel by trige fusion ) Polar nuctel by syngamy (4) Central cell by syngamy Select the incorrectly matché determining mechanism. (1) X&XO type = (2) XX-XY type — Found in Drosophita (8) ZW-2Z type = Found in butlerfies (4) 20-22 type - 50% ovum are without sex chromosome Colour blindness is a (1) Sexdinked dominant genetic disorder (2) X-linked recessive genetic disorder (3) Y-linked recessive genetic disorder (4) Autosomal recessive genetic disorder Thalassemia differs from sickle cell anaemia as the former isfoccurs (1) A qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis (2) A quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis (3) Due to chromosomal aberration (4) Due to change in shape of red blood cells, 03) 148. Karyotype of an individual who is inflicted with Klinefelter’s syndrome is (1) 45 4 xxy (2) 45+x0 (8) 444 xxY (4) 45+ xx 147. The correct sequence of nucleotides in coding strand of DNA, the nucleotide sequence in MRNA Is 5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3' will be (1) 5' AACAGCGGTGCTATT 3° (2) 3' AACAGCGGTECTATT 5° (3) 3' TTeTCGcCACGAT 5° (4) 5" TTGTCGCCACGAT 3° 148. Match column-I with column Il and select the correct option, Column-t Cotumnait a. |Tumer’s syndrome |() |Autosomal [dominant trait b. |Phenytketonuria |i) [Trisomy of a fh [chromosome 21 ic. | Myotonic dystrophy | (li) | Monosomy of X- o [chromosome (wv) [Pleiotropy (satis 6A, ctv), dH) (2) af), BA), ef, Mii) @) ally, BG, €(, ACH) (4) ai, BG), cf), div) ‘The discontinuously synthesized fragments on ‘he template DNA in replication process are Joiried by the enzyme (2) Helicase \) ONA ligase (4) Topoisomerase Match the following columns and select the correct option Column Column-tt a. |Non-histone () [Nucleotide [chromosomal polymerisation proteins b. |SeveroOchoa |i) Removes jenzyme supercoils 6. |H2A, H2B protein { (i) involved in Packaging of chromatin 6. [Topoisomerase (iv) [Present in Nucleosome | (1) ati, BID, ef), i) (2) ati), b(). ev), ai) (3) ati, bv), cf), i) (4) a), bai), eC), i)PST2 (Coded) Waal ‘When two parents participate in the process of reeroduction that includes fusion of male and forale gametes, Ris called (2) Parhenogenesss (2) Asenual reproduction @) Conng (4) Sexust reproduction Nana ite span of buttery is (1) 1-2 years 2) 23 years © 12weets (4) 1-2 ments WHch ot the folowing i not a primate? (1) Monkey @) Ave & Cow (4) Human mn arrocertess, some ef the _6f developing) ‘Sets is taken fo snaiyse te fetal cals. Fat ine bank by choosing the correct option. (1) Boe 2) Umbiical tse @) Amnctefd (4) Placental cet Which of the folowing isnot indicative of sroroved reproductive heath of the society? (1) Bete postnatal care ‘ 2) Sener and eaty detection of STIs ©) Cases wn age ane poor fay ) Oeeeased IMR Al cf he folowing are methods of contraception except (1) Copperst (2) Diaphragms @) Get (4) Barter methods Perot abstinence can be dassifed under method of contracepton. Select the correct option for 2. (1) Baer (3) inectatie Seresis2 (1) Daity pat G) Monerty pa 12, 353 18 17 (2) Natural (4) Surgical 158 2) Weekly pit (4) 3 yeanty pat F 160. 164. 165, (14) 1 UD 161. Intensive Program for NEET-2023 of unprotected coitus have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives, Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) Afler72 hours (2) Before 36 hours (3) Before 24 hours (4) Within 72 hours. Estimated number of conceived pregnancies in a year all over the world accounts approximately (1) 22-25 mition (2) 225-250 milion (8) 400 mition (4) 100 mittion How many of the following are major ‘complications of STIs? PID, natural pregnancy, cancer, infertility bortion % @) wi @ al ‘Which of fi following statements is not true for OMTPS}2 0) Goverment of na eas MTP 107 ‘with some strict restrictions. =p 2) They can be 3 harm to mother's ite (8) They are legal in india for sex determination. (4) They are usually considered safer during 1* trimester. ‘An ideal contraceptive should have all of the following properties, except (1) Reversibitty (2) User friendly (3) Hetpfut in conception (4) Having least side effects Sustained high fever, constipation, loss of appetite and intestinal perforation in severe cases are symptoms of which of the following. disease? (1) Typhoid (3) Mataria @) Pneumonia (4) PlagueIntensive Program for NEET-2023 166. In humans, the malarial parasite initially Tultiplies inside ‘A’ and then attacks the BY Fill in the blanks by choosing the corroct option. A B (1) RACs Liver (2) Liver RECs (8) Lymphocytes Stomach (4) RaCs Immune system 167. The most common site of filarial worm inside the lower limb of a human to cause elephantiasis is (1) Muscles (2) Lymph vessels (3) Artery (4) Vein 168. Gambusia is a bony fish that feeds on (1) Adult mosquito (2) Mosquito larva (8) Eggs of mosquito (4) Protozoans 169. Mucus coating of epithelial lining of respiratory tract is an example of fs ‘ (1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical bartlens (3) Cytokine barrier (4) Cellular barrier 170. Assertion (A): Subsequent encounter.with.the same pathogen elicits highly intensified anamnestic response. s Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory’ | of the first encounter. ie, (1) Both (A) and (R) are comect/(R) Is correct explanation of (A) im, GS (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R)) Is net the! correct explanation of (A) > (3) (A)is correct, (R) is incorrect (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 171, Choose the correct match. (1) Placental barrier ~ Can be crossed by IgA (2) Colostrum = IgG is present in maximum amount (3) Allergy = Increased Ig (4) Rheumatoid arthrits - Viral disease 1472. Which of the following is a correct pair of primary tymphoid organs? (1) Tonsils and spleen (2) Spleen and bone marrow (@) Thymus and Peyer's patches (4) Bone marrow and thymus 15) PST-2_(Codo-Ap 173. Read the following statements, Statomant-A: AIDS is not a congenital disease. Statement-B: AIDS causing virus has an envelop that encloses the RNA genome. Choose the corract option. (1) Both statements A and 8 are correct (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect (3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 174, Uncontrolled growth of cancer cells give rise to a mass of cells known as (1) Metastasis (2) Contact inhibition (8) Tumor (4) Biopsy 175. Oploids are drugs. which bind to receptors presentin ours, (1) CNS and GIT (2) PNS and CNS (3),ANS and GIT (4) GIT only 176. Which of the following is a depressant? © (Hjierack (2) Manjuana (8) Charas. (4) Heroin 477>-The main etfect of nicotine on human body is on (iy !Adrenal cortex (2) Thyreld gland 9,°@) Parathyroid gland (4) Adrenal medulla 478) regular dose of a drug is discontinued abruptly, body manifests an unpleasant response known as (1) Cinthosis (2) Withdrawal syndrome (8) Coma (4) Rehabilitation 179, MOET involves which of the following procedures? (1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (2) Embryo transfer (3) Zygote transfer (4) Recombinant gene transfer 180, Rearing of erab, lobster, prawn and fish is known as (1) Fishery (9) Aploutture (2) Piscicuiture (4) Poultry farmingPST-2_(Code-A) 181, Postferizaton event includes which of the following option? (1) Syngamy (2) Gametogenesis (3) Embryogenesis (4) Gamete-transfer ‘Complete the analogy by choosing the correct ‘option. Oviparous : incubation : : Viviparous (1) Pamurition (2) Lactation (3) Gestation (4) Fertzisation ‘Hum Do, Humare Do’ slogan ts forito (1) Population check (2) Check MMR. (3) Amniocentesis (4) Stop spread of STD (1) Increase in MMR, (2) Decrease in death rate (3) Decrease in IMR (4) Increase in young population Match the folowing by choosing the-eorrect option. jo S 188, (¢ | Steriksation | (i) | Intibts ovulation G) a). BH), CH), d— (4) ata, {SECTIONS (3) 14 Gays: frst 5 days (2) 21 days; frst 5 days (3) 10 cays; iast 10 days (4) 5 days; last 5 days Identty A and 8 from the figure given below, Mosquito Host ‘Choose the option which correetly represents A and B respectively. (1) 2G). DE). BE), av) (2) afi). BGA, tty), 60) Oral contraceptive pills have to be taken for a ened of __ starting preferably within the of menstrual yee. Benign tertian malatia is caused by P.vivax. 169, Intensive Program for NEET-2023, (1) Gametocytes, sporozoites (2) Eags, gametocytes (2) Sporozoites, gametocytes (4) Sporozoites, eggs Which of the following cells. generally does not Phagocytise its target? (1) PMNLs (2) Monocytes ) Macrophages (4) Basophits Children in metro cities of India are experiencing more and more incidence of allergies and asthma. What could be the probable reason behind that? (1) Matnusrition (2) Smoking (3) Protected environment in earty age (4) Consumption of junk food 183. Interspecific hybridisation refers to 194. (16) a) Crossing the animals of different species (2) Mating of superior males of one breed, with ‘Superior females of another bread (3) Practice of mating of animals within same breed, but having no common ancestors (4) Selection of animals from breeding Population and mating them with unrelated ‘Superior animals of same breed Choose the correct match wrt chromosome umber in meiocytes. (1) Rat = 2 (2) Buttery ~ 360 (3) Cat =: (4) Dog = 78Intensive Program for NEET-2023 195. Which of the following refers to correct abbreviation for RCH? (1) Reproductive and Complete Health care (2) Regional and Central Health care (3) Reproductive and Child Health care (4) Reproductive and Cumulative Health care 196. Statutory ban on aminocentesis In India was. necessary because (1) Its very expensive, (2) Itcan tell about chromosomal aberration. (@) It is an invasive procedure and carries high ‘isk of abortions. (4) It can lead to pre-natal sex determination of child and consequently female foeticide. '97. Lactational amenorrhea as a natural method of contraception, is effective for maxima oS rot, (1) One week (2) One month (3) Upto 6 months (6) Upto 2 years 200. PST-2 (Code-A) 198. Which of the following periods is considered 3s adolescence period? (1) 8~10 years (2) 12-18 years (9) 18-26years (4) 20-22 years 189. How many of the following statements are correct? @, Plasmodium enters the human body in gametocyte form b. Heat and moisture help the fungi to grow. ©. Interferon forms cytokine barrier of the body. d. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune. disoase. Select the correct option, (1) One @) Two (8) Four (4) Three Select the incorrect statement wrt keeping. (3) tts also termed apieuiture (2) Honey produced by Apis indica is of low ‘nutritive valle <(@) Whas boen an age-old cottage industry it'can be practiced in trut orchards and { Citivated crops bee- “7