ECC ACADEMY
ENGLISH
Direction(1-8): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words
have been printed in bold to aid in
answering some of the questions.
In this modern era of big data, the shopping
activity is modified a lot because of enormous
growth in online shopping websites, also
known as E-Tailers. The new age customers
prefer to shop through these online portals
because of various attractions in countries like
India such as easy and cheap availability of the
Internet. The primary reason for cheap
internet is intense competition between
telecoms, for instance, many telecom
companies offer free unlimited internet data
usage for all of its users in nominal charges.
Moreover, searching a suitable E-Commerce
website to best suit the customer purchase
requirements is not so easy as customers are
primarily dependent on conventional search
engines like Google, Bing to find a suitable E-
Commerce web site. However, when different
users search the same ECommerce query,
even a most advanced and popular search
engine retrieves the same result. Thus,
irrespective of the background and
personalized tastes of customer submitting
the query as most of the modern search
engines tend to return the results by
interpreting the E-Commerce query in various
possible ways.
Moreover, if the query is ambiguous or
incomplete, then the situation will get even
worse. For instance, for the incomplete E-
Commerce search query “Galaxy”, some
customers may be interested in links to buy a
new Samsung Galaxy series mobile phone,
while another customer may be interested in
searching links for online booking of tickets
for a movie Guardians of the Galaxy Vol. 2.
Hence, there is an urgent need for
personalized E-Commerce search system. The
personalized system may modify the E-
Commerce search query by keeping track of
customer's preferences by maintaining his/her
profile, search preferences through browsing
history, etc. over a period and return results in
correct order of ranking with customer’s
relevant output links on top to best suit the
customer requirements. E-Commerce data is
explosively increasing on the scale of
TeraBytes (TB) to PetaBytes (PB) on a daily
basis due to the continuous increase in WWW
traffic. This excessive online generated data is
commonly known as ‘Big Data’ with emphasis
on high values of various popular V's, i.e.,
Value, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, and Volume.
1. What has/have prompted the
increase in the use of online shopping
websites?
1. People find online shopping platforms
more reliable than shopping offline.
2. Online shopping is preferred by
consumers as it is less time-consuming.
3. The availability of product of various
brands on the same online platform
attracts consumers.
4. Increased accessibility and low cost of
internet services has fuelled online
shopping.
5. None of these
2. How do different search engines
work on a particular E-commerce
query?
1. Every search engine has a privacy
policy which restricts data sharing and
ensures security.
2. They retrieve and process data of
different users to give out a result for a
particular query.
3. A particular search engine shows
many alternates of searched products by
many users. 4. All search engines
suggest the best product with maximum
discounts when searched. 5. None of
these
3. Why does the author emphasise the
need for personalized E-Commerce
search systems?
1. To merge different e-commerce
platforms into a single entity which will
reduce internet traffic
SBI PO PT - 15
2. To eliminate the process where users
need to create an ID and provide
personal information
3. To avoid misinterpretation and to
facilitate easier access to the products
users require
4. In order to avoid pop-up notifications
which users get after making a purchase
5. None of these
4. Which of the following is true
regarding ‘Big Data’ according to the
facts in the passage?
1. It contains data focussed highly on
efficient strategies.
2. Excessive online generated data is
called Big Data
3. It results from usage of traditional
data processing software.
4. Both (a) and (b) 5. Both (a) and (c)
5. What is the major reason for cheaper
internet service in India?
1. Indian telecommunication companies
have their own satellites
2. There is a high number of
telecommunication operating
companies in India.
3. The operation cost of telecom
companies is very low in India.
4. There is a stiff competition among
Indian telecommunication companies.
5. None of these
6. Which of the following statements
is/are incorrect as per the information
given in the passage?
1. E-commerce data is dynamically
rising on the scale of TB to PB on a daily
basis.
2. E-Tailers, unlike physical shops, sell
their products online.
3. Personalized E-Commerce search
systems keep track of user preferences.
4. Google is one of the search engines
often used by people for finding a
suitable E-Commerce web site.
5. None of these
7. Which of the following words is a
synonym of ‘ Modern’ given in the
passage?
1. shunned 2. contemporary 3.
congenital 4. perpetual 5. None of these
8. Which of the following words is an
antonym of ‘ Ambiguous’ given in the
passage?
1. ardent 2. preamble 3. apparent
4. suffice 5. None of these
Direction(9-13): Each of the following
questions has two sentences. Each
sentence has a blank. From the options
given below the sentence, choose the
word which fits into both the blanks
and mark the letter corresponding to it
as your answer.
9. (I) Company ________ its
employees from doing part-time jobs in
other companies.
(II) Enhanced immunity ________
virus invasion in the human body.
1. restrains 2. defends 3. Tolerance
4. pertains 5. upends
10. (I) _______ school buildings after
school closure were used as hospitals
during the pandemic.
(II) He rented out his _______ flat to
earn passive income.
1. abhorrent 2. occupied 3. Ignite
4. vacant 5. ridiculed
11. (I) After being defeated many times,
Rahul finally ____ his position in the
series.
(II) The Indian rupee has effectively
_______ amid global uncertainty.
1. appealing 2. adoring 3. consolidated
4. vehement 5. whirling
12. (I) Touch is thought to be the first
sense that humans______.
(II)Excess social media consumption is
likely to _____ depression in young
adults.
1. abode 2. develop 3. abide 4. Prompt
5. tussle
13. (I) To reduce carbon emissions,
a/an ______ climate action plan is
needed.
(II) The XYZ newspaper gives _______
information about current scenarios.
1. aggravating 2. concurring 3. Midst
4. comprehensive 5. Contemplative
Direction(14-19): In the following
passage, there are some highlighted
words, each of which has been
numbered. The highlighted words may
or may not be used correctly in the
given passage. Against each number,
four options are given. Find the most
appropriate word from the given
options which could replace the
highlighted word. If the highlighted
word has been used correctly then ‘No
replacement required’ will be your
right answer choice.
In 1899, after Wilbur Wright had written a
letter of request to the Smithsonian
Institution for information about flight
experiments, he, along with his brother Orville
Wright scripted (14) their first aircraft. It
was a small, biplane glider flown as a kite to
test their solution for controlling the craft by
wing warping—a method of reciting (15) the
wingtips slightly to control the aircraft's
rolling tremble (16) and balance. The
Wright Brothers spent a great deal of time
amalgamating (17) birds in flight. They
noticed that birds soared into the wind and
that the air flowing over the curved surface of
their wings created lift. Birds change the
shape of their wings to turn and handover
(18). They believed that they could use this
technique to obtain roll control by warping or
changing the shape of a portion of the wing.
Over the next three years, Wilbur and his
brother Orville would design a series (19) of
gliders that would be flown in both unmanned
(as kites) and piloted flights.
14. 1. sensitized 2. designed 3. massacred
4. realized 5. No replacement required
15. 1. dwindling 2. pursuing 3. devastating
4. arching 5. No replacement required
16. 1. motion 2. expansion 3. firmness
4. enchant 5. No replacement required
17. 1. evacuating 2. accumulating 3. Observing
4. cursing 5. No replacement required
18. 1. customs 2. maneuver 3. proliferation
4. subverts 5. No replacement required
19. 1. indict 2. wane 3. hustle 4. combat
5. No replacement required
Direction(20-25): In each of the
questions given below, a statement with
a highlighted phrase is given. Choose
the most appropriate replacement from
the given options which could replace
the highlighted phrase to make the
statements grammatically and
contextually correct. If the highlighted
phrase is already correct then choose
option “No replacement required” as
your response.
20. Although we intake diet food, but
proper sleep is necessary to be healthy.
1. but properly sleep is
2. but proper sleep are 3. proper sleep is
4. then properly sleep is
5. No replacement required
21. The police came after the thief run away.
1. was ran away 2. was running away
3. has run away 4. had run away
5. No replacement required
22. The teacher selected a certain students
for the upcoming interschool sports
competitions.
1. certain students for
2. a certain students of
3. a certain student of
4. certain student for
5. No replacement required
23. Living in Mumbai is more costlier than
living in Delhi.
1. is more costlier then
2. is costlier than
3. is much costlier than
4. are most costly than
5. No replacement required.
24. Meditation is the habitual process of
training your mind to focus and redirect
your thoughts.
1. for focus and redirecting
2. to focusing and redirecting
3. to focus and redirecting
4. to focusing and redirect
5. No replacement required
25. You shouldn’t allows anyone to
disrespect you.
1. shouldn’t allowed anyone
2. shouldn’t allow anyones
3. should have not allow
4. shouldn’t allow anyone
5. No replacement required
Direction(26-30): In each of the
questions given below a sentence is
given with three words in bold. Choose
the option which gives the correct
sequence of these words to make the
sentence grammatically and
contextually correct. If the highlighted
words are already at their correct
position, choose ‘no replacement
required’.
26. Landfills pollution (A) garbage and
other land location (B) in a central collect
(C).
1. CAB 2. ACB 3. CBA 4. BAC
5. No correction required
27. Music is one of the most expression (A)
ways of universal (B) and communication
for humankind (C).
1. CAB 2. ACB 3. CBA 4. BAC
5. No correction required
28. Ayurveda has always emphasized (A)
maintaining health and proper (B) of
diseases by following a prevention (C) diet.
1. CAB 2. ACB 3. CBA 4. BAC
5. No correction required
29. Our first steps into struggle (A) began as
a race between the US and the space (B)
Soviet Union, rivals in a global former (C)
for power.
1. CAB 2. ACB 3. BCA 4. BAC
5. No correction required
30. With hikes (A) in the fuel prices, many
find it carpool (B) to economical (C) than
use their own personal vehicles.
1. CAB 2. ACB 3. CBA 4. BAC
5. No correction required
MATHS
31. A sells an article to B at a profit of
50%, B sold the same article to C at a
profit which is 1.5 times the profit
earned by A. If the sum of selling price
of A and B is Rs.4500, then find the cost
price of the article for A.
1. Rs.1200 2. Rs.2400 3. Rs.1800
4. Rs.3200 5. Rs.4200
32. Length of the rectangle is 50% more
than the side of a square. Breadth of the
rectangle is 3 cm less than length of the
rectangle. If the ratio of area of the
square to that of rectangle is 16:27, then
find the side of the square (in cm).
1. 16 2. 8 3. 4 4. 9 5. 10
33. In a mixture of milk and water, milk
is 25 litres more than water. If 5 litre of
milk and 10 litre of water is added to
the mixture than the quantity of
mixture became 60 litres. Find the
quantity of water in the initial mixture
(in lit).
1. 10 2. 25 3. 45 4. 15 5. 20
34. Boat covers 336 km distance
upstream and takes 4 hours less time to
cover the same distance in
downstream. If the ratio of speed of
boat in still water to speed of stream is
13:1, then find the speed of boat in still
water (in km/hr).
1. 10 2. 11 3. 12 4. 13 5. 14
35. Mohit invested Rs. X at 15% p.a. on
simple interest for five years. If total
amount received by Mohit at the end of
five years is Rs.84000, then find value
of (X + 2000)?
1. 40000 2. 60000 3. 50000 4. 80000
5. 70000
36. A started a business with an
investment of Rs.X. After six months A
replaced by B with same investment as
A. After two more months C joins the
business with Rs.2X. If at the end of one
year the total profit earned is Rs.6600,
then find X.
 1. 330 2. 660 3. 110 4. 390 5. 990
37. The age of A after six years will be
42 years. The ratio of age of A after
three years and B age after 7 years is
13:11. If C is 10 years older than B, then
find the age of C (in years).
1. 20 2. 25 3. 36 4. 10 5. 40
38. The speed of car A and car B is x
km/hr & (x + 20) km/ hr respectively. If
car A moves from P to Q and car B
moves from Q to P, then they meet in 5
hours. Car A takes two hours 15min
more than car B to cover distance
between P and Q. Find the distance
between P and Q.
1. 800 km 2. 720 km 3. 900 km
4. 1080 km 5. 1260 km
39. The average weight of boys and girls
are 40 kg and 35 kg respectively. If the
average weight of the class is 38 kg,
then find the number of boys is how
much percent more or less than girls in
the class?
1. 20% 2. 50% 3. 66(2/3)% 4. 10%
5. 25%
40. R alone can complete a work in 36
days and Q alone can do the same work
in 54 days. Find in how many days both
of them can complete 75% of the total
work.
1. 18.2 days 2. 24.2 days 3. 16.2 days
4. 12.2 days 5. 17.2 days
Direction(41-45): Read the information
carefully and answer the question.
There are three shopkeepers A, B & C sells two
items pens and pencils. The ratio of pens sold
by A to B is 3:4 and number of pencils sold by
B is 30 more than that of pens. Number of
pencils sold by B is three times the number of
pencils sold by A and total items sold by B is
510. Number of pencil sold by C is 1⅓ times
number of pencil sold by A and total items
sold by all the shopkeepers is 1000.
41. Find the total number of pens sold
by all the shopkeepers.
1. 510 2. 525 3. 535 4. 520 5. 540
42. Number of erasers sold by D are
20% more than number of pencils sold
by B. Find the ratio of number of
erasers sold by D to total number of
items sold by C.
1. 51:20 2. 25:51 3. 35:31 4. 55:81
5. 81:55
43. The price of each pen and each
pencil is Rs.5 and Rs.2 respectively.
Find the total revenue generated by C
(In Rs.).
1. 720 2. 725 3. 735 4. 710 5. 740
44. Total number of items sold by A are
how much more than total number of
pens sold by C?
1. 170 2. 125 3. 135 4. 180 5. 140
45. Total number of items sold by C is
what percentage of total number of
items sold by all the shopkeepers?
1. 20% 2. 33 (1/3)% 3. 16% 4. 25%
5. 22%
Direction(46-50): What approximate
value will come in place of question
mark (?) in the following questions.
(You are not expected to calculate the
exact value)
46.
1. 8 2. 14 3. 18 4. 5 5. 1
47.
1. 20 2. 24 3. 22 4. 30 5. 18
48.
1. 15 2. 35 3. 20 4. 40 5. 25
49.
1. 454 2. 554 3. 560 4. 457 5. 470
50.
1. 8 2. 11 3. 5 4. 1 5. 14
Direction(51-55): The bar graph shows
percentage of total number of gadgets
(mobiles and tablets) sold out of total number
of gadgets available in four (P, Q, R & S) shops
and number of mobiles sold by these shops.
Read the following bar graph carefully and
answer the questions given below.
Note: (I) Total number of gadgets sold =
Number of tablets sold + Number of mobiles
sold. (II) Total number of gadgets available in
shop = Number of gadgets sold + Number of
gadgets unsold.
51. If total number of unsold gadgets in
shop D was 140, then find the number
of tablets sold by D.
1. 16 2. 15 3. 17 4. 10 5. 19
52. Selling price of each mobile and
each tablet sold by A is Rs.(X+500) and
Rs.X respectively. Total number of
gadgets available in shop A is 250. If
total revenue generated by A is
Rs.300000, then find the value of X.
1. 2540 2. 2560 3. 2520 4. 2550 5. 2000
53. If the ratio of number of tablets sold
by B to number of unsold gadgets in B is
1:6, then find the total number of
gadgets sold by B.
1. 45 2. 60 3. 75 4. 80 5. 90
54. If the number of gadgets available in
shops C and A are same, then find the
ratio of total unsold gadgets in C to total
number of sold gadgets by A.
1. 1:5 2. 2:5 3. 3:5 4. 4:5 5. 6:5
55. If the number of tablets sold by D is
50% more than that of A and total
number of unsold gadgets in A is 500,
then find the total number of tablets
sold by A and D together.
1. 1240 2. 1200 3. 1500 4. 1800 5. 1000
Direction(56-60): In each of these
questions, two equation (I) and (II) are
given. You have to solve both the
equations and give answer.
1. If x>y
2. If x≥y
3. If x<y
4. If x≤y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established
between x and y
56. I. x²+3x-40=0 II. y²-11y+30=0
57.
58.
59.
60.
Direction(61-65): The table shows the
ratio of boys and girls in five sections
(A, B, C, D & E) and average number of
students in these sections. Read the
table carefully and answer the following
question.

61. Find the average number of boys in
sections A and B together.
1. 210 2. 215 3. 220 4. 240 5. 225
62. Find the number of girls in sections
A and B together is how much
more/less than boys in sections C and D
together.
1. 115 2. 135 3. 120 4. 151 5. 215
63. If in section E, 20% girls and 25% of
boys are absent, then find the number
of students present in section E.
1. 208 2. 118 3. 108 4. 288 5. 280
64. Girls in section D is what
percentage of boys in section A.
1. 15% 2. 35% 3. 20% 4. 40% 5. 48%
65. Find the total number of students in
all the sections together.
1. 1575 2. 3575 3. 2075 4. 1075 5. 2575
REASONING
Direction(66-69): Study the following
numeric series carefully and answer the
questions given below.
7855 4276 9276 8251 3564
66. If the 2nd and 4th digit from left
end of each number is added by 1, after
that these digits (2nd and 4th) are
interchanged with each other, then how
many numbers will be divisible by 11
after the rearrangement?
1. None 2. Two 3. One 4. Three
5. None of these
67. If all the even digits are divided by 2
in each number, then the digit sum of
which number will be the 2nd highest?
1. 9276 2. 8251 3. 7855 4. 3564 5. 4276
68. If all the digits of each number are
arranged in ascending order from left
to right within the numbers, then how
many even numbers doesn’t form?
1. None 2. Two 3. One 4. Three
5. None of these
69. If the 3rd digit from left end of each
number is removed, then how many
numbers will become divisible of 3?
1. None 2. Three 3. One 4. Two
5. None of these
Direction(70-74): Study the given
information carefully and answer the
related questions.
Seven festivals will be celebrated on 13th, 5th,
23rd, 17th, 29th ,7th and 2nd in six different
months viz. January, February, March, April,
May and June of a leap year. Two festivals will
be celebrated in same month. Ram Navami
will be celebrated on an even date in the
month having 30 days. Holi will be celebrated
two months before Ram Navami. Buddha
Purnima will be celebrated on 5th and just
after the month in which Eid will be
celebrated. Diwali will be celebrated in March
but not just before Eid. Sum of the date of the
two festivals which will be celebrated in single
month is 25. Lohri will be celebrated on 13th
but not in May. Holi will not be celebrated on
7th and 17th. Eid and Vaisakhi will not be
celebrated on 7th.
70. Which of the following festival will
be celebrated in May?
1. Vaisakhi 2. Eid 3. Holi
4. Buddha Purnima 5. None of these
71. In which of the following month,
Buddha Purnima will be celebrated?
1. January 2. April 3. May
4. June 5. Either April or June
72. Which of the following festivals will
be celebrated in same month?
1. Eid, Vaisakhi 2. Holi, Lohri
3. Diwali, Holi
4. Buddha Purnima, Ram Navami
5. Vaisakhi, Ram Navami
73. Which of the following combination
is not correct?
1. 23 - Vaisakhi 2. 13 - January
3. 17 - May 4. Holi - February
5. Ram Navami – June
74. Which of the following festival will
be celebrated two months after Diwali?
1. Vaisakhi 2. Ram Navami 3. Eid
4. Buddha Purnima
5. Either Eid or Vaisakhi
Direction(75-79): In the question below
three statements are given followed by
two conclusions. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either conclusion I or II follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow
5. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
75. Statements: Only a few Gun are Point
No Point is Pin. All Pin are Glue
Conclusions: I. Some Glue is not Point
II. Some Gun are not Pin.
76. Statements: Each Moon is Night
80% Night is Good
Only a few Good is Morning
Conclusions: I. Some Moon is Good
II. All Morning can be Night
77. Statements: Some M are K.
All K are N. No N is S.
Conclusions: I. Some M are N
II. No S is K
78. Statements: A few 345 are 836
Only 836 is 912
No 345 is 523
Conclusions: I. Some 523 can be 836
II. A few 912 is 345
79. Statements: All God is Pod
Mostly Pod is Good
No Good is Pond
Conclusions: I. Some God is Pond
II. No Pod is Pond
Direction(80-84): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight boxes (A to H) are kept one above the
other such that the bottommost box is
numbered as 1, just above it is numbered as 2
and so on till the topmost box is numbered as
8. Consecutive named boxes as per the
alphabetical series are not kept adjacent to
each other. At most two boxes are kept below
box G. Three boxes are kept between box G
and Box B. Three boxes are kept between box
A and box H which is kept just below box F.
Box F is an odd numbered box. Number of
boxes kept between box A and box F is one
less than the number of boxes kept between
box E and box C.
80. Which of the following box is kept
at the 2nd place from the top?
1. Box B 2. Box E 3. Box F 4. Box H
5. None of these
81. Which of the following box is kept
immediately above box D?
1. Box A 2. Box B 3. Box H 4. Box G
5. None of these
82. How many boxes are kept between
box G and box F?
1. One 2. Three 3. Two 4. Four
5. None of these
83. How many boxes are kept below the
box which is kept two places below box
E?
1. Three 2. Two 3. One
4. More than Three 5. None
84. Which of the following box is
numbered as 4?
1. Box H 2. Box D 3. Box B 4. Box C
5. None of these
Direction(85-88): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A person starts walking from a point A. He
covers 7m from point A to reach at point P.
From point P he takes a left turn and covers
5m to reach at point X. From point X he takes
a right turn and reach at point M and covers
4m. He reaches at point K after taking a left
turn from point M and covers 2m. Point K is
in north-east direction of initial point. From
point K he walks 8m west to reach point D.
85. In which direction he started
walking?
1. North 2. East 3. South 4. West
5. Can’t be determined
86. What is the shortest distance
between Point D and Point X?
1. 20m 2. √15m 3. √20m 4. 16m
5. None of these
87. What is the total distance covered
by the person from P to K?
1. 8m 2. 11m 3. 17m 4. 7m
5. Can’t be determined
88. If he walks 5m south from point M
to reach point Y, then in which
direction and how far is point Y with
respect to point A?
1. 11m, north 2. 5m, east 3. 5m, west
4. 11m, east 5. 11m, west
Direction(89-93): Study the given
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight persons have different designations i.e.,
General Manager (GM), Deputy General
Manager (DGM), Assistant General Manager
(AGM), Manager, Assistant Manager (AM),
Section Officer (SO), Cashier and Clerk in a
company. The order of seniority is the same as
given above i.e., GM is the senior-most
designation and Clerk is the junior-most
designation. There are two designations
between R and W who is junior to Assistant
Manager. Q is just senior to P and just junior
U. Number of persons are senior to U is same
as the number of persons are junior to S. T is
junior to V who is not the GM.
89. How many persons are junior to R?
1. Five 2. Seven 3. Four 4. Three 5. Two
90. How many designations gap
between Q and the one who is Cashier?
1. None 2. One 3. Three 4. Two
5. More than three
91. Which of the following combination 97. Who sits 2nd to the right of O?
is correct? 1. R 2. L 3. J 4. Can’t be determined
1. Manager- S 2. GM - Q 3. Cashier- W 5. None of these
4. AM - P 5. All are correct 98. Four of the following five pair are
92. Who among the following is three alike in a certain way and forms a
posts senior to S? group, then which of the pair doesn’t
1. P 2. V 3. Q 4. U 5. None of these belong to that group?
93. Which of the following is the 1. L 2. G 3. W 4. P 5. O
designation of the one who is just 99. What is the position of G with
junior to T? respect to J?
1. Section Officer 2. Assistant Manager 1. 2nd to the left 2. 3rd to the right
3. Deputy General Manager 4. Cashier 3. 3rd to the left 4. 4th to the left
5. None of these 5. Can’t be determined
Direction(94-95): Study the following 100. Which of the following
information carefully and answer the statement(s) is/are true?
related questions. I. One person sits between P and O
Seven students T, I, H, F, X, V and Y scored II. J sits to the left of H
different marks in an examination. Y scored III. Two person sit to the left of O
more marks than H who scored more marks 1. Only statement III is true
than only V. F scored just more marks than I 2. Only statement I is true
and just less marks than T who scored less 3. Both statements I and II are true
marks than Y. X scored more marks than both 4. Both statements II and III are true
Y and T. 5. All statement I, II and III are true
94. Who is the 2nd highest scorer?
1. T 2. Y 3. X 4. Can’t be determined 5. V
95. How many students scored less
marks than T?
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 5. None of the above
Direction(96-100): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine persons sit in a linear row such that
three of them face south direction and rest of
them face north direction. Not more than two
persons sit adjacent to each other face same
direction. Six persons sit between H and P
who is the only neighbour of R. G sits 3rd to
the right of W who sits 2nd to the right of H.
Number of persons sit to the right of G is less
than the number of persons sit to the left of G.
U and L sits immediate left of each other. O
sits 2nd to the right of L who face same
direction as W. J sits to the right of O.
96. How many persons sit between J
and L?
1. Three 2. One 3. None 4. Two
5. None of these