Environmental law MCQ

1. The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection Act)

is:
a. Any pollution of air, water and soil
b. The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes
injuries to man
c. The presence in the environment of any environmental pollution
d. Any pollution in land, sea and air.
Ans: c

2. The Conference convened in the 20th anniversary of Stockholm Conference is called:

a. Helenski Conference
b. “Kyoto Conference
c. Rio-de-Janeiro Conference
d. Doha Declaration
Ans: c
3. Sustainable Development was defined for the first time in the:
a. Brunt Land Report
b. Johannesburg Declaration
c. Rio-Declaration
d. Kyoto Protocol
Ans: b

4. Environmental protection has been made a fundamental duty of every citizen of India
under:
a. Article 51-A (g)
b. Article 51
c. Article 51-A (a)
d. Article 51-A (e)
Ans: a

5. Provisions for Central, State and Joint Boards have been made under:
 a. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
c. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Ans: a

6. Section 7 of the EP Act directs that persons carrying on any industry shall not
discharge any environmental pollutants in excess of standards prescribed by:
a. SPCB
b. CPCB
c. State Government
d. Central Government.

Ans: d

7. What is the result of PIL that is applied in Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs.
State of U.P?
a. The Supreme Court prohibited the continuance of mining operations
b. The Supreme Court withheld the judgment to 2020
c. The Supreme Court asked the opinion of Central Government
d. The Supreme Court allows continuance of mining operations

Ans: a

8. Article 21, 47, 48-A and 51-A(g) that provide that the State must protect and improve
the environment and safeguard forest and wildlife incorporating which of the
following principles of Environmental law?
a. Polluters pays principle
b. Precautionary principle
c. Inter-generational equity
d. Intra-generational equity
Ans: b
 9. Section 26 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 deals with:
a. The power of State Board to rake samples of air and emissions
b. The power of Central Board to appoint members to State Board
c. The power of State Board to cut power and water to polluting establishment.
d. Borrowing powers of Board.
Ans: a
10. The Supreme Court in the case of Lafarge Uranium Mining Pvt. Ltd. V. UOI and
others AIR 2011 SC 2781 observed about judicial review of environmental matters and
applied this principle:
a. Doctrine of sustainable development
b. Doctrine of sovereign immunity
c. Doctrine of proportionality
d. Res Ipsa Loquitur
Ans: c

11. The National Green Tribunal does not have jurisdiction on matters contained in:
a. The Biological Diversity Act.
b. The Forest (Conservation) Act
c. The Environmental (Protection) Act.
d. The Indian Forest Act.
Ans: d

12. Power of declaring an area as National Park is vested with:

a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. Chief Conservator of Forest
d. The warden of Forest.
Ans: a

13. According to the Central Pollution Control Board, the diameter of particles that are
responsible for causing great harm to human health is:
a. 2.5 micrometer
b. 5.0 micrometer
c. 10.0 micrometer
d. 7.5 micrometer
Ans: a
 14. Which of the following is NOT a forest produce?
a. Charcoal
b. Peat
c. Lime-stone
d. Dung excreted by farm animals in forest while grazing.
Ans: d

15. Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, dealing in trophy and animal articles is
a. Prohibited completely
b. Allowed with licence
c. Illegal for only foreigners
d. Illegal for hunting tribes.
Ans: b

16. “The presumption that construction of Sardar Sarovar Dam will result in ecological
imbalance is not correct” was held in the case of:
a. Narmada Bachao Andolan etc. v. UOI and others.
b. MC Mehta v. UOI
c. RLEK v. State of Uttar Pradesh
d. Chairman, Rly Board v. Chandrima Das.
Ans: a

17. Choose the incorrect statement.

a. The Montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting
substances.
b. Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases
c. Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content of air
d. Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital wastes.
Ans: c
18. Section 7 of the EP Act is significant provision that provides for an offence committed
by any department of government wherein:
a. Government is excused from liability as the government itself frames the Act.
b. Head of department shall be deemed guilty and is liable.
c. The department officials responsible for contravention will be held liable.
d. No liability since the Act falls within the sovereign function of the State.

Ans: b

19. What is the main reason for ozone depletion?

a. Releasing of oxygen
b. Releasing of chemicals
c. Releasing of CFCs
d. Releasing of nitrogen

Ans:c

20. Which one of the following is the effect of global warming?

a. Maintaining sea level
b. Proper rainfall
c. Desertification
d. Afforestation

Ans: c
 Environmental Law

Part I - MCQ’s

1. The Constitution of India provides for the protection of environment under which
of the following articles?

a) Article 14
b) Article 21
c) Article 19
d) Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)

Ans. d

2. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is

a) Regulation of hazardous wastes

b) Regulate the production of nuclear energy
c) Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
d) None of the above

Ans. c

3. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?

a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
Ans. c

4. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted to implement the provisions
of........... in India
 a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at
Stockholm
b) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)
known as Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro
c) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development held at
Johannesburg
d) Basal Convention

Ans. a

5. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to :

a) Urbanisation
b) Rapid Industrialisation
c) Increase in vehicle population
d) Illiteracy

Ans. b

6. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 creates

__________ noise zones.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Ans. d

7. Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules were last amended in

the year ______________
a) 2020
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2011
Ans. b
 8. Which among the following is not a type of forest mentioned under Forest
Act, 1927?

a) Reserve forest
b) Protected forest
c) Sacred forest
d) Village forest

Ans. c

9. Which of the following legislation incorporates the principle of No-fault

liability?
a) The Water ( Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
d) The Environment Protection Act, 1986
Ans. c

10. All tanneries situated on the banks of River Ganga were asked by the Supreme
Court “to show cause why directions as requested by the petitioner should not be
issued against them”, Which case is being referred to by this statement?
a) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Municipalities Case) AIR 1988 SC
1115
b) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Calcutta Tanneries Case) AIR 1997 SC
1937
c) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India (Badkhal & Surajkund Lakes)1997
3SCC 715
d) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Kanpur Tanneries Case) AIR 1988 SC
1937
Ans. d
11. In T.N.Godamarman Thirumalpad vs. Union Of India 9. S.C.R. 982, the Supreme
court ordered a blanket ban on ____________
a) Fishing
b) Burning Fodder
c) Aqua Culture
d) Lumbering
Ans. d

12. Identify the correct sequence of stages of obtaining environmental clearance by

new projects under the EIA Notification, 2006.
a) Screening, Appraisal, Scoping, Public Consultation.
b) Screening, Scoping, Public Consultation, Appraisal.
c) Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping, Appraisal.
d) Appraisal, Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping.
Ans. b

13. ___________ means the whole or any part of any captive or wild animal (other
than vermin) which has been kept or preserved by any means, whether artificial or
natural as per Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
a) Wildlife preserves
b) Trophy
c) Forest articles
d) Wildlife materials
 
Ans. b
14. _________ is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are
converted to the residue and gaseous products through combustion.

a) Incarnation

b) Incineration

c) Incarceration
 d) Incubation

Ans. b

15. Which of the following is the oldest environmental law in India?

a) Wildlife Protection Act
b) River Board Act
c) Factories Act
d) Easement Act
Ans. d

16. How is noise pollution controlled in India?

a) Under Crpc. Section 133 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue
order
b) Under Crpc Section 134 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue
order
c) Only Hight Court has the jurisdiction to issue an order
d) Only Supreme Court of India has the jurisdiction to issue an order

Ans. a

17. If any person, wants the Court to take cognizance of any offence under the
Environment ( Protection) Act, 1986, than he would have to give a notice :
a) of not less than 30 days
b) of not less than 60 days
c) of not less than 45 days
d) of not less than 90 days
Ans. b

18. Now any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the Appellate Authority
under Section 31 of the Air ( Prevention and Control of Pollution)Act, 1981, would
have to file an appeal before :
a) State Government
 b) National Green Tribunal
c) City Civil Court
d) High Court
Ans. b

19. “The environmental problem is one which no nation, no continent, no

hemisphere, no race, no system can handle alone” was said by:
a) the Head of State
b) the Justice Krishna Iyer
c) the Secretary General Mr. Kurt Waldheim of the United Nations
d) by the President of United State of America
Ans. c

20. Under the `Precautionary Principle’ the:

a) Government is not responsible for environment pollution
b) Government & statutory authorities must anticipate, prevent & attack
the cause of environmental degradation
c) industries have to make good the loss caused by them to environment
d) public interest litigation is maintainable
Ans. b

TYBLS
 ENVIRONMENTAL LAW
SEMESTER – VI
1. ‘Hazardous substance’ means any substance or preparation which, by reason of its chemical or
physico-chemical properties or handling, is liable to cause harm to:
A. human beings,
B. other living creatures, plant, micro-organism, property or the environment;
C. human beings, other living creatures, plant, micro-organism, property or the
environment;
D. micro – organisms

2. The term Environmental Pollution has been defined under which

Section of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986?
A. 2(c)
B. 2(b)
C. 2(d)
D. 2(a)

3. Which one of the following has been described as the “Magna

Carta” of the environment?
A. Rio Declaration
B. Tbilisi Declaration
C. The Stockholm Conference
D. Kyoto Protocol
4. Environmental protection has been made a fundamental duty of every citizen of India under
Article:
A. 51-A (g)
B. 51- A (b)
C. 51-A (c)
D. 51-A (e)

5. Sec. 16 of Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, deals with

A. Appointment of Chairperson
B. Power of State Pollution Control Board
C. Duties of State Pollution Control Board
D. Functions of the Central Board
6. In Bhopal Gas Tragedy case ________ gas escaped into atmosphere and led to the disaster.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methyl Isocyanate
C. Carbon monoxide
 D. Oxygen

7. In which year the Central Govt. made rules relating to noise pollution under the Environment
act?
A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2002
D. 2003

8. 5th June is celebrated as

A. World forest day
B. World environment day
C. World wildlife day
D. World population day
9. The term Environment is derived from an old French word “enviro” means
A. Outside
B. Surroundings
C. Inside
D. Biotic community
10. “Greenhouse effect” with respect to global warming refers to which of the following
conditions-
A. Cooling & moist condition
B. Warming effect
C. Increased rainfall & greenery
D. Desertification
11. In which year wildlife protection act was implemented in India?

A. 1952
B. 1962
C. 1972
D. 1982

12. The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is
required to meet at least
A. every one month
B. every two months
C. every three months
D. every six months
13. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust that the
State as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural resources.
These natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership?

A. M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamalnath and Others.

B. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
C. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Replacing diesel vehicles by CNG vehicles)
D. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
14. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court discussed the development of the
precautionary principle?

A. A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu.

B. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of U.P.
C. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
D. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

15. The term “environment” under Section 2 (a) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 means

A. Air, Water and Land only.

B. Water, Air, Land and interrelationship between air, water, and land only.
C. Water, Air, Land, and the interrelationship between water, air and land and
human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property.
D. None of the above.

16. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of
shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the “precautionary principle” and “the
polluter pays principle and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the ecology
and compensate the individual for loss suffered?

A. S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India.

B. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India.
C. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India.
D. Church of God (Full Gospels) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare
Association.

17. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the governmental direction to close
down the lime-stone mining operations and quarrying permanently, holding it the duty of the lessee
to protest and safeguard the right of the people to live in a healthy environment with minimal
disturbance of ecological balance?

A. All India Council for Enviro Legal Action Vs. Union of India.
B. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh.
C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India.
D. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India.

18. The Rule of ‘Absolute Liability’ was laid down in the case

A. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India

B. Madras Railways Co. vs. Zamidar
C. K. Nagireddi vs. State of A.P.
D. Minu B. Mehta vs. Balakrishna
19. The protection and improvement of the environment including forests and wildlife of the
country is

A. Directive Principle of State Policy

B. Fundamental National Policy
C. Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
D. Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
20. What is an eco mark?

A. A scheme for labelling pollution free industrial unit.

B. A scheme for labelling environment friendly consumer product
C. A cost-effective production technique
D. An international certification recognizing eco-friendly buildings.

Environmental Law ( TYBLS - Sem VI)

Objective
Q1. Which section of Water Act prescribes the disqualification for membership of the Board?
1. Sec 4 (3)
2. Sec 4 (4)
3. Sec 6
4. Sec 2
Correct Answer: Option 3
Q2. What is the duration beyond which untreated Bio Medical waste cannot be stored?
1. 48 hrs
2. 30 hrs
3. 24 hrs
4. 6 hrs
Correct Answer: Option 1
Q3. Which of the following section of the Indian Penal Code prescribes punishment for negligently
spreading the infection of a disease dangerous to life?
1. Sec 269
2. Sec 272
3. Sec 276
4. Sec 273
Correct Answer: Option1
Q4. The definition of 'air pollution' as per sec 2 (a) of the Air Act, 1981 includes
1. Solid, liquid and gaseous substances including noise
2. Solid, liquid and gaseous substances
3. Gaseous Substances
4. Liquid and gaseous substances
Correct Answer: Option 1
Q5. As per the Water Act, 1974 what is the punishment prescribed for violation of Section 24 i.e.
permits knowingly any poisonous, toxious or polluting matter into any stream, well or land ?
1. Imprisonment extending to 3 months or with fine extending to Rs. 10,000 or both
2. Imprisonment for a term not less than 1 year and 6 months which may extend to 6 years and
fine.
3. Imprisonment not less than 2 years which may extend to 7 years.
4. Fine of Rs. 5000
Correct Answer: Option 2
Q6. Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which of the following is not a member of the State
Board for Wildlife ?
1. Chief Minister of the State
2. Minister in charge of Forest and Wildlife
3. Three members of the State Legislature
 4. Governor
Correct Answer: Option 4
Q7. What is sustainable development?
1. The development that meets the need of the present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs
2. To conserve natural resorces and to develop alternative sources of power while reducing
pollution and harm to environment.
3. It is the practice of developing land and construction projects in a manner that reduces their
impact on the environment by allowing them to create energy efficienct models of self
sufficiency.
4. All of the above
Correct Answer: Option 4
Q8. What is the composition of National Environment Tribunal?
1. Chairperson, Vice Chairperson, Judicial Members
2. Chairperson, Judicial Members, Technical Members
3. Chairperson, Vice Chairperson, Judicial Members, Technical Members
4. Chairperson, Judicial Members, Technical Members
Correct Answer: Option 3
Q9. "Which of the following statements is true about the principle of Inter - Generational Equity?
(i) Anticipate, prevent & attack causes of environmental degradation
(ii) Conserving the diversity and resources
(iii) Right to inherit from the cultural & natural inheritance of past generations
(iv) Compensate the victims of pollution & the costs of environmental degradation"
1. Only i & ii
2. Only iii & iv
3. Only ii & iii
4. Only i & iv
Correct Answer: Option 3
Q10. What is the ambient air quality standard with respect to noise in a residential area during day
time as prescribed by the Central Pollution Control Board?
1. 75 db
2. 65 db
3. 55 db
4. 50 db
Correct Answer: Option 3

Subjective
Q1. What is Environmental Impact Assessment?
Q2. What is Eco Mark?
Q3. Explain the significance of Stockholm Conference in Environmental Jurisprudence.
Q4. Define Educational Institution as defined under the Noise Pollution Rules.
Q5. What is Polluter Pays Principle?
Q6. What is cognizance of offence under EPA, 1986?
Q7. What does Bar of Jurisdiction mean under The Air Act?
Q8. Under Section 33 A of Water Act, what directions can be given?
Q9. Who is an occupier under the Air Act?
Q10. What is global warming?

LUC LAW
ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

1. NEPA stands for ………

 A. National Environmental Policy Act
B. National Ecological Protection Act
C. National Environmental Protection Act
D. National Economic Policy Act

Ans. A

2. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India

was:
A. Water Act
B. Air Act
C. Environmental Act
D. Noise Pollution Rule
Ans. A

3. What did Bhopal Gas Leak Act empowered Government for

A.To monitor gas industry
B. To penalise polluters
C. To secure claims
D. To set up special courts

Ans: D

4. The Indian Eco-Mark ( Logo Earthen Urn) was notified in the year 1991 by
_________
a. United Nations
b. Ministry of Environment ,Forest and Climate Change
c. Bureau of Indian Standards
d. Indian Chambers of Commerce
Ans: C

5. Which of the following is an animal article according to sec. 2(2) of the

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
a. A bangle made of coral.
b. A bangle made of plastic.
c. A bangle made of glass
 d. A bangle made of wood.
Ans: A

6. Which one of the following plants is listed under schedule VI of the Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972 and prohibited from cultivation and planting?
a. Blue Vanda
b. Babul
c. Sandal Wood
d. Ear Leaf Acacia
Ans: A
7. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India
was:
a. Water Act
b. Air Act
c. Environmental Act
d. Noise Pollution Rule
Ans: A

8. How is noise pollution controlled in India?

a. Under Crpc. Section 133 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue
order
b. Under Crpc Section 134 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue
order
c. Only Hight Court has the jurisdiction to issue an order
d. Only Supreme Court of India has the jurisdiction to issue an order
Ans: A
9. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 describes the power
to take emergency measures in case of pollution of stream or well.
a. Section 32
b. Section 33
c. Section 34
d. Section 35
Answer: A.
 10.In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been
declared as water pollution prevention control area under:
a. Section 21
b. Section 23
c. Section 19
d. Section 24
Answer: C

11.The main objective of Air Act is:

a. To provide for ensuring standard of pollution from automobiles
b. To put restrictions on establishment of certain industries
c. To provide for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution
d. To establish air laboratory to determining air quality standard

Ans. C

12.Noise pollution has been inserted in the Air Act in the year
a. 1981
b. 1987
c. 1982
d. 2008

Ans. B

13.The chief wildlife warden cannot grant permit to hunt to any person for which
of the following purpose under section 12 of wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?

a. Education
b. Scientific research
c. Collection of specimens for personal use
d. Scientific management

Ans. C
14.Section 5 A of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for constitution of
National Board for wild life. Who is the chairperson of Board?

a. Prime Minister
b. Minister In-charge of Forest and wild life
c. Director of Wild life preservation
d. President of India

Ans. A

15.The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year:

a. 1986
b. 1974
c. 1994
d. 1972

Ans. D

16. Industrial projects have to undergo Environment Impact Assessment as per

the EIA Notification 2006, under which Act have the EIA Notification been

enacted?

a. The Environment Protection Act, 1986

b. The Environment Protection Rules, 1986

c. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

d. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

Ans: D

17.What is the length from the low tide line to sea which is under the purview of
CRZ?
a. area covered between Low Tide Line and 12 nautical miles seaward
b. area covered between Low Tide Line and 13 nautical miles seaward
 c. area covered between Low Tide Line and 14 nautical miles seaward
d. area covered between Low Tide Line and 15 nautical miles seaward
Ans: A

18.Greenhouse effect refers to the gradual warming of earth’s atmosphere due to

the presence of :
a. only carbon dioxide
b. germs in the atmosphere
c. greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
d. more noise in the atmosphere
Ans: C

19.The United Nations Conference on Human Environment was held at

Stockholm in :
a. June 1972
b. January 2000
c. August 1947
d. the U.S.A.
Ans: A
20.The fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment
including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living
creatures is mentioned in :
a. Article 226
b. Article 51-A (g)
c. Article 32
d. Article 21

Ans: B
ENVIRONMENTAL LAW – FINAL EXAMS -2021 – MCQ’s
1. Which of the following statement reflects vicarious liability in environmental laws?
I. The occupier or any person in charge of the functioning of the business of the
industry cannot be held liable for any damages caused by wrongful actions of the
industry which cause environmental damage.
II. The Head of Departments can be held liable for the polluting actions of the
government department/s.
III. The Directors and Managers can be held liable for the polluting actions of the
Industry.
 IV. State is the trustee of all-natural resources and the public is the beneficiary for the
same.
a. I , II , III & IV
b. II ,III
c. I , II
d. III , IV
Ans: b
2. M.C. Mehta v Kamalnath & others, popularly known as Span Motel case (1997 1 SCC 388)
is of significance cause of:
I. Protection of river Beas
II. Public Trust Doctrine
III. Polluter Pays Principle.
a. I,II,III
b. II
c. III
d. I
Ans: a
3. There is both a constitutional pointer to the state and a constitutional duty of the citizens
not only to protect but also improve the environment and to preserve and safeguard the
forests, the flora and fauna and all water resources of the country. Which article/s of the
Indian Constitution reflect the above?
a. Article 51A (h)
b. Articles 48A & 51A(g)
c. Articles 48 & 51 A (g)
d. Articles 47 & 48A
Ans: b

4. Rural litigation and entitlement Kendra v state of UP. (AIR 1988 SC 2187):
I. popularly known as Dehradun Quarrying case.
II. is is about illegal unauthorized mining
III. recognizes the right to live in healthy environment as part of article 21.
IV. is the first of its kind involving environment and ecological imbalance issue

a. I
b. I,II
c. I,II,III,IV
 d. IV
Ans: c
5. For the purpose of discharging its functions, the NGT shall:
a. Apply the principles of sustainable development, precautionary principle and
polluter pays.
b. Be bound by the procedure laid down by code of CPC and rules of Evidence Act.
c. Shall not be guided by principles of Natural justice.
d. Do not have extensive powers to award compensation and grant relief.
Ans: a
6. An appeal against any matter arising under the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974 is made to which authority?
a. National Green Tribunal
b. Appellate Authority set up under sec 28 of the Water Act, 1974
c. Appellate Authority set up under sec 38 of the Water Act, 1974
d. Appellate Authority set up under sec 58 of the Water Act, 1974

Ans: c
7. The earthen pot is India’s Eco-mark. What does it represent?
a. Exemplifies the Self-Reliance of Indian economy
b. Is an indicator for promotion of Indian pottery and handicraft
c. Exemplifies a product produced through Sustainable development
d. Exemplifies a product produced using green technology
Ans: c

8. In T.N.Godamarman Thirumalpad vs. Union Of India 9. S.C.R. 982, the Supreme court
ordered a blanket ban on lumbering and in later cases introduced the process of paying
for the amount of timber cut at the market rate by applying the economic concept of
____________________ to natural resources.
a. Gross Domestic Product
b. Inflationary rates
c. Net Present Value
d. Gross Profit Margin
Ans: a
9. Identify the correct sequence of stages of obtaining environmental clearance by new
projects under the EIA Notification, 2006.
e) Screening, Appraisal, Scoping, Public Consultation.
f) Screening, Scoping, Public Consultation, Appraisal.
g) Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping, Appraisal.
h) Appraisal, Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping.
Ans: b
10. The State Pollution Control Board can issue Directions for the closure of an industry
violating air pollution control standards under _____________
a. Sec. 31-A of the Air Act, 1981
b. Sec. 22-A of the Air Act, 1981
c. Sec 21 of the Air Act, 1981
d. Sec. 31- B of the Air Act, 1981
Ans: b
11. Which of the following legislations is not enacted under Environment Protection Act,
1986?
a. The E - Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2016
b. The Solid Waste Management and Handling Rules, 2016
c. The Forest Conservation Act, 1980
d. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2018
Ans: c
12. Which of the following is not covered under the Forest Act, 1927?
a. Protected Forests
b. Reserve Forests
c. Village Forests
d. Governmental forest
Ans: d

13. Which principle was the predecessor to the precautionary principle?

a. Latent potential principle
b. Patent potential principle
c. Latent capacity principle
d. Assimilative capacity principle
Ans: d
14. Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by
organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every
 area in which human impacts on the environment. At which International conference was
Agenda 21 adopted by various nation states?
a. United Nations Conference on Human environment
b.  World Summit on Sustainable Development
c. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
d. Climate Change Conference
Ans: c
15. Tiruvidaimarudur Conservation Reserve located in Tamil Nadu was declared on February
14, 2005. It is the First Conservation Reserve to be established in the country. It is an effort
of a village community who wanted to protect the birds nesting in their village. Under
which law can conservation reserves and community reserves be declared in India?
a. Forest Act, 1927
b. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
c. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
d. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Ans: c
16. Which of the following is hunting as per the definition of hunting given in Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972?
a. Killing a wild animal in self defence
b. Disturbing the eggs of wild birds
c. Capturing a snake for making venom
d. Killing Bats
Ans: b

17. Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016 it is the duty of the
_________________ to provide or allocate suitable land for development of common bio-
medical waste treatment facilities in their respective jurisdictions.
a. State Government
b. Municipal Authorities
c. Central Pollution Control Board
d. Ministry of defence
Ans: b
18. In which case did the Supreme Court of India decide upon the validity of certain sections
of the Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act, 1985?
a. Union Carbide Corporation vs. Union of India (1991) 4 S.C.C. 584.
b. Union Carbide Corporation India Ltd. Vs. Union of India  (1991) 4 S.C.C. 584.
c. Charan Lal Sahu vs. Union of India 1988 AIR 107 
d. Charan Singh vs. Union of India 2002 (4) AWC 3175
Ans: c
19. In Delhi Bottling Company Private Limited v. Central Board for the Prevention and Control
of Water Pollution (AIR 1986 DEL 152) what was an argument put forth by the petitioner?
a. That the samples were not collected as per the procedure under S. 21 of the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b. That the samples were not collected as per the procedure under S. 22 of the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c. The sample should not have been collected while he was away.
d. The directions of closure given by the Board is violative of his right to trade.
Ans: a
20. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court evolve the principle of absolute
liability for environmental pollution due to hazardous industry ?
a. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action vs. Union of India 1996 AIR 1446 
b. A.P. Pollution Control Board (I) Vs. Prof. M.V.Nayudu ( 1999(2) SCC 718)
c. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India [AIR 1987 SC 965]
d. Sterlite Industries (I) Ltd. vs. Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board & Ors (2013).

Ans: c

KES’ SHRI. JAYANTIALAL H. PATEL LAW COLLEGE

TYBLS
ENVIRONMENTAL LAW
SEMESTER VI

1. The Constitution of India provides for the protection of environment under

which of the following articles?
 e) Article 14
f) Article 21
g) Article 19
h) Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)

Ans. D

2. NEPA stands for ………

A. National Environmental Policy Act
B. National Ecological Protection Act
C. National Environmental Protection Act
D. National Economic Policy Act

Ans. A

3. Which of the following principle/principles were propounded in M. C.

Mehta v. Union of India, (Oleum Gas Leak case)?

A. Absolute Liability
B. Polluter Pays Principle
C. Precautionary Principle
D. All of the Above

Ans. D

4. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in

India was:
A. Water Act
B. Air Act
C. Environmental Act
D. Noise Pollution Rule

Ans. A

5. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is

e) Regulation of hazardous wastes

f) Regulate the production of nuclear energy
g) Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
 h) None of the above

Ans. C

6. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?

e) 21
f) 25
g) 27
h) 29

Ans. C

7. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and

wild life is covered under:
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State policy
D. Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State policy

Ans. D

8. Section 5 A of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for constitution of

National Board for wild life. Who is the chairperson of Board?

A. Prime Minister
B. Minister In-charge of Forest and wild life
C. Director of Wild life preservation
D. President of India

Ans. A

9. The main objective of Air Act is:

A. To provide for ensuring standard of pollution from automobiles
B. To put restrictions on establishment of certain industries
C. To provide for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution
D. To establish air laboratory to determining air quality standard

Ans. C
10. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year:
A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1994
D. 1972

Ans. D

11. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is advocated by which of the

following principle of Rio Declaration?
A. Principle 10
B. Principle 3
C. Principle 12
D. Principle 7

Ans. A

12. Noise pollution has been inserted in the Air Act in the year
A. 1981
B. 1987
C. 1982
D. 2008

Ans. B

13. The Earth Summit held at Rio-de Janeiro, Brazil was on :

A. The control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous waste

B. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
C. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment
D. United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

Ans. B

14. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted to implement the
provisions of........... in India

e) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at

Stockholm
 f) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)
known as Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro
g) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development held at
Johannesburg
h) Basal Convention

Ans. A

15. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to :

e) Urbanisation
f) Rapid Industrialisation
g) Increase in vehicle population
h) Illiteracy

Ans. B

16. The bio-medical waste is used to be regulated in India by which of the

legislation?

A. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

B. The Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule 1998
C. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
D. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Ans. B

17. The chief wildlife warden cannot grant permit to hunt to any person for
which of the following purpose under section 12 of wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972?

A. Education
B. Scientific research
C. Collection of specimens for personal use
D. Scientific management

Ans. C

18. The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the
municipalities was brought to light in which of the following cases?
 A. Indian Council for Environment Legal Action Vs. Union of India
B. A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu
C. S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India
D. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India

Ans. D

19. Which of the following are the primary causes of water pollution?

A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Human activities
D. Floods
Ans. C

20. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of
public trust that the State as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal
duty to protect the natural resources. These natural resources are meant for
public use and cannot be converted into private ownership?

A. M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamalnath and Others.

B. M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
C. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony
Welfare Association.
D. A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu

Ans. A

ANSWER KEY

1 D

2 A
3 D

4 A

5 C

6 C

7 D

8 A

9 C

10 D

11 A

12 B

13 B

14 A

15 B

16 B

17 C

18 D
19 C

20 A

MCQ’s for Environmental Law – ATKT Exam – Nov.2020

1. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 creates __________ noise zones.
e) 1
f) 2
g) 3
h) 4
2. The complaint against Noise Pollution is to be made to______________
a. Housing Society
b. Nearest Police Station
c. State Pollution Control Board
d. Municipal Authorities
3. Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules were last amended in the year
______________
e) 2020
f) 2016
g) 2018
h) 2011
4. The State Pollution Control Board can issue Directions for the closure of an industry
violating air pollution control standards under Section _____________ of The Air
(Prevention & Control) of pollution Act, 1981.
a. Sec. 31-A of the Air Act, 1981
b. Sec. 22-A of the Air Act, 1981
c. Sec 21 of the Air Act, 1981
d. Sec. 31- B of the Air Act, 1981

5. An appeal against any matter arising under the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974 is made to which authority?
e. National Green Tribunal
f. Appellate Authority set up under sec 28 of the Water Act, 1974
g. Appellate Authority set up under sec 38 of the Water Act, 1974
h. Appellate Authority set up under sec 58 of the Water Act, 1974

6. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under_________

 a. Article 5-A
b. Article 21-B
c. Article 27-B
d. Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)

7. Which of the following legislation incorporates the principle of No-fault liability?

e) The Water ( Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
f) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
g) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
h) The Environment Protection Act, 1986

8. In which of the following case did the rule of strict liability evolve?
a. Union Carbide Corporation India Limited v UOI (1991) 4 SCC 584
b. Rylands v Fletcher ( 1868) LR 3HL 330
c. M.C.Mehta V UOI A.I.R (1987) SC 1086
d. National Audubon Society v. Superior Court (Supreme Court of California 1983, 33
Cal.3d 419

9. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution
control?
a. Water Pollution Control Board
b. State Pollution Control Board
c. Central Pollution Control Board
d. Air pollution Control Board

10. All tanneries situated on the banks of River Ganga were asked by the Supreme Court “to
show cause why directions as requested by the petitioner should not be issued against
them”, Which case is being referred to by this statement?
e) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Municipalities Case) AIR 1988 SC 1115
f) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Calcutta Tanneries Case) AIR 1997 SC 1937
g) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India (Badkhal & Surajkund Lakes)1997 3SCC 715
h) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India ( Kanpur Tanneries Case) AIR 1988 SC 1937

11. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the governmental direction to
close down the limestone mining operations and quarrying permanently.
a. India council for Enviro-legal Action v UOI (1996 ) 3 SCC 212
b. M.C Mehta v UOI (2000) 8 SCC 535
c. Rural litigation and Entitlement Kendra v State of Uttar Pradesh (A.I.R 1985 S.C
652)
d. Ram Raj singh v Babu Lal (A.I.R 1982 All 285)
12. In T.N.Godamarman Thirumalpad vs. Union Of India 9. S.C.R. 982, the Supreme court
ordered a blanket ban on ____________
e) Fishing
f) Burning Fodder
g) Aqua Culture
h) Lumbering

13. The Indian Eco-Mark ( Logo Earthen Urn) was notified in the year 1991 by _________
a. United Nations
b. Ministry of Environment ,Forest and Climate Change
c. Bureau of Indian Standards
d. Indian Chambers of Commerce

14. Industrial projects have to undergo Environment Impact Assessment as per the EIA
Notification 2006, under which Act have the EIA Notification been enacted?
a. The Environment Protection Act, 1986
b. The Environment Protection Rules, 1986
c. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
d. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

15. Identify the correct sequence of stages of obtaining environmental clearance by new
projects under the EIA Notification, 2006.
i) Screening, Appraisal, Scoping, Public Consultation.
j) Screening, Scoping, Public Consultation, Appraisal.
k) Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping, Appraisal.
l) Appraisal, Public Consultation, Screening, Scoping.

16. According to the Wildlife protection Act, 1972, which authority can permit the hunting of
an animal for scientific research or collection of venom to create vaccines?
a. Chief Wildlife Warden
b. Chief Minister
c. Conservator of Forest
d. Deputy Commissioner

17. Which of the following is an animal article according to sec. 2(2) of the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972?
a. A bangle made of coral.
b. A bangle made of plastic.
c. A bangle made of glass
d. A bangle made of wood.
 18. Which one of the following plants is listed under schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972 and prohibited from cultivation and planting?
a. Blue Vanda
b. Babul
c. Sandal Wood
d. Ear Leaf Acacia

19. According to the Water (Prevention & Control of pollution) Act, 1974, any liquid, gas or
solid discharge from any premises used for carrying industrial operation or process or
treatment is called __________________.
a. Sewage
b. Contaminants
c. Trade Effluents
d. Hazardous Effluents

20. Under the Forest Act, 1927 who has the right to constitute a village forest and entrust the
upkeep of the village forest to the community?
a. The panchayat
b. The Central Government
c. The State Government
d. The forest settlement officer

Environmental Law MCQ

Q1. The world as World Environmental day is celebrated on:

 a. December 1
b. ** June 5
c. November 14
d. August 15
Answer: b. June 5

Q2. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
a. **Water Act
b. Air Act
c. Environmental Act
d. Noise Pollution Rule
Answer : a. Water Act
Q3. The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:
a. **1986
b. 1992
c. 1984
d. 1974
Answer : a. 1986

Q4. In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as water
pollution prevention control area under:
a. Section 21
b. Section 23
c. **Section 19
d. Section 24
Answer: c. Section 19

Q5. The first Forest Act was introduced in the_____ year.

a. 1989
b. **1980
c. 1972
d. 1979
Answer: b. 1980
Q6. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is 

a. Regulation of hazardous wastes

b. Regulate the production of nuclear energy

c. **Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases

d. None of the above

Answer: c. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases

Q7.  _________ is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are converted to the

residue and gaseous products through combustion.

e) Incarnation

f) **Incineration

g) Incarceration

h) Incubation

Answer: b. Incineration

Q.8. Consider the following statements: 

1. A Wildlife sanctuary can be declared by only state Governments

2. A National park can be declared only by Union Government Which among the above statements

is/ are correct?

a. Only 1 is correct
b. Only 2 is correct

c. Both 1 & 2 are correct

d. **Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer : d. **Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Q9. In recent times, the Brown clouds have been a cause of concern with respect to the climate

change. What makes us so concerned about them?

1. Brown clouds absorb sunlight and accelerate the Green House Effect

2. Brown clouds suppress the rains and can change rainfall pattern

3. They are directly affecting the Himalayan Glaciers as well as arctic

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

a. Only 1 & 2

b. Only 2 & 3

c. Only 1 & 3

d. ** 1, 2 & 3

Answer: d. 1, 2 & 3

Q. 10. The development activities along the Seacoast and tidal influenced water bodies

is regulated by which of the following?

1) The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)

2) Island Protection Zone (IPZ)

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

a. Only 1

b. Only 2
 c. **Both 1 & 2

d. Neither 1 & 2

Answer : c. Both 1 & 2

Q. 11. On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act,

which envisaged the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority. Who among the

following heads this authority?

a. Home Minister of India

b. **Prime Minister of India

c. Prime Minister of India

d. President of India

Answer: b. Prime Minister of India

Q. 12 . The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (EPA) came into force soon after which of the

following events?

a. Bombay Docks Explosion

b. Chasnala Mining Disaster

c. The Union Carbide Gas Tragedy

d. **Bhopal Gas Tragedy

Answer : d. Bhopal Gas Tragedy

Q. 13. Which environmental law establishes two sets of penal offences whereby the
government can sue any person who uses dynamite or other explosive substance in any way
(whether coastal or inland) with intent to catch or destroy any fish or poisonous fish in order
to kill?

a. Easement Act
b. **Indian Fisheries Act
c. Factories Act
d. Coastal Regulation Zone Notification

Answer : b. Indian Fisheries Act

Q 14. Which of the following environmental law empowers the central and state pollution
control boards to meet with grave emergencies of air pollution?

a. **Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act

b. Environment (Protection) Act
c. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Rules
d. Objective of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules

Answer: a. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act

Q. 15. Which of the following act of environment and ecology is associated with 'law apply to
every municipal authority responsible for the collection, segregation, storage, transportation,
processing, and disposal of municipal solid wastes'?

a. **Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules

b. Environment (Siting for Industrial Projects) Rules
c. Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules
d. Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules
Answer: a. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules

Q. 16. Which of the following is the oldest environmental law in India?

e) Wildlife Protection Act
f) River Board Act
g) Factories Act
h) **Easement Act
Answer: d. Easement Act

Q. 17. Consider the following statement (s) related to the Coastal Regulation Zone
Notification.
I. It puts regulations on various activities, including construction, are regulated.
II. It gives some protection to the backwaters and estuaries.
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. **Both I & II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer: c. Both I & II

Q. 18. How is noise pollution controlled in India?

a. **Under Crpc. Section 133 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue order
b. Under Crpc Section 134 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue order
c. Only Hight Court has the jurisdiction to issue an order
d. Only Supreme Court of India has the jurisdiction to issue an order

Answer : a. Under Crpc. Section 133 the magisterial court have been empowered to issue order

Q. 19 . Complaints can be made to the authority, if the noise level exceeds the ambient noise
standards by
a. 5 dB(A)
b. 7 dB(A)
c. 8 dB(A)
d. **10 dB(A)
Answer: d. 10 dB(A)
Q. 20 What is the length from the low tide line to sea which is under the purview of CRZ?
a. **area covered between Low Tide Line and 12 nautical miles seaward
b. area covered between Low Tide Line and 13 nautical miles seaward
c. area covered between Low Tide Line and 14 nautical miles seaward
d. area covered between Low Tide Line and 15 nautical miles seaward
Answer: a. area covered between Low Tide Line and 12 nautical miles seaward

Q. 21. What is the maximum punishment for an Offence under Environment Protection Act 1986?
a. with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years with fine which may extend
to two lakh rupees, or with both,.
b. **with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years with fine which may
extend to one lakh rupees, or with both,.
c. with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years with fine which may extend
to fifty thousand rupees, or with both,.
d. with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year with fine which may extend to
ten thousand rupees, or with both,
Answer: b. with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years with fine which may
extend to one lakh rupees, or with both,.

Q. 22. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 describes the power to take
emergency measures in case of pollution of stream or well.
a. **Section 32
b. Section 33
c. Section 34
d. Section 35
Answer: a. Section 32

Q. 23 ……………………………. of the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

clearly lists all functions of the respective state boards for countering water pollution.
a. Section 15
b. Section 16
c. **Section 17
d. Section 18
Answer: c. Section 17

Q. 24 What is the legal time limit for loud music in India?

 a. **A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used at night (between 10.00 p.m.
to 6.00 a.m.) except in closed premises for communication within
b. A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used at night (between 12.00
midnight to 5.00 a.m.) except in closed premises for communication within
c. A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used at night (between 11.00 p.m. to
6.00 a.m.) except in closed premises for communication within
d. A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used at night (between 11.00 p.m. to
8.00 a.m.) except in closed premises for communication within
Answer: a. A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used at night (between 10.00
p.m. to 6.00 a.m.) except in closed premises for communication within

Q.25 Under which section Air Act declare any area as air pollution control area?
a. **Section 19
b. Section 20
c. Section 21
d. Section 22
Answer: Section 19
 ENVIRONMENTAL LAW MCQ’s

Q.1. Definition as given in Environment ( Protection) Act, 1986, `environmental

pollution’ means the presence in the environment of :
a) ***any environmental pollutant
b) any hazardous substances
c) any harmful substance
d) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance

Q.2. If any person, wants the Court to take cognizance of any offence under the
Environment ( Protection) Act, 1986, than he would have to give a notice :
e) of not less than 30 days
f) ***of not less than 60 days
g) of not less than 45 days
h) of not less than 90 days

Q.3. In which case the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that under Article 32 of the
Constitution, the Court is empowered to award compensation :
a. Municipal Corporation v/s Dev Raj & Ors.
b. A.P. Pollution Control Board v/s Prof. M. V. Nayadu
c. ***M. C. Mehta v/s UOI
d. Dr. C. S. Subramanyam v/s Kumaraswamy
Q.4. `Air Pollutant’ is defined in :
a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
b. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Actk 1974
c. none of the laws relating to environment protection
d. *** Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

Q.5. Whoever obstructs any person acting under orders/directions of the board,
under the Air ( Prevention and Control of pollution) Act, 1981, shall be punished
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to :
a. ***3 months or with fine which may extend to 10,000/- rupees or with
both
b. 6 months or with fine which may extend to 5000/- rupees or with both
c. 1 yrs. or with fine which may extend to 2000/- rupees or with both
d. 3 yrs. or with fine of Rs. 50000/- rupees or both

Q.6. : Now any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the Appellate Authority
under Section 31 of the Air ( Prevention and Control of Pollution)Act, 1981, would
have to file an appeal before :
e) State Government
f) ***National Green Tribunal
g) City Civil Court
h) High Court

Q.7. Which Section provides for `power to take samples of effluents and procedure
to be followed in connection therewith’ under the Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1974 ? :
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. ***Section 21
d. Section 23
Q.8. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for :
a. Only State Board
b. Only Central Board
c. National Board
d. ***Central Board as well as State Board

Q.9. The rule of `absolute liability’ was laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in :
:
a. ***M. C. Mehta and Anr. v/s Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries &
Ors.
b. Harihar Poly-fibres v/s The Sub-Divisional Magistrate
c. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v/s Amrit Lal
d. M.S. Ahlawat v/s State of Haryana

Q.10. The Supreme Court through Krishna Iyer, J observed “ the Code of Criminal
Procedure operates against the statutory bodies and others regardless of the cash
in their coffers” in which of the following cases :
a. M. C. Mehta v/s UOI
b. ***Municipal Council Ratlam v/s Vardhichand
c. Rayland v/s Fletcher
d. Blyth v/s Birmingham Water Works Co.

Q.11. The definition of `Wild Life’ under Section 2 (13) of the Wild Life ( Protection)
Act, 1972, includes :
a. birds
b. some animals
c. *** fish
d. non-aquatic animals

Q.12. The power to make rules for the regulation and control of Noise producing
and generating sources, under the Environment Protection Act and Rules are given
to :
 a. State Government
b. State Government and local government
c. Municipal authorities
d. ***Central Government

Q.13. Who is not competent to initiate action according to Section 50(1) of the Wild
Life ( Protection) Act, 1972 :
a. ***any police constable
b. Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Any Forest Officer
d. The Director, Wild Life Conservation or any officer authorised by him

Q.14. Climate change means a change of climate which is attributable directly or

indirectly to :
a. Act of god
b. ***human activity that alters the composition of the global
atmosphere
c. Industries
d. water pollution

Q.15. Greenhouse effect refers to the gradual warming of earth’s atmosphere due
to the presence of :
a. only carbon dioxide
b. germs in the atmosphere
c. ***greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
d. more noise in the atmosphere

Q.16. The United Nations Conference on Human Environment was held at

Stockholm in :
a. ***June 1972
b. January 2000
 c. August 1947
d. the U.S.A.

Q.17. The fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment
including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living
creatures is mentioned in :
a. Article 226
b. ***Article 51-A (g)
c. Article 32
d. Article 21

Q.18. “ The environmental problem is one which no nation, no continent, no

hemisphere, no race, no system can handle alone” was said by :
e) the Head of State
f) the Justice Krishna Iyer
g) ***the Secretary General Mr. Kurt Waldheim of the United Nations
h) by the President of United State of America

Q.19. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the protection and
improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life ? :
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. ***Article 48 A

Q.20. Right to clean environment is included in :

a. ***Article 21
b. Article 25
c. Article 226
d. Article 32

Q. 21. Under the `Precautionary Principle’ the :

 e) Government is not responsible for environment pollution
f) ***Government & statutory authorities must anticipate, prevent &
attack the cause of environmental degradation
g) industries have to make good the loss caused by them to environment
h) public interest litigation is maintainable

Q. 22. Criminal action could also lie for penalizing fouling water of public spring or
reservoir under Section :
a. 500 of I.P.C.
b. 376 of I.P.C.
c. ***277 of I.P.C.
d. 302 of I.P.C.

Q. 23. The power to make laws pertaining to environmental problems are

contained in :c
a. Union List ( VII Schedule ) of the Constitution
b. State List (VII Schedule) of the Constitution
c. Concurrent List (VII Schedule) of the Constitution
d. ***Union, State and Concurrent list ( VII Schedule) of the Constitution

Q. 24. One of the following cases pertains to Bhopal Gas tragedy, which one :
a. ***Union Carbide Corporation v/s UOI
b. M. C. Mehta v/s UOI
c. UOI v/s Kamath Holiday Resorts
d. Sushila Saw Mills v/s State of Orrisa

Q. 25. The old concept that development and ecology cannot go together is no
longer acceptable. “ Sustainable Development” is the answer. Was said in :
a. General Public of Saproon v/s State
b. ***M. C. Mehta v/s UOI ( Taj Mahal case )
c. CERS v/s UOI
d. Lakshmipathy v/s State of Karnataka
 Environmental Law
1. Which Directive Principle of The Constitution of India protects the environment?
a) Article 48b
b) Article 47a
c) Article 48a
d) Article 47b
Answer article 48a
2. State the penalty for failure to comply with the orders under Section 25 of the National
Environment Tribunal Act 1995?

a) Imprisonment of two years and a fine extended upto 5 lakh or both

b) Imprisonment for a term extended to 3 years and a fine up to to 5 lacs or both
c) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or a fine up to 10 lacs or both
d) Imprisonment for a term of five years or a fine of 5 lacs or both

Answer : imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or a fine up to 10 lacs or both

3. _________ means meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of the future
generation to meet their own needs.
a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Precautionary Principle
c) Sustainable Development
d) Environmental Safeguarding

Answer sustainable development

4. Which Section of The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 defines "Occupier"?
Section 2 (a)
Section 2 (d)
Section 2(dd)
Section 2 (e)

Answer section 2 (d)

5. Any solid, liquid or gaseous substances present in the atmosphere which may be injurious to human
beings and other living creatures or environment are called_______.

a) Air pollutant
b) Smog
c) Smoke
d) Dust
Answer Air pollutant

6. What are generally used to provide an incentive for the manufacturer to reduce adverse
environmental impact and ultimately to prove the quality of environment and to create sustainable
management of sources?

a) Eco Marks
b) Green Marks
c) Environmental Managed Product
d) Ecological Safe Product

Answer eco mark

7. Which among the following is not a type of forest mentioned under Forest Act, 1927?

a) Reserve forest
b) Protected forest
c) Sacred forest
d) Village forest

Answer sacred forest

8. Functions of the State Board are mentioned under which section of The Water (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act 1974?
a) Section 16
b) Section 15
c) Section 17
d) Section 21

Answers section 17

9. _________ means bringing out the potential effects of human activities on the environment.
 a) Environmental Impact Audit
b) Environmental Impact Assessment
c) Environmental Assessment System
d) Environmental Valuation

Answer environmental impact assessment

10. ‘Air pollution’ is defined under which section of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution),
Act 1981?

a) Section 2b
b) Section 2a
c) Section 2 aa
d) Section 2c

Answer section 2b

11. Areas around schools, hospitals and courts of law are classified as ______ , where no sound of
traffic, loudspeakers and construction works are permitted.

a) Noise Free Zone

b) Quite Zone
c) Non Traffic Zone
d) Residential Zone

Answer noise free zones

12. Which waste is generated during diagnosis/ treatment of human beings and animals or during the
research activities?

a) Biomedical waste
b) Hospital waste
c) Hazardous waste
d) Biodegradable waste

Answer bio medical waste

13. What is "Day" as per the Noise Pollution Rules?

a) Day time means 6 a.m. to 10 p.m.

b) Day time means 5 a.m. to 11 p.m.
c) Day time means 6 a.m. to 11 p.m.
d) Day time means 5:00 a.m. to 10 p.m.

Answer day time means 6 a.m. to 10 p.m.

14. What is the basic composition of National Environmental Tribunal?

a) Chairperson and Judicial Members

b) Chairperson, Vice Chairperson, Judicial Member and Technical Member

c) Chairperson, Vice Chairperson and Judicial Member

d) Chairperson and Vice Chairperson 

Answer Chairperson, Vice Chairperson, Judicial Member and Technical Member

15. What is the meaning of ‘Act’ under Hazardous Waste Rules?

a) Environmental Protection Act 1986

b) National Environmental Tribunal Act 1995
c) Air (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act 1981
d) Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act 1974

Answer Environmental Protection Act 1986

16. ___________ means the whole or any part of any captive or wild animal (other than vermin)
which has been kept or preserved by any means, whether artificial or natural as per Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
 a) Wildlife preserves
b) Trophy
c) Forest articles
d) Wildlife materials
 
Answer Trophy

17. What does Section 12 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 state?
a) Establishment of environmental laboratory
b) Establishment of Central board
c) Establishment of government analyst
d) Establishment of State board

Answer establishment of environmental laboratory

18 .Section 5 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 states that the power to issue directions by the
Central Government. Which among the following are the appropriate powers envisaged on the
Central Government?
a) Close any industry and stop electricity or water supply of industry
b) To lay off any workers of the industry
c) To relocate the industry to a different place
d) To retrench any worker of the industry
Answer Close any industry and stop electricity or water supply of industry

19. Who are Governmental Analyst as Environment Protection Act, 1986?

a) persons of prescribed qualification appointed by the central government to analyse samples

of air water soils and other substances from industry
b) inspector who is in charge of investigating the industries with regards to the workers
 c) a person who who presides over the Central board
d) a person who who presides over the State board

answer persons of prescribed qualification appointed by the central government to analyse

samples of air water soils and other substances from industry

20. Which section of Wildlife Protection Act talks about restrictions on entry in a sanctuary?

a) section 28
b) section 29
c) section 27
d) section 25

Answer section 27

21. In the case of offences by Government Department under Section 17 of the Environment
Protection Act 1986, who is deemed to be guilty of the offence on behalf of the department?

a) The Public Servant

b) The Inspector
c) Head of The Department
d) Chief Officer

answer head of the department

22. What is CRZ III?

a) coastal zone in the rural areas (developed and undeveloped) and also areas within
municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not substantially
built up.
b) areas that have already been developed up to or close to the  shoreline
c) These are ecologically sensitive areas these are essential in maintaining the
ecosystem 
d) This lies in the aquatic area up to territorial limits.
Answer coastal zone in the rural areas (developed and undeveloped) and also areas within
municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not substantially built
up.

23. Which Section of Wildlife Protection Act defines ‘National Park’?

a) Section 2 ( 21)
b) Section 2 ( 22
c) Section 2 ( 23)
d) Section 2 ( 24)

Answer Section 2 ( 21)

24. ______________ was the first international declaration for protection of environment,
which realised the need for establishing common rules for preservation of environment.

a) United Nations Climate Change Conference

b) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
c) Johannesburg Declaration
d) Stockholm Conference
Answer Stockholm Conference

25._______________ is the gradual heating of Earth's surface, oceans and atmosphere, is

caused by human activity, primarily the burning of fossil fuels that pump carbon dioxide,
methane and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

a) Global Warming
b) Climate Change
c) Ozone depletion
d) Weather Fluctuations

Answer Global Warming

QUESTION PAPER ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

1. Which event proved a turning point of corporate environmental responsibility in India?
Oleum leak gas
Bhopal Gas Disaster case
Shriram foods case
Doon Valley case

2. When was Air(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act enacted?

1974
1996
2000
1981

3. Which legislation led to formation of Environmental Relief Fund?

Water Act
the Indian Arms Act, 1978
the Public Liability Insurance Act
the Explosives Act

4. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:

Article 48 A and 51 A(g)
Article 5A
Article 21 B
Article 27

5. How many chapters does the EPA has

4 chapters
2 chapters
7 chapters
8 chapter

6. What did Bhopal Gas Leak Act empowered Government for

To monitor gas industry
To penalise polluters
To secure claims
To set up special courts

7. Which one is NOT an international agreement related to environment protection

Kyoto Protocol
Paris Agreement
Montreal Protocol
Bretton-woods Convention

8. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change(UNFCC) is an international treaty

drawn at
 World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
United Nations Conference on Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen 2009

9. Offences by company is mentioned in which section of The Environment (Protection) Act,

1986?
Section 17
Section 16
Section 23
Section 15

10. How many members does the board of CPCB has

16
17
18
15

11. Which of the following is not a ‘forest produce’ under the Indian Forest Act, 1927
Trees and leaves
Charcoal
Peat
Iron

12. In this case, a group of public spirited citizen brought to the notice of the court that the
quarry owners has indiscriminately mined slopes and therefore depriving them of trees and
damaging the natural structure in the valley. The title of the case is-
RLEK, Dehradun v. State of UP
Dr. N S Subba Rao v. The Government of Tamil Nadu
MC Mehta v. UOI
Unnikrishnan v. State of UP

13. Section 21 of the Water(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 deals with
Power of State Government to restrict the application of the Act to certain areas
Power to take samples of effluents and procedure to be followed
Power to obtain information
Power to issue writs

14. In this case, the Supreme Court said that natural resources are the assets of the entire
nation. It is the obligation of all concerned State governments and Union Government to
conserve and not waste these resources. The title of the case is-

MC Mehta v. UOI
RLEK, Dehradun v. State of UP
T N GodavarmanThirummulped(87) v. UOI
KesavanandaBharati v State of Kerala
15. World Environment day is celebrated on
December 1
 June 5
November 14
August 15

16. EIA stands for

Environmental Impact Assessment
Environmental Identifying Assessment
Environment Internal Audit
Environmental Issues Arrangement

17. The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made in:
1976
1950
1982
1960

18. The principle that states that decision makers must adopt precautionary measures when
scientific evidence about environmental and human health hazard in uncertain, is called-
Polluters pay principle
Sustainable development
Inter-generational equity
Precautionary Principle

19. Which of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code deals with environmental issues?
Section 268
Section 300
Section 278
Section 8

20. The Bio Medical Waste(Handling and Disposal Rules is NOT applicable to-
Waste generated in hospitals
Waste generated in funeral homes
Waste generated in clinics and diagnostic centres
Waste generated in kitchen and household
 Environmental law
NEPA stands for ………
{c}National Environmental Policy Act
National Ecological Protection Act
National Environmental Protection Act
National Economic Policy Act

The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
{c}Water Act
Air Act
Environmental Act
Noise Pollution Rule

Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and wild life is
covered under:
Fundamental Rights
Fundamental Duties
Directive Principles of State policy
{c}Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State policy

Section 5 A of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for constitution of National

Board for wild life. Who is the chairperson of Board?

{c}Prime Minister
Minister In-charge of Forest and wild life
Director of Wild life preservation
President of India

The main objective of Air Act is:

To provide for ensuring standard of pollution from automobiles
To put restrictions on establishment of certain industries
{c}To provide for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution
To establish air laboratory to determining air quality standard

The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year:

1986
1974
1994
{c}1972
 Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is advocated by which of the following
principle of Rio Declaration?
{c}Principle 10
Principle 3
Principle 12
Principle 7

The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought
to light in which of the following cases?

Indian Council for Environment Legal Action Vs. Union of India

A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu
S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India
{c}M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust that
the State as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural
resources. These natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into
private ownership?

{c}M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamalnath and Others.

M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
Church of God (Full Gospel) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare
Association.
A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu

The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 creates __________ noise zones.
One
two
three
{c}four