FMGE DEC 2019 d.

Retromandibular vein
10. Protraction of neck is due to which of the following
Questions muscle ?
1. Which of the following is the safety muscle of a. Serratus anterior
tongue ? b. Pectoralis major
a. Genioglossus c. Pectoralis minor
b. Hyoglossus d. Lateral pterygoid
c. Palatoglossus 11. Middle meningeal artery is branch of
d. Styloglossus a. Maxillary artery
2. Trigone of bladder is derived from b. Mandibular
a. Distal part of Paramesonephric duct c. Facial artery
b. Distal part of Mesonephric duct d. Ophthalmic artery
c. Ventral part of Mesonephric duct 12. The muscle which is required to open Eustachian
d. Ventral part of Urogenital sinus tube
3. Identify the marked structure a. Tensor veli palatini muscle
b. Salpingo pharengeous
c. Tensor tympani
d. Levator veli palatini
13. The highlighted muscle is supplied by which
nerve ?

a. Anterior superior illac spine

b. Anterior inferior iliac spine
c. Iscial tuberosity
d. Pubic symphysis
4. Which muscle tendon is stretched in patellar a. Radial nerve
tendon reflex ? b. Ulnar nerve
a. Biceps femoris c. Median nerve
b. Quadriceps femoris d. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Addactur magnus 14. Identify the encircled structure
d. Quadratus
5. Celiac vessel is seen at which vertebral level ?
a. T9
b. T10
c. T12
d. L2
6. Highest point of iliac crest is seen at;
a. L3
b. L4
c. S1
d. S2
7. 45 year old policeman comes from duty with
a. Pterion
complain of pain in right leg. On examination,
b. Glabella
pulse in right popliteal fossa was absent and pain
c. Asterion
in right buttock, where as in left side it was
d. Nasion
normal. The block is at which level ?
15. What is the name of marked artery ?
a. Femoral
b. Iliac
c. Aortoiliac
d. Popliteal
8. Lacrimal gland is supplied through
parasympathetic system. It is supplied by which
ganglion ?
a. Ciliary ganglia
b. Otic ganglia
a. Posterior tibialis artery
c. Pterygopalatine
b. Deep Phalangeal artery
d. Submandibular
c. Lateral planter
9. The structure which doesn’t pass through the
d. Medial planter
parotid gland ?
16. Most common tumour of mediastinum ?
a. Facial nerve
a. Thymoma
b. ICA
b. Lymphoma
c. Branch of ECA
c. Neurogenic tumor
 d. Neuroblastic tumor d. Diastolic murmur
17. Embryonic neural tumor arises from 28. Koplik spots are seen in
a. Fibrous astrocytoma a. Mumps
b. Neuroglioma b. Measles
c. Ependymoma c. Rubella
d. Medulloblastoma d. Varicella
18. Which of the following is not a component of SIRS 29. NITI AAYOG Represents
(Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome) ? a. Nutritional Institute for Transforming India
a. Fever >38 degrees or hypothermia <36 b. National Institute for Transforming India
degree c. Newer Initiative Transforming India
b. Tachycardia >90 beats /min d. Nutrition Intake to India
c. Tachypnea>24 breaths/ min 30. On republic day, a camp was organised and
d. Leucocytosis >12 * 10 9 or leukopenia <4 people were screened for Hypertension by
*10 9 checking BP and for diabetes by checking their
19. Which of the following has Autosomal Recessive BMI and Blood sugar level, which level of
inheritance ? prevention is this ?
a. Hereditary spherocytosis a. Primary
b. Sickle cell anaemia b. Primordial
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Secondary
d. VWD d. Tertiary
20. Which of the following is an Autosomal Dominant 31. A person comes with right eye 6/60 and left eye
disease ? 3/60. He shall be categorized into which type of
a. Von willibrand disease blindness ?
b. Wilson’s disease a. Manifest
c. Cystic fibrosis b. Social
d. Friedrichs ataxia c. Economical
21. A patient has MCV <80, MCH <23. Which type of d. No blindness
anaemia shall be classified ? 32. Recycling, tubing and recyclable catheters will be
a. Normocytic hypochromic disposed in which bag according to biomedical
b. Microcytic hypochromic waste. Management ?
c. Hyperchromic macrocytic a. Red
d. Normocytic normochromic b. Blue
22. Which among the following ions is important in c. Yellow
cell injury ? d. White
a. Calcium 33. Main focus of UNICEF is on
b. Sodium a. Child health
c. Potassium b. Nutritional health
d. Chloride c. Mental health
23. Which type of anaemia is seen in vitamin B12 d. Social health
deficiency ? 34. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis is a rare and
a. Microcytic anemia, hypochromicanemia dangerous complication of
b. normocytic anemia a. Measles
c. Microcytic anemia, hypochromic anemia b. Mumps
d. Macrocytic, Hyperchromic anemia c. Rubella
24. Fertilized egg cells are d. Varicella
a. Totipotent 35. Spermicidal cream which is used in
b. Pluripotent contraceptives
c. Multipotent a. Gossypol
d. None of above b. Nonoxynol-9
25. 16 year old girl with short height, amenorrhea c. Centchroman
with widely spaced nipple. karyotyping is d. Clomiphene
a. 45 X0 36. Kyoto Protocol is for
b. 46 XO a. Water sanitization
c. 47 XXX b. Food and nutrition
d. 46XY c. To reduce greenhouse gas emission
26. Which type of necrosis is seen in brain ? d. Water chlorination
a. Coagulative 37. Sustainable Development Goals is Designed by
b. Liquefactive a. UNICEF
c. Fat b. United Nations
d. Fibrinoid c. WHO
27. Following heart sound is almost always d. Government of India
pathological 38. Which of the following is the chemoprophylaxis of
a. Loud S1 choice in a person who is on a journey to endemic
b. Loud S2 malarial region ?
c. Systolic murmur a. Chloroquine
 b. Quinine d. Lyssa virus
c. Lumefantrine 48. n95 mask is used for
d. Pyrimethamine a. Respiratory droplets
39. Worms, bacteria and bugs attached in clothing of b. Aerosol
a person. This is c. In general
a. Infection 49. Which of the following is not a measure of
b. Infestation dispersion ?
c. Contamination a. Mean
d. Contagion b. Range
40. Target couple is c. Variance
a. Couple with 3 children d. Standard error
b. Couple using contraception 50. Anthracosis is caused by
c. Currently married couple where the wife a. Silica
is in reproductive age (15-49 year) b. Asbestos
d. Couple that is eligible for practicing c. Coal dust
family planning d. Sugar cane waste
41. Yellow fever vaccine is valid for 51. Breast feeding should be continued for minimum
a. Life long how many months ?
b. 10 years a. 6 months
c. 5 years b. 2 months
d. 20 years c. 12 month
42. In Africa, vaccination was given in an endemic d. 5 months
outburst area for a specific disease but due to 52. Components of Kuppuswamy scale –
shortage of vaccines, mass chemoprophylaxis a. Housing, Livestock, land
treatment was given to people who were not b. Income, Occupation, Education
diseased. Which type of prevention is this ? c. Income, Housing, Education
a. Specific protection d. Income, Livestock, Housing
b. Health promotion 53. Mode of transmission to bacteria through
c. Early diagnosis and treatment bacteriophage is by ?
d. Rehabilitation a. Transformation
43. Patients are categorised on the basis of chances of b. Transduction
survival in Disaster management c. Translation
a. Triage d. Conjugation
b. Tagging 54. Identify the parasite as shown in photo
c. Mitigation
d. Surge capacity
44. Vision 2020 - which was added recently in India ?
a. Cataract
b. Childhood blindness
c. Glaucoma
d. Refractive errors and low vision
45. Diseases spread by the shown vector is all except a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Schistosoma hematobium
55. A patient presents with following findings. what
will be the media used to diagnose this condition ?

a. Kala azar
b. Oriental sore
c. Chagas disease
d. Cutaneous leishmania a. Loffler’s serum slope
46. 100% mortality disease, incidence and prevalence b. Lownstein Jhonson
relationship will be c. Karry blair
a. P = 1 d. Chocolate agar
b. P > 1 56. Identify the parasite as shown in this photo
c. P < 1
d. No relationship
47. SARS is caused by novel variant of
a. Pox virus
b. Toga virus
c. Coronavirus
 d. Halophilic
65. NIH is used for
a. Pinworm
b. Whip worm
c. Round worm
66. The causative agent for duodenal ulcer is
a. Shigella
b. E.Coli
c. H. Pylori
a. Brugia malayi d. Lactobacilli
b. Wucheria bancrofti 67. Identify the microorganism
c. Tinea solium
d. Tinea saginatum
57. Most sensitive test for microfilariae
a. DEC challenge test
b. Immunofluroscence test
c. Thick films
d. Membrane filter concentration technique
58. What is the causative agent for malignant otitis
externa ?
a. Pseudomonas
b. Staph aureus
c. Streptococcus a. Influenza virus
d. Influenza b. Corona virus
59. Smallest cestode among the following c. Rheo virus
a. H.nana d. Rabies virus
b. Schistosoma 68. Which of the following is cardio protective ?
c. T.saginata a. HDL
d. T.solium b. LDL
60. Which antibody is seen in recent infection ? c. VLDL
a. IgM d. CHYLOMICRON
b. IgG 69. Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by ?
c. IgE a. Glucagon
d. IgD b. Insulin
61. A patient who was recently got dentature fixed, c. Cholecystokinin
found with oral thrush. It bleeds on scraping. d. 5 alpha hydroxylase synthase
Causative agent for this condition 70. Which structure of Protein is not denatured after
heating upto 100 degree ?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary
71. Which of the following is present in skeletal
muscle ?
a. GLUT 4
b. GLUT 5
a. Diphtheria c. GLUT 7
b. Candida d. GLUT 2
c. Strep Mutans 72. Synovial fluid contains –
d. Staph Aureus a. Hyaluronic acid
62. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by all except – b. Chondrontoin sulphate
a. Gardenerella c. Keratan sulphate
b. Mobilincus d. Dermatan sulphate
c. Proteus 73. Melanin is derived from which amino acid ?
d. Coccobaccillus a. Tyrosine
63. Kala azar cannot occur at an altitude of b. Tryptophan
a. 400 meters c. Phenylalanin
b. 500 meters d. Alanine
c. 600 meters 74. The bases which are present in human DNA ?
d. 200 meters a. adenine-guanine-thiamine- uracil
64. A bacterium which can sustain >100 degree b. adenine-guanine- cytosine-uracil
comes is classified as c. adenine- guanine-cytosine-thiamine
a. Thermophilic 75. Keshan’s disease is due to deficiency of
b. Mesophilic a. Selenium
c. Cycrophilic b. Zinc
 c. Copper bilateral cornual block on hysterography. What is
d. Iron the next step ?
76. Type IV complex of ETC is inhibited by a. IVF
a. Oligomycin b. Tuboplasty
b. Antimycin c. Laproscopy and hysteroscopy
c. Cyanide d. USG
d. CO2 89. Amsel criteria is used for
77. Zinc is cofactor of which enzyme ? a. Gardenella vaginosis
a. Carbonic anhydrase b. Candidiasis
b. Lysyl oxidase c. Trichomoniasis
c. Carboxylase d. Chlymadia infection
d. Kinase 90. Testosterone secreted by
78. Allopurinol inhibits which enzyme ? a. Leydig cell
a. Xanthine oxidase b. Sertoli cell
b. Kinase c. Theca lutein
c. Lysyl oxidase d. Granulosa cell
79. 1g of protein yields how much energy ? 91. After a normal delivery in a 27-year-old female,
a. 1 Kcal placenta is still attached with uterus. Most
b. 4 Kcal common complication which can occur due to
c. 4 cal forceful traction of cord ?
d. 1 cal a. Haemorrhage
80. Ammonia formed in brain, is converted into b. Uterine inversion
a. Glutamine c. Uterine rupture
b. Glycine d. Placenta retraction
c. Cyteine 92. A patient with 37 weeks of gestation, came to
d. Urea hospital without antenatal check-up and presented
81. Uses of dietary fibres with onset of labour. On examination, the mother
a. Reduces intestinal transit time is hep B positive, what management should be
b. No role in metabolism given to neonate ?
c. Causes constipation a. Hep b vaccine only
d. Increases blood glucose level b. Hep B vaccine+ IG
82. Most sensitive screening test for vitamin A c. First IG then HEP B vaccine after 1 month
deficiency d. Only IG
a. Retinol<10 93. A 32-year lady with uterine foetal death after
b. Beta carotene <10 normal vaginal delivery continues passing of
c. Bitot spot urine from vagina. What is the most probable
d. Night blindness diagnosis ?
83. Which enzyme level is tested in thiamine a. Bladder rupture
deficiency ? b. Vesicovaginal fistula
a. PDH c. Urge incontinence
b. Pyruvate kinase d. Stress incontinence
c. Transketolase 94. A 16 years old girl with acute bleeding per
d. Kinase vaginal was presented to the clinic. What is the
84. In aerobic condition, next level of amino acids immediate management ?
which are seen at the level of pyruvate ? a. Uterine ablation
a. Alanine and aspartate b. Uterine artery block
b. Alanine and Glycine c. Progesterone
c. Arginine and histidine d. Hysteroscopy examination
d. Leucine and isoleucine 95. A 67 years old female with HTN and diabetes
85. Most abundant amino acids found in collagen comes with heavy bleeding per vaginal. What is
a. Glycine the next management ?
b. Proline a. Uterine ablation
c. Hydroxyprolline b. Uterine artery block
d. Lysine c. Hysterectomy
86. Which is a specific test for uric acid for gout d. Laser
a. Synovial uric acid 96. A lady with amenorrhea and galactorrhea
b. Plasma uric acid a. Pituitary adenoma
c. Uric acid in urine b. Adrenal hyperplasia
d. Serum uric acid c. 7 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
87. HCG is secreted by ? d. none of above
a. Syncytiotrophoblast 97. A 35 years old with 36 week pregnancy comes
b. Yolk sac with history of 5 convulsions at home. Diagnosis
c. Cytotrophoblast made by doctor is eclampsia. Next Management
d. Placenta a. Only Labetalol
88. Lady presents with infertility and diagnosed with b. Only MgSO4
 c. MgSO4 + Labetalol a. 60 degrees at the midline
d. Clonidine b. 30
98. A 34 years old lady with 4 children, after 5th c. 45
normal vaginal delivery, excessive bleeding after d. 15
placenta removal is due to 108. Investigation of choice for endometriosis
a. Estrogen a. CT
b. Progesterone b. MRI
c. FSH and LH c. USG
d. PPH d. Laproscopy
99. 32 years old lady with twin pregnancy dichorionic 109. A multigravida woman in labour room, after
diamniotic, first baby breech presentation and delivery and placenta removal, uncontrolled
second baby cephalic presentation. What is the bleeding was seen. What is the most common
management ? cause of PPH in this woman ?
a. C – Section a. Atonic
b. Assisted breech b. Traumatic PPH
c. Instrumental delivery c. Clotting factor deficiency
d. Normal vaginal delivery 110. What is the dose of mifepristone in emergency
100. A lady with 36-week pregnancy with previous contraception ?
C section comes with low BP, tachycardia and on a. 600 mg
USG fluid present in peritoneum. What is b. 200 mg
diagnosis and next management c. 400 mg
a. Uterine scar rupture with Laparotomy d. 100 mg
b. Laparoscopy 111. Double decidual sign is seen in
c. Ectopic pregnancy and abortion a. Uterine gestational sac
101. 32 years old lady presented with pregnancy, b. Pseudo gestational sac
mild bleeding and pain. On examination uterus is c. Threatened Abortion
tender and fetal heart sound is absent. What is 112. Most common organism causing pelvic
diagnosis ? inflammatory diseases
a. Abruptio placenta a. Nesseria gonorrhoea
b. Fetal distress b. GardenellaVaginalis
c. Ectopic pregnancy c. Bacteroids
d. Placenta Previa d. Chalamydia
102. A lady with 12-week pregnancy with bleeding 113. Late rupture of tubal pregnancy is seen in
and on examination vagina is normal, Internal OS a. Interstitium
is closed and livebirth sign on USG and fundal b. Isthmus
height is 13 weeks. Diagnosis; c. Ampula
a. Threatened abortion d. Fimbriae
b. Complete abortion 114. A woman post coitus after 96 hours, best
c. Incomplete abortion contraceptive of choice is
d. Inevitable abortion a. OCP
103. A newly married couple, the woman is having b. IUCD
irregular menstruation. What is the contraceptive c. Mifepristone
of choice ? d. Progesterone only pills
a. Barrier method 115. Delusion is
b. OCP a. Disorder of thinking
c. Calendar method b. Disorder of memory
d. Progesterone only pills c. Disorder of perception
104. The contraceptive which is contraindicated in d. Disorder of affect
DVT 116. 25-year-old male had RTA after that he is
a. OCP fearful of driving vehicle and going to that place
b. Barrier method since 6 weeks and he is having flashbacks of
c. Billing’s method incidents and he is not going for his office also.
105. Absolute contraindication of IUCD What is diagnosis ?
a. Acute PID a. Post-traumatic stress disorder
b. PCOD b. Acute stress
c. Breast cancer c. Depression
106. A female came with 36 weeks of gestation, d. Acute panic disorder
gravid 2 and parity 1, with pain and clinical 117. 20 year old female scared of elevator since
findings were hematuria, fetal HR was not birth. She prefers stairs instead elevator.
detected. What is the diagnosis and treatment ? Diagnosis
a. Placenta previa and Suction and a. Agoraphobia
evacuation b. Specific phobia
b. Abruption placenta and CS c. Social phobia
c. Obstructed labour and CS d. Acrophobia
107. Angle of cut in episiotomy 118. A female was brought to psychiatry after 5
 weeks of delivery she appeared to fearfulness
irritability and getting suicidal thoughts. Diagnosis
is
a. Post-partum blues
b. Post partum depression
c. Post partum psychosis
d. Schizophrenia
119. A person is unable to find pleasure in doing
old activities, which he used to enjoy earlier.
Mostly he is suffering from
a. Alexythmia c. Post protozoal
b. Depression d. Post tuberculoid
c. Anhedonia 127. Chronic granulomatous inflammation in upper
d. Derailment lid (painless swelling)
120. A clinician asked the patient “how is your a. Internal hordeolum
mood”, patient replied “ up and down”, what b. External hordeolum
could be the diagnosis ? c. Chalazion
a. Neologism d. Trachoma
b. Tangentiality 128. In myopia image is formed at
c. Clanging a. Anterior to retina
d. Derailment b. Posterior to retina
121. Identify the case c. On retina
d. None
129. 20-year-old male complaints of repeatedly
changes in glasses, may result into
a. Keratoconus
b. Pathological myopia
c. Glaucoma
d. Cataract
a. Anterior uveitis 130. Find out the clinical condition as shown in
b. Glaucoma photo
c. Optic Neuritis
d. Keratoconus a. Keratoconus
122. Keratometer is used to assess b. Limbus
a. Curvature of cornea c. Keratomalacia
b. Diameter of cornea d. None
c. Thickness of cornea 131. Visual loss due to cerebral degeneration is
d. Curvature of lens related to which artery ?
123. Internal hordeolum is due to inflammation of - a. Posterior cerebral artery
a. Zeis gland b. Middle cerebral artery
b. Meibomian glands c. Internal carotid artery
c. Mohl gland d. Inferior cerebral artery
d. Lacrimal gland 132. Appropriate treatment for the mild congenital
124. Identify the clinical condition ptosis
a. LPS Resection
b. Antibiotics and hot compression
c. Tarsal fracture
d. Wedge resection of conjunctiva
133. A man with convergent squint in one eye
vision is 6/60 and another eye no squint with
vision 6/60. Next step
a. MRI
b. Squint surgery
a. Herpes simplex keratitis
c. Botulinum toxin
b. Bacterial keratitis
d. Glasses
c. Mycolic keratitis
134. Vision 2020, which disease has added recently
d. Vernal keratoconjuctivitis
for India ?
125. Fleischers ring is seen in
a. Cataract
a. Keratoconus
b. Childhood blindness
b. Keratomalacia
c. Glaucoma
c. Keratoglobus
d. Refractive errors and low vision
d. Trachoma
135. Diabetic patient sudden loss of vision, 6/60
126. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis seen due to
vision, fundus picture is given here. What is the
a. Post fungal infection
diagnosis ?
b. Allergic
 145. Which of the following is a carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor ?
a. Acetazolamide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Furosemide
d. Mannitol
146. Which of the following is the
chemoprophylaxis of choice in a person who is on
a. CRVO a journey to endemic malarial region ?
b. CRAO a. Chloroquine
c. Haemorrhage b. Quinine
d. Hypertensive retinopathy c. Lumefantrine
136. Advantage of contact lens over normal glasses d. Pyrimethamine
a. Prismatic effect will less 147. All of the following drugs are used for
b. Prevention from UV rays prophylaxis of migraine except
c. Decrease inflammation a. Propranolol
d. Decrease infection b. Imipramine
137. Which of the following drug causes postural c. Flutamide
hypotension commonly ? d. Flunarizine
a. ACE inhibitor 148. Antidote for opioid poisoning
b. Beta blocker a. Naloxone
c. Alpha blocker b. Pethidine
d. Angiotensin receptor blockers c. Flumazenil
138. Mechanism of action of allopurinol is d. Physostigmine
a. Xanthine oxidase inhibition 149. Monoclonal antibody used in cancer is
b. Recombinant uricase a. Rituximab
c. Increase uric acid excretion b. Cisplatin
d. Decrease chemotaxis c. 5-fluorouracil
139. Which of the following drugs follow zero order d. Methotrexate
kinetics ? 150. A patient after valve replacement will require
a. Phenytoin follow up treatment with
b. Aspirin a. Warfarin
c. Morphine b. ACE inhibitors
d. Propranolol c. Beta blockers
140. Which of the following is an oral direct d. Thiazides
thrombin inhibitor ? 151. Find therapeutic index of drug from the
a. Dabigatran information given below in the graph
b. Rivaroxaban
c. Warfarin
d. Lepirudin
141. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for
a. Phenytoin
b. Heparin
c. Aspirin
d. Metformin
142. A lady has taken medication for ameiobiasis a. 1
infection. She drank alcohol in a party. She has b. 2
nausea vomiting and dizziness. Which anti c. 4
amoebic drug could have lead to interaction with d. 8 (TI = LD50/ED50)
alcohol to produce these symptoms? 152. All of the following can result in
a. Metronidazole gynaecomastia except
b. Nitazoxanamide a. Liver failure
c. Paromomycin b. Spironolactone
d. Diloxanide c. Digoxin
143. Most potent opioid is d. Aromatase inhibitors
a. Fentanyl 153. Hydrochlorothiazide works by inhibiting
b. Morphine a. Na+ CI pump in late DCT
c. Pentazocine b. Na+ CI pump in early DCT
d. Pethidine c. Na+ K+ 2CT pump in descending limb of
144. Most cardiotoxic anti-cancer drug among the loop of henle
following d. Na+K+2CT pump in ascending limb of
a. Anthracyclines loop of henle
b. Cyclophosphamide 154. The drug of choice for hyperthyroidism in
c. Lmatinib third trimester of pregnancy is
d. Tamoxifen a. Carbimazole
 b. Prophylthyouracil and mucosa, bitter almond smell from breath and
c. Sodium iodide frothy discharge. Cause of death in this patient
d. Radioactive iodine a. Cyanide poisoning
155. Least teratogenic antiepileptic drug in b. CO poisoning
pregnancy is c. H2S poisoning
a. Valproate d. Dhatura poisoning
b. Phenytoin 166. Entry wound kind of depression will be seen
c. Carbamazepine in
d. Levetiracetam a. Inversion
156. Mechanism of action of exenatide in diabetes b. Eversion
mellitus is c. Pond’s fracture
a. It is analogue of GLP released from gut d. Depression
and increase glucose dependant insulin 167. A lady comes to OPD after fall from scooty.
secretion Her vitals are stable. She is having continuous,
b. It is DPP-4 inhibitor and result in clear watery discharge from nose after 2 days.
decreased breakdown of GLP These are most likely the feature of
c. It inhibits SGLT-2 and cause glucosuria a. CSF rhinorrhoea
d. It is amylin analogue and decrease b. Acute respiratory infection
glucagon c. Middle cranial fossa fracture
157. Which anti-asthma drug is avoided with d. Rhinitis
erythromycin ? 168. Office headache is due to inflammation of
a. Salbutamol which sinus ?
b. Ipratropium a. Frontal
c. Theophylline b. Maxillary
d. Terbutaline c. Ethmoidal
158. McNaughton’s rule d. Sphenoid
a. IPC 82 169. Adam’s apple in Male is due to
b. IPC 84 a. Thyroid cartilage
c. IPC 87 b. Cricoid cartilage
d. IPC 85 c. Hyoid cartilage
159. A farmer with pinpoint pupils, increased d. Epiglottis cartilage
secretions and urination. What is the most likely 170. Most prominent and larger air cell of
diagnosis ? ethmoidal sinus ?
a. Organophosphate poisoning a. Agger nasi cell
b. Opioid poisoning b. Haller cell
c. Alcohol poisoning c. Onodi cell
d. Atropine poisoning d. Bulla ethmoidalis
160. Posthumous birth 171. Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal
a. Child born after death of father carcinoma
b. After death of mother during delivery a. Neck lymph node
c. After death of both parents b. Blockage of nose
d. None c. Loss of smell
161. In autopsy stomach is removed with small d. Blood tinged discharge
intestine then which organ is removed with liver ? 172. EBV is associated with
a. Kidney a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Lungs b. Esophageal cancer
c. Brain c. Gastric cancer
d. Spleen 173. All of the following is true about meniere’s
162. Poisoning caused by bullet retained in body is disease except
a. Lead a. Idiopathic
b. Phosphorus b. Low frequency hear loss
c. Nitro cellulose c. Increase in endolymph
d. Iron d. Destroying the cochlea is mandatory
163. After injury hair bulbs are seen crushed under 174. Investigation used for CSF rhinorrhoea are all
microscopy. Probable type of wound except
a. Abrasion a. CT cisternogram
b. Laceration b. Skull X-ray
c. Stab injury c. Beta2 transferrin
d. None d. Nasal endoscopy
164. Presence of cut injuries in scrotum is 175. Treatment of choice in nasopharyngeal
suggestive of carcinoma
a. Suicidal a. Chemotherapy
b. Accidental b. Radiotherapy
c. Homicidal c. Chemo given with radiation
165. A patient was found to have pink coloured skin d. Surgery
176. A 6-year-old boy came to hospital with of dermis & subcutaneous tissue came to
complaints of sore throat and difficulty in emergency department. Burns will be classified as
swallowing, his left tonsils were pushed medially. a. 1st degree
what will be the diagnosis ? b. 2nd degree superficial
a. Peritonsillar abscess c. 2nd degree deep
b. Retropharyngeal abscess d. 3rd degree burn
c. Ludwig’s angina 182. Identify the abnormal condition given below
d. Parapharyngeal abscess
177. A young boy came to OPD with the complaints
of difficulty in breathing. On examination,
bilateral polyps were found. On aspiration,
bleeding was seen. What will be the initial
management ?
a. I and D
b. Antihistaminic a. Testicular torsion
c. Conservative b. Hydrocele
d. Septoplasty c. Varicocele
178. Identify condition in the shown image ? d. Testicular atrophy
183. 20 yr old female diagnosed previously with
adenocarcinoma stomach and on examination
following is seen

a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. HSV
179. Exclamation mark hair pattern is seen in

a. Sister marry joseph nodule

b. Ulcer
c. Infected umbilical hernia
d. Irisch node
184. Rodent ulcer is
a. Basal cell cancer
b. Squamous cell ca
c. Rhinophyma
d. Adenocarcinoma
185. Most common oral cancer
a. Squamous cell ca
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Transition cell ca
d. Mucoepidermoid
a. Alopecia areata 186. Distal ileum was removed in a 20-year-old
b. Androgenic alopecia girl. Which absorption deficient will be seen ?
c. Anagen influvvum a. Iron
180. What is the name of this appearance which is b. Bile salts
seen in pellagra ? c. Folic acid
d. Copper
187. 62 year old female has kidney stone and
treated with PCNL. After 2 days she again comes
to OPD with chills and fever. What is the
complication ?
a. Bacterial sepsis
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Splenic injury
d. Ureteric stricture
188. Cellulitis is
a. Burn a. Nonsuppurative and noninvasive
b. Castle neck appearance b. Suppurative and noninvasive
c. Shawl sign c. Nonsuppurative and invasive
d. Gottron's papule d. Suppurative and invasive
181. A lady with 50% TBSA burn with involvement 189. A child of 6 months was presented with
following presentation. What is the management
 protocol ?

a. Indication of surgery if not resolve by 2 a. Diabetic foot

years b. Burn
b. Surgery after 5 years c. Necrotizing Fasciitis
c. Immediate surgery 197. A man was presented to emergency
d. Hernioplasty department with head injury after an accident with
190. Identify the condition as shown in image vehicle. Investigation of choice should be
a. CECT
b. MRI
c. NCCT
d. MRI
198. ALVARADO score 2 defines:
a. Temperature
b. Leukocytosis
c. Tenderness in left iliac fossa
a. Port wine stain d. Migratory pain
b. Strawberry nevus 199. A patient of Varicose veins came to hospital;
c. Erythema multiforme intern was on duty. Which test he shall perform to
d. Exanthem subitem rule out the DVT ?
191. 28 year old alcoholic patient walks to hospital a. Brodie Trendelenberg test
with the complaints of binge vomiting, chest pain, b. Perthe’s test
fever and pneumoperitoneum. The most probable c. Thomas test
condition d. Ober test
a. Boerrhave syndrome 200. Prostatic cancer mostly seen in
b. Tension pneumo thorax a. Posterior
c. PUD perforation b. Lateral
d. Mallory weis tear c. Medial
192. Abdominal pain, fever and jaundice. This triad d. Anterior
is known as 201. Early investigation of choice for genital TB
a. Charcot’s triad a. Endometrial ablation
b. Saint’s triad b. Urine sample with giemsa staining
c. Virchow triad c. Early morning urine sample
d. Renault’s triad d. Incision and curettage
193. 40 years old patient with femur fracture with 202. True about chron’s disease except
pulmonary infiltration and respiratory distress a. Recurrence is more common
a. Fat embolism b. Rectum is involved
b. Pulmonary embolism c. Fissures are formed
c. Air embolism d. Transmural
d. Obstruction 203. Patient underwent gastrectomy, after eating
194. Which patient has better prognosis in breast within 20 minutes sweating, diarrhoea, what could
cancer ? be the cause ?
a. Luminal A a. Hyperglycemia
b. Luminal B b. Early dumping syndrome
c. Patient who has triple test negative c. Late dumping syndrome
d. Patient who has triple test positive d. Hypoglycemia
195. 32-year man presented with fever and pain in 204. In an accident case, after the arrival of medical
upper right hypochondrium after food intake. team, all should be done in early management
Investigation of choice except
a. CECT a. Stabilization of cervical vertebrae
b. Ultrasound b. Check BP
c. MRI c. Check Respiration
d. HRCT d. Glasgow coma scale
196. Long term diabetic PATEINT with blisters 205. Gynecomastia is seen in all except
walked barefoot few miles on hot sand. He a. Testicular failure
presented with this clinical condition. What is the b. Liver failure
most probable diagnosis ? c. Kidney failure
d. Cimetidine
206. Patients are categorized on the basis of
chances of survival in disaster management is
 a. Triage
b. Mitigation
c. Tagging
d. Surge capacity
207. Risk factors of oesophageal carcinoma are all
except
a. GERD
b. Betel chewing a. IgA nephropathy
c. Oxalate food b. HSP
d. Spicy food c. Buerger’s disease
208. Left kidney transplantation will be placed in d. PSGN
which place? 217. Patient presents with diarrhoea, abdominal
a. Iliac fossa pain and finding on upper GI endoscopy is shown
b. Kidney fossa in the photo. What is the pathology ?
c. Retroperitoneal space
209. For severe malnutrition MAC will be less than
–
a. 14.5
b. 13.5
c. 12.5
d. 11.5
210. In marasmus, mid arm muscle circumference
is less than a. Antigliadin antibody
a. 15 b. Antimitochondrial antibody
b. 17 c. Anticentromere antibody
c. 19 d. Antitopoisomerase antibody
d. 21 218. Almost odourless Stool seen i n-
211. 3 months old baby with fever and respiratory a. Upper GI bleeding
rate 60, irritable, and well feed, no stridor, no b. Cholera stool
chest indrawing, no convulsions. Diagnosis - c. Ameobiasis
a. Pneumonia d. Cholestatis stool
b. Severe pneumonia 219. Hyperkalemia means more than
c. Very sever pneumonia a. 4.5 meq/l
d. No Pneumonia b. 5.5 meq/l
212. Number of primary teeth; c. 7.5 meq/l
a. 20 d. 10.5 meq/l
b. 24 220. Female presents with galactorrhea and
c. 16 amenorrhea and diagnosed with Pituitary
d. 32 adenoma and now complains of loss of vision
213. All of the following are types of Primary which will be -
headache except a. Bitemporal hemianopia
a. Migraine b. Binasal hemianopia
b. Cluster c. Homonymoius hemianopia
c. Tension d. Superior temporal quadrantopia
d. Temporal arteritis 221. Women presented with on and off headache.
214. Which is associated with alcohol related On lateral x-ray suprasellar calcifications are seen
cardiomyopathy and she has heteronymous hemianopia. Diagnosis
a. Dilated -
b. Restrictive a. Craniopharyngioma
c. Hypertrophic b. Pituitary macroadenoma
d. None c. Astrocytoma
215. 40-year-old male presents with fever and d. None
abdominal pain and diagnosed with HIV and TB. 222. Which is not a contraindication for OPV ?
How will you give treatment ? a. Leukaemia
a. ATT and AIDS treatment simultaneously b. Diarrhoea
b. First ATT and then ART c. Malignancy
c. ATT only d. First ART and then ATT d. Immunocompromised
216. Patient with abdominal pain, IgA deposition, 223. Unconscious patient, most common cause of
haematuria and purpura over leg as given in respiratory obstruction
image. Diagnosis; a. Tongue fall
b. Head injury
c. Respiratory center block
d. Hyoid fracture
224. Hypoxic hypoxia seen in
a. CO poisoning
 b. HCN poisoning 235. Lining of ventricles;
c. Ischemia a. Ependymal cells
d. AV shunt b. Oligodendrocytes
225. A 32 years lady present with shoulder tip pain c. Schwann cells
and diagnosis is pan coast tumour and presents d. Astrocytes
with meiosis. Diagnosis - 236. A patient is having continuous tremors and he
a. Horner syndrome has tendency to fall. Lesion is most commonly
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome seen in
c. Aberrant right subclavian artery a. Substantia nigra
d. Upper trunk of brachial plexus injury b. Globus pallidus
226. An 85 year old patient was brought to the ER, c. Caudate
BP : 180/100, right hemiparasis was seen. What is d. Putamen
the next best step in management ? 237. Which type of gout is seen in a patient who is
a. Reduce BP on treatment of CML ?
b. NCCT a. Secondary gout
c. MRI b. Pseudogout
d. Aspirin 300mg and anticoagulants c. Acute gout
227. Central obesity is seen in d. Primary gout
a. Cushing’s disease 238. Vasopressin works on the principle of
b. Crohn’s disease a. Hyposmolality
c. Conns disease b. Hyperosmolality
d. Celiac disease c. Hypovolemia
228. Earliest finding in the diagnosis of diabetic d. Hypervolemia
nephropathy 239. Which is not a component of Brown Sequard
a. Microalbuminuria syndrome ?
b. Exudates a. C/L pain
c. Hematuria b. C/L temperature
d. Macroalbuminuria c. C/L loss of proprioception
229. Reversible dementia seen in d. I/L loss of fine touch
a. Alzheimer’s disease 240. 42 years old male complained of tachypnea,
b. Hypothyroidism RR >32, with pulmonary HTN, BP was normal
c. Subacute demyelination of spinal cord 130/90, JVP was raised, what is the diagnosis ?
d. Pick’s disease a. Esophageal rupture
230. All are included in celiac sprue diet except: b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
a. Wheat c. Aortic dissection and rupture
b. Barley d. Tension pneumothorax
c. Rye 241. Raised JVP and not fall back of JVP is a feature
d. Quinoa of
231. All of the following are causes of a. Atrial fibrillation
hypercalcemia except b. Atrial flutter
a. Hypervitaminosis of vit D c. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Hypepararthyroidism d. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Thiazides 242. 20 year old male came to clinic and following
d. Acute pancreatitis findings were seen, what will be the diagnosis ?
232. Lady exposed to cold, extremities turn to blue
associated with which antibody
a. Anti scl 70
b. ANA
c. Anti ssb
d. Anti ssa
a. AML
233. In an experiment, muscle spindle of frog was
b. ALL
cut. What is true ?
c. CML
a. Both voluntary movement and stretch
d. CLL
reflex is present
243. What is the sequence of jaw thrust method ?
b. Only voluntary movement is lost and
a. Head tilt, chin lift, jaw thrust
stretch reflex is present
b. chin lift, head tilt, jaw thrust
c. Both voluntary and stretch movements are
c. jaw thrust, chin lift, head lift
lost
d. head lift, jaw thrust, chin lift
d. Only voluntary movement is present and
244. What is the surgeon performing here ?
stretch reflex is lost
234. PR interval in ECG means
a. Reflects conduction through AV node
b. Ventricular Depolarisation
c. Ventricular Repolarisation
d. Atrial repolarization
 a. BP measurement on dorsalis pedis
b. Nerve conduction a. Radial
c. Muscle tone b. Ulnar
d. none c. Median
245. Endotracheal tube in the oesophagus is best d. Axillary
assessed by 250. Post menopausal women, fell down in
a. CO2 Exhalation washroom. What is the most common fracture she
b. Chest wall movement may suffer ?
c. Auscultation
d. Chest tube passes through vocal cords
246. Identify the condition

a. Colles fracture
b. Smith fracture
c. Monteggia fracture
a. Osteosarcoma
d. Galeazzi fracture
b. Ewings sarcoma
251. Football player with knee injury diagnosed as
c. Osteoid osteoma
medial collateral ligament injury. which structure
d. Osteochondroma
is most commonly associated with this type of
247. What is the diagnosis of the given image ?
injury ?
a. Anterior cruciate ligament
b. Medial meniscus
c. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
d. Lateral lemniscus
252. Avascular necrosis of femur head is due to
which of the following artery ?
a. Medial circumflex femoral artery
b. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
a. Extradural haemorrhage
c. Obturator artery
b. Subdural haemorrhage
d. Profunda femoris artery
c. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
253. The shown apparatus is used for
d. Intracerebral haemorrhage
248. PA view of chest X-ray is given here. What is
a. Ankle knee stabilizer
the diagnosis ?
b. Patella tendon bearing brace
c. Thomas splint

254. Initial finding seen in

knee TB
a. Right Pneumothorax with right tracheal a. Reduction of joint space
shift b. Increase in joint space
b. Right Pneumothorax with left tracheal shift c. Degeneration of cartilage
c. Left Pneumothorax with left tracheal shift
d. Left Pneumothorax with right tracheal shift
249. A boy was riding bicycle, he fell down
forward and injury to shoulder was seen, which
nerve injury will be seen in the condition as given
in X-ray ?
Answers
1. A 65. C 128. A 192. A
2. B 66. C 129. A 193. A
3. A 67. A 130. A 194. A
4. B 68. A 131. A 195. B
5. C 69. B 132. A 196. C
6. B 70. A 133. B 197. C
7. B 71. A 134. C 198. B
8. C 72. A 135. A 199. A
9. B 73. A 136. A 200. A
10. D 74. C 137. C 201. A
11. A 75. A 138. A 202. B
12. A 76. C 139. A 203. B
13. D 77. A 140. A 204. B
14. A 78. A 141. A 205. A
15. A 79. B 142. A 206. A
16. C 80. A 143. A 207. C
17. D 81. A 144. A 208. A
18. D 82. A 145. A 209. D
19. B 83. C 146. A 210. A
20. A 84. B 147. C 211. A
21. B 85. A 148. A 212. A
22. A 86. A 149. A 213. D
23. D 87. A 150. A 214. A
24. A 88. C 151. C 215. B
25. A 89. A 152. D 216. B
26. B 90. A 153. B 217. A
27. D 91. B 154. A 218. B
28. B 92. A 155. D 219. B
29. B 93. B 156. A 220. A
30. C 94. C 157. C 221. A
31. C 95. A 158. B 222. B
32. A 96. A 159. A 223. A
33. A 97. C 160. A 224. D
34. B 98. D 161. B 225. A
35. A 99. A 162. A 226. B
36. C 100. A 163. B 227. A
37. B 101. A 164. C 228. A
38. A 102. A 165. A 229. B
39. C 103. B 166. A 230. D
40. D 104. A 167. A 231. D
41. A 105. A 168. A 232. A
42. A 106. C 169. A 233. D
43. A 107. A 170. D 234. A
44. C 108. D 171. A 235. A
45. C 109. A 172. A 236. A
46. C 110. A 173. D 237. A
47. C 111. A 174. D 238. B
48. A 112. D 175. B 239. C
49. A 113. A 176. D 240. B
50. C 114. B 177. B 241. A
51. A 115. A 178. A 242. A
52. B 116. A 179. A 243. A
53. B 117. A 180. B 244. A
54. C 118. B 181. D 245. A
55. A 119. C 182. A 246. A
56. B 120. B 183. A 247. A
57. D 121. A 184. A 248. B
58. A 122. A 185. A 249. D
59. A 123. B 186. B 250. A
60. A 124. A 187. A 251. B
61. B 125. A 188. D 252. A
62. C 126. B 189. B 253. B
63. C 127. C 190. A 254. B
64. A 191. C