7.

Transmitter release in the presynaptic

UPCM PHYSIOLOGY membrane is trigerred by increase in the
intracellular concentration of:
1. Hydrogen peroxide is an end-product of which a. Potassium ions
of the following organelles? b. Sodium ions
a. Peroxisome c. Calcium ions
b. Lysosome d. Chloride ions
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Mitochondrion 8. Receptors at the motor end-plate if the NMJ
consist of:
2. What type of cell signaling occurs over a long a. Muscarinic Ach receptors
distance and has a generalized effect? b. Nicotinic Ach receptors
a. Paracrine c. Alpha adrenergic receptors
b. Synaptic d. Beta adrenergic receptors
c. Endocrine
d. Neuronal 9. Neurons of the output component of the basal
ganglia synapse with the three main targets
3. Which of the following statements is TRUE using which of the following
regarding voltage-gated sodium ion channel? neurotransmitters?
a. They are opened when the membrane a. Glutamate
is hyperpolarized b. Dopamine
b. They pump 3 Na ions out of the cell c. Acetylcholine
and 2 K ions inwards d. GABA
c. They display a high conductance in
the resting membrane 10. Which of the following stimuli normally
d. They are virtually closed when the cell activates a receptor that is located on the free
is at rest nerve ending of a sensory neuron?
a. Taste
4. Which of the following mechanisms account b. Pain
for the absolute refractory period of the cell c. Gravity
membrane action potential? d. Sound
a. Delayed opening of the voltage-gated
K channels 11. The triggering mechanism for the genesis of
b. Closure of K leak channels REM sleep depends on neurons that release:
c. Opened state of all voltage-gated Na a. Acetylcholine
channels b. Serotonin
d. Closure of the activation gate of Na c. Norepinephrine
channels d. Dopamine

5. Which of the following characterizes Type 1 12. Bilateral damage to this structure results to an
fibers? inability to consolidate short-term memomy
a. Their oxidative capacity is very high into long-term memory:
b. They are fast twitch muscle fibers a. Hippocampal cortex
c. Calcium-pumping capacity of the b. Amygdala
sarcoplasmic reticulum is high c. Septal nuclei
d. They have a higher ratio to Type II d. Emboliform nuclei
fibers in normal muscle
13. Instead of troponin, what regulatory
6. The length of the muscle at which the active mechanism controls smooth muscle
tension is maximal is the: contraction?
a. eccentric length a. Tropomyosin
b. resting length b. Calsequetrin
c. equilibrium length c. F-actin helix
d. isometric length d. Calmodulin

ALPAPARA, DANILO JR.

EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
 14. Which of the following sensory modalities is
transmitted directly to the cerebral cortex
without being relayed through the thalamus?
a. Taste
b. Sight
c. Smell
d. Hearing
15. Suppose you want to check the extrinsic
pathway for the initiation of blood clotting,
what laboratory examination would you ask
for?
a. Bleeding time
b. Prothrombin time
c. Partial thromboplastin time
d. Platelet count
16. What will be the result of prolonged diastole?
a. Increase heart rate
b. Reduced peripheral resistance
c. Reduced stroke volume
d. Better filling of the ventricles
17. Which of the following mechanisms is most
likely to cause dilatation and flaccidity of the
heart?
a. High calcium levels
b. High potassium levels
c. Low calcium levels
d. Low potassium levels
18. The greatest danger of contractile impulses in
the heart provoking a circus movement is the
development of:
a. Ventricular fibrillation
b. Premature ventricular contractions
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Atrial fibrillation
19. Which of the following is characteristic of
pacemaker cells?
a. Upstroke due to opening of fast Na
channels
b. Distinct phase 1 due to increased Ca
conductance
c. Sloping phase 4 due to K leak
channels
d. Phase 3 due to increased Na influx
20. The sympathetic nervous system modulates
the output of the pacemaker cells by:
a. Increasing camp causing a steep rise
in phase 4
b. Decreasing the activity of L-type Ca
channels and lowering the threshold
c. Increasing the activity of the rectifying
K channels in phase 3
ALPAPARA, DANILO JR.
EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
d. Increasing the activity of slow Ca
channels in phase 2
21. Which principle describes the fluid movement
across the capillary endothelium?
a. Laplace law
b. Starling equation
c. Fick equation
d. Poiseulle law
22. Which part of the heart is most sensitive to
sudden occlusion of coronary blood flow?
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Endocardium
d. Sub-epicardium
23. Which of the following increases the ejection
fraction?
a. Increased afterload that decreases end
systolic volume
b. Increased venous return that increases
end diastolic volume
c. Decreased cardiac compliance that
increases end diastolic volume
d. Increased calcium released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum causing
decreased end systolic volume
24. Which of the following occurs during the rapid
ejection phase of ventricular systole?
a. A-wave is produced in the jugular
pulse due to ejection of blood
b. Ventricular pressure is greater than
aortic pressure
c. Arial muscles open on phase 0
d. Mitral valve is open
25. Hydrostatic edema results from which
combination of conditions?
a. Increased intravascular pressure and
increased capillary permeability
b. Increased capillary permeability and
decreased oncotic pressure
c. Increased intravascular pressure and
decreased oncotic pressure
d. Increased intravascular pressure and
increased oncotic pressure
26. Delay in the conduction through the AV node
will cause which of the following changes in
the ECG?
a. Shortened P-P interval
b. Widened QT interval
c. Widened PR interval
d. Widened QRS wave
 27. What happens when the myocardial
contractility is markedly diminished as in heart
failure?
a. Ejection fraction decreases
b. The heart rate decreses
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance
decreases
d. The stroke volume does not change
28. Which of the following is a function of the
lymphatic system?
a. Filter nitrogenous waste from the
blood
b. Aid excretion of excess proteins from
the circulation
c. Move chylomicrons to circulation
d. Movement of carbon dioxide waste
from tissues
29. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
cardiac work in untreated systemic
hypertension?
a. It may lead to increased pulmonary
pressure leads to fluid retention in the
lungs
b. It may cause increased heart rate
compensates to maintain normal
cardiac output
c. The increased pressure decreases
oxygen consumption in the coronary
vessels
d. The increased cardiac work may lead
to ventricular hypertrophy
30. Echocardiography uses what type of waves to
image the heart?
a. Radiofrequency
b. Ultrasound
c. Magnetic
d. Light
31. This reflex causes stimulation of the
cardiovascular system and increased blood
pressure in response to hypoxia, increased
CO2, or decreased pH detected by receptors in
the aorta and carotid arteries:
a. Baroreceptor reflex
b. Chemoreceptor reflex
c. CNS ischemic response
d. Bainbridge reflex
32. A widening of the QRS complex can be
brought about by which of the following
conditions?
a. A blockage of one branch of the
Bundle of His
b. Conduction delay in the AV node
ALPAPARA, DANILO JR.
EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
c. Premature atrial contraction
d. Slowing down of sinus node
depolarization
33. Which of the following compensatory
mechanisms happen during a massive
hemorrhage in an individual?
a. There is increased production of
rennin which in turn causes increase
production of Angiotensin
b. There is a decrease in aldosterone
production causing the kidney to
retain fluids and salt
c. There is a reflex vasoconstriction of
the venous system
d. Heart rate and cardiac contractility is
greatly increased.
34. Volume of gas at Functional residual Capacity
(FRC) contained in the conductive airways
corresponds to:
a. Anatomic dead space
b. Alveolar dead space
c. Physiologic dead space
d. Ratio of dead space to tidal volume
35. Which is characteristic of airway resistance?
a. It increases as lung volume rises
b. It is low in very small airways
c. It is proportional to the radius of the
tube
d. It increases as total cross-sectional
area of the airways increases
36. Physical/physiological changes that develop in
acclimatized individuals living at altitudes
higher than 10,000 feet include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
a. The body size is somewhat diminished
b. They develop a high pulmonary
arterial pressure
c. They have a very high arterial oxygen
pO2
d. It controls the intensity of inspiration
37. What is the role of apneustic center?
a. It fine tunes the breathing pattern
b. It operates as an overdrive mechanism
during exercise
c. It is for volitional breathing
d. It controls the intensity of respiration
38. Which of the pulmonary receptors play a role
in bronchoconstriction?
a. Lung inflation receptors
b. Irritant receptors
c. Rapidly adapting stretch receptors
 d. C-fiber receptors a. Inspiratory reserve volume
b. Expiratory reserve volume
39. Most of the stimulus for the ventilatory c. Residual volume
response to arterial CO2 changes arises from: d. Vital capacity
a. Peripheral chemoreceptors
b. Central chemoreceptors 47. The air in the lungs remaining after forced
c. Arterial baroreceptors exhalation is:
d. Dorsal respiratory group a. Inspiratory reserve volume
b. Expiratory reserve volume
40. A large lung compliance means that a: c. Residual volume
a. Small change in distending pressure d. Vital capacity
will cause a large change in lung
volume 48. Bronchioles are prevented from collapsing on
b. Small change in distending pressure quiet expiration by:
will elicit an appropriately small a. Cartilage
change in lung volume b. Gas content
c. Large distending pressure is required c. Alveolar attachments
to cause a change in lung volume d. Clara cells
d. Large change in distending pressure
will cause only a small change in lung 49. Which airway segment is the highest
volume contributor to the total airway resistance?
a. Trachea and main bronchi
41. The sum of vital capacity and residual volume b. Terminal bronchioles
is: c. Respiratory bronchioles
a. Diffusing capacity d. Alveolar ducts
b. Functional residual capacity
c. Inspiratory capacity 50. Which of the following is the limiting factor in
d. Total lung capacity endurance exercise?
a. Lactic acid levels in the circulation
42. Majority of CO2 is transported as: b. Ventilation
a. Carbaminohemoglobin c. Cardiac output
b. CO2 dissolved in plasma d. Tolerance to low levels of PO2
c. Bicarbonate ions
d. Alveolar CO2 51. Plexus that controls GI digestion and
absorption is located in the:
43. What is the most common physiological cause a. Mucosa
of hypoxemia? b. Submucosa
a. Alveolar hypoventilation c. Muscularis
b. Diffusion abnormality d. Serosa
c. Shunt
d. V/Q mismatch 52. Which of the following is characteristic of
exocrine pancreatic secretion?
44. What is the most potent stimulus to a. Hypotonicity relative to plasma
ventilation? b. Has a higher Cl- concentration than
a. A decrease in O2 plasma
b. An increase in blood hydrogen ion c. Stimulated by presence of HCO3- in
c. An increase in CO2 the duodenum
d. An increase in bicarbonate ion d. Tonicity does not vary with flow rate

45. An early physiologic adaptation to a high 53. Which of the following factors will increase
altitude environment is: both gastric and biliary secretion?
a. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction a. Secretin
b. Increased EPO production b. Gastrin
c. Decrease in O2 affinity to Hb c. Acetylcholine
d. Surface area for diffusion d. Histamine

46. The driving force for diffusion of a gas is:

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EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
 54. Which of the following is the most essential a. Gastric cardia is mainly responsible
component of gastric secretion? for gastric emptying
a. Acid b. Gastric emptying is greates tif
b. Intrinsic factor contents are isotonic
c. Pepsinogen c. Fat inhibits emptying by releasing
d. Gastrin secretin
d. Emptying is inhibited by both gastrin
55. Which of the following secretion is stimulated and liquid solutions
by sympathetic stimulation?
a. Salivary 62. Complete ileal resection will have the most
b. Biliary deleterious effect on the absorption of which
c. Pancreatic of the following vitamin?
d. Gastric a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
56. Which of the following statements is TRUE c. Vitamin B12
regarding colonic motility? d. Vitamin E
a. Haustra moves luminal contents over
long distances 63. Absorption of glucose involves
b. Mass movements usually occur after a. SGPT-1 on the apical membrane and
meals GLUT-2 in the basolateral membrane
c. Fecal materials remain liquid in the b. SGPT-1 on the apical membrane and
left side of the colon until defecation GLUT-5 in the basolateral membrane
d. Retrogade movement seldom occurs c. GLUT-5 in the apical membrane and
in the colon GLUT-2 in the basolateral membrane
d. GLUT-2 on the apical membrane and
57. Primary esophageal peristalsis is stimulated SGPT-1in the basolateral membrane
by:
a. Sleep 64. Absorption of water is achieved by:
b. Swallowing a. Endocytosis
c. Esophageal distention b. Exocytosis
d. Anesthesia c. Secondary active transport
d. Osmosis
58. The major factor responsible for vomiting is:
a. Decreased intrathoracic pressure 65. What is the most abundant substance secreted
b. Contraction of abdominal muscles in the bile?
c. Diaphragmatic contraction a. Electrolytes
d. Reflex relaxation of the lower b. Bilirubin
esophageal sphincter c. Bile salts
d. Cholesterol
59. The ability of the stomach to accommodate
food and fluid without significant increase in 66. A medical student who wants to increase his
pressure is known as: absorption of iron and calcium will be helped
a. Tone by intake of:
b. Receptive relaxation a. Hydroxide-containing antacid
c. Retropulsion b. Fibers is cereals
d. Sieving function c. Ascorbic acid
d. Vitamin E
60. Normally, the movement of the contents of the
GIT is slowest along this segment 67. Growth Hormone secretion would lead to
a. Esophagus which of the following effects?
b. Stomach a. Increased glycogenolysis
c. Small intestines b. Decreased adiposity
d. Large intestines c. Decreased muscle mass
d. Decreased sleep
61. Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding gastric emptying? 68. A large dose of insulin is administered
intravenous to normal 34 year-old female. This

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EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
 is likely to cause an increase in all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Plasma norepinephrine concentration
b. Plasma potassium concentration
c. Growth hormone secretion
d. Glucagon secretion
69. Following massive hemorrhage during
delivery, a 34 year-old female experiences
acute pituitary failure secondary to ischemic
necrosis of the pituitary gland. Which of the
following is most likely to be associated with
this clinical picture?
a. Elevated prolactin secretion
b. Decreased gonadotropin secretion
c. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
d. All of the above
70. All of the following are neuropeptide
hormones, EXCEPT:
a. oxytocin
b. CRH
c. IGF-1
d. TRH
71. Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for
Growth Hormone release?
a. Amino acids
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Sleep
d. Estrogen
72. Hypophysectomy results in the functional
decline of many endocrine organs. All of the
following are likely to occur after removal of
the pituitary gland, EXCEPT:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Dwarfism
c. Deficiency of aldosterone
d. Infertility
73. In hyperaldosteronism, the following
conditions are likely to be observed, EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypokalemia
d. none of the above
74. Abnormally high glucocorticoid levels would
be associated with an increase in all of the
following activities in the liver, EXCEPT:
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Glucose production
d. None of the above
ALPAPARA, DANILO JR.
EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
75. What neoplasm of the thyroid gland may be
associated with the secretion of calcitonin?
a. Follicular carcinoma
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Papillary carcinoma
76. The primary source of erythropoietin (EPO) is
the:
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Bone marrow
d. Kidney
77. Metabolic effects of insulin include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
a. It inhibits gluconeogenesis
b. It inactivates the enzyme glucokinase
c. It inactivates liver phosphorylase
d. It promotes storage of glycogen in
muscle
78. Male baldness is produced by:
a. Large quantities of androgenic
hormones
b. A combination of genetics and high
levels of androgenic hormones
c. Diminished blood supply to the scalp
d. A genetic background for baldness
79. The deficiency of what trace element is
associated with skin ulcers, reduced immune
response, and hypogonadal dwarfism?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Cobalt
80. How much of the calcium in the plasma is
both diffusible and ionized?
a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 10%
81. Which among the following is secreted by the
posterior pituitary gland?
a. Growth hormone
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Prolactin
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
82. A man goes to see his doctor complaining of
weight gain, even though he has been careful
of what he eats. The doctor determines he has
high blood pressure, high blood sodium levels,
and, low blood potassium levels.
 Overproduction of which hormone would
explain his symptoms?
a. Insulin
b. Cortisol
c. Glucagon
d. Aldosterone
83. What is the effect of negative feedback
regulation on the profiles of hormone levels
over time?
a. An oscillating pattern
b. A flat pattern of hormone levels
c. A steadily increasing pattern that
eventually crashes
d. A steadily decreasing pattern that
eventually hits zero
84. Under normal circumstances, what is the
concentration of glucose in the urine?
a. O
b. 100-120 mg/dL
c. 60 mg/dL
d. 100mg/dL
85. Which of the following statements concerning
the phases of glucose homeostasis is
INACCURATE?
a. In the fasting state, the brain accounts
for only 10% of glucose uptake by
tissues
b. In the fasting state, fatty acid ß-
oxidation is a major source of energy
for many tissues
c. During a prolonged fast (i.e., more
than 48 hours), gluconeogenesis
provides most of the glucose released
by the liver
d. After a normal meal, glucose is stored
largely in muscle and liver as
glycogen or used to synthesize and
store fatty acids
86. Which of the following conditions regarding
the relationship of insulin and glucagon is
INCORRECT?
a. Glucagon prevents hypoglycemia by
mobilizing glucose from the liver
b. Glucagon secretion is regulated
primarily by plasma glucose
concentration
c. When glucagon binds to its receptor,
the adenylate cyclase signal
transduction system is activated
d. Plasma glucagon concentrations tend
to be high when the insulin
concentration is high, and low when
the insulin concentration is low.
ALPAPARA, DANILO JR.
EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
87. What is the major source of energy in affinity
in a 50-yard dash?
a. Liver glycogen
b. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. Breakdown of muscle proteins
d. Mixed oxidation of carbohydrates and
fat
88. Which of the following is NOT promoted by
insulin in the liver?
a. Absorption of glucose by muscle and
adipose tissue
b. Incorporation of amino acids into
muscle protein
c. Stimulation of fatty acid synthesis in
the liver
d. Hepatic gluconeogenesis
89. Which of the following does NOT happen
during prolonged starvation?
a. Insulin concentrations are lower than
after an overnight fast
b. The primary source of energy is
triglycerides from adipocytes
c. Oxidation of ketone bodies is
important in supplying the energy
needs of some tissues
d. Glucagon and the other
counterregulatory hormones play a
lesser role in controlling intermediary
metabolism than they do in people
eating normally
90. Under normal conditions, in the healthy adult,
what is the average GFR per day?
a. 80 liters
b. 100 liters
c. 180 liters
d. 200 liters
91. GFR increases with:
a. Increased Bowman’s capsule pressure
b. Increased glomerular colloid pressure
c. Increased glomerular hydrostatic
pressure
d. Increased afferent arteriolar resistance
92. When glomerular hydrostatic pressure
increases to 80 mmHg, the net filtration
pressure will be equal to:
a. -10 mmHg
b. 10 mmHg
c. 20 mmHg
d. 30 mmHg
93. A dilatation in the efferent arteriole will:
 a. Increase in GFR, increase RBF a. Glucose
b. Decrease GFR, decrease RBF b. Phosphate
c. Increase GFR, decreased RBF c. Chloride
d. Decrease GFR, increase RBF d. Bicarbonate

94. The tubuloglomerular feedback is: 99. The absorption of most solutes occurs in the
a. Due to intrinsic property of vascular a. Proximal tubule
muscle to contract when stretched b. Loop of henle
b. Directed toward stabilizing NaCl c. Distal tubule
delivery d. Collecting tubule
c. Triggered only by a drop in arterial
pressure 100. The nephron segments impermeable to water
d. Dependent on the filterability of a include:
substance a. The proximal tubule
b. The descending limb of the loop of
95. Which of the following is TRUE of plasma Henle
osmolality? c. The thin descending limb of the loop
a. The plasma sodium concentration is of Henle
the primary determinant of the plasma d. The thich ascending limb of the loop
osmolality since sodium salts are the of Henle
major extracellular osmoles
b. Water can freely cross cell membranes 101. Vasopressin causes an increase in water
and moves from an area of high permeability in
osmolality to one of low osmolality a. The proximal tubule
c. The major effective osmoles in the b. The thick ascending limb of the loop
body are: sodium, glucose, and urea of Henle
d. The osmotic pressure that generates c. The descending limb of the loop of
fluid shifts between the intracellular Henle
and extracellular spaces is produced d. The collecting duct
by the amount of water in the ECF.
102. An increase in the NaCl reabsorption will
96. The addition of glucose in the extracellular occur in the presence of
fluid compartment such as in uncontrolled a. Angiotensin II
diabetes mellitus produces which of the b. Atrial natriuretic peptide
following effects? c. Urodilantin
a. Lower the plasma osmolality d. Dopamine
b. Cause water to move out of the cells
c. Decrease the extracellular volume 103. In a patient with metabolic acidosis, a normal
d. Increase the plasma sodium serum anion gap and a positive urine anion
concentration gap, one may surmise tat there is:
97. True of long-term regulation of blood a. More ammonium being excreted in the
pressure: urine
a. Blood pressure control in the long- b. Reduced absorption of bicarbonate in
term depends on blood volume which the proximal tubule
in tuen depends on the ECF volume c. Reduced hydrogen ion pump activity
b. The kidneys play a minor role in long- in the proximal tubule
term BP regulation d. Decreased activity of type A
c. Tubuloglomerular feedback mainly intercalated cell in the collecting
mediates changes in sodium tubule
reabsorption
d. Glomerulotubular balance mainly 104. Potassium may be driven intracellularly by
mediates changes in GFR a. Sympathomimetic activity
b. Hypoaldosteronism
98. Concentration of which of the following in c. Acidosis
tubular fluid increases relative to its d. Insulin
concentration in plasma in the initial segment
of the proximal tubule. 105. Hyperventilation leads to hypocalcemia by:

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EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY
 a. Increasing calcium excretion in urine 7. C 32. A 57. B 82. D 107. C
b. Reducing calcium resorption from 8. B 33. ? 58. B 83. D 108. A
bone
9. D 34. A 59. B 84. A 109. B
c. Decreasing calcium resorption in the
intestine 10. B 35. C? 60. D 85. A 110. B
d. Increasing binding of calcium to 11. A 36. C 61. B 86. D
serum albumin 12. A 37. D 62. C 87. B
13. D 38. B/D 63. A 88. D
106. A 24 year-old, 60 Kg male medical student
joined the 9K marathon. At the starting line, 14. C 39. B 64. D 89. D
he has total body fluid of: 15. B 40. A 65. C 90. C
a. 30 L 16. D 41. D 66. C 91. C
b. 33 L
17. B 42. C 67. A 92. D
c. 36 L
d. 42 L 18. A 43. D 68. B 93. D
19. D 44. C 69. B 94. B
107. Which energy system(s) is/are primarily 20. A 45. D 70. C 95. A
utilized by a participant in a 40-Km marathon?
21. B 46. C 71. B 96. B
a. Glycogen-lactic acid system
b. Phosphagen and glycogen-lactic acid 22. C 47. C 72. C 97. A
system 23. B/A 48. B/C 73. D 98. C
c. Aerobic system 24. B 49. A? 74. B? 99. A
d. Phosphagen system
25. C 50. A/C 75. C 100. D

108. Visual field examination of a patient revales

incongruous homonymous hemianopia with
central scotoma. Where is the lesion?
a. Optic chiasm
b. Optic tract
c. Optic nerve
d. Posterior occipital lobe

109. The disease which is believed to be the result

of dopaminergic neuron degeneration is:
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Schizophrenia
d. Curare-induced paralysis

110. The mechanism by which transmission of an

impulse across the NMJ is blocked by curare
is:
a. It competes with potassium at the
muscle membrane
b. It competes with Ach at the muscle
membrane
c. It initiates hydrolysis of Ach
d. It prevents the release of
neurotransmitters
1. A 26. C 51. B 76. D 101. D
2. C 27. A 52. D 77. B 102. A
3. D 28. C 53. C 78. B 103. D
4. C 29. D 54. B 79. A 104. D
5. A 30. B 55. A 80. A 105. D
6. B 31. B 56. B 81. B 106. C

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EUSEBIO-ALPAPARA, KATHLEEN MAY