NURSING APTITUDE TEST C.

Active Diffusion
SCIENCE d. Facilitated Diffusion

Anatomy and Physiology with 6. The functional unit of lungs is the:

Pathophysiology а.Nephron
b. Capillaries
1. The process by which the body C.Alveoli
regulates its temperature is referred to d.Hepatocytes
as:
a. Chemotropism 7. The functional unit of the kidney is the:
b. Osmosis a. Capillaries
c. Homeostasis b. Alveoli
d. Hemostasis c. Villi
d. Nephron
2. This set up is used to illustrate which
of the following process? 8. Which part of the brain is associated
a. Diffusion with hearing?
b. Osmosis a.Occipital lobe
C. Geotropism b. Frontal lobe
d. Active diffusion C.Parietal lobe
d. Temporal lobe
3. Which of the following is correct?
a. The water molecules flow from the 9. The occipital lobe of the cerebrum is
concentrated to the less concentrated associated with which of the following?
solution. а.Vision
b. The water molecules flow from the less b. Hearing
concentrated to the more concentrated C.Touching
solution. d.Smelling
c.The salt molecules flow from the
concentrated solution to the water. 10. Jane had an injury to her cerebellum.
d. There is no flow of water molecules in both Which of the following is likely to occur?
solutions. а.Inability to see clearly
b. Difficulty of hearing music
4. What is the process by which water C.Difficulty on swallowing fluids
flows from the soil into the roots? d. Difficulty of balancing herself
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis 11. In which organ can you locate the
c. Active diffusion semicircular canals?
d. Facilitated diffusion a. Eye
b. Ears
5. Dogs take in oxygen during inspiration c. Stomach
by which of the following process? d. Kidneys
а.Passive diffusion
b.Osmosis
12. There are three semi-circular canals. 18. The skull is consisting of:
What are their functions? a. 14 bones
а.Excretion of waste products b.22 bones
b. Absorption of digested food C.12 bones
c. Hearing d. 8 bones
d. Balancing
19. The smallest bone of human body is:
13. What is the test that can be used to a.Stapes
identify potassium, sodium, and calcium? b.Phalanges
a. Benedict's test C. . Metacarpals
b. Flame test d. Xiphisternum
c. Lugol's test
d. Litmus paper test 20. What should the nurse do immediately
before performing any procedure?
14. What test would you perform on a. . Shut the door
potatoes to identify starch? b.Wash their hands
a. Benedict;s test c.Close the curtain
b. Fehling' test d.Drape the patient
c. Iodine test
d. Litmus paper test 21. Which patient would be at the greatest
risk of electrolyte imbalance?
15. Human skeleton is made of: a. A child who is vomiting and has diarrhea
a.201 bones b. An athlete playing games on a hot summer
b. 206 bones day
C. 198 bones C.A renal failure patient
d.200 bones d. A patient who is having nasogastric
suctioning
16. Spinal column has vertebrae:
a. 12 22. A patient who is undergoing cancer
b. 20 chemotherapy says to the nurse, "This is
c. 25 no way to live." Which responses uses
d. 33 reflective technique?
a.Tell me more about what you are thinking."
17. Longest bone of the human body is; b."You sound discouraged today."
a. Femur C."Life is not worth living?"
b.Humerus d. "What are you saying?"
C.Tibia
d. Fibula 23. Which patient statement indicates a
further need for teaching about vitamins?
a."My need for vitamins will change as I get
older."
b. Some vitamins can be manufactured by
the body"
c."I don't need vitamins because I eat a
balanced diet."
d. "Vitamins can be taken without the fear of
toxic effects.'
24. A patient report being constipated.
What should the nurse encourage the
patient to eat?
а.Fresh fruit and whole wheat bread
b. Whole-wheat bread and chicken
C.Plain yogurt and fresh fruit
d. Chicken and plain yogurt
25. A nurse assesses that a postoperative
patient has a decreased blood pressure
and weak, thread pulse and concludes
that the patient may be hemorrhaging.
For what additional signs of hemorrhage
should the nurse assess the patient?
a.Pain
b. Respiration Rate
C.Tachycardia
d.Fever
26. The patient diagnosed with an
exacerbation of COPD is in respiratory
distress. Which intervention should the
nurse implement first?
a.Assist the patient into a sitting position at
90 degrees.
b. Administer oxygen at 6 LMP via nasal
canula.
c. Monitor vital signs with the patient sitting
upright
d. Notify the health care provider about the
patient's status
27. The nurse writes a problem of
"impaired gas exchange" for a patient
diagnose with cancer of the lung. Which
intervention should be included in the
plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
a.Apply o2 via nasal canula
b. Have the dietitian plan for 6 small meals a
day
c. Place the patient in respiratory isolation
d.Assess vital signs for fever
e.Listen to lung sounds every shift
28. The production of parathyroid
hormone will have all of the following
effects EXCEPT
a. Dissolving of calcium phosphate crystals
present in bones
b. Increased excretion of phosphate ions by
the kidneys
c. Long-term increased phosphate
concentration in the extracellular fluids
d. Increased calcium ion concentration in the
extracellular fluids
29. The following are characteristics of
hormones except
a. Catalyze a metabolic reaction
b. Alter metabolic processes within target
organs
C.Alter a person's entire metabolism
d. Travel from the site of production to the
site of action via the circulatory system
30. The production of parathyroid
hormone is turned by
а.Low concentrations of calcium ions in
extracellular fluids
b. High concentrations of calcium ions in
extracellular fluids
C.High concentrations of phosphate ions in
extracellular fluids
d. High concentrations of phosphate ions in
the kidneys
31. The master control center of the
endocrine system is the
a.Pituitary gland
b. Thyroid gland
C.Hypothalamus
d. Cerebral cortex

32. Production and secretion of
thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) will
lead to all of the following EXCEPT
a. A change in the metabolic rates of cells
b. Production of thyroid stimulating hormone
by the thyroid gland
C.Secretion of the thyroxin by the thyroid
gland
d.Decreased production of TRH by neurons
in the hypothalamus
C.Insulin will continue to stimulate the cells
to take in glucose
d. The glucose levels will be low so the alpha
cells will continue to secrete insulin.
38. In this type of diabetes, the cells in the
Islets of Langerhans are defective.
a.Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. All types

33. Cells that can live with or without 39. The Islets of Langerhans are found in
oxygen are known as which of the following organ:
a. Obligate anaerobes a. Stomach
b. Fermenters b. Heart
C.Facultative anaerobes c. Kidney
d. Chemiosmotic complexes d. Pancreas

34. Epinephrine is secreted from the 40. Insulin is secreted by the

a. Liver a.Alpha cell
b. Adrenal cortex b. Beta cells
C.Adrenal medulla c. Gamma cell
d. Hypothalamus d. Delta cells

35. Peptide hormones can 41. The hormone calcitonin is secreted by

a. Enter into target cells the parafollicular cells found in which
b. Act on target cells from a distance gland?
C.Act through second messengers a. Pancreas
d. Bind to and activate specific enzymes in b. Pituitary
the cell c. Thyroid
d. Adrenal
36. The role of insulin
а.Bind directly to glucose 42. Which of the following element is
b. Prevent cells from taking in glucose needed for thyroxin production?
c.Allow cells to take in glucose a.Sodium
d. Monitor the levels of glucose to regulate b. Magnesium
glucose utilization c. Calcium
d. lodine
37. Several hours after a meal,
a. The glucose levels will still be high so the 43. Goitre is used to describe the
beta cells will continue to secrete insulin enlargement of the?
b.The glucose levels will be low so the beta a.Thyroid
cells will no longer secrete insulin b. Ovary
c. Pituitary 49. The bond that exist between water
d. Hypothalamus (H20) molecules is referred to as
a. Hydrogenbond
44. Goitre occurs because of deficiency b. Ionic bond
of which substance in diet? c.Van de Waal bond
a.Sodium d. Covalent bond
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium 50. Using the principles of standard
d. Iodine precautions, the nurse would wear gloves
in what nursing interventions?
45. A pair of genes that control two a.Providing a back massage
contrasting characters are called b. Feeding a client
a. Phenotypes c. Providing hair care
b. Genotypes d. Providing oral hygiene
c. Alleles
d. Homozygotes 51. The nurse is preparing to take vital
sign in an alert client admitted to the
46. A pair of genes that control two hospital with dehydration secondary to
contrasting characters are the same, the vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best
genotype is said to be method used to assess the client's
a. Heterogenous temperature?
b. Heterozygous a. Oral
c. Homogenous b. Axillary
d. Homozygous c. Radial
d. Hat sensitive tape
47. The bond formed between sodium
(Na) and chlorine (CI) in sodium chloride 52. A nurse obtained a client's pulse and
(NaCI) is referred to as found the rate to be above normal. The
a. Covalent bond nurse document this finding as:
b. Ionis bond a. tachypnea
c. Hydrogen bond b. hyperpyrexia
d. Metallic bond c. arrhythmia
d. tachycardia
48. The bond formed between hydrogen
(H) and oxygen (O) in water (H20) 53. Which of the following actions should
molecule is referred to as the nurse take to us a wide base support
a.Electrostatic bond when assisting a client to get up in a
b. Ionic bond chair?
c.Van de Waal bond a. Bend at the waist and place arms under
d. Covalent bond the client's arm and lift
b. Face the client, bend knees and place
hands on client's forearm and lift
c.Spread his or her feet apart
d. Tighten his or her pelvic muscles
54. A client had oral surgery following a 58. It is best described as a systematic,
motor vehicle accident. The nurse rational method of planning and
assessing the client finds the skin providing nursing care for the individual,
flushed and warm. families, group and community
Which of the following would be the best a. Assessment
method to take the client's body b. Nursing Process
temperature? c. Diagnosis
a. Oral d. Implementation
b. Axillary
c.Arterial line 59. Exchange of gases takes place in
d. Rectal which of the following organ?
a. Kidney
55. A client who is unconscious needs b. Lungs
frequent mouth care. When performing a c. Liver
mouth care, the best position of a client d. Heart
is:
a. Fowler's position 60. The chamber of the heart that receives
b. Side lying oxygenated blood from the lungs is the:
c. Supine a. Left atrium
d. Trendelenburg b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
.56. A client is hospitalized for the first d. Right ventricle
time, which of the following actions
ensure the safety of the client? 61. A muscular enlarge pouch or sac that
a.Keep unnecessary furniture out of lies slightly to the left which is used for
the way temporary storage of food...
b. Keep the lights on at all time a.Gallbladder
c. Keep side rails up at all time b. Urinary bladder
d. Keep all equipment out of view c. Stomach
d. Lungs
57. A walk-in client enters into the clinic
with a chief complaint of abdominal pain 62. The ability of the body to defend itself
and diarrhea. The nurse takes the client's against scientific invading agent such as
vital sign hereafter. What phrase of bacteria, toxin, viruses and foreign body
nursing process is being implemented a. Hormones
here by the nurse? b. Secretion
a.Assessment c. Immunity
b.Diagnosis d. Glands
c. Planning
d. Implementation 63. Hormone secreted by Islets of
Langerhans
a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Insulin
d. Hemoglobin c. community
d. nursing
64. It is a transparent membrane that
focuses the light that enters the eyes to 70. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how
the retina. many milliliters (ml)?
a. lens a. 30 ml
b. sclera b. 25 ml
c. cornea c. 12 ml
d. pupils d. 22 ml

65. Which of the following is included in 71. 1800 ml is equal to how many liters?
Orem's theory? a.1.8
a. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air b. 18000
b. Self-perception c. 180
c. Love and belonginess d. 2800
d. Physiologic needs
72. Which of the following is the
66. Which of the following cluster of data abbreviation of drops?
belong to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. Gtt.
a. Love and belonging b. Gtts.
b. Physiologic needs c. Dp.
c. Self-actualization d. Dr.
d. All of the above
73. The abbreviation for micro drop is .
67. This is characterized by severe a. ugtt
symptoms relatively of short duration. b. gtt
а.Chronic illness c. mdr
b. Acute illness d. mgts
c.Pain
d. syndrome 74. Which of the following is the meaning
of PRN?
68. Which of the following is the nurse's a. When advice
role in the health promotion? b. Immediately
a. Health risk appraisal c. When necessary
b. Teach client to be effective health d. Now
consumer
c. Worksite wellness 75. Which of the following is the
d. None of the above appropriate meaning of CBR?
a. Cardiac Board Room
69. It is described as a collection of b. Complete Bathroom
people who share some attributes of their c. Complete Bed Rest
lives. d. Complete Board Room
a. Family
b. Illness 76. One tsp is equals to how many drops?
a. 15 administer capsule medication. Which of
b. 60 the following measures the nurse should
C. 10 do?
d. 30 a.Dissolve the capsule in a glass of waters
b. Break the capsule and give the content
77. 20 cc is equal to how many ml? with an applesauce
a. 2 c. Check the availability of a liquid
b. 20 preparation
c. 2000 d. Crash the capsule and place it under the
d. 20000 tongue

78. 1 cup is equals to how many ounces?
а. 8
b. 80
C. 800
d. 8000
79. The nurse must verify the client's
identity before administration
medication. Which of the following is the
safest way to identify the client?
a. Ask the client for his name
b. Check the client's identification band
c. State the client's name aloud and
have the client repeat it
d. d. Check the room number
83. Which of the following is the
appropriate route of administration for
insulin?
a.Intramuscular
b. Intradermal
c. Subcutaneous
d. intravenous
of
84. The nurse is ordered to administer
ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse
should give the medication.
а.Three times a day orally
b. Three times a day after meals
c. Two time a day by mouth
d. Two times a day before meals

80. The nurse prepares to administer
buccal medication. The medicine should
be placed..
А. On the client's skin
b. Between the client's cheeks and gums
c. Under the client's tongue
d. On the client's conjunctiva
81. The nurse administers cleansing
enema. The common position for this
procedure is..
a.Sims left lateral
b. Dorsal Recumbent
c. Supine
d. Prone
82. A client complains of difficulty of
swallowing, when the nurse try to
85. Back Care is best described as:
а.Caring for the back by means of massage
b. Washing of the back
Application of cold compress at the back
d.Application of hot compress at the back
86. It refers to the preparation of the bed
with a new set of linens
a. Bed bath
b. Bed making
c. Bed shampoo
d. Bed lining
87. Which of the following is the most
important purpose of handwashing?
а.To promote hand circulation
b.To prevent the transfer of microorganism 93. An instrument used for auscultation
c.To avoid touching the client with a dirty is:
hand a.Percussion-hammer
d. To provide comfort b.Audiometer
C. Stethoscope
88. What should be done in order to d.Sphygmomanometer
prevent contaminating of the
environment in bed making? 94. Resonance is best described as:
a.Avoid fanning soiled linens a.Sounds created by air filled lungs
b. Strip all linens at the same time b.Short, high pitch and thudding
C.Finished both sides at the same time C. Moderately loud with musical quality
d.Embrace soiled linen d. Drum-like

89. The most important purpose of 95. The best position for examining the
cleansing bed bath is: rectum is:
a.To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the a.Prone
client who must remain in bed b. Sim's
b.To expose the necessary parts of the body c. Knee-chest
C.To develop skills in bed bath d. Lithotomy
d.To check the body temperature of the client
in bed 96. It refers to the manner of walking:
а.Gait
90. Which of the following technique b. Range of motion
involves the sense of sight? c.Flexion and extension
a. Inspection d. Hopping
b. Palpation
c. Percussion 97. The nurse asked the client to read the
d. Auscultation Snellen chart. Which of the following is
tested?
91. The first techniques used to examine a. optic
the abdomen of a client is: b. olfactory
a. Palpation c. oculomotor
b. Auscultation d. trochlear
c. Percussion
d. Inspection 98. Another name for knee-chest position
is:
92. A technique in physical examination a. Genu-dorsal
that is used to assess the movement of air b. Genu-pectoral
thought the tracheobronchial tree: c. Lithotomy
a.Palpation d. Sim's
b.Auscultation
C.Inspection 99. The nurse prepares IM injection that is
d.Percussion irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.
Which of the following is the best action
in order to prevent tracking of the b. Melena
medication? c. Hematemesis
a. Use a small gauge needle d. Hemoptysis
b. Apply ice on the injection site
c. Administer at a 45° angle 106. Normal respiration rate in neonate:
d. Use the Z-track technique a. 40-60 breaths/min.
b. 80-120 breaths/min.
100. Amount of medicine can be injected c. 16-20 breaths/min
into gluteal muscle is: d. 20-30 breaths/min.
a. Up to 2 ml
b. Up to 5 ml 107. Intra osseous injection is given in:
c. Up to 10 ml a. vein
d. Up to 7 ml b. bone marrow
c. spinal cavity
101. While giving enema height of enema d. muscles
cane from anus should be:
a. 6 inches 108. To maintain normal breathing
b. 9 inches pattern, which position is beneficial?
c. 12 inches a. Sim's position
d. 18 inches b. Knee-chest position
c. Fowler's
102. During ABG analysis, blood is d. Dorsal
collected from:
a.Artery 109. Cyanosis is caused in case of:
b. Vein a. Lack of water
C.Capillary b. Lack of blood
d. It can be taken from any site c. Lack of oxygen
d. Lack of glucose
103. Intradermal injection is given at:
a. 15° angle 110. Fever with relative bradycardia is
b. 30° angle seen in:
c. 45° angle a. Malaria
d. 90° angle b. Typhoid
c. Filaria
104. Abbreviation of S.O.S means: d. Diphtheria
a.Give immediate
b. Give whenever necessary 111. Suitable site to check pulse into new
c. At bed time born;
d. Give twice a day a. Apical
b. Femoral
c. Pedal
105. Presence of blood in stool is known d. Carotid
as:
a. Lochia
112. Right route to check the temperature b. Vomiting
into children: C.Inflammation
a. Oral method d. Swelling
b. Axillary method
c. Rectal method 119. One ml = __drops?
d. All the above a.45
b.15
113. Normal scrum potassium level in c.60
mcq/L is: d.30
a. 2.5 to 3.5
b. 3.5 to 5. 120.When hemoglobin is in an
c. 5.5 to 6.5 environment that is low in oxygen:
d. 6.5 to 7.5 a. It cannot give up its oxygen
b. It readily gives up its oxygen
114. The objectives of moist cold c. It cannot carry oxygen
application are all, EXCEPT- d. It picks up more oxygen
a. To soothe the nerve
b. To relieve discomfort 121. Which of the following organisms
c. To stimulate the inflammation process have gills?
d. To reduce temperature a. Dogs
b. Ducks
115. AlI of the following are advantage of c. Lobsters
hot compress EXCEPT it- d. Earthworms
а. Relieves pain
b. Increases tension 122. Which of the following is true
c. Increases circulation concerning the amount of oxygen in
d. Promotes absorption water?
а.The amount of oxygen in air is less than
116. The compression to ventilation ratio that of water
in CPP in case as single rescuer is: b. The amount of oxygen in air is more than
a.5:2 that of water
b.15:2 c. The amount of oxygen in air is the same
c.30:2 as that of water
d. 2:30 d. The amount of oxygen in air is twice that
of water
117. The preferred site for giving IM
injection to infant is: 123. Oxygen in water is removed by gills
a. Gluteal by the process of
b. Deltoid a.Osmosis
C.Vastus lateralis b. Facilitated diffusion
d. Umbilicus c. Active diffusion
d. Passive diffusion
118. The suffix “its” means:
a. Pain
124. The functional unit of the respiratory a. Eliminate their metabolic byproducts
system is directly into the external environment of the
a. Lung organism.
b. Bronchus b. Eliminate their metabolic byproducts into
c.Bronchiole the internal environment of the organism.
d. Alveolus c. Do not eliminate their metabolic by-
products.
125.Cetin is a complex substance found d. Do not all carry on metabolism.
on the surface of
a. Leaves 131. Aquatic organisms excrete mostly:
b. Skin a.Ammonia
c. Kidney b. Protein
d. Eye c. Amino acid
d. Uric acid
126. The cells of active animals:
a.Are always dividing rapidly 132. In organisms with a closed transport
b. Require a constant supply of carbon system, in general, blood flows:
dioxide a. In two directions around a circular Path
c. Are easily poisoned by oxygen b. In one direction around a circular path
d. Require rapid delivery of oxygen c. Away from the heart only
d. Toward the heart only
127. The process whereby you eliminate
metabolic by-products is: 133. Chambered hearts:
a. Olfaction a. All have only receiving chambers
b. Excretion b. All have only delivery chambers
c. Digestion c. All are chamberless
d. Mastication d. All have at least one receiving chamber
and one delivery chamber
128. Horses excrete mostly:
a.Ammonia 134. The intake of large quantities of
b. DNA water will tend to make your kidney:
c. Urea a.Have low output of urine
d. Uric Acid b. Have a high output of urine
c. Have no output of urine
129.The amino acid resulting from the d. Have a high output of salt
hydrolysis of proteins:
a. Are readily stored by the body 135. Photosynthesis occurs at high rate:
b. Undergo further metabolism because they a. During the night
cannot be stored b. During the hottest part of the day
c. Are always used immediately for the c.When the plant is wilted
building other proteins d. During the cooler parts of the day
d. Go directly into ATP molecules

130. The cells of multicellular organisms:

136. Which of the following statements is b.II
false? c III
a. Hemoglobin is a transport pigment d. All of them
b. Hemoglobin is found only in blood cells
c. Hemoglobin contains ion 142. What will be the end-product for the
d. Hemoglobin is the most common digestion of milk?
respiratory pigment a.Glucose and Sucrose
b. Glucose and Galactose
137. Which of the following is true with C. LActose and Glucose
regard to hemoglobin? D. Fructose and Glucose
а. Hemoglobin is one of the rarest of the
respiratory pigments 143. What is the principal component of
b. Hemoglobin consist only of heme chitin and heparin?
c. Hemoglobin consist of two parts, a heme a. Carbohydrate
and a globin. b. Lipid
d. Heme unit serves primarily as a carrier for C. Protein
the globin unit. d. Nucleic Acid

138. In what form does most of the ATP in 144. Which of these organisms can be
the cell exist? classified as a prokaryote?
а. KATP а.Fungi
b. NaATP b. Moss
c. MgATP c. Bacteria
d. CaATP d. Algae

139. Which of the following is not a 145. The liquid part of the cytoplasm is
protein? referred to as:
a. Myosin a. Cytosol
b. Actin b. Cytoplast
c. Keratin c. Chloroplast
d. Cellulose d. Protoplasm

140. Which of the following is a protein? 146. A piece of DNA has the following
a.Collagen gene code "AGAAGTCGGCT". If this is
b. Glycerol transcribed to an RNA, what will be the
c. Glycogen resulting sequence?
d. Sorbitol
a. UCUUCAGCGGA
141. Which of the following statements b. UCTUCAGCCGA
iscorrect? c. TCTTCAGCCGA
I. Lactose = Fructose + Galactose d. UCUUCAGCCGA
II. Maltose = Glucose + Galactose
III. Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose
a. I
147. What is the name of the protein
bound to DNA? 1 Fl (fluid ounce) to ml → 30ml
a. Histone
b.Cellulose 1 teaspoon to ml → 5ml
c. Fibrin
d. Guanine 1 tablespoon to ml → 15ml

148. Which of the following contains 1 cup to ml → 240ml

hydrolytic enzymes?
a. Peroxisomes 1 ounce to grams → 28.35grams
b. Lysosomes
c. - Golgi body 1 foot to meters → 0.3048 meters
d. Mitochondrion
1 gram to milligrams → 1000 milligrams
149. Which of the following contains
oxidative enzymes? 1 kilogram to lbs → 2.2lbs
a. Peroxisomes
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c.Rough endoplasmic reticulum Ten "Rights" of Medication
d. Nucleus Administration

150.The small vesicular bodies RIGHT MEDICATION

containing biodegradative enzymes • The medication given was the medication
which decompose foreign substances ordered.
that invade the cell is known as
a.Golgi apparatus RIGHT DOSE
b.Smooth ER • The dose ordered is appropriate for the
c.Contractile vacuoles client.
d. Lysosomes • Give special attention if the calculation
indicates multiple pills/ tablets or a large
151.The nucleus is responsible for quantity of a liquid medication. This can be
a. Protein synthesis an indication that the math calculation may
b.Ribosome synthesis be incorrect.
C.Carbohydrate synthesis •Double-check calculations that appear
d. Spindle formation questionable.
• Know the usual dosage range of the
medication.
• Question a dose outside of the usual
dosage range.
ANSWER KEY:
https://www.studocu.com/ph/document/univ
ersidad-de-zamboanga/anatomy-and-
physiology-with-pathophysiology/nursing- RIGHT TIME
aptitude-test-reviewer/32037617
• Give the medication at the right frequency
and at the time ordered according to agency
policy.
•Medications should be given within the
agency guidelines.
RIGHT ROUTE
• Give the medication by the ordered route.
•Make certain that the route is safe and
appropriate for the client.
RIGHT CLIENT
• Medication is given to the intended client.
• Check the client's identification band with
each administration of a medication.
•Know the agency's name alert procedure
when cients with the same or similar last
names are on the nursing unit.
RIGHT CLIENT EDUCATION
•Explain information about the medication to
the client (e.g. why receiving, what to expect,
any precautions).
RIGHT DOCUMENTATION
• Document medication administration after
giving it, not before.
• If time of administration differs from
prescribed time, note the time on the MAR
(Medication, Administration, Record) and
explain the reason and follow through
activities (e.g.. pharmacy states medication
will be available in 2 hours) in nursing notes.
• If a medication is not given, follow the
agency's policy for documenting the reason
why.
Note:
2am - 10am - 6pm
Doc rounds at 11am.
In the chart: 10am document “loading dose
at 11am”.
If Px is NPO, use IVtt instead of oral route.
RIGHT TO REFUSE
• Adult clients have the right to refuse any
medication
•The nurse's role is to ensure that the client
is fully informed of the potential
consequences of refusal and to
communicate the client’s refusal to the health
care provider
RIGHT ASSESSMENT
• Some medications require specific
assessments prior to administration (e.g..
apical pulse, blood pressure, lab results)
• Medication orders may include specific
parameters for administration (e.g., do not
give if pulse less than 60 or systolic blood
pressure less than 100
RIGHT EVALUATION
• Conduct appropriate follow up (e.g., was
the desired effect achieved or not? Did the
client experience any side effects or adverse
reactions?)
Example:
Furosemide 40 milligrams IVTT Q8
Px hypertensive
→ loop diuretics: treat fluid retention eg.
edema, hypertension
→ Q8: every 8 hours
→ IV: route of administration
→ Check BP first before administering
furosemide; if 90/60 do not administer.
Concept: ↑ salt - ↑ water - ↑ urine - ↑ blood
pressure