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QUANTITATIVE

ABILITY
(Practice Exercise-I)

This book is a part of set, not be sold separately.


Contents
Exercise - 1 ... 5-8
Exercise - 2 ... 9 - 12
Exercise - 3 ... 13 - 16
Exercise - 4 ... 17 - 20
Exercise - 5 ... 21 - 24
Exercise - 6 ... 25 - 29
Exercise - 7 ... 30 - 34
Exercise - 8 ... 35 - 39
Exercise - 9 ... 40 - 45
Exercise - 10 ... 46 - 50
Exercise - 11 ... 51 - 56
Exercise - 12 ... 57 - 60
Exercise - 13 ... 61 - 64
Exercise - 14 ... 65 - 70
Exercise - 15 ... 71 - 75
Exercise - 16 ... 76 - 80
Answers ... 81 - 84
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 1
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. Three baskets marked A, B and C contain 83 apples in all. If a dozen apples are
transferred from basket A to B, basket B will have five times the number of
apples in A; if three apples are transferred from B to C, C will have half of what
B contains. How many apples should be transferred from B to C to make their
numbers equal?
(1) 13 (2) 17
(3) 20 (4) 11
2. How many numbers between 1 to 15000 (both excluded) are both squares and
cubes?
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

6 9
1 1
3. Which of the following rational numbers lies between   and   ?
5 5

8 7
1 1
(1)   (2)  
7 9

8
 1
(3)   (4) None of these
6

4. If the highest power of 5 contained in N! is 51, find the maximum number of


such natural numbers N possible.
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 5

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QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. If x, y are positive integers and when x is increased by y%, it becomes y, when


y is decreased by x%, it becomes x then which of the following is a possible
value of y?
(1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 25 (4) 60
6. If n is an odd number, which of the following is necessarily odd?
(1) n (n 3 – 1) (2) n 5 – n
(3) n2 + 1 (4) (n 7 – 2) (n 9 – 2)n
DIRECTIONS for questions 7 and 8: These questions are based on the data given
below. A number n when multiplied with 13 has only 7’s in the product. Let the
product be denoted by X.
7. How many digits are there in the least value of n?
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) None of these
8. How many digits are there in the second smallest value that n can assume?
(1) 13 (2) 12
(3) 11 (4) 10

9. What is the remainder of


10 25
– 7
?
11

(1) 10 (2) 7
(3) 3 (4) 5
10. If N = 22225555 + 55552222, then which of the following statements is true?
(1) N is a multiple of 7 but not 11. (2) N is a multiple of 11 but not 7.
(3) N is a multiple of both 7 and 11. (4) None of these

6
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

11. Let M be the set of all even numbers from 1 to 25 and all the odd numbers
between 26 and 200. Multiply all the elements of M. How many zeroes are there
at the end of this product?
(1) 22 (2) 13
(3) 8 (4) 21
12. The number of ordered pairs (x, y) of positive integers such that x + y = 90 and
their greatest common divisor is 6 equals
(1) 15 (2) 14
(3) 8 (4) 10
13. Find the remainder when 5 times the units digit of (37)735 is divided by 4.
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) None of these
14. Let x, y and z be distinct prime numbers. Which of the following statements
can never be true?
(1) (x–y)2 z is odd. (2) (x + z)y2 is even.
(3) (x – y) (z – x) (y – z) is odd. (4) (x2 – y2)z is odd.
15. How many divisors do 21333 and 21222 have in common?
(1) 1112 (2) 49729
(3) 1110 (4) 48750
16. What is the last digit of (6!)4! – (4!)6! ?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 0 (4) None of these
17. X is a three digit number. The product of its first two digits is between 16 and
24, both inclusive. The product of its last two digits is between 35 and 45, both
inclusive. If the product of all its digits is equal to 72, then X is
(1) 383 (2) 342
(3) 294 (4) 249

7
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

18. How many co-prime of 53 are there between 29 and 41, including the two
numbers?
(1) 13 (2) 23
(3) 36 (4) None of these
19. Total number of pairs of positive integers, x, y, such that x2 + 3y and y2 + 3x are
both perfect squares is
(1) only one (2) two
(3) three (4) four
20. Find the greatest power of 20, which can exactly divide 200!.
(1) 10 (2) 49
(3) 98 (4) 104

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

8
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 2
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. (1 !)2 + (2!)2 + (3!)2 +……, when divided by 1152, will leave a remainder of
(1) 12 (2) 41
(3) 152 (4) 802
2. P(x) is a polynomial in x. When P(x) is divided by (x - 1), the remainder obtained
is 2. When the same polynomial is divided by (x - 2), the remainder obtained is
1. The remainder when P(x) is divided by (x - 1) (x - 2) is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 3 – x (4) 0
3. Find the product of 3 natural numbers that are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 2, if the sum of
their cubes is 12393?
(1) 1372 (2) 2048
(3) 2916 (4) 864
4. How many digits are required to number a book containing 200 pages?
(1) 200 (2) 600
(3) 492 (4) 372
5. The ten’s digit of (23)24 x (25)26 is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 0
6. If a = b - b, b  4, where a, b  N. Then a2 - 2a is always divisible by
2

(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) 24 (4) None of these
7. A shopkeeper has x number of coins. If he keeps a multiple of 5 or 9 or 12 or 14
coins in a box, then he is always left with 3 coins. What is value of x?
(1) 1236 (2) 2303
(3) 1263 (4) 1260

9
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

8. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is exactly divisible by 113.


(1) 99892 (2) 99886
(3) 99996 (4) None of these
3 3 3
9. 44 –36 – 8 is always divisible by
(1) 17, 13 and 8 (2) 19,13 and 6
(3) 17, 14 and 6 (4) 11, 9 and 8
1925
10. What is the remainder when 19231924 is divided by 1924?
(1) 1922 (2) 1923
(3) 1 (4) None of these
11. The sum of all possible 4 digit numbers formed by digits of 3556, using each
digit only once is:
(1) 64427 (2) 63327
(3) 65297 (4) 43521
12. Let N= (1!)3 + (2!)3 + (3!)3 + (4!)3 + (5!)3 + (6!)3 + (7!)3. Find the remainder when N
is divided by 15.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4 ) 9
12
13. When 10 - 1 is divided by 111, the quotient is
(1) 9009009 (2) 9000009
(3) 9009009009 (4) 9000000009
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 and 15: Refer to the data below and answer the
questions that follow.
A three digit number is subtracted from a number with the same digits in reverse
order. The result is a three digit number, with the same three digits but in a different
order. [All three numbers are positive].
14. Which of the following is the digit in the units place of the number that is
subtracted?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 9 (4) None of these

10
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

15. Which of the following cannot be the result of subtraction?


(1) 273 (2) 372
(3) 723 (4) All of these
16. If m is a natural number and N = 2m, what is the remainder when N! is divided
by 2N?
(1) 2N –1 (2) 2N–1
(3) 2N–1 – 2N–2 (4) None of these
17. There are 15 questions on a test paper. A student is given 2 bonus marks for a
question answered correctly and he is penalized by 1 mark if he answers the
question incorrectly. He answers all the 15 questions. What is the minimum
number of questions he should answer correctly to get a score more than
zero?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 4
18. There are amoebae of three types (A, B and C) in a test tube. Two amoebae of
any two different types can merge into one amoeba of the third type. After
several such merges only one amoebae remains in the test tube. What is its
type, if initially there were 20 amoebae of type A, 21 amoebae of type B and 22
amoebae of type C ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) Data insufficient
19. In an election for a corporation seat, there were two candidates. A total of 9791
votes were polled. 116 votes were declared invalid. The successful candidate
got 5 valid votes for every 4 valid votes his opponent had. By what margin did
the successful candidate win?
(1) 116 (2) 1075
(3) 925 (4) 4300

11
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. Find the units digit of the product (1)101 × (2)202 × (3)303……….. (9)909.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) None of these

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

12
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 3
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. A merchant wants to weigh 18 kg of rice with three stone-weights of 5 kg, 4 kg


and 3 kg. What is the minimum weighing he requires to complete the job?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
2. What is the remainder when (11 + 22 + 33 + 44 + 55 + 66 + 77 + 88 + 99) + (109 – 118
+ 127 – 136 + 145–154+ 163–172+ 181) is divided by 19?
(1) 1 (2) 18
(3) 9 (4) None of these

1 1 1
3. What is the value of + + ?
log x yz + 1 log y xz + 1 log z xy + 1

(1) 1 (2) xyz

log xyz
(3) 0 (4)
log xyz + 1

4. When we multiply a certain two digit number by the difference of digits (take
positive value), 292 is achieved. If you multiply the number written in reverse
order of the same digit by the difference of digits, we get 148. Find the number.
(1) 73 (2) 56
(3) 82 (4) 91

 m  m 
5. If Tn (m) = 1 –  1 – T (m – 1) and Tn (0)= 1, find the value of
n  n +1 n
T51 (50).

(50!)2 (50!)2
(1) (2)
(5048 ) (50)49 (5149 ) (52)50

(50!)2
(3) (4) None of these
(5049 ) (52)50
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QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

6. How many pairs of non–negative integers exist, such that the difference
between their product and their sum is 72?
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) None of these
7. Find the remainder when x4 + 2x3 – 3x2 + 4x – 5 is divided by x2 – x – 2.
(1) 12x – 1 (2) 4x – 1
(3) –1 (4) x – 1
8. Find the greatest number consisting of six digits which on being divided by 6,
7, 8, 9, 10 leaves 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 as remainders respectively.
(1) 997920 (2) 997918
(3) 997922 (4) None of these
9. The number plate of a car bears a three digit perfect square number, with all
distinct digits. When the number plate is turned upside down, it still bears a
perfect square number. The sum of the digits of the number is
(1) 22 (2) 18
(3) 9 (4) 16
10. Bipin added two distinct three–digit numbers, each of which leaves remainders
of 7 and 8, when divided by 8 and 9 respectively. What is the maximum possible
sum that Bipin could have obtained?
(1) 1796 (2) 1798
(3) 1870 (4) 1782
11. Which of the following is greatest?

5, 3 9, 6 66

(1) 5 (2) 3 9

(3) 6
66 (4) None of these

14
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

12. A watch ticks 90 times in 95 seconds and another watch ticks 315 times in 323
seconds. If both the watches are started together, how many times will they
tick together in the first hour?
(1) 100 times (2) 101 times
(3) 102 times (4) None of these
13. There are three cities A, B and C. Each of these cities is connected with the
other two cities by at least one direct road. If a traveller wants to go from one
city (origin) to another city (destination), she can do so either by traversing a
road connecting the two cities directly, or by traversing two road, the first
connecting the origin to the third city and the second connecting the third city
to the destination. In all, there are 33 routes from A to B (including those via C).
Similarly, there are 23 routes from B to C (including those via A). How many
roads are there from A to C directly?
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 10

14. Find the remainder, when 23574 (12  22  32 .......... 772 ) is divided by 5.

(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) Cannot be determined
15. What is the value of x, if

1 1 1 1 1
+ + +...+ + =2?
log 442 x log 443 x log 444 x log 899 x log 900 x
441 442 443 898 899

2
(1) (2) 1
21

7 10
(3) (4)
10 7

15
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

16. If P is a prime number greater than 3. Then find the remainder when P2 +17 is
divided by 12.
(1) 6 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 8
17. If 2X + 2X+2 + 2X+3 = 6.5 + 3.25 + 1.625....... then the value of x is
(1) x = 1 (2) x = 2
(3) x = 3 (4) x = 0
18. Let m be a positive integer greater than 4 and n = m2 – m. Then n3 – 6n2 + 8n is
always divisible by
(1) 48 (2) 6
(3) 12 (4) 24
19. There are 15 railway lines in a station provided for 15 trains to park (maximum
of 1 train per railway line). On a particular day, the station worker found that a
train coming into the station would always be parked next to another train (or
in between two trains), no matter which available railway line was chosen.
What is the minimum number of trains already parked at the station?
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 12
20. A natural number N has x factors. If 2N has 2x factors, 6N has 3x factors and 30
N has 4x factors, what is the largest integer with which N is always divisible?
(1) 1125 (2) 375
(3) 75 (4)15

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

16
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 4
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. When p is a prime number and n is any natural number not divisible by p, then
(np–1) — 1 is divisible by p. Find the remainder when 321000 is divided by 97.
(1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 62 (4) 35
2. Mr. Yogesh held a birthday party for her daughter Maya. Mr. Yogesh handed
chocolate lollies to all the children, trying to ensure each received an equal
amount. However when each child counted their lollies it was found that each
had 15 except one who had only 10. Mr. Yogesh noted that if the number of
children was subtracted from the total number of lollies, it would equal 765.
How many children are there?
(1) 55 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 60
3. Find the greatest 5 digit number, which on being divided by 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9
leaves 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively as the remainders.
(1) 93240 (2) 98278
(3) 93249 (4) 99261
4. xyz is a three digit number in which x >0. The value of xyz is equal to the sum
of the factorials of its three digits. What is the value of y ?
(1) 9 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) 2
5. If p and q are non–negative integers and 6p and 12q are not multiples of 24,
which of the following is not a possible value of (p + q)?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 3

17
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

6. Place the numbers 1 through 9 into a 3 x 3 grid, such that in each of the 8
directions of the middle square (horizontally, vertically and diagonally) the
sum of the first and last numbers minus the number at the centre gives the
same result. How many different values can the number at the centre get?
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

7. If log169 × 3 log2764 = log x 4 803, then x = ?

(1) 3 4 2 (2) 4 4 3

(3) 2 4 5 (4) 4 2

8. x, y and z are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value
of three times x is three more than two times z, find the value of z.
(1) 9 (2) 11
(3) 13 (4) 15
9. Bipin writes in his notebook a number, N, to the base 16. He observes that N is
a nine digit number and the sum of these nine digits is 30. If sum of the digits
in the even places is equal to the sum of the digits in the odd places, then (N)16
is always divisible by
(1) (99)10 (2) (99)16
(3) (255)10 (4) (165)10
10. The remainder when 3003000 –1 is divided by 1001 is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
11. If 1 + 2
+ 2 + 2 + 2 + .......... = N, then find the value of 2 + 2 + 2
1 3 5 7 1 2 3
+ ..........

3 4
(1) N (2) N
4 3

4( n  1)
(3) (4) (N – 1)
3
18
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

12. A person had a number of toys to distribute among children. At first, he gave
2 toys to each child, then 3, then 4, then 5, then 6, but was always left with one.
On trying 7 he had none left. What is the smallest number of toys that he could
have had?
(1) 61 (2) 181
(3) 241 (4) 301
13. Find the number of different values of x that satisfy the equation
2

2  27  = (log x)2 + 5(log x) + 2


log 3  log 4 x 

  4 4

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) No real value of x exists

14. ABCD is a parallelogram. A point E is selected on AD such that BE = 2 6


units.
Also 2AE = 2AB = BD = 8 units and 5CF = BC Where F is a point on BC. Find
the ratio of the area of quadrilateral DEFC to the area of parallelogram ABCD.
7 5
(1) (2)
20 16

2 3
(3) (4)
5 10
15. In a semicircle with centre O and diameter AB, a parallelogram PQOA is formed
where P and Q lie on the circumference of the semicircle. Find the ratio of the
area of the semicircle to the area of the parallelogram PQOA.
2 
(1) (2)
3 3

 3
(3) (4)
2 4
16. Four numbers are represented by x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8. For all odd values of
x, the LCM is divisible by:
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 7
19
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

17. The largest prime number, that can be written as the sum of two prime numbers
and as the difference of two prime numbers, is
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 13 (4) None of these
18. The sum of four numbers is 100. The average of the first, second and fourth is
24. Difference of the third and first is 10 and fourth number exceeds the second
by 4. One of the numbers is
(1) 25 (2) 21
(3) 31 (4) 26
19. There are 40 students in a class. A student is allowed to shake hand only once
with a student who is taller than him or equal in height to him. He can”t shake
hand with somebody who is shorter than him. Average height of the class is 5
feet. What is the difference between the maximum and minimum number of
handshakes that can happen in such a class?

 40 C2 
(1)  2 – 20 (2) 361

(3) 40C2 – 40 (4) 40C2


20. In a party, all the invitees were distributed tags, labelled with the consecutive
numbers starting from 1. At the end of the party, chocolates were distributed
such that invitee with a tag lebelled 1 gets 1 chocolate, the one with a tag
labelled 2 gets two chocolates and so on. One of them gets the chocolates
twice. The total number of chocolates that were distributed was 1200. What
was the tag number of the invitee who got the chocolates twice?
(1) 35 (2) 28
(3) 24 (4) 21

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

20
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 5
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. Take any three consecutive even numbers, a, b and c. Which of the following
statements is always true about ab + bc + ca?
(1) When divided by 4, it leaves a remainder of 3.
(2) It is always divisible by 4 but never by 11.
(3) It is always divisible by 4 but never by 3.
(4) None of the above.
2. A teacher distributes some five rupee notes, some ten rupee notes and four
twenty rupee notes to three of her students. The total amount that each boy
receives is the same. If she distributes all the notes, how many minimum notes
did the teacher, distribute?
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) None of these
3. Find the sum of all the factors of 240
(1) 744 (2) 750
(3) 810 (4) None of these
2
4. What is the remainder when 263 is divided by 7?
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 1
5. P is the product of first 100 multiples of 15 and Q is the product of first 50

P2
multiples of 2520. Find the number of zeroes at the end of
Q
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

21
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

6. Which of the following is greater?


2625 or 2 × 4 × 6 × ... × 46 × 48 × 50
(1) 2625 (2) 2 × 4 × 6 × ... × 46 × 48 × 50
(3) Both are equal (4) None of these
7. What is the greatest 5–digit number, which when divided by 9, 8 and 7, leaves
remainders of 6, 5 and 4 respectively?
(1) 99,789 (2) 99,603
(3) 99,792 (4) 99,790
8. There are 4 consecutive odd integers such that the product of the first and last
is 247. Find the product of the middle terms.
(1) 195 (2) 232
(3) 255 (4) 264
9. Two distinct numbers having all digits distinct are formed using all distinct
digits from 0 to 9 only once. What is the least possible difference between
these two numbers?
(1) 95 (2) 247
(3) 9 (4) 169
10. Find the last digit of the product of all 2–digit numbers that give a remainder of
2 when divided by 5.
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) None of these
11. A six digit number is formed by using digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 without repeating
any of them. What is the sum of all such possible numbers?
(1) 279999720 (2) 299997290
(3) 379999720 (4) 379999900
12. For every positive integer n, n > 2 can be written as a sum of distinct positive
integers e.g. 4=1 + 3,5=1+4 = 2 + 3,7 = 2 + 5=1+2 + 4 etc. Let f(n) be the maximum
number of distinct positive integers whose sum is 2n e.g. f(2) = 2. Which of the
following relations is false?
(1) f(5) = f(6) (2) f(5) = f(4)
(3) f(4) = f(3) (4) f(7) = f(5)
22
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

13. How many fractions of the form p/q do not form an integer, where p, q belong
to the set {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}?.
(1) 58 (2) 25
(3) 81 (4) 48
14. A certain 2 digit number is equal to five times the sum of its digits. If nine was
added to the number, its digits would be reversed. THe sum of the digits of the
number is:
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 9
15. If a is a positive integer, then the expression a5 – a is always divisible by
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
16. The numbers of integers lying between 3000 and 8000 (including 3000 and
8000) which have at least two digits equal is
(1) 2481 (2) 1977
(3) 4384 (4) 2755
17. Find the number of four-digit numbers divisible by 11 or 13 but not by 17?
(1) 1284 (2) 1445
(3) 1446 (4) 1363
18. The sum of the fourth powers of the first 100 natural numbers will have a unit’s
digit of
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 0
19. Let p be an odd prime number. Then the number of positive integers k with
1 < k < p, for which k2 leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by p, is
(1) 2 (2) 1

p–1
(3) p–1 (4)
2

23
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. (436)8 + (537)8. = (?)8.


(1) 1175 (2) 1036
(3) 1145 (4) 1215

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

24
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 6
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. There are two alloys of copper and zinc. The percentage of copper in the first
alloy is thrice that of zinc in the second alloy, while the percentage of copper
in the second alloy is half that of zinc in the first alloy. Find the ratio of the
percentages of zinc and copper in the first alloy, given that equal quantities of
copper and zinc are obtained upon mixing equal quantities of these two alloys.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 1
2. There are 3 kinds of teas costing Rs.100, Rs.80 and Rs.60 per kg. If they are
mixed in the ratio 3:4:5 and the mixture is sold at a profit of 50% then the selling
price per kg would be?
(1) Rs.90 (2) Rs.110
(3) Rs.80 (4) None of these
3. In a 1000 metres race, Manish gives Ravi a start of 40 metres and beats him by
19 seconds. If Manish gives Ravi a start of 30 seconds, then Ravi beats Manish
by 40 metres. Find the ratio of Manish’s speed to Ravi’s speed.
6 5
(1) (2)
5 6

7 9
(3) (4)
6 5
DIRECTIONS for questions 4 and 5: These questions are based on the data given
below
Kush, the milkman, always cheats his customers by diluting the milk he sells with
water in the following manner. Every morning he takes two cans, each of volume 35
litres, and fills the first one with pure milk while the second one is empty. He then
transfers some of the contents of the first can into the second can and replaces the
contents he takes out of the first can with pure water. He repeats this process
exactly three times, ensuring that by the end of the third time the second can is just
full. He then sells the contents of the first can in Kolkata and the contents of the
second can in Howrah.

25
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

4. Which of the following statement/s is/are true of the concentration of the milk
that kush sells in Kolkata?
I. It is almost 29.63%. II. It is almost 14.28%.
III. It is almost 33.33%. IV. It is at least 14.28%.
(1) I only (2) III only
(3) II and IV only (4) IV only
5. Which of the following statement/s is/are true of the concentration of the milk
that kush sells in Howrah?
I. It is at least 50%.
II. It is at least 70.37%.
III. It is at least 50% .
IV. It is at least 66.66%.
(1) III only (2) II only
(3) III and IV only (4) IV only
6. If the selling price of a mat is five times the discount offered and if the
percentage of discount is equal to the percentage profit, find the ratio of the
discount offered to the cost price?
(1) 11 : 30 (2) 1 : 5
(3) 1 : 6 (4) 7 : 30

7. The ratio of the height to the radius of a hollow cylinder is 2 : 3 . In it two


identical solid cones are kept tip to tip such that their bases coincide with the
bases of the cylinder. Two solid spheres are then kept such that they occupy
maximum possible volume that remains unoccupied in the hollow cylinder. If
the volume of each cone is 27 find the volume of the empty space.
(1) 40.14 (2) 94.14
(3) 0.403 (4) 0.314
8. Fresh coconut contains 80% water by weight whereas dry coconut contains
10.% water by weight. What is the weight of dry coconut that can be obtained
from 20 kg of fresh coconut?
(1) 4kg (2) 4.12 kg
(3) 4.44 kg (4) 4.54 kg

26
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

9. There are three alloys. The first contains 45% of tin and 55% of lead, the
second contains 10% of bismuth, 40% of tin and 50% of lead and the third
contains 30% of bismuth and 70% of lead. They must be used to produce a
new alloy containing 15% of bismuth. What is the least percentage of lead that
can be contained in this new alloy?
(1) 60% (2) 55%
(3) 40% (4) 50%
10. If a, b, c and d are in continuous proportion, find the value of

a 2 + b2 c2 – d 2
+ in terms of k, the constant of proportionality..
a 2 – b2 c2 + d 2

2  k 4 + 1 k4 + 1
(1) (2)
k4 – 1 k4 – 1

2
k 2
+ 1 2  k 4 + 1
(3) 2 (4) 2
k 2
– 1 k 2
– 1

11. If x, y and z are in continued proportion, then which of the following is equal to
x : z?
(1) x2 : y2 (2) (x2 + y2) : (x2 + z2)
(3) y2 : z (4) None of these
12. A sells two types of sugar with labels Cubes and Granular so that both the
sugars form a homogenous mixture when mixed. He sells Cubes at Rs.18 per kg
and incurs a loss of 10% where as on selling Granular for Rs.30 per kg., he
gains 20%. How should he mix the dearer and cheaper sugar types so as to
achieve a profit of atleast 25%, on selling the mixture at Rs.27.5 per kg?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

27
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

13. Two women Rashi and Sarah started working on 1st Jan, 1990. Rashi joined
Alchemist Ltd. with a salary of Rs. 5,000 per month and a scheduled hike of
Rs.500 annually in her monthly salary. Sarah joined Time Ltd. with a salary of
Rs.3,000 per month and a hike of Rs.200 every year in her monthly salary. If this
arrangement continues unaltered till 31st Dec, 2002, then what is the ratio of the
total earnings of Rashi to that of Sarah during the period?
(1) 45 : 31 (2) 40 : 21
(3) 45 : 39 (4) 41 : 20
14. Rs. 5625 divided among A, B, C so that A may receive one-half as much as B
and C together receive and B receives one-fourth of what A and C together
receive. Find the amount by which share of A is more than that of B.
(1) Rs. 750 (2) Rs. 755
(3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 1600
15. There are two alloys I and II. Alloy I contains metals A, C and D. Alloy II
contains metals A and B. Both alloys contain 60% of metal A They are mixed to
form a third alloy. The percentage of metal B in the third alloy is half of that of
metal A in it. The ratio of percentages of C and D in Alloy I is 3 : 1. Find the ratio
of quantities of C in alloy I and B in alloy II, which are mixed to form the third
alloy.
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 4
16. The ratio of the circumference of a circle to the perimeter of the inscribed
regular polygon with n sides is

 
(1) 2 : 2n sin (2) 2 : n sin
n n

2 2
(3) 2 : 2n sin (4) 2 : n sin
n n

28
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

17. A milk seller pays Rs. 500 per kilolitre for his milk. He adds water to it and sells
the mixture at 56 P a litre, thereby making altogether 40% profit. Find the
proportion of water to milk which his customers receive.
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 5 (4) None of these.
18. The income of A is Rs. 15,000 and it is equal to the expenditure of B. If the ratio
of savings of A to that of the savings of B is 2 : 1, which of the following is
definitely true?
(1) The combined income of A and B is more than Rs.45,000.
(2) The combined expenditure of A and B is not less than Rs.20,000.
(3) A’s expenditure added to twice of B’s income is equal to Rs.45,000.
(4) B’s expenditure added to twice of A’s income is equal to Rs.30,000.
19. Three identical bottles are each half filled with alcohol solution. When the
content of the third bottle is divided into two halves and each half is poured
into each of the first two bottles, the volume concentration of alcohol in the
first bottle becomes smaller by 20% of its volume and that in the second bottle
increases by 10% of its volume. What is the ratio of the initial quantity of
alcohol in the first bottle to that in the second bottle?
(1) 7 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 13 : 4 (4) 11 : 4
20. A vessel is filled with a liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup.
How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water, so that
the mixture may be half water and half syrup
(1) 1/3rd (2) 1/4th
(3) 1/5th (4) None of these.

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

29
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 7
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. Ajay has a certain number of Re.1, Rs.2 and Rs.10 notes in his purse. The
number of Re.1 notes and Rs.2 notes are in the ratio 4:3. The number of Rs.10
notes exceeds the total number of Re.1 and Rs.2 notes. Which of the following
is a possible value of the total amount in his purse?
(1) Rs.160 (2) Rs.80
(3) Rs.175 (4) Rs.171
2. A milk vendor sells 10 litres of milk from a can of 40 litres to customer 1. He then
fills the can with 10 litres of water and again sells 10 litres of mixture to customer
2. He again fills 10 litres of water in the can and again sells 10 litres of mixture
to customer 3 and so on. What is the amount of pure milk that the 5th customer
will receive?
510 410
(1) litre (2) litre
128 128
405 505
(3) litre (4) litre
128 128

x2 + 1 4 2 + 32 1+x
3. If x 2 – y = 4 2 – 3 2 ; find
1–x
(1) 7 (2) –7
1
(3) – (4) Either (2) or (3)
7
4. A boat and a steamer are available to cross a river. The speed of the steamer is
thrice that of the boat. The capacity of the steamer is 50 persons while that of
the boat is 30 persons. The average occupancy of the boat is twice that of the
steamer. The tickets for the boat and the steamer cost Re.1 and Rs.1.50
respectively. What is the ratio of the average rupee collection of the steamer to
that of the boat in a day? Assume there is no wastage of time between trips
and the occupancy of the boat/steamer is defined as the ratio of the actual
number of persons boarding it and its capacity.
(1) 15 : 2 (2) 15 : 4
(3) 7.5 : 4 (4) 15 : 1

30
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. By reducing the cost of manufacturing by 10% and increasing his selling price
by 20%, a manufacturer makes one and a half times the profit as before and
manages to sell as many pieces as before. If the cost goes up by 20% of the
original cost and the selling price holds steady at the increased rate, then in
what ratio are the profits reduced (given sales being only two thirds the original
number)?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 15 : 6
(3) 15 : 8 (4) 4 : 3
6. Find the sum of the series 0, 8, 24, 48, 80 ....up to 50 terms.
(1) 183620 (2) 143251
(3) 198120 (4) 166600
7. A and B entered into partnership with capitals in the ratio 4 and 5. After 3
months, A withdraws 1/4 of his capital and B withdraws 1/5 of his capital. The
gain at the end of 10 months was Rs. 760. Find the share of A in the
profit.
(1) Rs. 360 (2) Rs. 330
(3) Rs. 430 (4) Rs. 380
8. A is an alloy of tin and copper and B is an alloy of copper and zinc. A has 30%
copper while B has 50% copper. x gms of A is mixed with 30 gms of B to form
another alloy which has 45% copper. What is the value of x?
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 20
9. There are 2 mixtures of water and milk. First one contains milk and water in the
ratio 6:5 and the other in the ratio 3:8. What will be the percentage of milk in the
mixture when 6 parts of the first mixture is added to 3 parts of the second?
(1) 36% (2) 37.5%
(3) 42% (4) 45%
10. There are two mixtures of wine and water, the quantities of wine in them being
respectively 0.25 and 0.75 of the mixture. If 2 litres of the first be mixed with
3 litres of the second, what will be the ratio of wine to water in the
compound?
(1) 11 : 9 (2) 9 : 11
(3) 1 : 1 (4) None of these.
31
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

11. A shopkeeper has 75 kg and 120 kg of sugar of two different qualities, S1 and
S2 respectively. They are to be mixed in 1 kg packages as follows: a low grade
mix has 250 gm of S1 and 750 gm of S2, whereas a high grade mix has 500 gm of
S1 and 500 gm of S2. If the profit on the low grade mix is Rs.2 per package and
that on the high grade mix is Rs.3 per package, how many packages of each mix
(low grade and high grade respectively) should be made to get the maximum
profit?
(1) 170,25 (2) 90,105
(3) 180,15 (4) 85, 110
12. A triangle has sides 10, 17, and 21. A square is inscribed in the triangle such
that one side of the square lies on the longest side of the triangle. The other
two vertices of the square touch the two shorter sides of the triangle. What is
the length of the side of the square?
168 188
(1) (2)
29 29

168 153
(3) (4)
59 47

13. An alloy named cuzin is formed using 50 gms of 65% pure copper and 100 gms
of 45% pure zinc. To this another alloy named culmin containing 125 gms of
35% pure copper and 125 gms of 55% pure aluminium is added and then a third
alloy, called cunick containing 100 gms of 25% pure zinc and 75 gms of 70%
pure Aluminium is mixed into the above mixture. What is the ratio of copper,
zinc and aluminium?
(1) 9 : 7 : 5 (2) 61 : 56 : 97
(3) 73 : 92 : 51 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
14. The prime cost of an article was 3 times the value of materials used. The cost
of raw materials increases in the ratio of 3 :7 and that of productive wages in
the ratio 4:9. Find the present prime cost of an article which could formerly be
made for Rs. 18.
(1) Rs. 27 (2) Rs. 41
(3) Rs. 40 (4) None of these
32
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

15. Rahul had a mixture of milk and water. The concentration of the mixture initially
was 40% milk. At 5:30 p.m, Rahul asked his assistant to boil the mixture in order
to make it 50% water. However during the process, the assistant happened to
be distracted by his mobile phone which rang, and lost in the conversation he
over boiled the milk. If at 5:40 p.m. Rahul noticed that the mixture was still
boiling and it was 40% water, find the time at which the assistant should have
stopped boiling the mixture. It is known that upon boiling, milk evaporates at
half the rate at which water evaporates.
(1) 5 : 36 p.m. (2) 5 : 37 p.m.
(3) 5 : 38 p.m. (4) None of these
16. Three friends, Bipin, Vinay and Mohit invest Rs. 10000, Rs. 20000 and Rs.
30000 for 6 months, 1 year and 2 years respectively. The profit of Rs. 170000 is
shared amongst them in the ratio of their investments. Each one re-invests
their share of profit for the same duration as in the ratio of their investments.
What is the ratio of the total profit received by Bipin, Vinay and Mohit?
(1) 3 : 14 : 56 (2) 1 : 17 : 48
(3) 3 : 17 : 56 (4) None of these
17. Ranna Seth, a rice merchant, sells different varieties of rice. He mixes one
variety of rice costing Rs.16 per kg with another variety of rice costing Rs.21
per kg. In what ratio should these two varieties of rice be mixed such that the
resultant mixture, upon selling at Rs.21.45 per kg, will give a 10% profit?
(1) 2 : 9 (2) 3 : 7
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3

18. There are 3 vessels, A, B and C with capacities of 5  , 10  and 20  respectively..


Vessel A is empty, vessel B is completely filled with milk and vessel C is filled
with 15  of oil. In the first part the contents from vessel B are poured into
vessel A and vessel B is replenished with contents from vessel C and vessel C
is replenished with contents from vessel A. In the second part the contents of
vesssel B are poured into vessel C and after that vessel A is replenished with
contents from vessel C. What is the ratio of oil and milk in B and C respectively,

33
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

if the possible steps of the first part of the process are repeated once again in
sequence? [A mixture is poured till the vessel is filled completely and if a
vessel is full then nothing should be poured into it.]
(1) 12 : 25 (2) 25 : 23
(3) 5 : 8 (4) 1 : 1
19. Two jars containing respectively 3 and 5 litres are filled with mixtures of alcohol
and water. In the smaller jar 25% of the mixture is alcohol, in the larger 25% of
the mixture is water. The jars are emptied into a 9 litre cask, which is filled up
with water. Find the percentage of alcohol in the cask.
(1) 45% (2) 50%
(3) 60% (4) None of these
20. Two vessels contain a mixture of the spirit and water. In the first vessel the
ratio of spirit to water is 8 : 3 and in the second vessel the ratio is 5 : 1. A 35 litre
cask is filled from these vessels so as to contain a mixture of spirit and water in
the ratio of 4 : 1. How many litres are taken from the first vessel?
(1) 11 litres (2) 22 litres
(3) 16.5 litres (4) 17.5 litres

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

34
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 8
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. Mr. X can do a job in 10 days, Mr. Y in 15 days and Mr. Z in 20 days. They work
together for 2 days. Then Mr. X leaves the job. Mr. Y leaves the job a day
earlier to the completion of the work. The job was completed in:

3 3
(1) 7 days (2) 6 days
7 7

3 3
(3) 5 days (4) 8 days
7 7

DIRECTIONS for questions 2 and 3: These questions are based on the following
data.
Two people start at opposite ends of a corridor of length L and start running towards
each with their speeds in the ratio of 2 : 1. Whenever each reaches one end of the
corridor, he turns around and runs towards the opposite end of the corridor.
2. The distance between the first and the second meeting points of the runners
is

L
(1) (2) 2L
3

2L
(3) (4) L
3

3. The total distance the slower runner has covered, when the second meeting
occurs, is

L
(1) (2) L
2

3L
(3) (4) 2L
2

35
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

4. The horizontal distance of a kite from the boy flying it is 30 m and 50 m of cord
is run from the roll. If the wind moves the kite horizontally at the rate of 5 kmph
directly away from the boy, then how fast is the cord being released?
(1) 3 kmph (2) 4 kmph
(3) 5 kmph (4) 6 kmph
5. A bird is sitting on the top of a 100 m long train, which is travelling at 36 kmph.
The bird is sitting at the tail end of the train. The bird flies at a speed of 18
kmph relative to the train. The bird rests for a second after flying for every 2
seconds. How much time would the bird take to reach the other end of the
train?
(1) 29 sec.
(2) 30 sec.
(3) 31 sec.
(4) The bird can never reach the other end of the train.
6. A person can row 71/2 km an hour in still water and he finds that it takes him
twice as long to row up as to row down the river. Find the rate of the stream.
(1) 2 kmph (2) 21/2 kmph
(3) 3 kmph (4) None of these
7. In a 1000 m long running race, if Tarun gives a head start of 40 m to Amar and
still beats Amar by 10 m, then find the distance by which Tarun will beat Amar,
when Amar gives a head start of 40 m to Tarun?
(1) 80 m (2) 88 m
(3) 100 m (4) 100 m
8. Two person X & Y are running at speeds of 20m/s and 30m/s respectively
around a circular track of length 500 m. They run in such a way that, every time
they meet one of them changes the direction in which he is running i.e., if they
are running in opposite direction before they meet, they start running in the
same direction and vice versa. Initially they are running in opposite direction.
How many times do they meet in 300 seconds?
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 15

36
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

9. An insect starts from a point and travels in a straight path of length equal to 1
mm in the first second, half of that distance in the next second and so on. In
how much time would it reach a point 3 mm away from its starting point?
(1) 8 sec.
(2) 9 sec.
(3) 12.5 sec.
(4) The insect would never reach a point 3 mm away from the starting point.
10. A swimmer jumps from a bridge over a canal and swims 1 kilometre upstream.
After that first kilometre, he passes a floating cork. He continues swimming for
half an hour and then turns around and swims back to the bridge. The swimmer
and the cork reach the bridge at the same time. The swimmer has been swimming
with constant speed. How fast does the water in the canal flow?
(1) 1 kmph (2) 2 kmph
(3) 0.5 kmph (4) 1.3 kmph
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 13: Answer these questions on the basis of the
information given below.
There are two cities, P and Q. A car, A, starts from city P at 6:00 a.m. and reaches city
Q at noon. Another car, B, starts from city Q at 7:00 a.m. and reaches city P at
3:00 p.m.
11. Find the approximate time taken by the cars to meet each other after car A
starts.
(1) 2 hours 51 minutes (2) 3 hours 51 minutes
(3) 2 hours 48 minutes (4) 3 hours 48 minutes
12. If the distance between city P and city Q is 240 km, how far from city P is car B,
at the moment when car A reaches city Q?
(1) 30 km (2) 60 km
(3) 90 km (4) 120 km

37
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

13. Another car, C, starts from city P, an hour earlier than car A, If car C meets car
A and car B simultaneously, then how much time would car C require to travel
from city P to city Q?

68 41
(1) hours (2) hours
9 7

26
(3) hours (4) None of these
3

1 th
14. Rajdhani express starts its journey with a speed of 25m/s. Every hour, the
6
speed of the train increases by a certain constant value, the train travels a
distance of 50 km in the 1st half an hour. What is the speed of the train during
the last 10 minutes of its journey?
(1) 110 km/hr (2) 120 km/hr
(3) 130 km/hr (4) 100 km/hr
15. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 12 hours and 6 hours respectively. Pipe
C can empty the cistern in 9 hours. Pipes A and C are kept open. If pipe B is
kept open for the first 2 hours and then closed for half an hour and if this
process is continued, then after how many hours will the cistern be full?

1 3
(1) 7 hours (2) 8 hours
2 4

3
(3) 9 hours (4) 9 hours
4
16. Kareena takes half an hour to reach her college from her residence which is 10
km away. Sajid her friend, who travels with the same speed and reaches college
in 12 minutes from his house. Find the distance between his college and his
house.
(1) 4 km (2) 8 km
(3) 6 km (4) 2 km

38
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

17. A Fox spots a Chicken 100 m away and starts chasing him. The Chicken realizes
this after two minutes and starts running in the opposite direction to a burrow
which is 40m from where he is right now. Chicken covers 1 m in 3 leaps where
as the Fox covers 3m in 4 leaps. If the Fox runs at 20 metre per min, then at what
speed the Chicken should run so that he just manages to reach the burrow?
(1) 24 leaps per min (2) 18 leaps per min

180
(3) 16 leaps per min (4) leaps per min
11
18. A man was asked to make 216 baskets in certain number of days. He started his
work by making equal number of baskets per day. He did this for 8 days. He
continued this till the earlier decided number of days and found that he had
made 232 baskets. How many days did he work?
(1) 10 days (2) 20 days
(3) 15 days (4) None of these
19. The hands of a strange clock move such that they would meet twice as
frequently if they run in opposite directions than if they run in the same
direction. How many times would the faster hand meet the slower hand in the
time that the slower hand completes 20 rotations, given that the hands run in
opposite directions?
(1) 80 (2) 60
(3) 40 (4) 120
20. The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 7 : 3. The ratio of their expenditures is
6 : 5. Each of them saves Rs. 1750. The ratio of their total income to the total
expenditure is:
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 100 : 121
(3) 5 : 22 (4) 40 : 11

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

39
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 9
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. There are n taps, numbered 1, 2, 3, ..........n, fitted to a tank. The first tap can fill
the tank at a rate of 2 litres per hour, while each tap starting from the third tap
has a filling capacity equal to the sum of the filling capacities of all the taps
numbered less than it. If the difference in the filling capacity of the twelfth tap
and the eleventh tap is 1792 litres per hour, find the filling capacity of the
eighth tap (in litres per hour).
(1) 1024 (2) 896
(3) 224 (4) None of these
2. 12 men working 10 hrs a day, 8 women working 8 hrs a day, 10 children working
8 hrs a day complete the work in 5 days. Work done by 3 men is same as that
done by 4 women and as done by 5 children. The same work would be completed
by 20 children working 6 hrs a day in how many days?
(1) 20 (2) 15
(3) 10 (4) 25
DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Refer to the data below and answer the questions
that follow.
Two Jet planes are flying in a straight line horizontally on different altitudes such
that the distance between them is 200 km and the pilot of the upper plane observes
the lower plane at an angle of depression of 30°. After half an hour, the angle of
depression becomes 60°.
3. Find the distance between them after half an hour from the initial point of
reference.

100
(1) km (2) 200 3 km
3

200
(3) km (4) Cannot be determined
3

40
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

4. If they are travelling in opposite directions and the ratio of the speed of the
upper plane to the speed of the lower plane is 2 : 1, find the speed of the lower
plane.

400 200
(1) km/hr (2) km/hr
3 3

800
(3) km (4) Cannot be determined
3
5. From the data in the above question find the speed of the upper plane if they
are going in the same direction and the lower plane is ahead of the upper plane
in both the situations.

400 200
(1) km/hr (2) km/hr
3 3

800
(3) km (4) Cannot be determined
3
6. Pipe A can fills a tank completely in 4.5 hours and Pipe B can fill the same tank
in 6 hours. Pipe C empties the tank independently in 8 hours. If A and C start
working at 6 O’clock in the morning and A and B work in alternate hour with C
then at what time would the tank be completely filled?
(1) 6:30 pm (2) 8:17 pm
(3) 10:36 pm (4) 4:42 pm
7. A contractor agrees to plough a field in 36 days. He employs 6 pairs of bullocks
which work 10 hours daily, but after 20 days only 3/5 of the field is ploughed.
If a tractor is used for ploughing the remainder, how many hours a day must
the tractor work to finish the ploughing in the given time, supposing the
tractor can do the work of 8 pairs of bullocks?
1
(1) 6 hours (2) 7 hours
2

1 1
(3) 6 hours (4) 6 hours
4 2

41
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

8. A swimming pool is fitted with three inlet pipes through which water flows at
the respective uniform rates. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill
the pool in half the time during which the pool is filled by the third pipe alone.
The second pipe alone can fill the pool in 12 hours more than the first pipe
alone and 8 hours more than the third pipe alone. Which of the following could
be the times taken by the three pipes individually (in hours) to fill the pool?
(1) 12, 16, 18 (2) 16, 28, 20
(3) 12, 24, 16 (4) 8, 20, 12
9. If 16 men, working 18 hours a day can build a bridge 36 metres long, 4 metres
broad and 24 metres high in 20 days, how many men will be required to build a
bridge 64 metres long, 6 metres broad and 18 metres high by
working 12 hours a day in 16 days?
(1) 45 (2) 60
(3) 75 (4) None of these
10. A task is assigned to a group of n men, not all of whom have the same capacity
to work. Every day exactly two men out of the group work on the task, with no
same pair of men working together twice. Even after all the possible pairs have
worked once, all the men together had to work for exactly one day more to
finish the task. Find the number of days that will be required for all the men
working together to finish the task.
(1) 2n – 1 (2) 2n + 1
2
(3) n – 1 (4) n
11. A cistern can be filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 minutes
respectively. Both pipes are opened together for a certain time but being
clogged, only 7/8 of full quantity water flows through the former and only 5/6
through the latter pipe. The obstructions however being suddenly removed,
the cistern is filled in 3 minutes from that moment. How long was it before the
full flow began?
(1) 6.0 minutes (2) 4.5 minutes
(3) 3.4 minutes (4) 5.5 minutes

42
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

12. Kalka express runs from Howrah to Delhi at a constant speed of 50 kmph. It
halts at Dhanbad which is 400 km from Howrah. The distance between Howrah
to Delhi is 900 km. Today, it reached Dhanbad 30 minutes late, what should be
the speed of the train approximately so that it reaches Delhi in time?
(1) 53 kmph (2) 55 kmph
(3) 48 kmph (4) 51 kmph
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Four pipes A, B, C and D can fill a cistern in 20, 25, 40 and 50 hours respectively.
13. The first pipe A was opened at 10 a.m., B at 12 p.m., C at 1 p.m. and D at 2 p.m.
When will the cistern be full?
(1) 2.42 p.m. (2) 5.37 p.m.
(3) 7.09 p.m. (4) 8.03 p.m.
14. If the first and third pipes are opened as inlet pipes into the cistern and the
second and fourth pipes are opened as outlet pipes from the cistern and all the
four pipes are opened simultaneously, how many hours will it take to fill the
cistern completely?
(1) 24 hours (2) 48 hours
(3) 69 hours (4) None of these
15. Four masons A, B, C and D, not necessarily of the same capacity, work in
turns, one after the other, each completing exactly one of the four walls of a
square compound wall of perimeter 600 m. If they took a total of 48 days to
finish the work this way, then the length of a wall that all four of them working
together should be able to complete in a single day is at least
(1) 33.33 m (2) 50 m
(3) 66.66 m (4) 87.5 m
16. A bird starts flying at the rate of 24 m/sec in a straight line from the top of a 100
m tree. Its hit by a bullet shot by sportsman standing at the foot of the tree. If
the bullet strikes the bird 10 seconds after it leaves the tree and 2 seconds after
the bullet leaves the gun, then the velocity with which the bullet is fired is
(1) 140 m/s (2) 130 m/s
(3) 260 m/s (4) 280 m/s

43
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

17. A tank is filled through five pipes. The first pipe can fill it in 40 minutes. The
second, third and the fourth together can fill it in 10 minutes. The second, third
and the fifth fill it in 20 minutes & the fourth and the fifth together in 30
minutes. In what time will the tank be filled if all the five pipes work
simultaneously?

2 3
(1) 8 minutes (2) 7 minutes
5 4

4 1
(3) 8 minutes (4) 8 minutes
7 7

18. Work done by Ram decreases everyday as compared to his previous day’s
work. Everyday, he works at 25% less efficiency as compared to the previous
day. If the work gets over in 8 days, what fraction of the work was done in the
first four days together?

64 81
(1) (2)
91 256

256 175
(3) (4)
337 256

19. Two trains both 120 metres in length move in the same direction. The faster
train completely overtakes the slower one in 15 seconds. If the slower train
were to move at half its speed, the overtaking would take 10 seconds. At what
speeds are the 2 trains moving (faster and slower respectively in m/s)?
(1) 48 and 16 (2) 32 and 16
(3) 48 and 32 (4) 64 and 48

44
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. P and Q can complete a certain piece of work in 24 days and 36 days respectively,
when working alone. They work on alternate days starting with P. Further,
they get a holiday after every four days of work and after the holiday, the
person who worked on the last day before the holiday, now starts the work.
After how many days from the start will the work get completed?
(1) 14 days (2) 29 days
(3) 35 days (4) 36 days

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

45
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 10
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. A shipping clerk has to weigh 6 distinct packages with him. He weighs them
four at a time, weighing all the possible combinations of four packages from
the six. The average weight of all such weighings is found to be 500 gms. What
is the combined weight of all the six packages?
(1) 375 gm (2) 1250 gm
(3) 750 gm (4) 3331/3 gm
2. A player rolls a die and receives the same number of rupees as the number of
dots on the face that turns up. What should the player pay for each roll if he
wants to make a profit of one rupee per throw of the die in the long run?
(1) Rs.2.50 (2) Rs.2.00
(3) Rs.3.50 (4) Rs.4.00
3. 60% of the class are boys and 25% of the boys are at leat 5 feet tall. If 25% of
the girls are less than 5 feet tall, what is the fraction of the students in the class
who are at least 5 feet tall?

9 3
(1) (2)
20 5

11
(3) (4) Cannot be determined
20

4. A goods train and a passenger train are running on parallel tracks in the same
direction. The driver of the goods train observes that the passenger train
coming from behind overtakes and crosses his train completely in 60 seconds
whereas a passenger on the passenger train marks that he crosses the goods
train in 40 seconds. If the speeds of the trains be in the ratio of 1:2, find the
ratio of their lengths.
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

46
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. A natural number N, when increased by 50%, has its number of factors


unchanged but when N is 1 decreased by 75%, the number of factors decreased
1
by 33 %. What is the smallest value of ‘N’?
3
(1) 32 (2) 84
(3) 432 (4) None of these
6. Hariharan tells Prakash: I’ll give you three sums at a time such that they
somehow will, in order, make a series of numbers as 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, 504
.... If you can tell me the mystery behind this sequence, I’ll continue till I have
given you ten such sums each and will pay each time the money equivalent to
the sum.” Prakash was too shrewd and found the logic easily. Thus he received
a total of (Rs.)
(1) 4090 (2) 4290
(3) 3685 (4) 4902
7. If the radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in the surface
area of the sphere is:
(1) 100% (2) 125%
(3) 150% (4) None of these
8. The adjacent graph shows the journey of Ashu Babu from point A to F and
also describes the different speeds in km per hour. The average speed of Ashu
babu for the complete journey is
y
20
Speed (in kmph)

D F
B C E
10

0 x
A 1 2 3
Time (in hours)
(1) 10.5 kmph (2) 9.5 kmph
(3) 9.16 kmph (4) 10.24 km.

47
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

9. In a group of 60 students, the average age is 12 years. If the number of girls is


increased by 3/4th and the number of boys is decreased by half, the total
number of students does not change, the average age of neither the boys nor
the girls changes, but the average age of all the students becomes 13.5 years.
What is the average age of the boys?
(1) 9 years (2) 10 years
(3) 11 years (4) Cannot be determined
10. A curve follows a cubic equation a1x3 + a2x2 + a3x + a4 = 0 and another curve is
to be formed with a1 = 1. Also, two roots of both the cubic equations have the
same magnitude and sign, while the unequal root of the second equation is
twice the unequal root of the first equation. The percentage change in the
constant term is
(1) 200% decrease (2) 200% increase
(3) 100% increase (4) Cannot be determined
11. The average score of the first 3 students in an examination is greater than that
of the first 5 students by 20, but the total score of the first 3 is less than that of
the first 5 by 70. Find the total score of the first 3 students.
(1) 255 (2) 325
(3) 205 (4) 180
12. A curious student of Maths calculated the average height of all the students
of his class as A. He also calculated the average of the average heights of all
the possible pairs of students (two students taken at a time) as B. Further, he
calculated the average of the average heights of all the possible triplets of
students (three students taken at a time) as C. Which of the following is true of
the relationship among A, B and C?
(1) A + 2B = 3C (2) A + B = C
(3) A = 2B = 3C (4) 3A = 2B = C
13. By selling part of 100 kg of sugar at 7% profit and the rest and 17% profit a
merchant gains an average profit of 10%. How much did he shell at the lower
price?
(1) 30 kg (2) 40 kg
(3) 55 kg (4) 70 kg

48
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
P, Q and R start a joint venture, where in they make an annual profit. P invested one-
third of the capital for one-fourth of the time, Q invested one-fourth of the capital for
one-half of the time while R invested the remainder of the capital for the entire year.
P is a working partner and gets a salary of Rs. 10000 per month. The profit after
paying P’s salary is directly proportional to the sum each one has put and also to
the square of the number of months for which each has put their sum in the venture.
P earns Rs. 60000 more than Q in a year
14. How much does P earn?
(1) Rs. 30000 (2) Rs. 120000
(3) Rs. 60000 (4) Rs. 150000
15. Find the total profit made by them?
(1) Rs. 840000 (2) Rs. 720000
(3) Rs. 730000 (4) Rs. 830000
16. The average score of a cricketer in a certain number of innings is 44. He then
played another eight innings in which he scored 97, 3, 23, 0, 68, 40, 50 and 71
runs respectively–. Then, which of the following statements is true regarding
his new average score in all the innings together?
(1) The new average is more than the old average
(2) The new average is less than the old average
(3) The new average is the same as the old average
(4) Cannot conclude any of the above unless we know that number of
innings played
17. Two students came into a book store to buy a notebook each. The first student
was short of two rupees and the second student was short of 24 rupees. They
decided to pool their money and buy at least one notebook. After pooling the
money, they found that they had less than the price of one notebook. What is
the price of the notebook? (Assume that the students have at least some
amount of money).
(1) Rs. 26 (2) Rs.28
(3) Rs. 25 (4) Cannot be determined

49
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

18. A man sells a shirt at a certain price and earns 5% profit. Had he sold it for
Rs. 200 more, he would have earned a profit of 15%. What was the cost price
of the shirt?
(1) Rs. 1600 (2) Rs. 2400
(3) Rs. 3300 (4) Rs. 2000
19. Pavithra Kumar looked at the six–digit number on her CAT admit card and said
“If I multiply the first two digits with three, I get all one’s. If I multiply the next
two digits with six, I get all two’s. If I multiply the last two digits by 9, I get all
three’s”. What is the sum of the digits of the number on Pavithra Kumar’s
admit card?
(1) 30 (2) 33
(3) 90 (4) 60
20. A manufacturer of a certain item can sell his produce at the selling price of
Rs.60 each. It costs him Rs. 40 in materials and labour to produce each item and
he has overhead expenses of Rs.3000 per week in order to operate that plant.
The number of units he should produce and sell in order to make a profit of at
least Rs.1000 per week is
(1) 400 (2) 300
(3) 250 (4) 200

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

50
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 11
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

p
1. Sameer marks up an article by p%, gives a discount of % and gets a profit of
4

p p p
%. Had he marked up by % and given a discount of % what would be
4 2 6
his profit percentage?

1
(1) 25% (2) 33 %
3

2
(3) 50% (4) 66 %
3

2. In the figure given below, PQRS is a rectangle with PQ = 6 cm and O is the


center of the circle having PS as its diameter. If RT = TO, find the length of TQ.

S R

T
O

P Q

6
(1) 6 3 cm (2) cm
3

12
(3) cm (4) Cannot be determined
3

51
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

3. A carpenter converts a wooden cone of base radius 8 units and height 15 units
into a regular hexogonal pyramid, keeping the height equal to the height of the
cone and the side of the base equal to the base radius of cone. What is the
percentage decrease in the total surface area of the cone?
(1) 8.74% (2) 8.55%
(3) 8.17% (4) 8.39%
4. If 371/2 % of the candidate in an examination are girls and if 75% of the boys
and 621/2 % of the girls pass and 342 girls fails, how many boys fail?
(1) 360 (2) 380
(3) 400 (4) None of these.
5. At a discount store, the discounts offered on articles sold are in the following
way: for every two articles of the same variety purchased by a person, 10% of
the total price is discounted, for every three articles of the same variety
purchased it is 20%, for every four it is 30% and so on. If the profit on selling
one article is 50% and no discount is offered in that case, what should be the
maximum percentage of discount offered so as to have no loss?
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
6. PQR is an equilateral triangle having each side 13 cm long. QT is the altitude
on PR from Q and TS is the altitude on QR from T. If QU is perpendicular to PS
meeting at F, what is the length of QU ?

3 39 3 39
(1) cm (2) cm
2 3

13 3 13 3
(3) cm (4) cm
2 4

52
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

7. A club sells the tickets of a show with a revenue of Rs. 5000. If it increases the
price of the tickets, it can sell only 75% of the tickets. But it still makes aprofit
of Rs. 750 over the previous case. By how much percentage does the club
increase the cost of the tickets?
(1) 51.33% (2) 50%
(3) 53.33% (4) 60.66%
8. A man travels from A to B to buy goods which he can get 10% cheaper in B
than in A. If the expenses of the journey are Rs. 30 and he makes a clear saving
of Rs. 20, how much does he pay for the goods?
(1) Rs. 450 (2) Rs. 400
(3) Rs. 300 (4) Cannot be determined
9. Himesh said to Reshamiya “My wife is six years older than your daughter who
is one sixth the age my great-grandfather lived upto, but your eldest son is
eight years younger than your second wife.” Reshamiya said to Himesh “My
second wife is eight-seventh times the age of your wife. My eldest son is one-
sixth the age of your great-grand father would have been today, had he not
died six years ago.” What would Himesh’s great-grand father’s age have been
at the time of conversation?
(1) 84 (2) 90
(3) 96 (4) 102
10. Mohan and Shyam who had previously lived alone, agree to share rooms and
divide the expenses equally, and their joint expenses for boarding and lodging
for a year is Rs. 26000. Mohan’s average weekly expenditure for boarding and
lodging had previously been Rs.310 and Shyam’s Rs.370. In how many weeks
Mohan will be able to purchase a colour TV, worth Rs.8400 on which cash
discount 25% is given, from the savings in lodging and boarding?
(1) 55 (2) 83
(3) 105 (4) 121

53
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

11. A wholesaler sells an article to a retailer at a profit of 20%. The retailer sells the
article to the final customer giving him successive discounts of 20% and 15%.
At what percent above his cost price should the retailer mark the article so that
he still makes a profit of 25%?
(1) 83.82% (2) 91.18%
(3) 92.31% (4) 101.61%
12. Four apples cost as much as five mangoes or six oranges or eight guavas.
Jignesh buys 24 apples and 36 oranges. If he now wants to exchange them for
mangoes and guavas, which of the following is a possible combination that he
can get?
(1) 20 mangoes and 72 guavas (2) 50 mangoes and 16 guavas
(3) 40 mangoes and 24 guavas (4) Both (2) and (3) above
13. At a carnival, a booth is set up with a game that costs 15 cents to play. The first
person to play wins a penny, the second person a nickel, the third person a
dime and the fourth a quarter. The cycle is repeated with the fifth person
winning a penny and so on. After 43 people have played the game, how much
net profit has the booth made?
[A penny = 1 cent, a nickel = 5 cents, a dime = 10 cents, a quarter = 25 cents,
1 dollar = 100 cents].
(1) $.2.06 (2) $2.19
(3) $3.00 (4) $4.30
14. In a class of 25 students, 5 students got 12 marks each, 7 got 13 marks each and
the rest got x marks each. If the average marks scored by the class was 9.16,
find x.
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) None of these
15. The average weight of a class of 25 students is 30 kg. The average weight of
girls is 5 kg more than that of the boys. If the class teacher’s weight, which is
between 64 kg and 106 kg, is included, the average weight of the male members
of the class equals that of the female members. What is the number of girls in
the class, if the average weight of the boys (in kg) is an integer?
(1) 20 (2) 15
(3) 10 (4) Cannot be determined

54
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

16. The total capital investment in setting up a production units is Rs.15 lakhs and
the production unit produces 3 million kg of product annually. Selling price of
the product is Rs.9 per kg. Manufacturing cost includes raw material at the rate
Rs.0.8 per kg., labour at rate Rs. 1.2 per kg. packing at the rate of Rs.0.6 per kg
and utilities at the rate of Rs.0.8 per kg. General expenses comes out to be 15%
of manufacturing cost. If taxes are considered as 33% of gross annual earnings,
determine the net profit of the production unit per year?
(1) Rs. 0.5 crores (2) Rs. 1 crores
(3) Rs. 1.5 crores (4) Rs. 2 crores
17. A money lender lent a total amunt of Rs. 47000 to A, B and C at an interest rate
of 5%, 3% and 4% per annum respectively. If the same amount of interest is
paid by three persons at the end of 7 years, 10 years and 5 years respectively,
find the amount borrowed by C.
(1) Rs. 14000 (2) Rs. 12000
(3) Rs. 15000 (4) Rs. 21000
18. A Community Service Organisation has raised 80% of the donation that it
needs for a new building by receiving an average donation of Rs.400 per
person from a group of people. To raise the remaining amount, the organisation
now intends approaching another group of people which has two–thirds the
number of people as the first group. What should be the average donation per
person from the new group?
(1) Rs.100 (2) Rs.150
(3) Rs.200 (4) Rs.250
19. Last year Mr. Kush bought two scooters. This year he sold both of them for
Rs.30000 each. On one he earned 20% profit and on the other he made a 20%
loss. What was his net profit or loss?
(1) He gained less than Rs. 2000 (2) He gained more than Rs. 2000
(3) He lost less than Rs. 2000 (4) He lost Rs. 2500

55
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. A circular coin of radius 1 cm is surrounded by as many circular coins as


possible, of radii 1 cm each such that each of them touches the central coin.
Finally, a big circular fence is laid around this combined structure such that it
touches all the coins that surround the innermost coin. Black paint is poured
uniformly on this structure so as to colour the coins. How much paint is
wasted as a percentage of the paint not wasted?
(1) 28.57% (2) 14.28%
(3) 22.22% (4) None of these

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

56
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 12
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. What is the sum of all the natural numbers from 101 to 200 excluding those that
end in 7?
(1) 13,030 (2) 13,530
(3) 13,330 (4) None of these
2. The sum of two numbers is 13/2. An even number of arithmetic means are
inserted between them and their sum exceeds their number by unity. Find the
number of means inserted.
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) infinitely many
DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
The product of the first three terms of a G.P. is 27. Also the sum of the first two terms
of the series is 4.
3. The first term of the series will be:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
4. The fifth term of the series will be:
(1) 81 (2) 27
(3) 64 (4) 32
5. The sum of the first five terms of the series is:
(1) 120 (2) 121
(3) 98 (4) 115
6. If the pth term of an H.P. is q and qth term is p then find its (pq)th term
(1) 0 (2) 1

pq
(3) p + q (4) p + q
 

57
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

7. If the sum of the 19th and the 28th terms of an Arithmetic Progression is equal
to the 34th term. Then what is the value of the 13th term of that progression?
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3) 0 (4) 1
8. If two consecutive numbers are removed from 1, 2, 3,.... n and the arithmetic
mean of the remaining numbers is 105/4 then find n.
(1) 50 (2) 40
(3) 30 (4) Cannot be determined

3 5 7 9
9. Find the sum of the following series: + + + +........upto 7
4 36 144 400
terms?

63 63
(1) (2)
36 64

15
(3) (4) None of these
36

10. A sum of money kept in a bank amounts to Rs. 8000/ in 4 years and Rs. 11,000
in 10 years. Find the sum and interest carried every year.
(1) Rs. 7000 and Rs. 250 (2) Rs. 6000 and Rs. 250
(3) Rs. 6000 and Rs. 500 (4) None of these
11. What is the sum of all the terms in the following series?

1 1 1 1 1
    .......... 
1  5 5  9 9 13 13 17 221  225

28 112
(1) (2)
225 225

56
(3) (4) None of these
225

58
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

12. In a triangle Sin A, Sin B, Sin C are in A.P. then


(1) a, b, c are in G.P. (2) a, b, c are in H.P.
(3) length of medians are in A.P. (4) length of altitudes are in H.P.
97
13. Find the sum of coefficients of x2835, x1530 and x1012 in the expansion of 1 + x 45 

(1) 2 × 97C34 (2) 97C45 ÷ 97C63


(3) 1528970 (4) None of these
14. Find the least value of n for which the sum of the series 5 + 8 + 11 + ---is not less
than 670.
(1) 19 (2) 20
(3) 21 (4) 22
15. Let P denote the sum of the squares of ten consecutive positive integers.
Which of the following values represents a possible value of S?
(1) 2785 (2) 2485
(3) 2685 (4) 2585
16. The two sequence of numbers {1, 4, 16, 64, ....} and {3, 12, 48, 192,....} are mixed
as follows: {1, 3, 4, 12, 16, 48, 64, 192,....}.
One of the numbers in the mixed series is 1048576. Then the number immediately
preceding it is
(1) 786432 (2) 262144
(3) 814572. (4) 786506
17. If x, y and z are odd integers, which of the following statements is not true?
(1) (x 2y + y 2z + z2x) xyz is odd.
(2) (xy + yz + zx) (x + 2y + 3z) is even
(3) (x – y + z)(x + y – z)(z + y – x) is odd
(4) (2x + 3y + 4z) (xyz + 6) is even.

59
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

18. In the figure, angle E = 40°, BD is perpendicular to AC and CEDB is a


parallelogram. Then, what is the measure of angle CDE?

D
E

B C

(1) 30° (2) 40°


(3) 50° (4) 60°
19. If the pth, qth, rth terms of an A. P. are a, b, c respectively, then (q – r)a + (r – p)b
+ (p – q)c equals
(1) pqr (2) abc
(3) 0 (4) 1
20. The sum of the series 1 x 20 +2 × 21+ 3 × 22 + 4 × 23 + 5 × 24 + ..... + 100 × 299 is
(1) 99 × 2100 (2) 99 × 2100 + 1
(3) 100 × 2100 (4) 100 × 2100 + 1

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

60
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 13
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min
1.
D P C

O
N

A M B
ABCD is a rectangle where AB = 6 cm and BC = 4 cm. P is any point on DC
and BP meets AC at O. Also, OM and ON are perpendiculars drawn on
sides AB and BC from the point O. Find the length of DP for which the
area of the quadrilateral OMBN is maximum.
(1) 3 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) 2 2 cm (4) None of these
2. If a, b, c are all positive and are in H.P., then the roots of ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 are
(1) imaginary (2) equal
(3) rational (4) real
3. Honda, a car manufacturing company, manufactures ‘p’ Honda CRVs and ‘q’
Honda Accords in a particular day, where 8q + 16 p = pq + 96 and 0  p  6. The
profit on each Honda CRV is Rs. 4 lakhs and that on each Accord is Rs. 2 lakhs.
Find the maximum profit that can be made by Honda in a day.
(1) Rs. 24 lakhs (2) Rs. 36 lakhs
(3) Rs. 32 lakhs (4) Rs. 40 lakhs
4. How many triplets of prime numbers can be formed such that the terms of the
triplet are in arithmetic progression?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) More than 3

61
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. If in an AP, a1 + a4 + .... a16 = 147, then the value of a1 + a6+ a11 + a16= ?
(1) 49 (2) 98
(3) 147 (4) None of these
6. An inscribed rectangle has sides 35 and 84 metres. One of the vertices of the
rectangle is taken as the starting point and two men start travelling - one of
them along the cicumference of the circle and the other starts travelling along
boundary of the rectangle with speeds of 22 and 17 m/sec respectively. At
what time will they meet again at the starting point?
(1) 13 sec (2) 21 sec
(3) 91 sec (4) 182 sec
7. The 69th term of an A.P. is 16 times the fourth term of that A.P. Find the 20th term
of the A.P., if its 7th term is 22.
(1) 34 (2) 48
(3) 61 (4) 67
8. If the sum of the 10th, 20th, 30th terms of an arithmetic progression is equal to the
58th term, what is the ratio of the sum of the 10th, 20th and 30th terms to the sum
of the 5th, 10th and 15th terms?
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 20 : 9
(3 19 : 9 (4) Cannot be determined
9. If A = 2 + 2r + 2r2 + .... , B = 3 – 3r + 3r2 – 3r3.... , and C = 6 + 6r2 + 6r4 +……,
AB
r < 1. Then is equal to
C
(1) 2 (2) 1

1 1
(3) (4)
2 4
10. The geometric mean of three distinct integers is 16. If one of the numbers is 32
and the sum of the three numbers is maximum, find the difference between
other two numbers.
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 127 (4) 62

62
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

11. Find the ratio of the 17th terms of two A.P. if the ratio of the sum upto n terms of
the two progression is (3n + 2) : (4n – 13).
(1) 4 : 7 (2) 7 : 6
(3) 101 : 119 (4) 36 : 55
12. Consider the following series 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 8,
8, 8, 8, 8, 8,…..and so on. What is the sum of the first 1000 terms of the series?
(1) 30240 (2) 30270
(3) 32265 (4) 33295
13. The number of sequences of length five with 0 and 1 as terms which contain at
least two consecutive 0’s is
(1) 4 × 23 (2) 5C2
(3) 20 (4) 19

1 1 1
14. The sum of the series + + + ...  is:
1 4 4 7 7 10

1
(1) (2) 3
3

1
(3) (4) None of these
4

15. If Sn = 27 – 72 + 29 – 69 + 31 – 66 + 33 – 63.... upto n terms, then find p, given


Sp = 0.
(1) 19 (2) 20
(3) 37 (4) 38
16. Let {an} be a strictly increasing sequence of positive integers such that
a2 = 2 & amn = aman for m, n coprime (multiplicative property). Then an=
(for every positive integer n)
(1) n (2) n 2
(3) 2n – 1 (4) 3n + 1

63
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

17. S is a set of integers chosen from 1 to 2000 (both inclusive), such that the sum
of any two integers in S is not divisible by 9. What is the maximum possible
number of integers in S?
(1) 888 (2) 1001
(3) 891 (4) 1112
18. In a class of 210 students, with roll numbers 1 to 210, each student has as many
sheets of paper as his roll number. The Social Studies teacher takes away all
the sheets of paper from all the students whose roll numbers are even. After
this, the Science teacher takes away all the sheets of paper from all the students
whose roll numbers are multiples of 3. Then, the Maths teacher takes away all
the sheets of paper from all the students whose roll numbers are multiples of 5.
Finally, the English teacher takes away all the sheets of paper from all the
students whose roll numbers are multiples of 7. What is the total number of
sheets of paper left with all the students together?
(1) 10080 (2) 5040
(3) 2304 (4) 2520
19. The number of ways in which three distinct numbers in an AP can be selected
from 1 to 24 is
(1) 144 (2) 276
(3) 572 (4) 132

1 1 1 1
20. If k = 4 + 10 + 21 + 36 + 55 + ... 12 terms, then k is definitely less
2 6 24 20
than:
(1) 1381 (2) 1377
(3) 1379 (4) 1378

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

64
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 14
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. There were six coins, each of a different denomination, in my pocket. If I take


them out one after the other at random, what is the probability that I get the
coins in descending order of the denominations?

1 1
(1) (2)
20 120

1
(3) (4) None of these
720

1
2. In a right triangle, the probability of one of the angles to be 60° is . What is
2
the probability of at least one of the angles to be of 30°?

1
(1) (2) 1
4

1
(3) (4) Cannot be determined
2

3. P is the set of real numbers n, such that – 15  n  15. If two numbers x, y are
chosen at random from the set find the probability that |x|  5; |y|  5; and
x + y 5

7 1
(1) (2)
72 6

1
(3) (4) Data insufficient
3

65
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

4. Aditya picks up a card at random from a set of cards numbered from 101 to250.
If the number on the card that he picks up is a multiple of 9, he wins Rs. 20, if
it is a multiple of 11, he wins Rs. 50 and if it is a multiple of both (9 and 11), he
wins Rs. 100. In the long run, what is the amount Aditya will gain on an
average, if he has to pay Rs. 3 as a participation fee for each draw?
(1) Rs. 3.46 (2) Rs. 6.46
(3) Rs. 6.66 (4) Rs. 3.66
5. Each face of a cubical die is numbered with a distinct number from among the
first six odd numbers, such that the sum of the two numbers on any pair of
opposite sides is 12. If ten such dice are thrown simultaneously, then find the
probability that the sum of the numbers that turn up is exactly 55.

55 275
(1) (2)
610 610

555
(3) (4) None of the above
610

6 Bipin has to make a telephone call to his friend Harish. Unfortunately he does
not remember the 7 digit phone number. But he remembers that the first 3 digits
are 536 or 476, the number is odd and there is exactly one 9 in the number. The
maximum number of trials where Bipin certainly get success is
(1) 10,000 (2) 3402
(3) 3200 (4) 5000
7. What is the probability of choosing two integers x and y from 0 to 10 both
inclusive, such that |x – y|  7?

115 107
(1) (2)
121 121

109 111
(3) (4)
121 121

66
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

8. There are 6 boxes, each containing brown and black socks. The number of
socks in the 6 boxes is 11, 14, 17, 21, 22 and 27 respectively. One of these six
boxes is removed and it was found that in the remaining five boxes together,
the total number of brown socks is double the total number of black socks.
How many socks are there in the box that is removed?
(1) 11 (2) 22
(3) 14 (4) Cannot be determined
9. A family on a Goa trip had decided to buy one ‘ping pong’ every day, either red
or black, till they would stay there. Probability of getting red ping pong is p
and for black is q = 1 – p. They have decided to buy ping pong until they have
four ping pongs of the same colour. What is the probability that the family will
end up having 7 ping pongs?
(1) 35(p4q3+q4p3) (2) 25(p4q3+q4p3)
(3) 20(p3q3) (4) None of these
10. A committee of 5 students is to be chosen from 4 boys and 6 girls. Find the
probability that the committee contains at least 2 girls.

10 1
(1) (2)
21 42

41 20
(3) (4)
42 21

11. There are n boxes each of which contains several coins of denominations
Re.1, Rs.2, Rs.3, Rs.4 and Rs.5. If exactly 10 coins are drawn from each of the
boxes, then find the minimum number n such that at least eight coins of the
same denomination are obtained on the whole.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

67
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

12. There are 6 positive and 8 negative numbers. Four numbers are chosen at
random and multiplied. The probability that the product is a positive number is

500 503
(1) (2)
1001 1001

505 101
(3) (4)
1001 1001

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 and 16: Answer the questions on teh basis of the
information given below.
A letter lock has 3 rings each containing six distinct letters.
13. What is the probability that all the 3 letters are the same in the 3 letter
passwords?

6
(1) 26 3 (2) (26)–2
 

1
(3) (4) None of these
36

14. What is the probability that the code is P.Q.R?

1 1
(1) (2) 3
78  26
C6 

3 3 3
 1   1  1
(3)  26  (4)  26  ×  
 C6  6

15. The three rings are made such that no two rings have a common letter on them.
How many passwords can exist?
(1) 15600 (2) 26C6 × 26C6 × 14C6 × 63
(3) (26C6)3 × 63 (4) 17576

68
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

16. What is the maximum number of false trials that can be made before the lock is
opened?
(1) 3 × 26C6 – 1 (2) (26C6)3 × 63 – 1
(3) 26C6 × 3! – 1 (4) 215
17. There is a critical height (which is a whole number of floors above ground
level), such that an egg dropped from that height (or higher) will break, but if
dropped from a lower height (no matter how many times), it will not break. You
are given two eggs and told that the critical height is between 1 floor and 37
floors (both inclusive). What is the minimum number of times you must drop
an egg in order to guarantee the successful determination of the critical height?
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 8
18. In a factory, machines A, B and C manufacture 25%, 35% and 40% of the total
production of bulbs. 6%, 4% and 7% of the bulbs manufactured by machines
A, B and C respectively are defective. A bulb is drawn at random and is found
to be defective. What is the probability that it was produced by machine A?
6 5
(1) (2)
11 11

4 5
(3) (4)
19 19
19. Two buckets contain black and white balls. The first has five black and three
white and the second one has 4 white and 4 black balls. A ball is picked from
the first bucket and put into the second bucket. Next a ball from the second
bucket is picked and put into the first bucket. Find the probability of the event
that after these actions the composition of first bucket has become that of the
second one and the composition of the second bucket has become that of first
bucket.

12 5
(1) (2)
19 18

4 7
(3) (4)
9 18

69
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. A player rolls a biased dice and receives the same number of rupees as the
number of dots on the face that turns up. Dice is such that it is twice likely
shown an even number than an odd number. What should the player pay for
each roll if he wants to make a profit of Rs.2/3 per throw of the dice in the long
run?
(1) Rs.3 (2) Rs.4
(3) Rs.5 (4) Rs.6

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

70
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 15
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. In a scalene triangle ABC with integer sides, AB is 786 units and BC is 648
units, the number of possible values of AC is?
(1) 1296 (2) 1295
(3) 1293 (4) 1294
2. The letters of the word ‘RANDOM’ are written in all possible orders and these
words are written out in a dictionary, then the rank of the word ‘RANDOM’ will
be
(1) 614 (2) 704
(3) 502 (4) 370
3. In how many ways can a group of 6 friends A, B, C, D, E and F stand in a queue
such that A and E are standing in the corners and B and C are never together?
(1) 36 (2) 27
(3) 24 (4) 42

DIRECTIONS for question 4 : Answer the question on the basis of the infromation
given below:
85 children went to an amusement park, where they could ride on the merry-go-
round, roller coaster, and wheel. It was known that 20 of them took all the three rides,
and 55 of them took at least two of the three rides. Each ride cost Rs. 1, and the total
receipt of the amusement park from these children was Rs. 145.
4. How many children did not try any of the rides?
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 20

71
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. In the upper–class lounge at the city railway station there are thirty chairs in a
row, all of them initially unoccupied. From time to time, a passenger enters the
lounge and sits in one of the free chairs. If either of the neighbouring chairs is
occupied, one of the neighbours gets up immediately and leaves. What is the
maximum number of chairs that can be occupied at any given time?
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 21 (4) 29
6. The co-ordinates of a point is (1, 1). Increase one of the co-ordinates by 1 and
repeat the same until we reach (4, 4). {For example, from (2, 1) to reach (4, 4) one
of the way could be (2, 1) (2, 2) (2, 3) (3, 3) (3, 4) (4, 4)}. The number of possible
ways to reach ( 4, 4 ) from (1,1) are
(1) 6P6 (2) 6C6

6! 6!
(3) (4)
3!3! 3!
7. How many different words can be formed using the letters of the word
DEDICATION, such that the words never start with D?

10!
(1) 2 × 9! (2)
4

96
(3) 8! × 6 (4)
4
8. Different four-letter words are formed with the help of the letters of the word
‘CLANDESTINE’. Find the total number of 4 letter words in which two letters
are different and two are alike.
(1) 1242 (2) 672
(3) 1488 (4) None of these
9. Vinay has nine friends. He wants to invite them to his birthday party. In how
many ways can he invite at least two of his friends for his birthday party?
(1) 45 (2) 502
(3) 511 (4) 1023

72
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

10. The number of ways in which 16 Sovereigns can be distributed among three
applicants such that each applicant does not receive less than 3 Sovereigns is
(1) 27 (2) 79
(3) 54 (4) 36
11. What are the number of possible combinations for the values of a and b, if the
five digit number a21b2 is completely divisible by 24?
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 27
12. A triplet is a set of three distinct samples taken in some ratio of their volumes.
How many such distinct triplets are there, which when mixed can give a sample
with more than 80% concentration?
(1) 120 (2) 20
(3) 60 (4) 100
13. 5 students out of the 3 students each from 3 different states are to be chosen
for the National Integration camp. If each state is to have at least one
representative, in how many ways can the selection be made?
(1) 81 (2) 108
(3) 2187 (4) 6561
14. A family consisting of two men, three women and four children have front-row
seats for a Broadway show, where they will all sit next to one another in seats
101 through 109. The decision, as to who sits in which seat, must confirm to
the following two conditions.
 The four children must sit next to one another, in four consecutive
seats.
 The two men must sit next to each other.
If a man is sitting in seat 107 and a woman is sitting in seat 108, which of the
following could be the seat that another woman is sitting in?
(1) 101 (2) 102
(3) 103 (4) 104

73
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

15. Hundred mangoes are distributed among the maximum possible number of
persons such that each person gets a different number of mangoes. What is
the maximum number of mangoes received by any person?
(1) 13 (2) 9
(3) 14 (4) 22
16. If nCr + nCr–1 = aCb and a + b = 29, which of the following cannot be a posible
combination of n, r?
(1) 18, 10 (2) 18, 9
(3) 17, 10 (4) 17, 7
17. In the metro railway system, every station sells tickets for every other station.
Some new stations are added for which 46 sets of additional tickets were
required. How many stations were there originally and how many new stations
were added?
(1) 5 original, 6 new (2) 6 original, 5 new
(3) 11 original, 2 new (4) 11 original, 3 new
18. How many distinct triangles, of integer sides, having a perimeter of 20 units
are possible?
(1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) None of these
19. All the letters of the two words ‘THE RAINMAKER’ are used to form 2 words
each with equal number of letters. This can be done in _____ ways.

12! 12!
(1) 2! 2 (2) 2! 4
   

12! 12!
(3) 2! 3 (4) 3! 2!
 

74
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

20. A player rolls a die and receives the same number of rupees as the number of
dots on the face that turns up. What should the player pay for each roll if he
wants to make a profit of one rupee per throw of the die in the long run?
(1) Rs. 2.50 (2) Rs. 2.00
(3) Rs. 3.50 (4) Rs. 4.00

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

75
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

EXERCISE – 16
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min

1. The area of the region, where x  0, y  0 and 0  (x + y)  1 is?


(1) 0.5 (2) 1.5
(3) 2.5 (4) 5
2. If f(x) = cos x, then 50th derivative of f(x) is
(1) sin x (2) –sin x
(3) cos x (4) –cos x

3. What can be the value of ‘’, if (1 + 2 2 ) cos – 2 cos2= 2 and ‘’ lies

 
between – and ?
2 2

 
(1) – (2)
3 3

 
(3) (4)
4 6

1 + x 
4. If f(x) = log   , then f(x) + f(y) is
1 – x 

 x+y 
(1) f(x + y) (2) f  
 1 + xy 

 1  f  y
(3) (x + y) f   (4) f(x)+
 1 + xy  1 + xy

76
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

5. Let y = k2(x2 + 1) + 2k(3x + 4) + 27. If k and x are real numbers, what is the
minimum value of y?
(1) 2 (2) –3
(3) 9 (4) 11
6. If M=107, N=108,O=109, P=110 then the square root of (1+(M+1)(N+1)
(O+1)(P+1))
(1) 11989 (2) 12000
(3) 110989 (4) none of these

x 2 – 2x + a 2 + b 2
7. The expression lies between
x 2 + 2x + a 2 + b 2

a 2 + b2 +1 a2 + b2 – 1
(1) and (2) (a) and (b)
a 2 + b 2 –1 a 2 + b2 + 1

a 2 + b2 + 1 a 2 + b2 – 1
(3) and 1 (4) and 1
a 2 + b2 – 1 a 2 + b2 + 1

8. If m and n are real and positive numbers and m times...... n n n


m =n , then which of
the following is true?
(1) logmm = m – n (2) lognm = mn
m
(3) lognm = n (4) lognm = mn
9. If X represents a number between 2 to 5 both inclusive and Y represents a
number between 30 and 40 both inclusive, what is the difference between the

Y
minimum and maximum possible values of ?
X
(1) 20 (2) 6
(3) 14 (4) 26

77
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

10. A cuboid has a volume of 64 cubic units. Find the minimum possible value (in
units) of the sum of the lengths of the edges of the cuboid.
(1) 36 (2) 40
(3) 48 (4) 64

log  3–2x–x 2 
11. The domain of f(x) = is
x
(1) 0 < x < 1 (2) 0  x  1
(3) –3 < x < –1 (4) (–3 < x < 0)  (0 < x < 1)
12. 3x+4y=10, for +ve nos x & y.
Find the maximum value of x×x×y×y×y?

32
(1) 4 (2)
9
(3) 6 (4) 36

x a+1 y b+1
13. If x, y and z are eliminated from the equations y = a – 1 , z = b – 1 and,

z c+1
= then what is the relationship between a, b and c?
x c–1
(1) a + b + c = –1 (2) abc = –1
(3) ab + bc + ca = –1 (4) a 2 + b2 + c2 = –1

1+x
14. If f(x) = , then what is the range for values of x and y for f(x) + f(y) =
1–x

2  x – y
?
1 – x 1 – y 
(1) –1 < x < 1; – 1 < y < 1 (2) x < –1; – 1 < y < 1
(3) –1  x < 1; y  –1 or y > 1 (4) x < –1; y < –1

78
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

15. How many diagnols are there in an n sided polygon (n>3)

n  n – 3
(1) (2) nc2
2

n  n – 1
(3) (4) None of these
2

a2 b2 c2
16. If a + b + c = 0. where a  b  c, then 2
+ 2 + 2 is equal
2a + bc 2b + ac 2c + ab
to
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) abc
17. [x] is defined as the greatest integer less than x and {x} is defined as the least
integer greater than x, for all real values of x. Consider the following four
statements.
I. [x] + [x] = –1 II. {x} + [–x] = 0
III. {[x]} + [{–x}] = 1 IV. [2x] + {3x}  5x
How many of the above statements are always true for all real values of x?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
18. There are ten plates numbered 1,2, ... , 10. Each plate contains some fruits and
the total number of fruits on all the plates is 100. There are 16 fruits on Plate 1,
and the total number of fruits on every third plate is the same. What is the
maximum possible number of fruits contained on Plate 8?
(1) 10 (2) 8
(3) 11 (4) 16

79
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

19. Find the number of positive values of y satisfying the equation

1
2(log3y)2 + 10 logy 3 + 12 = logy .
81
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
20. The number of distinct points common to the curves x2 + 4y2 = 1 and 4x2 + y2
= 42 is
(1) 61 (2) 65
(3) 51 (4) None of these

Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
20

80
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 1
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (2)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 2
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (4)
16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 3
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (4)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (3)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 4
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3)

81
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 5
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 6
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 7
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 8
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (3)

82
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 9
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 10
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 11
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 12
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)

83
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 13
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 14
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 15
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1)

ANSWERS EXERCISE – 16
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)

84

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