PHYSIO RATIONALE

MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

!"#$%$&'($)$ 8. The generation of basic electrical rhythm (BER) depends on

the activity of ________________.
1. To swallow a piece of bread, your tongue moves the bread a. parasympathetic stimulation
to your pharynx. Which of the following is TRUE b. All of the options are correct
regarding the swallowing mechanism? c. sympathetic stimulation
a. The lower esophageal sphincter contracts as food d. interstitial cell of Cajal
reaches the pharynx.
b. The vocal cords open to pull the epiglottis to close the 9. Deglutition is accompanied by all of the following EXCEPT
airway a. Relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter.
c. Palatopharyngeal folds move inward to protect the b. Pulling the soft palate downwards.
nasal passages c. Contraction of the pharyngeal wall muscles.
d. The upper esophageal sphincter contracts to receive d. Closure of the larynx by epiglottis.
the food bolus from the pharynx.
10. Propulsion in the stomach is due to
2. The intrinsic neuron located between muscular layer of a. slow waves
the GIT are b. basic electrical rhythm
a. GI motor neurons c. resting membrane potential
b. Meissner’s plexuses d. spike potential
c. post-ganglionic neurons of sympathetic
d. capable of hyperpolarization when stimulated 11. This relaxes the segment of intestine distal to the chyme
parasympathetic during peristalsis.
a. GABA
3. Which of the following nerve fibers are excitatory to the b. Acetylcholine
gastrointes"nal motor activities? c. Substance P
a. Long preganglionic cholinergic and short d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
postganglionic adrenergic nerve fibers
b. Short preganglionic cholinergic and long 12. Which of the following is CORRECT about the defecation
postganglionic adrenergic nerve fibers reflex?
c. Both short pre- and postganglionic cholinergic nerve a. Integrated in a control center in the lumbar spi cord
fibers b. Involves contraction of the internal anal sphin
d. Long preganglionic and short postganglionic c. Controlled by the vagus nerve
cholinergic nerve fibers d. Initiated by distention of rectal wall

4. Defecation reflex is dependent on the functioning of spinal 13. Which hormone exerts excitatory effects on small intestinal
neurons present in the ________________. motor activities?
a. upper lumbar region a. VIP
b. lower lumbar region b. Somatostatin
c. lower thoracic region c. CCK
d. sacral region d. Secretin

5. Which statement is INCORRECT about the digestive 14. Distention of the stomach sensed by mechanoreceptors
system? activates the nerve fibers that are located in the
a. An essential part of the endocrine system a. serosa
b. Considered as a very important lymphoid area of the b. muscularis externa
body c. muscularis mucosa
c. Mostly associated with excretion of carbon dioxide d. submucosa
d. Capable of functioning as an excretory system
15. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the contraction of
6. When an Auerbach’s plexus is activated, it is expected to the lower esophageal sphincter?
transmit a. Force of contraction is maintained at a reduce calcium
a. excitatory impulses proximal and inhibitory impulses , hence a low level of myosin-light cha
distal (involved region (GIT) phosphorylation and cross-bridge cycling rate occurs
b. excitatory impulses proximal and distal b. Due to a brief period of stimulation followed by
c. inhibitory impulses distal and proximal sustained contraction.
d. excitatory impulses distal and inhibitory impulses c. Due to prolonged stimulation that results to high level
proximal of myosin-light chain phosphorylation"on.
d. Exhibits rhythmic contraction due to the brief period
7. In cases of constipation, during defecation the following of stimulation.
skeletal muscles are activated to contract, EXCEPT
a. Diaphragm 16. After eating you suddenly feel the urge to defecate. This is
b. External anal sphincter called ___________
c. Abdominal muscles a. Gastroileal reflex
d. All of the options are correct b. Gastrocolic reflex

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

1
 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

c. Colonoileal reflex c. Distention of the stomach directly results to

d. Enterogastric reflex increased histamine production by the
enterochromaffin-like cells.
17. Which of the following will you observe in a person on a d. Products of ini"al protein digestion results to
ketogenic diet on his gastric emptying? release of gastrin to stimulate parietal cells to
a. Delayed increase acid production.
b. Facilitated
c. Delayed then facilitated 5. Which of the following agents are usually absorbed by
d. No effect passive transport in the GIT?
a. Sodium and potassium ions
18. A motor activity of the GIT acting as the “intestinal b. Dipeptides and tripeptides
housekeeper” c. Glucose and galactose
a. Gastric accommodation d. D - amino acids
b. Migrating motor complexes
c. Hunger contraction 6. You drank a glass of water filled with a tablespoon of
d. Segmentation sugar. What transport protein will cause fructose to be
absorbed thru the apical por"on of the enterocyte?
19. Regulation of gastric emptying is mostly a function of the a. GLUT 5
____________. b. SGLT 1
a. lesser curvature c. GLUT 2
b. fundic region d. GLUT2 and GLUT 5
c. upper body of the stomach
d. distal region 7. Which of the following inhibits gastric acid secretion
a. Prostaglandin
20. CORRECT regarding the extrinsic neu the GIT, EXCEPT b. Gastrin
a. Injuries would markedly affect salivary gland activity c. Histamine
b. Functions as modulating neurons of the GI d. Acetylcholine
c. Associated with the autonomic neurons
d. Could directly stimulate glands in the submucosa 8. A patient who underwent resection of the terminal ileum
may suffer from
a. exudative diarrhea due to bile salt deficiency
!"#$*$&'($+$ b. anemia due to intrinsic factor deficiency
1. Which of the following causes fluid absorption in the c. anemia due vitamin B12 deficiency
colon? d. secretory diarrhea due to bile salt deficiency
a. Epithelial Na+ channel
b. Na+ - H+ exchange 9. Enterokinase helps in the conversion of
c. Na+ - amino acid co transport ________________________.
d. Na+ - dipep"de transport a. lactose to galactose
b. trypsinogen into trypsin
2. Destruction of these neurons could lead to atrophy of the c. proteins into polypeptide
salivary glands. d. pepsinogen into pepsin
a. Salivatory nuclei in the medulla
b. CN X 10. Cell that is capable of production or secretion of intrinsic
c. Sympathetic nerves factor that is needed for Vitamin B 12 absorption.
d. Meissner’s neurons a. Parietal cell
b. D cell
3. Which of the following is TRUE of fat digestion in the c. I cell
stomach? d. ECL cell
a. Mixing action of the stomach that churns the
dietary lipids into fine droplets is called micellar 11. Which of the following are considered the probiotics?
forma"on. a. β- glucans
b. Gastric lipase is inactivated by the acidity of the b. Bacterial flora (colon)
stomach. c. Cellulose / hemicellulose
c. Gastric lipase can only breakdown triglycerides d. SCFA
into diglycerides and free fatty acids.
d. Gastric lipase is indispensable for fat diges"on to 12. Which one of the following statements about the colon is
occur. CORRECT?
4. After eating your favorite beef stew, which of the following a. Net absorption of HCO3- & K+occurs in the colon
happens during the gastric phase of the meal? b. The luminal potential in the colon is positive
a. Somatostatin is released in response to acidic c. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the
chyme to inhibit gastrin secretion from the G cell. colon
b. Secretion is released as a response to products of d. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under the
protein digestion to inhibit acid production. control of aldosterone

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

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 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

13. Activation of CFTR in the pancreatic ductal cells occurs 20. Breakdown of food residues reaching the colon is mostly
usually in the presence of thru
a. Secretin a. reduction
b. Substance P b. Hydrolysis
c. CCK c. oxidation
d. Motilin d. Fermentation

14. Gastric acid is essential for the normal absorption of 21. CORRECT regarding acid production of the gastric
a. Cyanocobalamin parietal cell.
b. Retinoic acid a. Leads to increase acidity of the plasma
c. Calcium and iron b. Inactivation of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in
d. Bile salts the parietal cell
c. Involves activation of the electroneutral hydrogen-
15. After eating a bowl of chicken noodle with egg and once potassium exchange pump
chyme is in d. Major source of hydrogen is the breakdown of
the duodenum, which of the following happens? carbonic acid
a. Somatosta"n is secreted by the I cells of the
duodenum to inhibit the release of gastrin by the G 22. Which of the following is inhibited if the pH of the
cells. stomach is <pH 3?
b. Acetylcholine is released to inhibit gallbladder a. Gastrin
contraction b. CCK
c. Cholecystokinin is released to stimulate pancreatic c. Secretin
acinar cells to increase digestive enzyme d. VIP
secretions.
d. Secretin is secreted in response to the fat and 23. Initial chemical digestion of carbohydrates occurs in the
protein breakdown products to increase a. Duodenum
bicarbonate secretion by the pancreas b. Stomach
c. oral cavity
16. Which of the following enzymes cleaves the α -1,6 bond of d. Pancreas
α limit dextrins?
a. Isomaltase 24. There is greater secretion of the hormone CCK when the
b. Sucrase duodenum is irritated by ______________.
c. α -amylase a. products of CHO digestion
d. Glucoamylase b. Carbohydrates
c. the acidic chyme
17. The end product of digestion of starch is absorbed into d. products of lipid digestion
the bloodstream is __________________.
a. glucose 25. This fatty acid once absorbed (intestines) is transported
b. sucrose towards the lymphatic circulation.
c. Maltotriose a. Propionic acid
d. alpha dextrins b. Butyric acid
c. Oleic acid
18. While eating a sour candy, you start to drool. Which of d. Lauric acid
the following is CORRECT regarding the regulation of
salivary secretions? 26. Which of the following is a paracrine secretion?
a. Sour taste is sensed by the afferent fibers of the a. Histamine
glossopharyngeal nerve to stimulate the sublingual b. Gastrin
glands. c. Secretin
b. Acetylcholine binds with the muscarinic recep of d. CCK
the salivary glands to produce a viscous sali
c. Tac"le s"mulus excites afferent fibers of the
hypoglossal nerve that sends signals to the nu of ,-.$/01$23/#434#5$
tractus solitarius 1. Which of the following properties of platelets allow
d. Glossopharyngeal nerves stimulate the parotid it to repulse adherence to normal endothelium and
gland to increase salivary secretions
yet cause adherence to injured areas of the vessel
wall?
19. INCORRECT about the bile acids/salt synthesized by
hepatocytes A. Presence of contractile proteins actin and
a. 95 % is reabsorbed in the proximal ileum myosin
b. Usually stored in the gallbladder B. Glycoprotein on the platelet cell membrane
c. Undergoes deconjugation in the colon surface and the endothelium
d. All bile acids present in the colon are excreted C. The enzyme systems that synthesize
phospholipid

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

3
 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

D. Mitochondrial systems that allow formation 9. Which of the following would shift the oxygen-
of ATP and ADP hemoglobin curve to the left?
A. Exercise
2. AA is a strict vegetarian for 10 years. Upon B. Fever
checking her red blood cells, they were found to be C. Increase 2,3-BPG
_____________________. D. Alkalosis
A. macrocytic
B. large and bizarrely shaped 10. The Rh system of human blood group differs from
C. sickle - shaped that of the ABO system because in the Rh system
D. Microcytic ______________.
A. antibodies develop against antigens not
3. A patient has fibrinogen deficiency, hence it is present in the RBC cell membrane.
expected to have abnormal laboratory results on B. transfusion reaction occurs when a
the following EXCEPT recipient’s red cells are mismatched with the
A. aPTT donor’s plasma.
B. Prothrombin time C. the presence or absence of antigens is used
C. Thrombin time to classify the blood group.
D. Bleeding time D. antibodies develop only if there is repeated
exposure to antigen.
4. Iron is transported in the plasma as
______________. 11. The following coagulation factors, when activated,
A. apotransferrin act as proteolytic enzymes EXCEPT?
B. transferrin A. Stable Factor
C. ferritin B. Stuart-Prower Factor
D. Apoferritin C. Tissue Factor
D. Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent
5. Which of the following conditions is CORRECTLY
paired? 12. Which of the following is the intermediate cell
A. Megaloblastic anemia- G6PD deficiency stage that have already become committed to a
B. Aplastic anemia- Iron deficiency particular line of cells?
C. Microcytic anemia- Intestinal sprue A. Committed stem cells
D. Hemolytic anemia- ABO incompatibility B. Orthochromatic blast cells
C. Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cells
6. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement D. Colony- forming unit cells
regarding tissue thromboplastin?
A. Necessary for fragmentation of 13. The estimated maximum blood volume of a 50kg
megakaryocytes. female is _________.
B. Must interact with other factors of the blood A. 6L
before it becomes prothrombin activator. B. 5L
C. Capable of directly splitting prothrombin to C. 3.5L
thrombin. D. 4L
D. Thromboplastin is not readily available and
released upon damaged of tissues. 14. The following conditions might result to excessive
bleeding EXCEPT
7. A newborn who fails to receive routine vitamin K A. Hemophilia
prophylaxis may develop hemorrhagic disease of B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
the newborn. This is due to deficiency of which of C. Liver disease
the clotting factors? D. Renal failure
A. Antihemophilic Factor A
B. Hageman Factor 15. Which of the following is the effect of anemia on
C. Antihemophilic Factor B function of the circulatory system system?
D. Fibrinogen A. Decreased pumping workload on the heart
B. Decreased hypoxia resulting from
8. In which stage of RBC differentiation does the diminished transport of oxygen by the blood.
onset of hemoglobin synthesis occur? C. Increased cardiac output to compensate for
A. Proerythroblast the decrease in perfusion to the different
B. Polychromatophil erythroblast tissues.
C. Reticulocyte D. Increased respiratory rate to excrete oxygen
D. Basophil erythroblast

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

4
 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

16. Which of the following factors is NOT required in D. The average mean cell diameter is 7.5um
the formation of platelet plug following injury to a
blood vessel? 23. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the
A. von Willebrand factor regulation of RBC production?
B. Thromboxane A2 A. Erythropoietin is secreted in response to tissue
C. Fibrin stabilizing factor hypoxia
B. Rapid RBC production continues as long as there
D. Serotonin
is an inadequate number of RBCs.
C. Iron is required in the maturation and rate of
17. Which of the following is a result of the production of RBCs
mechanical shrinkage of fibrin strands within the D. The most essential regulator of RBC is the
clot and tends to pull the edge of a wound hemoglobin concentration
together?
A. Appearance of fibrin monomers 24. Which of the following types of anemia is brought about
B. None of the choices by lack of functioning bone marrow and severe form can lead
C. Clot retraction to death of a person unless managed with blood transfusion?
D. Formation of platelet plug A. Aplastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
18. Which of the following condition will have a low C. Hemolytic anemia
p50? D. Blood loss anemia
A. Fever
25. Stroke patients are given aspirin to prevent them from
B. Strenuous exercise developing new blood clots. This is because aspirin
C. Metabolic Alkalosis A. Inhibits the production of vit K dependent factors
D. Chronic lung disease B. Can interfere with the production of prothrombin
activator
19. Which of the following enzymes is abundant in the C. Can remove several activated coagulation factor
red blood cell allowing it to regulate blood pH and D. Inhibits cyclooxygenase which is needed for
maintain internal homeostasis? platelet aggregation
A. Carbonic peroxidases
B. Cytochrome oxidase 26. Which of the following results from the instantaneous
C. Hydrogen caboxylases action of thrombin on fibrinogen?
D. Carbonic anhydrase A. Plasmin
B. Prothrombin
20. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement C. Thromboplastin
regarding erythropoietin? D. Fibrin
A. Normally about 90% of erythropoietin is
27. Which of the following inhibitors of coagulation acts by
formed in the liver while the rest is in the directly inactivating Factors V and VII?
kidneys. A. Protein C
B. Erythropoietin has little effect in the B. Heparin
stimulation of the production of C. Antithrombin III
proerythroblasts from the lymphocytic stem D. Thrombomodulin
cells in the bone marrow.
C. Numerous red blood cells are formed in the 28. A 50 y/o chronic alcoholic drinker was admitted due to
bone marrow everyday even in the absence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. aPTT was 25 seconds while
erythropoietin. PT was >20 seconds. This is suggestive of deficiency of which
D. Erythropoietin is the principal stimulus for clotting factors?
red blood cell production in low oxygen A. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII
states.
C. Factor VII
21. The rate-limiting factor of coagulation is D. Factor XII
A. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
B. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
C. Activation of fibrin-stabilizing factor
D. Formation of prothrombin activator

22. Which of the following characteristics/ functions is NOT

referable to RBCs?
A. Transport oxygen to the tissues
B. Have limited ATP stores due to lack of
mitochondria
C. Defend the body against invading pathogens

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

5
 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams

md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021

"66704$&'($.85%$ 7. In a patient with aortic stenosis, a murmur is

MOST LIKELY heard on the ______ during
1. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement _____
regarding the time course of the antibody response A. 2 ICS, LPSM – systole
in the circulating blood? B. 2 ICS, RPSM – systole
A. Subsequent exposure to the same C. 2 ICS, LPSM – diastole
antigen will cause a slower and less D. 2 ICS, RPSM – diastole
potent antibody response.
B. Secondary response begins rapidly after 8. Activation of which autonomic nerve will decrease
another exposure to the antigen. mainly the conduction velocity in the heart?
C. The lesser potency and duration of the A. Left Vagus
secondary response explain why B. Right Sympathetic chain
immunization is usually accomplished C. Left Sympathetic chain
by injecting antigen in multiple doses D. Right Vagus
over a period of several weeks or
months. 9. This type of antibody provides localized protection
D. Antibodies are formed and maintained of mucosal surfaces and prevents colonization by
for several months at higher potency pathogens.
after the primary response to an antigen. A. IgA
B. IgM
2. Antibodies are formed and maintained for several C. IgG
months at higher potency after the primary D. IgE
response to an antigen.
A. Na+ channels are now closed. 10. Immunoglobulin E attaches to which of the
B. Na+ channels are activated. following type of white blood cells causing release
C. Na+K+ pump is activated. of histamine?
D. Na+K+ pump is activated. A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
3. People with HIV can easily die from infections C. Eosinophils
because the virus attacks the major regulator of D. Basophils
virtually all immune functions which is the
_____________. 11. A 2-month old infant was given an oral polio
A. cytotoxic T cells (Tc) vaccine (OPV) containing live attenuated
B. T helper cells (Th) poliovirus, as part of his routine well-baby check-
C. neutrophils up. What type of immunity did he acquire?
D. neutrophils A. Natural active
B. Artificial passive
4. After listening to the heart sound of a 20 year old C. Artificial active
patient, the medical intern reported that the apex D. Natural passive
beat is not in its normal location. Where should
the apex beat be normally located? 12. JC was exposed to a person with COVID. After
A. 2nd ICS, right parasternal border observing himself for two weeks, he did not get
B. 5th ICS, left mid clavicular line sick nor manifested any symptoms. He said that he
C. 4th ICS, left parasternal border was fully vaccinated with Sinovac a month prior.
D. 2nd ICS, left parasternal border What kind of immunity does he have?
A. Acquired, active, natural
5. Which of the following cells serve as major B. Acquired, passive, natural
regulator of virtually all immune functions by C. Acquired, active, superficial
forming a series of protein mediators? D. Acquired, active, artificial
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Memory T cells 13. About the pacemaker action potential, the
C. Suppressor T cells following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT
D. Helper T cells A. Starts at a potential of -80 to -90mv.
B. Unstable during rest.
6. Giving a booster dose of vaccine would result to a C. Repolarization is a slow phase.
faster and higher antibody production. This is D. Slope is decreased by an increase in the
because of what attribute of B cells? permeability to K+.
A. Specificity
B. Antigenicity 14. During which phase of the ventricular action
C. Clonal proliferation potential is Ca++ conductance the highest?
D. Memory A. Phase 2
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1

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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN

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 PHYSIO RATIONALE
MIDTERMS - Compiled Shifting Exams
md2025cutie • sewotonini_md • docsoluna • MEDtekutie • Medambaa | 1st SEM | Nov-Dec 2021
D. Phase 4
15. Hemolytic transfusion reaction exemplifies which
type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Immune-complex mediated
hypersensitivity
B. Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reaction
C. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D. Delayed type hypersensitivity
16. During the non-automatic cell action potential, the
Ca++ enter the cell ________________.
A. to act as trigger to release Ca++ from the
SR
B. through the T-type Calcium channels
C. to combine directly with Troponin C.
D. to prolong the final repolarization phase.
17. The prolonged depolarization in the ventricular
action potential is due to what?
A. Calcium influx during phase 0
B. Calcium influx during phase 2
C. The fast potassium efflux in phase 1
D. Sodium influx during phase 0
18. Heart rate can be modified in three ways. Which of
the following will decrease heart rate?
A. By increasing the rate of depolarization
B. Through a positive shift in threshold
potential
C. Through a positive shift in threshold
potential
D. Through a negative shift in threshold
potential
19. Which of the following is CORRECT about the flow
of blood to and from the heart?
A. Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters
the left atrium by way of the pulmonary
artery
B. Deoxygenated blood from the
pulmonary circulation enters the right
atrium by way of the vena cava
C. When the left ventricle contracts,
deoxygenated blood is ejected into the
aorta and distributed to the peripheral
circulation
D. Oxygenated blood from the right
ventricle enters the lungs by way of the
pulmonary vein
20. BM, a 34 year old male, was diagnosed of AV
Block. The block could be in which particular
region of the AV node?
A. Atrio-nodal
B. Nodal HIS
C. Between middle & Nodal HIS
D. Middle-nodal
21. The absolute refractory period in the ventricle
A. coincides with the phase of rapid
depolarization and plateau
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“When things are hard and you’re tired, I’ll shine on you. Smile brightly so we can be strength to each other.” - SEVENTEEN
B. Corresponds with the whole duration of
action potential
C. Shorter than ARP of the skeletal muscle
D. Increases during sympathetic
stimulation
22. Ation Which of the following is NOT an
inflammatory response
A. Vasodilation of local blood vessels
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. contraction of smooth muscles
D. migration of granulocytes
23. In the action potential generated in the ventricular
muscle, L-calcium channels are activated when the
membrane potential reaches
A. -65mv
B. +20mv
C. -40mv
D. -20mv
24. One difference between the atrioventricular valves
and the semilunar valves is that in the latter__
A. the velocity of the blood flow is higher
B. the chordae tendinae is present
C. the size of the opening is bigger
D. the base of the cusps is thin and weak
25. During phase 2 of the action potential generated in
the sino-atrial node, calcium __.
A. Influx is less than potassium efflux
B. efflux is less than potassium efflux
C. Influx is equal to potassium efflux
D. Influx is greater than potassium efflux
26. Urin Which of the following products of the
classical pathway of the complement system
strongly activate phagocytosis by making the
antigen more foreign?
A. C3b
B. C5b6789
C. C5a
D. C3a, C4a, C5a
27. People with HIV can easily die from infection
because the virus attacks the ajor regulator of
virtually all immune functions which is the. __
A. neutrophils
B. Cytotoxic T cells (Tc)
C. T helper cells (Th)
D. Plasma cells
28. An action potential can be elicited during the
relative refractory period by using a stimulus of
higher intensity than the initial stimulus because
the __.
A. Na+ channels are now closed
B. Na+ channels are activated
C. Na+ channels are still inactivated
D. Na+K+ pump is activated