1.

The term used to describe the equipment and software elements that allow us to access,
retrieve, store, organize, manipulate and present information by electronic means
A. Information technology
B. Communication technology
C. Radio and TV networks.
D. Computer-integrated manufacturing.
E. Robotics technologies.

2. The term used to describe equipment, infrastructure and software through which
information can be received and accessed
A. Communication technology
B. Information technology
C. Radio and TV networks.
D. Computer-integrated manufacturing.
E. Robotics technologies.

3. This concept involves transfer and use of all kinds of information. ICT is the foundation
of economy and a driving force of social changes in the 21st century
A. Information and Communication Technology.
B. Information technology
C. Communication technology
D. Radio and TV networks.
E. Robotics technologies.

4. Technologies that are part of ICТs :

A. Networks.
B. Agriculture
C. Geology
D. Fashion industry.
E. Air industry.

5. Standards in the field of ICT (2):

A. Information and communication technologies for development (ICT4D).
B. Web World Wide (WWW).
C. Internet.
D. Uniform Recourse Locator (URL).
E. E-Government.

6. The standard that reflects the relationship between technology, politics and society
A. Information and communication technologies for development (ICT4D).
B. Web World Wide (WWW).
C. Internet.
D. E-Learning.
E. Government.
F) Uniform Recourse Locator (URL).

7. The standard (and their corresponding 8 targets) that cover a broad range of concerns,
namely: poverty and hunger; primary education; gender equality; child mortality;
maternal health; HIV/AIDS and etc:
A. Millennium Development Goals (MDG).
B. Information and communication technologies for development (ICT4D).
C. Web World Wide (WWW).
D. Internet.
E. E-Government.

8. Boundary across which two independent systems meet and act on or communicate with
each other
A. Interface.
B. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
C. User interface (UI).
D. Software interface.
E. Hardware interface.

9. Totality (a set of) hardware and software, providing interaction between different
functional units of computing, control and measuring systems
A. Interface.
B. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
C. User interface (UI).
D. Software interface.
E. Hardware interface.

10. Communication between a human user and a computer system:

A. Interface.
B. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
C. User interface (UI).
D. Software interface.
E. Hardware interface.

11. The languages and codes that the applications use to communicate with each other and
with the hardware
A. Software interface.
B. Interface.
C. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
D. User interface (UI).
E. Hardware interface.

12. The wires, plugs and sockets that hardware devices use to communicate with each other
A. Hardware interface.
B. Interface.
C. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
D. User interface (UI).
E. Software interface.

13. Term means making products and systems easier to use, and matching them more closely
to user needs and requirements
A. Usability UI.
B. Interface.
C. Human-computer interaction (HCI).
D. User interface (UI).
E. Software interface.

14. Usability is defined by concepts:

A. Effectiveness.
B. Effect.
C. Ergonomics.
D. Software interface.
E. Hardware interface.

15. Type of User interface:

A. Command line interfaces.
B. Effectiveness.
C. Internet.
D. Word.
E. Ergonomics.

16. Interfaces that to use pictures and graphics instead of just words to represent the input
and output of a program
A. Graphical user interfaces (GUI).
B. Effectiveness.
C. Command line interfaces.
D. Text-based user interfaces.
E. Internet.

17. Phase in website / application / software development:

A. Research + Design.
B. Effectiveness.
C. Usability Testing.
D. Familiarity.
E. Development.

18. Stage of development of the user interface on which the Wireframes website is developed
from elements of the screen:
A. Research + Design.
B. Effectiveness.
C. Concision.
D. Familiarity.
E. Development.

19. Usability Testing is estimated at:

A. Navigation checking.
B. Concision.
C. Communication.
D. Familiarity.
E. Development.

20. The basic parts of a desktop computer are the….

A. monitor
B. printer
C. RAM
D. motherboard
E. CPU

21. What is a computer case?

A. It is the metal and plastic box that contains the main components of the computer,
including the motherboard, central processing unit (CPU), and power supply.
B. It is one of the main ways to communicate with a computer. There are many different
types of keyboards, but most are very similar and allow you to accomplish the same basic
tasks.
C. It is another important tool for communicating with computers. Commonly known as a
pointing device, it lets you point to objects on the screen, click on them, and move them.
D. It has a ball that can rotate freely. Instead of moving the device like a mouse, you can roll
the ball with your thumb to move the pointer.
E. It uses an electronic eye to detect movement and is easier to clean.

22. Which of the following groups consist of only input devices?

A. Mouse,
B. Scanner
C. Headphones
D. Printer
E. Monitor

23. What does DRAM stands for?

A. Dynamic Recording Access Memory
B. Digital Random Access Memory
C. Dynamic Random Access Memory
D. Dividing Random Access Memory
E. Digital Recording Access Memory

24. Which part of the computer is considered as Brain of the Computer?

A. Central Process Unit
B. Random Access Memory
C. Read Only Memory
D. Hard Disk
E. Motherboard

25. The following statements about RAM:

A. It is a volatile storage device.
B. It is non-volatile, so data that is stored on these devices remains there safely.
C. It checks the computer’s hardware and then loads the operating system.
D. It is the main circuit board.
E. It is used in most computers to hold a small, special piece of software: the 'boot up'
program.

26. When a computer is in use, its RAM will contain:

A. The operating system software
B. The operating system hardware
C. Any data that isn’t being processed
D. Input devices, output devices and storage devices.
E. Scan the computer’s hardware and then loads the operating system.

27. The following statements about ROM:

A. It is used in most computers to hold a small piece of software: the 'boot up' program.
B. Holds the date that is currently being used by the user
 C. It is the part of the computer that temporarily stores the instructions that the computer
is running, and the data it is processing.
D. It is the main circuit board.
E. It is a volatile storage device.

28. The following statements about Central Processing Unit:

A. usually plug into a socket on the main circuit board (the motherboar of a computer.
B. This 'boot up' software is known as the BIOS (Basic Input Output System), it checks the
computer’s hardware and then loads the operating system.
C. It is used in most computers to hold a small piece of software: the 'boot up' program.
D. It scans the computer’s hardware and then loads the operating system.
E. It is non-volatile storage. This means that the data it contains is never lost, even if the
power is switched off.

29. Describe the main functions of flash memory

A. It is a type of nonvolatile memory that can be erased electronically and rewritten.
B. It is used in most computers to hold a small piece of software: the 'boot up' program.
C. They get very hot when they are operating so usually have a large fan attached to their
top to keep them cool.
D. It usually plug into a socket on the main circuit board (the motherboar of a computer
E. It is the part of the computer that temporarily stores the instructions that the computer is
running, and the data it is processing.

30. Match the type of software with the definition: “The full version with all the features”
A. Professional version
B. Trial version
C. Shareware
D. Freeware
E. Home-use version

31. Match the type of software with the definition: “You can try it for a while for free. Then
if you want to keep using it, you are expected to pay a small fee to the writer.”
A. Trial version
B. Shareware
C. Freeware
D. Home-use version
E. Professional version

32. Match the type of software with the definition: “You can use it for free for a while (often
a month). When the trial period finishes, you have to pay, or the program will de-
activate”
A. Shareware
B. Trial version
C. Freeware
D. Home-use version
E. Professional version

33. A computer system consists of:

A. hardware
B. programm
C. chip
 D. application
E. modulle

34. The program that runs on the computer hardware creating information object such as files
and processes and assures the fair and secure allocation of processor time for processes,
access to files, access to devices, and other resources.
A. operating system
B. programs for image editing
C. Internet browser
D. antivirus programs
E. office programs

35. Match the type of software with the definition:

“A simplified version which is cheaper to buy”
A. Home-use version
B. Trial version
C. Shareware
D. Freeware
E. Professional version

36. To restart a computer as if the computer had been powered down even though it was
turned on and possibly running
A. reboot
B. file
C. folder
D. program
E. backup

37. A single block of information allocated by an operating system for retention beyond the
execution time of any program
A. file
B. chip
C. drive
D. memory
E. disk

38. Key to enter capital letters:

A. Caps Lock;
B. End;
C. Home;
D. Insert;
E. Enter;

39. Key to delete a character that is on the left of the cursor:

A. Backspace;
B. Caps Lock;
C. Space bar;
D. Shift;
E. Delete;

40. Key to delete a character that is to the right of the cursor:

A. Delete;
B. Caps Lock;
C. Backspase;
D. Space bar;
E. Shift;

41. Key to move the cursor to the end of the line:

A. Home;
B. End;
C. PgUp;
D. PgDn;
E. Enter;

42. Font Group of Home Tab lets:

A. Set the font type;
B. Set a bulleted list;
C. Split text into columns;
D. Set indentation;
E. Set line spacing;

43. What you need to do to remove the fragment of the text?

A. Select the fragment - Press the Delete key;
B. Press the Delete key;
C. Cut the fragment – F1;
D. Select the fragment - Press the left button of the mouse - Cut;
E. Review - Cut;

44. What you can insert in the header & footer?

A. Date;
B. Data base;
C. Slide;
D. Formula;
E. Diagram;

45. What are the types of lists can be in Word document?

A. Marked;
B. Nonstandard;
C. Hidden;
D. Related;
E. Standard;

46. By clicking to which menu you could “Save” your document?

A. File;
B. Home;
C. Insert;
D. Review;
E. Mailings;

47. By clicking to which menu you could make your text “Bold/Italic”?
A. Home;
B. File;
C. Insert;
D. Review;
E. Mailings;

48. Which submenu should be used in order to make your document on Landscape view?
A. Page layout;
B. Home;
C. File;
D. Insert;
E. Mailings;

49. Which menu should be used in order to change to Portrait/Landscape view?

A. Format;
B. Insert;
C. Tools;
D. Table;
E. Font;

50. Which menu should be used in order to change the existing Hyperlink?
A. Insert;
B. Format;
C. Tools;
D. Table;
E. Font;

51. The ruler will enable you to:

A. Set indentations;
B. Change the size and the orientation of the page;
C. Separate the text on the pages;
D. Set the page numbering;
E. Set the size of the font;

52. Range – this:

A. Adjacent cells of the single column;
B. Non-adjacent cells;
C. All parallel columns;
D. All even-numbered cells;
E. All odd cell;

53. Logical functions in EXCEL include the function:

A. or;
B. Account;
C. If Account;
D. The amount;
E. Max;

54. In EXCEL, there are the following types of addressing:

A. Absolute;
B. Combination;
C. Numeric;
D. Reverse;
E. Modular;
55. Excel. To correct already entered information, it is necessary to:
A. To press [F2];
B. Ask the Edit-Delete command;
C. Select the cell and press the [Del];
D. Select the cell and press the [ALT];
E. Select the cell and press the [CTRL];

56. Excel. Define a correctly written formula

A. =$A$1+B1;
B. =A1+A2+A3=;
C. =A1+A2+A3;
D. =A$1$+B1;
E. =1A+2A;

57. Excel. What kind of formulas written correctly?

A. =A46*SUM(F1:F46);
B. =A+5/B4;
C. =3F-SUM(A1-A5);
D. =SUM(C5-C30);
E. =SUM(A1:B14)-1A/B14;

58. Indicate a correct address of the cell in the program Excel:

A. $B$5;
B. "A10000;
C. #A10;
D. BZ_99;
E. B$5$;

59. Excel. What is displayed in the formula bar:

A. The contents of active cell;
B. Title of spreadsheet;
C. The list of formulas used in Excel;
D. Sheet numbers;
E. Column number;

60. Which of the following is a database object?

A. Tables
B. Number
C. Relationships
D. Record
E. Field

61. What are the relationships between the tables?

A. Many to Many
B. Many to Null
C. All to One
D. Many to all
E. Record to Record
62. The content of the database may be modified using the following operations:
A. Deletion
B. Associations
C. Divisions
D. Correction
E. Modification

63. What type of data is in Access?

A. Ole Object
B. Triple
C. Table
D. Symbolical
E. Graphic

64. Data models

A. Network
B. Modular
C. Logical
D. Geometric
E. Cyclic

65. Choose relationship “one-to-many»

A. Father, Son
B. Parent, Child
C. Brother, Sister
D. Teacher, Student
E. Class, Teacher

66. Database tables consist of ?

A. Rows
B. Calculations
C. Lines
D. Formulas
E. Arrows

67. Choose elements of E-R Diagrams

A. Rectangles
B. Diamonds
C. Points
D. Dots
E. Pyramid

68. You can enclose the prompt within square braces in criteria to create
A. Parameter query
B. Select query
C. Action query
D. Crosstab query
E. A request for sorting

69. Which of the following SQL query deletes Product table from Store database?
A. DROP TABLE Product
B. DEL Product FROM Store
C. DROP Product
D. FROM Store DEL Product
E. Product DROP

70. Choose a major database object used to display information in an attractive, easy-to-read
screen format
A. Form
B. Query
C. Report
D. Table
E. Macro

71. To delete records or perform calculations on a table, the best tool to use is a
A. Report
B. Form
C. Filter
D. Query
E. Macro

72. Data can be import into Access Database from

A. Excel Files
B. Word Files
C. PowerPoint File
D. HTML Files
E. Paint Files

73. Choose a query locates data from one or more tables.

A. Select
B. Summary
C. Parameter
D. Action
E. Important

74. Choose the command to remove all Sorts in a table you can click.
A. Clear All Sorts
B. Delete All Sorts
C. Eliminate All Sorts
D. Remove All Sorts
E. DropAll Sorts

75. Which of the following properties identifies the type of information stored in a field?
A. Data type
B. Field description
C. Field name
D. Field properties
E. Field Size

76. Which of the following views displays the field name, description, and properties of a
table?
A. Design View
B. Datasheet View
C. Layout View
D. Table View
E. Row View

77. What type of relationship is created when you select a primary key in both related tables?
A. One-To-One
B. Indeterminate
C. One-To-Many
D. Many-To-Many
E. Many to all

78. Choose clause lists the relations involved in the query

A. From
B. Select
C. Where
D. Between
E. Like

79. Choose Aggregate Function

A. Count
B. Length
C. Where
D. Between
E. Like

80. Choose DBMS

A. Access
B. Word
C. PowerPoint
D. Excel
E. Paint

81. Select the advantages of a LAN:

A. Peripherals can be shared
B. Software and files cannot be shared
C. It is static
D. Initial setup is expensive
E. The smaller the network the more expensive it becomes

82. What elements are usually located in the main switchboard?

A. Switches and routers
B. User workstations
C. Fax machines
D. Case machines
E. Copier

83. Which statement is true about the OSI and TCP/IP model
A. The network layer of the OSI comparable to that of the Internet TCP / IP model
B. The lower two TCP / IP model, level form the lower layer OSI model
C. TCP / IP model is a theoretical model, and the OSI model is based on actual protocols
D. TCP / IP model defines protocols for the physical network connection
E. TCP / IP model is based on three levels and OSI model is based on seven levels
 84. Characteristics of peer networks:
A. Easy to organization and operation
B. Is difficult to organize and operate
C. In these networks using two network operating systems, which are fundamental
functional differences
D. This large networks with multiple subnets
E. They are called networks with centralized management

85. Characteristics of peer networks:

A. They are called networks with decentralized management
B. Is difficult to organize and operate
C. In these networks using two network operating systems, which are fundamental
functional differences
D. This large networks with multiple subnets
E. They are called networks with centralized management

86. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

A. Broadcast network
B. Personal area network
C. Local area network
D. Virtual private network
E. Unicast network

87. Bluetooth is an example of

A. Personal area network
B. Local area network
C. Virtual private network
D. Broadcast network
E. Unicast network

88. A _____ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Firewall
D. Hub
E. Repeater

89. The first Network

A. ARPANET
B. CNNET
C. NSFNET
D. ASAPNET
WWW

90. A set of rules that governs data communication

A. Protocols
B. Standards
C. RFCs
D. CNNET
E. INTERNET
91. Physical or logical arrangement of network is
A. Topology
B. Routing
C. Networking
D. Bridge
E. Firewall

92. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
A. WAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. Protocols
E. Standards

93. Data communication system within a building or campus is

A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. Protocols
E. Standards

94. In this topology there is a central controller or hub

A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Bus
E. Firewall

95. This topology requires multipoint connection

A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Ring
E. Firewall

96. Computer Network is

A. Collection of hardware components and computers
B. Encoding of resources and information
C. Disconnected communication channels
D. Regulatory agencies
E. Standards organizations

97. This layer in an addition to OSI model

A. Presentation layer
B. Application layer
C. Applied layer
D. Transport layer
E. Link layer

98. Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
A. Monitoring
B. Analyzing
C. Replacing
D. Configuration
E. Decision

99. The functions of TCP:

A. It provides retransmission of data lost during transmission
B. It is a connectionless protocol
C. It breaks up the data on the datagram
D. Contains the IP-address of the source in the TCP header
E. Overhead is only 8 bytes

100. Which of the following are the three most common network management
architectures?
A. Centralized
B. Hybrid
C. Ring
D. Bus
E. Star

101. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model

A. 7
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 10

102. What is TCP/IP?

A. Transmission Control Protocol and Internet Protocol
B. Transmission Control Protocol and Inter-mail Protocol
C. Transmission Clutch Protocol and Internet Protocol
D. Transcontinental Control Protocol and International Protocol
E. Transmission Clutch Protocol and Inter-mail Protocol

103. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
A. 01100000
B. 01100110
C. 00001100
D. 10000001
E. 11000000

104. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined

geographical area?
A. Local area network (LAN)
B. Global area network (GAN)
C. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
D. Wide area network (WAN)
E. Multi-server high-speed backbone network

105. The reliability of the system of information protection is determined

A. the weakest link
B. the strongest link
C. the number of units
D. flexibility of the algorithm
E. the number of units and flexibility of the protection algorithm

106. Secret system includes

A. the two statistical selection of the message selection and select the key
B. three statistical selection of the message and the key selection, the choice of Shif-rtext
C. selecting a message
D. selection of key
E. encryption algorithm

107. Distinguish protection device (EUS)

A. optical and electronic
B. optical and magnetic
C. passive and active
D. optical class A, B,C
E. optical class A, B,C, D

108. Originally, the term hacker meant

A. workaholic
B. cyber crimes
C. bully
D. a burglar
E. bandit

109. According to the classification scheme of computer intruders are divided into
A. hackers, phreakers .
B. hackers
C. hackers, crackers
D. superhero, crackers and phreakers,
E. hackers, crackers, phreakers

110. Non-resident viruses

A. do not infect computer memory and are active for a limited time
B. are in the memory and are active until the shutdown or reboot the operating system
C. is left in the memory resident programs that do not spread the virus
D. infect computer memory
E. disguised as software applications

111. Resident viruses

A. are in the memory and are active until the shutdown or reboot the operating system
B. do not infect computer memory and are active for a limited time
C. is left in the memory resident programs that do not spread the virus
D. create phantom files
E. are activated when certain conditions

112. As habitat viruses can be divided into

A. Boot
B. non-hazardous
C. resident
D. harmless
E. not resident
113. Viruses can be divided into classes according to the following main features
A. habitat, operating system, features of the algorithm; de constructively opportunities
B. file; loading
C. Macro viruses, network viruses
D. file; loading; STEALTH
E. destructive capabilities

114. The term "computer virus" was introduced for the first time
A. Cohen
B. Shannon
C. Hartley
D. Markov
E. Gates

115. By destructive capabilities of viruses can be divided into

A. harmless; non-hazardous; dangerous viruses; very dangerous
B. non-hazardous; dangerous viruses; very dangerous
C. viruses that have no signature; viruses with a signature
D. resident and non-resident
E. Polymorphic viruses, stealth viruses

116. Viruses do not have a signature

A. Polymorphic viruses
B. resident viruses
C. macro viruses
D. is not resident viruses
E. Trojans

117. The software module, which the simulates an invitation to the user to register in
order to log in, such as a keylogger
A. simulator
B. filter
C. interceptor
D. deputy
E. maska

118. All keyloggers are divided into

A. simulators, filters and alternates
B. hooks filters and alternates
C. monitors, filters and alternates
D. simulators, filters and interceptors
E. simulators, filters and monitors

119. The only key cryptosystems used

A. symmetric
B. with the public key
C. asymmetrical
D. with the private key
E. Class D

120. Two key cryptosystems used

A. with the public key
B. symmetric
C. asymmetrical
D. with the private key
E. Class D

121. Which group is the Caesar cipher

A. monoalphabetic
B. gomofonicheskaya
C. polyalphabetic
D. poligrammnaya
E. laying backpack

122. Password Word document is put in order

A. Protection of the document by patching
B. protect documents from viruses
C. protect documents from removal
D. Protection by regulating the use of system resources
E. Protection of the document from the autosave

123. Cryptography –
A. the science of conversion methods (encryption) information in order to protect it from
illegal users (development of codes)
B. element of the cipher
C. a removable element cipher used to encrypt a particular message
D. coding process
E. the process of de coding

124. Кey –
A. conversion process to open the data encrypted data using the cipher
B. an element of the cipher
C. a removable element cipher used to encrypt a particular message
D. element of ciphertext
E. interchangeable element

125. A common feature of well-known software bookmarks -

A. performing the write operation in memory
B. perform a write operation to the hard disk
C. perform write operation on the floppy disks
D. realize the interaction with all of the system resources
E. give information about the version of software

126. Hurdle – is
A. a physical barrier to access protected information
B. protection by regulating the use of system resources
C. protection from macro viruses
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

127. Identification of a Hurdle:

A. a barrier that prevents the implementation of an action
B. protection by regulating the use of system resources
C. protection from macro viruses
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

128. Specify the definition of the concept of Hurdle

A. the method of physical obstruction way an attacker to be protected in-formation
B. protection by regulating the use of system resources
C. protection from macro viruses
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

129. Masking – is
A. by way of information protection cryptographic closing
B. a physical barrier to access protected information
C. method of protection in which the users and staff have to comply with rules for
processing and storage of information under threat of financial, administrative or criminal
liability
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

130. Identification of a Masking

A. the process and the result of actions intended to make someone or or or invisible,
invisible to anyone or
B. a physical barrier to access protected information
C. signal lights
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

131. Specify the definition of the concept of Masking

A. hiding, concealing, harboring
B. a physical barrier to access protected information
C. signal lights
D. Protect the document from being deleted
E. Protection paper copy

132. Own protection includes

A. Support
B. Identification
C. the control device
D. watermark
E. psychological measures

133. Passwords –
A. is an access control mechanism
B. protection by regulating the use of system resources
C. a physical barrier to access protected information
D. applying a magnetic mark
E. the protection of the document against copying

134. Code word (passwords) –

A. the conditional word or set of characters, designed to confirm the identity or authority
B. protection by regulating the use of system resources
C. a physical barrier to access protected information
D. of the tamper protection
E. the protection of the document against copying

135. Global network capable of transmitting information from anywhere in the world
to any other point
A. Internet.
B. Graphics editor.
C. Programming language.
D. Word processor.
E. Branches software.

136. Characteristics of Global network Internet

A. World-wide global system.
B. Elementary.
C. The computer is identified by a unique mask.
D. Closed.
E. Clarity.

137. IP address of computer is a unique logical address and exhibits the following
properties:
A. Unique address.
B. 32 bits (5 bytes) long.
C. 8 bits (1 bytes) long.
D. Relative.
E. Absolute.

138. Address which uniquely identifies a document over the internet

A. Hypertext Markup Language, for creating websites.
B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL).
C. IP address.
D. Mathcad.
E. Notebook.

139. Social networking sites in Internet (2):

A. Facebook.
B. MS Word.
C. WinRar.
D. Mathcad.
E. Notebook.

140. Communication Services of Internet:

A. Electronic Mail.
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
C. File system.
D. Browser.
E. Transformation of information.

141. Information Retrieval Services of Internet

A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. Electronic Mail.
C. Internet Telephony (VoIP).
D. Browser.
E. Internet Relay Chat (IRC).

142. Web services of Internet:

A. World Wide Web (WWW).
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
C. Internet Telephony (VoIP).
D. DNS.
E. Internet Relay Chat (IRC).

143. Services provided by the Internet:

A. Web Browser.
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
C. Internet Telephony (VoIP).
D. DNS.
E. Internet Relay Chat (IRC).

144. Types of Web Browsers :

A. Google Chrome.
B. MS Word.
C. WinZip.
D. Twitter.
E. WinRar.

145. Search Engines in Web:

A. Internet Explorer.
B. Rambler.
C. WinRar.
D. Word.
E. Mozilla Firefox.

146. Method of Domain addressing computers on the Internet

A. Domain Name System (DNS).
B. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML).
C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL).
D. IP address.
E. Notebook.

147. File types of Web-document:

A. Htm.
B. Xls.
C. Pdf.
D. Doc.
E. Ppt.

148. The main language of the Web-page creation:

A. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML).
B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL).
C. IP address.
D. Pascal.
E. Photoshop.
149. Mandatory tag HTML-document:
A. <Html>
B. <A>.
C. <Table>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

150. Tag HTML-document:

A. <Head>.
B. <A>
C. <OL>
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

151. Tag specific to an HTML document:

A. <Body>.
B. <A>.
C. <Table>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

152. The tag to define the title of the Html-document

A. <Title>.
B. <Html>
C. <Body>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

153. Tag to define the boundaries of (body) of the Html-document

A. <Body>.
B. <Html>
C. <Head>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

154. Tag to define a paragraph of the Html-document

A. <P>.
B. <Html>
C. <Head>.
D. <Body>.
E. <UL>.

155. Tag to define an Unordered List of the Html-document

A. <UL>.
B. <Html>
C. <Head>.
D. <Body>.
E. <P>.

156. Tag to define an Ordered List of the Html-document

A. <OL>
B. <Head>.
 C. <Body>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

157. Tag to define a Table of the Html-document

A. <Table>
B. <Head>.
C. <Body>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

158. Tag to define a Hyperlink in the Html-document

A. <A>
B. <Head>.
C. <Body>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

159. Tag to insert a Image in the Html-document

A. <Img>
B. <Head>.
C. <Body>.
D. <UL>.
E. <P>.

160. Tag’s attribute of the <Body> in the Html-document:

A. Bgcolor
B. Height
C. Align
D. Link
SRC

161. Attribute for the <Body> tag in an Html document:

A. Background
B. Width
C. Align
D. Link
E. SRC

162. Tag’s attributes of the <A> in the Html-document (2):

A. HREF
B. Background
C. Align
D. Link
E. SRC

163. Tag’s attributes of the <P> in the Html-document

A. Align
B. Bgcolor
C. Background
D. Link
E. SRC

164. The audio file formats

A. WAV, WMA
B. WAV, WMV
C. AVI, MPEG
D. WMV, MPG
E. BMP, EMF, GIF

165. Select the image file formats:

A. JPG, PNG
B. MP2, MP3
C. AVI, MPEG
D. WMV, MPG
E. DOC, EXL

166. The image file formats:

A. BMP, GIF
B. MP2, MP3
C. AVI, MPEG
D. WMV, MPG
E. DOC, EXL

167. Select the formats of video files:

A. AVI, MPEG
B. WAV, WMA
C. BMP, GIF
D. MP2, MP3
E. MP3, WAV

168. The formats of video files:

A. WMV, MOV
B. WAV, WMA
C. BMP, GIF
D. MP2, MP3
E. MP3, WAV

169. The software used for compression and decompression of multimedia files
A. the codec
B. installation
C. driver
D. scale
E. clip

170. Multimedia Course - is:

A. a set of logically related structured didactic units, presented in digital and analog form,
containing all the components of the educational process
B. electronic textbook
 C. interactive text textbook
D. training complex (computer models, designers and trainers)
E. computer testing system

171. Hardware/Software for processing compressed video

A. MPEG-decoders
B. DVD
C. ТВtuners
D. Adobe Acrobat
E. CDRW

172. Tools for processing compressed video

A. Virtualdub
B. DVD
C. Adobe Acrobat
D. ТВtuners
E. CDRW

173. Drive for playing digital video discs

A. DVD
B. MPEG- decoders
C. ТВtuners
D. CDR
E. CDRW

174. The equipment for burning compact discs

A. CDR и CDRW
B. DVD
C. MPEG- decoders
D. ТВtuners
drive

175. The main areas of application of multimedia products include ...

A. all of the above
B. business, training
C. entertainment
D. Media and self education
E. the creation of virtual enterprises

176. To create a multimedia application needs

A. fully equipped technical multimedia system
B. multimedia authoring system
C. a set of information systems performance
D. multimedia development
E. there is no right answer

177. Multimedia is …
A. program to view educational videos, interactive systems, aimed at the unification of text,
sound, images and animations
B. program for listening to music
C. program to work with graphic images
D. system, designed to work with the text and static images
E. Program for working with text and static images

178. Multimedia is ...

A. complex hardware and software, allowing users to work interactively with the
information.
B. dialog box, which is used to work in online mode.
C. the program allows the user to process the raw data.
D. a set of programs that helps to transmit data over the Internet
E. folder that stores deleted documents prior to their complete destruction.

179. Classing tools that let you create and edit text and graphics, static image, to carry
out three-dimensional modeling and animation tools of text and graphics.
A. basic tools.
B. multimedia product
C. multimedia authoring system
D. basic multimedia tools
E. multimedia technology

180. The area in which are mounted and projects in Windows Movie Maker, appears:
A. on the storyboard and timeline
B. on the storyboard in the display window
C. a window display and the timeline
D. in the display window and in the status bar
E. only display window
F. F) only on the storyboard

181. What tasks Windows Movie Maker allows you to perform?

A. montage videos ("movies") of the individual fragments of different origin
B. montage videos ("movies") of the individual fragments of the same origin
C. playback of movies created in other programs
D. exportvideo fragments, sound and individual static frames
E. gettingof graphic information

182. Windows Movie Maker program can not display:

A. Text Document;
B. Graphics;
C. Text;
D. Video information;
E. Audio information;

183. The Windows Movie Maker program does not display:

A. Spread Sheet Document;
B. Graphics;
C. Text;
D. Video information;
E. Audio information;

184. Devices relating to multimedia:

A. CD-ROM (DVD-ROM);
B. Keyboard;
C. Scanner;
D. Lamp.
E. Printer

185. How is the montage the clip? Choose the exact answer.
A. videomontage is to assign the start and end of a clip in the movie playback
B. videomontage is setting the playback point in the movie clip
C. videomontage is setting the start point in the movie clip playback
D. video installation is setting the end point in the movie clip playback
E. videomontage is setting the mid-point of the clip playing in the film