Animal Tissue PDF

PRE-MEDICAL - 2022
LEADER COURSE(PHASE - XI)
INTERNAL TEST - 01 DATE : 09 - 02 - 2022
SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : Physical World, Units And Dimensions, Errors In Measurements,
Basic Mathematics Used In Physics And Vectors,
Kinematics(Motion In A Straight Line),
Kinematics (Motion In A Plane), Relative Motion(Complete)
CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept Of Chemistry, Redox Reaction,
Behaviour Of Gases, Chemical Equilibrium,
Ionic Equilibrium (Complete)
BOTANY : Cell - The Unit Of Life, Cell Cycle And Cell Division,
Anatomy Of Flowering Plant (Up to Tissue System)
ZOOLOGY : Structural Organization In Animals (Animal Tissue), Biomolecules,
Digestion & Absorption(Up to Digestive Glands)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/LEADER/PHASE-XI/INTENAL TEST-01/09.02.2022/SOLUTION
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)
TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

CLASS : LEADER (XIII) (PHASE - XI)
TEST TYPE: ONLINE TEST DATE : 09.02.2022 TEST PATTERN: NEET
Time : 3 Hours INTERNAL TEST - 01 Maximum Marks : 720
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

Q. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 2
Q. No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 4 2
Q. No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 1
Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 1 4 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 1 1 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 3
Q. No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 3
Q. No. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 4 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 1 4 2
Q. No. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 4 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 3 1
Q. No. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3
Q. No. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 4
Q. No. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 2 2
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) Ans. 3
This section contains 35 questions. Sol. Given:
r r r r r r r r r
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding C=A+B ( )(
Þ C.C = A + B . A + B )
to the correct option in the ORS.
C 2 = A 2 + B2 + 2AB cos q
For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories : 132 = 122 + 52 + 2 (12 )(5 ) cos q
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding p
cos q = 0 Þq=
to the correct option is darkened. 2
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. 2. Magnitude of vector which comes on addition of
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases two vectors 6iˆ + 7ˆj and 3iˆ + 4ˆj is
r r r
1. The magnitude of vectors A, B and C are (1) 136 (2) 13.2
r r r
respectively 12, 5 and 13 units and A + B = C . (3) (4)
r r 202 160
Then the angle between A and B is Ans. 3
(1) 0 (2) p
p p
(3) (4)
2 4
1/27
Sol. Addition of two vector r r
Sol. A = 4iˆ - 3jˆ B = 6iˆ + 8ˆj
(6iˆ + 7ˆj) + (3iˆ + 4ˆj) = 9iˆ + 11jˆ r r
( ) (
\ A + B = 4iˆ - 3jˆ + 6iˆ + 8jˆ ) = 10iˆ + 5ˆj
Order of magnitude
r r
(10) + (5)
2 2
\Magnitude of \ A + B =
(9) + (11)
2 2
= 81 + 121 = 202
3. A body is at rest under the action of three forces, = 100 + 25 = 125 =5 5
r r
two of which are F = 4i,ˆ F = 6ˆj , the third force 5 1
1 2
is Now, angle from x = axis, tan q = =
10 2
(1) 4iˆ + 6ˆj (2) 4iˆ - 6ˆj æ1ö
\q = tan -1 ç ÷
(3) -4iˆ + 6ˆj (4) -4iˆ - 6ˆj è2ø
Ans. 4 6. A force of 5 N acts on a particle along a direction
making an angle of 60° with vertical. Its vertical
Sol. F1 + F2 + F3 = 0 Þ 4iˆ + 6ˆj + F3 = 0 component be
r (1) 10 N (2) 3 N
\ F3 = -4iˆ - 6jˆ
(3) 4 N (4) 2.5 N
4. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts Ans. 4
moving along with the positive x-direction with a
Sol. The component of force in vertical direction
velocity v that varies as v = a x .
The displacement of the particle varies with time 1
= Fcos q = Fcos60° = 5 ´ = 2.5N
as 2
(1) t 2 (2) t y
1
(3) t 2 (4) t 3
o
F cos 60
Ans. 1 F
dx 60 o
Sol. =a x
dt
x
dx
\ò = ò a.dt
o
F sin 60
x
7. A body moves along the curved path of a quarter
1
circle. Calculate the ratio of distance to
\2x = a.t
2
displacement
x µ t2 (1) 11 : 7 (2) 7 : 11
r r
5. If A = 4iˆ - 3jˆ and B = 6iˆ + 8jˆ then magnitude and (3) 11: 7 2 (4) 7 :11 2
r r Ans. 3
direction of A + B with x axis will be
pR
æ3ö
-1 æ1ö -1 Sol. Dis tan ce = ,Displacement = 2R
(1) 5, tan ç ÷ (2) 5 5, tan ç ÷ 2
è4ø è2ø
pR
æ3ö -1 p 22
(3) 10, tan -1 (5) (4) 25, tan ç ÷ Ratio = 2 = =
è4ø 2R 2 2 7 ´ 2 2
Ans. 2
= 11: 7 2
2/27
8. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5iˆ + 0.8jˆ + ckˆ ,

(i + j )
then the value of ‘c’ is hence, unit vector along (i + j) is
2
(1) 1 (2) 0.11 11. A particle moves in straight line. Its position is given
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.39 by x = 2 + 5t - 3t 2 . Find the ratio of initial velocity
Ans. 2 and initial acceleration
Sol. The unit vector is given as A = 0.5iˆ + 0.8jˆ + ckˆ 5 5

(1) + (2) -
6 6
Magnitude of unit vector is always equal to 1 i.e. |
A| = 1 7 7
(3) (4) -
5 5
(0.5) + (0.8)
2 2
\ + c2 = 1
Ans. 2
or c = 0.11
2
Þ c = 0.11 Sol. x = 2 + 5t - 3t 2
9. Unit vector parallel to the resultant of vectors v = 5 - 6t
r
A = 4iˆ - 3jˆ and B = 8iˆ + 8ˆj will be \v 0 = 5
24iˆ + 5jˆ 12iˆ + 5jˆ a = -6
(1) (2)
13 13 v0 5
\ =-
6iˆ + 5jˆ 12iˆ - 5jˆ a0 6
(3) (4) r r r
13 13 12. If A ´ B = C , then which of the following
Ans. 2 statements is wrong?
Sol. Resultant is given as: r r r r
r r (1) C ^ A (2) C ^ B
A + B = 4iˆ - 3jˆ + 8iˆ + 8jˆ = 12iˆ + 5jˆ r r r r r r
(3) C ^ A + B ( )(4) C ^ A ´ B ( )
12iˆ + 5jˆ Ans. 4
Thus unit vector is given as:
122 + 52 r r r
Sol. We are given that C = A ´ B . From the property
12iˆ + 5jˆ of cross product, we notice that C must be
which gives, perpendicular to the plane formed by vector A and
13 r r
B. Thus C is perpendicular to both A and B .
10. The unit vector along î + ˆj is
Hence Option (1) and (2) are correct.
r r
(1) k̂ (2) î + ˆj ( )
A + B vector must lie in the plane formed by
î + ˆj vector A and B. Thus C must be perpendicular to
î + ˆj r r
(3)
2
(4)
2 ( )
A + B also. Hence Option(3) is correct.
r r
Ans. 3 ( )
The cross product A ´ B gives a vector C which
r r
Sol. Unit vector along (i + j) is
(i + j ) can not be perpendicular to itself. Both A ´ B ( )
i+ j r
and C are equal so they will have the same
direction and will be parallel. Hence, Option(4) is
i + j is magnitude of (i + j) incorrect.
we know, 13. A man moves 4m along east direction then 3m
i and j are perpendicular to each other along north direction after that he climbs up a pole
to a height 12m. The distance & displacement
so, i + j = i 2 + j2 + 2ijcos90° covered are
(1) 12m, 5m (2) 19m, 5m
1+1 = 2
(3) 19m, 12m (4) 19m, 13m
Ans. 4
3/27
Sol. Dis tan ce = 4 + 3 + 12 = 19m 2.63 + 2.56 + 2.42 + 2.71 + 2.80

Sol. T=
Displacement = 4 + 3 + 12 = 13m
2 2 2 5
14. ( )
î ´ ˆj ´ kˆ is 13.12
5
= 2.624 = 2.62 Þ 2.62 - 2.63 = -0.01
(1) î + ˆj + kˆ (2) î - ˆj - kˆ 2.62 - 2.56 = +0.06 Þ 2.62 - 2.42 = +.20

2.62 - 2.71 = -0.09 Þ 2.62 - 2.80 = -0.18
(3) Zero vector (4) Unit vector
Ans. 3 Average absolute error
0.01 + 0.06 + 0.20 + 0.09 + 0.18
Sol. As ˆj ´ kˆ = I, î ´ iˆ = 0, hence ans is zero
5
15. The SI unit of universal gas constant (R) is 0.545 = 0.108 = 0.11s
(1) Watt K–1 mol–1 (2) Newton K–1 mol–1
–1 –1
19. The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter
(3) Joule K mol (4) Erg K–1 mol–1 rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is
Ans. 3 measured with Vernier callipers having least count
0.01 cm. Given that length is 5.0 cm. and radius is
2DU 2.0 cm. The percentage error in the calculated
Sol. From the relation R =
3nT value of the volume will be
where DU is the change in internal energy, n is (1) 1% (2) 2%
number of moles of gas and DT is change in (3) 3% (4) 4%
temperature. Ans. 3
We get the S.I. unit of universal gas constant is
Joule K–1 mol–1. Sol. Volume of cylinder V = pr 2 L
16. The unit of permittivity of free space e0 is \ Percentage error in volume

DV 2Dr Dl
Columb Þ ´ 100 = ´100 ´100
(1) V r 1
Newton-meter
æ 0.01 ö 0.1
= 2ç ÷ ´ 100 + ´ 100 = (1 + 2 ) = 3.
Newton-meter 2 è 2.0 ø 5.0
(2)
Columb 2
20. The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is
2
Columb (1) 5 (2) 4
(3)
( Newton-meter )
2
(3) 2 (4) 3
Ans. 2
Columb 2 Sol. Theoretical
(4)
Newton-meter 2 21. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L+B = (with
Ans. 4 correct Significant figures)
17. Light year is a unit of (1) 4.431 cm (2) 4.43 cm
(1) Time (2) Mass (3) 4.4 cm (4) 4 cm
(3) Distance (4) Energy Ans. 3
Ans. 3 Sol. Given L = 2.331 cm B = 2.1 cm
Sol. Light year is a unit of distance L+ B = (2.331 + 2.1) cm = 4.431
18. The period of oscillations of a simple pendulum in (Number of significant digit must be least)
the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s 2.56 s 2.42 s so, L + B = 4.4 cm
2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average
absolute error is
(1) 0.1 s (2) 0.11 s
(3) 0.01 s (4) 1.0 s
Ans. 2
4/27
22. A physical quantity A is related to four observables
Total dis tan ce
a 2 b3 Sol. Avg speed =
a, b, c and d as follows, A = , the percentage Total time
3 d
errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 2 ( D) 2ab
1%,3%,2% and 2% respectively. What is the = =
æ Dö æ Dö a+b
+
percentage error in the quantity A? èç a ø÷ èç b ø÷
(1) 12% (2) 7%
25. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height
(3) 5% (4) 14%
Ans. 4 drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 ms -2 , the velocity
with which it hits the ground is :
a 2 b3 (Neglect height of boy)
Sol. The given physical quantity A =
c d (1) 10.0 m/s (2) 20.0 m/s
Da Db (3) 40.0 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s
Given: ´ 100 = 1%, ´ 100 = 3% Ans. 2
a b
Dc Dd Sol. V = 2gs = 2 ´ 10 ´ 20 = 20 m / s
´ 100 = 2% and ´ 100 = 2%
c d 26. The number of significant figures in all the given
Percentage error in A, numbers 25.12, 2009, 4.156 and 1.217 ´ 10-4 is
DA Da Db (1) 1 (2) 2
´ 100 = 2 ´ 100 + 3 ´ 100 (3) 3 (4) 4
A a b
Dc 1 Dd Ans. 4
+ ´ 100 + ´ ´ 100 Sol. Here, Number of significant digit
c 2 d
DA 1 25.12 ¾¾
®4 Þ 2009 ¾¾
®4
Þ ´ 100 = 2 ´ 1 + 3 ´ 3 + 2 + ´ 2 = 14%
A 2 4.156 ¾¾
®4 Þ 1.217 ´ 10 -4 ¾¾
®4
23. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is
So, 4 is the correct option.
1 %. The error in the calculated value of its volume
is 27. The displacement of a particle starting from rest
(1) 1% (2) 3% is given as s = 3t 2 - t 3 . The time when the particle
(3) 5% (4) 7% will attain zero velocity again is
Ans. 2 (1) 4s (2) 8s
(3) 2s (4) 16s
4pR 3 Ans. 3
Sol. Volume =
3
Sol. s = 3t 2 - t 3
DV DR
´ 100 = 3 ´ 100 \ v = 6t - 3t 2 , if v = 0
V R
1 \ t = 0,2s
= 3´ ´ 100 = 3
100 28. If the length of rod A is 3.25 ± 0.01 cm and that of
24. A car moves from P to Q with a uniform speed ‘a’ B is 4.19 ± 0.01 cm then the rod B is longer than
and returns to P with a uniform speed ‘b’. The rod A by
average speed for this round trip is (1) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm (2) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm
(3) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm (4) 0.94 ± 0.005 cm
a+b 2ab
(1) (2) Ans. 3
2 a+b
Sol. Given, length of rod A is
ab
(3) ab (4) LA = 3.25 ± 0.01 or B is L B = 4.19 ± 0.01
a+b
Then, the rod B is longer than rod A by a length
Ans. 2
Dl = L B - L A = Dl = ( 4.19 ± 0.01) - (3.25 ± 0.01)
Dl = (0.94 ± 0.02 ) cm
5/27
29. The Vernier constant of a travelling microscope is 32. The angle subtended at the centre of radius 3
0.001 cm. If 49 main scale divisions coincide with metres by the arc of length 1 metre is equal to
50 main scale divisions, then the value of 1 main (1) 20o (2) 60o
scale division is
(3) 1/3 radian (4) 3 radian
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.4 mm
Ans. 3
(3) 0.5 mm (4) 1 mm
Sol. We know that
Ans. 3
1= r´q
Sol. Vernier constant is the ratio of smallest division of
the main scale to the number of divisions on the Where 1 ® arc length
vernier scale. r ® radius
Smallest division on main scale q ® angle subtended by the arc
0.001cm =
50 Substituting the values of these terms we get,
Þ 1MSD = ( 0.001 ´ 50 ) = 0.5mm 1
Þ 1 = 3q Þ q = radian
30. A bus starts from rest moving with an acceleration 3
of 2ms -2 . A cyclist, 96 m behind the bus starts 33. Which of the following relation is correct?
simultaneously towards the bus at constant speed (1) sin 1° > sin 1 (2) sin 1 > sin 1o
of 20 m/s. After what time he will be able to
overtake the bus p
(3) sin 1 = sin 1° (4) sin1 = sin1°
(1) 8s (2) 10s 180
(3) 14s (4) 1s Ans. 2
Ans. 1 180°
Sol. We know that, 1 radian = = 57°30' approx.
1 2 p
Sol. Distance travelled by bus = .a.t 57° lies between 0 and 90 degrees and since in
2
first quadrant sin q increases when q increases.
1 Þ sin 1o < sin 1
= .2.t 2 = t 2
2
24
Distance travelled by cyclist = 20t 34. If sin x = - , then the value of tan x is
25
20t = 96 + t 2
t = 8 second 24 24
(1) (2) -
31. The minute hand of a clock is 10 cm long. How 25 7
far does the tip of the hand move in 20 minutes? 25 25
(3) (4) -
10p 20p 24 24
(1) cm (2) cm Ans. 2
3 3
30p 40p 24
(3) cm (4) cm Sol. We have Þ sin x = -
3 3 25
Ans. 2 We know that Þ cos x = 1 - sin 2 x
Sol. The minute hand moves through 120° in 20 min or
2p æ 24 ö
2
625 - 576
moves through radians. Since the length of = 1- ç - ÷ =
3 è 25 ø 625
the minute hand is 10 cm the distance moved by
the tip of the hand is given by the formula 49 7
= =
625 25
2p 20p
l = r q = 10 ´ = cm. Thus
3 3
24
-
sin x 24
tan x = = 25 Þ tan x = -
cos x 7 7
25
6/27
35. sin 75° = 4 3

37. The volume of a sphere is given by V = pR
3
2- 3 3 +1 where R is the radius of the sphere. The rate of
(1) (2)
2 2 2 change of volume with respect to R and the change
in volume of the sphere as the radius is increased
3 -1 3 -1 from 20.0 cm to 20.1 cm respectively are (Assume
(3) - (4) that the rate does not appreciably change between
2 2 2 2
R = 20.0 cm to R = 20.1 cm)
Ans. 2
(1) 4pR 2 ,160p cm3 (2) 4pR 2 ,1600p cm3
Sol. sin 75° = sin ( 45° + 30° )
(3) 400pR 2 ,16p cm3 (4) 16pR 2 , 4p cm3
sin ( x + y ) = sin x cos y + cos x sin y
Ans. 1
putting x = 45° and y = 30°
4 3 dV 4 d
(R )
3
= sin 45° cos30° + cos 45° sin 30° Sol. (1) V = pR or, = p
3 dR 3 dR
1 3 1 1 1 æ 3 1ö
= ´ + ´ = ç + ÷ 4
2 2 2 2 2 çè 2 2 ÷ø = p.3R 2 = 4pR 2
3
(2) At R=20 cm: the rate of change of volume
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) with the radius is
( )
This section contains 15 questions. dV
= 4pR 2 = 4p ( 400cm )
2
Attempt any 10 questions. dR

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding = 1600pcm 2 dv = 160pcm3
to the correct option in the ORS. 38. A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards
For each question, marks will be awarded in one east and finally 30 2 m in south-west direction.
of the following categories : The displacement of the person from the origin
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble will be
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) 10 m along north (2) 10 m along south
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. (3) 10 m along west (4) Zero
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases Ans. 3
36. The value of cos15° - sin15° equal to
1 20m
1 B o C
(1) (2) 45
2 2
30m
30 2
-1 Sol.
(3) (4) Zero A
2
Ans. 1
Sol. Now cos15° - sin15°
x = 20 - 30 2 cos 45
æ 1 1 ö
= 2ç cos15° - sin15° ÷ 1
è 2 2 ø = 20 - 30 2 ´ = -10
2
= 2 (sin 45° cos15° - cos 45° sin15° ) y = 30 - 30 2 cos 45 = 0
= 2 sin ( 45° - 15° ) = 2 sin 30° find co-ordinate = (–10, 0)
1 1
= 2´ =
2 2
7/27
39. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards 42. A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s can be
east. After 10seconds its velocity becomes stopped by the application of a constant force F in
40 m/s towards west. The average acceleration a distance of 20 m. If the velocity of the car is 30
of the body is m/s, it can be stopped by this force in
(1) 1 m / s 2 toward east 20

(1) m (2) 20 m
3
(2) 1 m / s2 toward west
(3) 60 m (4) 180 m
(3) 7 m / s2 toward east Ans. 4
Sol. Final velocity is zero.and acceleration is –ve
(4) 7 m / s2 toward west
Ans. 4 u2
0 = u2 - 2 ´ a ´ s Þ s = Þ s µ u2
2a
Sol. DV = 70 m / s
If car mo\ing with a velocity of 10 m/s can be
\Acc = 7 m / s toward west stopped by the application of a constant force F in
40. An athlete completes one round of a circular track a distance of 20m. since the velocity- is tripled
of radius R in 40 sec. What will be his stopping distance will become 32 = 9times.
displacement at the end of 2 min. 20 sec? New stopping distance = 9 ´ 20 = 180m
(1) Zero (2) 2R 43. The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight
(3) 2 pR (4) 7 pR line is 7 m/s. It has a uniform acceleration of 4 m/
s2. The distance covered by the body in 5th second
Ans. 2 of its motion is
(1) 25 m (2) 35 m
(3) 50 m (4) 85 m
Ans. 1
Sol. Given.
u = 7m/s
t = 20 B A t=0 a = 4m/s2
Sol. t = 60 t = 40
t = 100 t = 80 n=5
t = 180 t = 120 The distance covered by the body in nth sec is given
by
a
At t = 140 sec (2 min 20sec) Sn = u + ( 2n - 1)
He will be diametrically opp. end then, the 2
4
displacement will be ‘2R’ S5 = 7 + ( 2 ´ 5 - 1) Þ S5 = 25m
41. A particle starting from rest and moves with 2
constant acceleration travels a distance x in first 2 44. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are
seconds and a distance y in next two seconds, then dropped from two different heights a and b. The
ratio of the time taken by the two to cover these
(1) y = 8x (2) y = 2x distances are
(3) y = 3x (4) y = 4x (1) a : b (2) b : a
Ans. 3 (3) a: b (4) a2 : b2
Sol. If particle starts from rest and moves with constant Ans. 3
acceleration then in successive equal interval of
time the ratio of distance covered by it will be :
1:3:5:7 (2n- 1)
i.e.. ratio of x and y will b 1 : 3 i.e.,
x 1
= Þ y = 3x
y 3
8/27
Sol. Acceleration due to gravity acting on both the Sol. REF.Image.

bodies is same i.e. g. Initial speed of the bodies u distance upto 4 sec
=0
1
1 2 distance (0 to lsec) = ´ 1´ 20 = 10m
Distance covered bv a body S = ut + at 2
2
(1 - 2sec ) = 20 ´ ( 2 - 1) = 20m
1 2
Thus we get S = gt 1
2 ( 2 - 3sec ) = (3 - 2 ) ´10 + (3 - 2 ) ´ (20 - 10 )
2
2S 1
or t = Þtµ S = 1´ 10 + ´ 1´ 10 = 15m
g 2
(3 - 4sec ) = ( 4 - 3) ´10 = 10m
ta a
Thus =
tb b Total distance = 10 - 20 + 15 + 10 = 55m
45. A body falls freely from rest, covers as much 47. The velocity-time graph of a body moving along a
distance in the last second of its motion as it covers straight line is as follows
in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for
2
a time of
(1) 3 s (2) 5 s 1
(3) 7 s (4) 9 s
0
Ans. 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 time in s
Sol. Displacement in the nth second of the free fall is -1
1
Sn th = -2
2f ( t - t 22 )
2
1
The displacement of the body in 5 s is
Give that ( t n - t n -1 ) = 1 (1) 5 m (2) 2 m
Displacement in 3 seconds of the free fall (3) 4 m (4) 3 m
Ans. 4
1 1
S = gt 2 Þ S = ´ 10 ´ 33 Þ S = 45m Sol. Displacement is area under u - t graph :
2 2
Give that Sn th = 45 1 1
= ´ 3 ´ 2 + ´ (1) ´ ( -2 ) + 1´ 1 = 3m
2 2
On solving that we get: t1 = 5sec
48. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity
46. The variation of velocity of a particle with time 25 m/s. Two seconds later, it just clears a wall 5 m
moving along a straight line is illustrated in the high. The angle of projection of the stone is (g
following figure. The distance travelled by the = 10 m/ sec2) with the horizontal
particle in four seconds is
(1) 30o (2) 45o
(3) 50.2o (4) 60o
30 Ans. 1
Velocity (m/s)
Sol. Let angle of projection is q then we have

20
U x = 25cos q Þ U y = 25sin q
10
after 2 sec it clears a wall of 5m height that means
its height from ground is nearly 5m
0
1 2 3 4
4
Time in second H = U y t - gt 2 /2 Þ 5 = 25sin q´ 2 - 10 ´
2
(1) 60 m (2) 55 m 1
(3) 25 m (4) 30 m 5 + 20 = 50sin q Þ sin q = or q = 30°
2
Ans. 2
9/27
49. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
5 metres per minute. A man on the south bank of This section contains 35 questions.
the river, capable of swimming at 10 metres per
minute in still water, wants to swim across the river For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
in the shortest time. He should swim in a direction. to the correct option in the ORS.
(1) Due north (2) 30° east of north For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(3) 30° west of north (4) 60° east of north of the following categories :
Ans. 1 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding
to the correct option is darkened.
B C
ur Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
VR G
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
ur
VSR ur 51. SO 2(g) + 1 O 2(g)
SO3(g) k C = 4.9 ´ 10-2
Sol. V SG 2
The value of kC for the reaction :
A 2SO 3(g) is
2SO 2(g) + O 2(g)
r r r
VSR + VRG = VSG
(1) 416 (2) 2.4 ´ 10-3
For minimum time, the swimmer should swim -2
perpendicular to the direction of river flow. So, he (3) 9.8 ´ 10-2 (4) 4.9 ´ 10
should swim due north. Ans. 1
50. A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 1
m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity Sol. k new =
10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim (k old )2
to take the shortest possible path to go to the south,
from the north bank 1
k new =
VR (4.9 ´ 10 ) -2 2
W E
10000
q k new = K » 416
( 4.9)2
Vm
52. CO 2(g) + H 2(g)
CO(g) + H 2 O (g) k1
VR
CO (g) + 3H 2(g)
CH 4(g ) + H 2 O (g) k2
(1) 30° with downstream
(2) 60° with downstream CO 2(g) + 4H 2(g )
CH 4(g ) + 2H 2 O(g) k3
(3) 120° with downstream Relation between equilibrium constant k1, k2 and
(4) South k3 is :
Ans. 3
(1) k1 k 2 = k 3 (2) k1 = k 2 k 3
Sol. For shortest possible path man should swim with
an angle (90 -f- 0) with downstream. (3) k 3 = k1k 2 (4) k 3 = k12 k 32
From the fig. Ans. 3
V 5 1 Sol. 3rd reaction is obtained by adding 1st and 2nd
sin q = r = = Þ q = 30° reaction so, k3 = k1 k2.
Vm 10 2
So angle with downstream :
= 90° + 30° = 120°
10/27
2C(g) at a given 57. For the reaction :

53. For the reaction : 3A (g ) + B(g)
temperature, kC = 9. What must be the volume of CO 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l)
CH 4(g) + 2O 2(g)
the flask, if a mixture of 2 mole of each A, B and
C exist at equilibrium DH r ° = - ve . Which of the following statement is
(1) 6 L (2) 9 L not true :
(3) 36 L (4) 10 L (1) At equilibrium, conc. of CO 2(g) and
Ans. 1 H 2 O (l) are not equal
(2) Equilibrium constant for the reaction is given
[ C]
2
Sol. kC = [CO2 ]
[A]3 [B] by k p =
[CH4 ][O2 ]
2 (3) Addition of CH 4(g) or O 2(g) at equilibrium will
æ Lö
9=ç ÷ cause a shift to the right
è 2ø
(4) The reaction is exothermic
L = 6 litres
Ans. 2
54. 2ClF3(g )
Cl 2(g ) + 3F2(g ) DH f ° = -329 kJ
p CO2
Which of the following will increase the quantity Sol. k p =
( )
2
of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of Cl2, F2 and pCH 4 p O2
ClF3
58. At 60°C and 1 atm of N2O4 is 50% dissociated
(1) Increasing the temperature into NO2 then kp is
(2) Removing Cl2 (1) 1.33 atm (2) 2 atm
(3) Increasing the volume of container (3) 2.67 atm (4) 3 atm
(4) Adding F2 Ans. 2
Ans. 4 2NO 2
Sol. N 2 O 4
Sol. On increasing conc. of F2 forward reaction will be
1 -
favoured.
1 - 0.5 1
55. C(Graphite ) D H °r = -1.9 kJ/mol
C (diamond )
(p )
2
favourable conditions for the formation of diamond NO 2 12

kp = = = 2 atm
are p N 2 O4 0.5
(1) High P and low T (2) Low P and high T 59. Which of the following is not a characteristics of
(3) High P and high T (4) Low P and low T equilibrium
Ans. 3 (1) Rate is equal in both direction
Sol. High pressure and High temperature. (2) Measurable quantities are constant at
56. Vapour density of PCl5 is 104.16 but when heated equilibrium
to 230°C it’s vapour density is reduced to 62. The (3) Equilibrium occurs in reversible condition
degree of dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature (4) Equilibrium occurs only in open vessel at
will constant temperature
(1) 6.8% (2) 68% Ans. 4
(3) 46% (4) 64% Sol. Fact
Ans. 2
D-d 104.16 - 62
Sol. a = Þa = = 0.68
d 62
11/27
60. In which of the following equilibrium kC and kp are 64. 80 mL of O2 takes 2 minute to pass through the
not equal? hole. What volume of SO2 will pass through the
hole in 3 minute?
2CO(g)
(1) 2C(s) + O 2(s)
120
(2) 2NO(g) N 2(g) + O 2(g) (1) (2) 120 ´ 2
2
SO3(g) + NO (g)
(3) SO 2(g ) + NO 2(g)
2HI(g) 12
(4) H 2(g) + I 2(g) (3) (4) None of these
2
Ans. 1
Ans. 1
2CO(g)
Sol. 2C(s) + O 2(s) Dn g = 1
r1 V1 / t1 V1 / t 2 M2
kp = kC(RT)1 Sol. r = V / t = V / t = M ;
2 2 2 2 1 1
61. How many H+ ions are present in 1 ml of solution
whose pH is 13? 80 ´ 3 64 120
= = 2; V2 =
(1) 10–16 (2) 6.022 ´ 10 13
V2 ´ 2 32 2
(3) 6.022 ´ 10
7
(4) 6.022 ´ 10 23
65. Which of the following has maximum mass:
Ans. 3 (1) 0.1 gram atom of carbon.
(2) 0.1 mol of ammonia.
Sol. éë H + ùû = 10-13 mol / L
(3) 6.02 ´ 1022 molecules of hydrogen.
moles of H+ in 1 mL = 10–16
(4) 1120 cc of carbon dioxide at STP.
No. of H+ ions is 1 mL = 10-16 ´ 6.022 ´ 1023 Ans. 4
= 6.022 ´ 107 1120
62. What should be the pH of 0.018 M CH3COONa, Sol. WCO2 = ´ 44 = 2.2g
22400
it’s k a = 1.8 ´ 10-5 66. The volume of 1.0 g of hydrogen at NTP is
(1) 8.5 (2) 7.5 (1) 2.24 L (2) 22.4 L
(3) 6.5 (4) 9.5 (3) 1.12 L (4) 11.2 L
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
1 67. For reaction A + 2B ® C . The amount of product
Sol. pH = 7 +
2
(pk a + log10 C) formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of A
and 8 moles of B is:
1
=7+
2
[5 - log10 1.8 - 2 + log10 1.8] (1) 5 mol (2) 8 mol
(3) 16 mol (4) 4 mol
= 8.5 Ans. 4
63. 1 L of N2(g) combines with 3 L of H2(g) to form 2 L 68. The law of conservation of mass holds good for
of NH3(g) under the same conditions. This law all the following except-
illustrates the: (1) All chemical reactions.
(1) Law of constant composition. (2) Nuclear reactions.
(2) Law of multiple proportion. (3) Endothermic reactions
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion. (4) Exothermic reactions.
(4) Gay lussac’s law of gaseous volume. Ans. 2
Ans. 4 69. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much?
( At wt. Mg = 24;O = 16 )
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
(3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
Ans. 1
12/27
70. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample 75. For the redox reaction
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and MnO -4 + C 2 O 4-- + H + ®
8.0g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage
purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample? Mn 2 + + CO 2 + H 2O
( At. Wt. Mg = 24 ) the correct coefficient for the balanced reaction are
(1) 60 (2) 84
MnO-4 C2 O42- H+
(3) 75 (4) 96
Ans. 2 (1) 2 5 16
71. CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at ( 2) 16 5 2
STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is - (3) 5 16 2
(1) 2.016 litres (2) 1.008 litres
(3) 10.08 litres (4) 20.16 litres
( 4) 2 16 5
Ans. 1 Ans. 1
22.4 ´ 9 76. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
Sol. V = = 2.016
100 (1) +6 (2) +10
72. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving (3) +5 (4) +4
120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of Ans. 1
water is 1.15 g mL–1. The molarity of this solution
is:- O O
O
(1) 2.05 M (2) 0.50 M Cr
(3) 1.78 M (4) 1.02 M Sol.
Ans. 1 O O
120 1000 ´ 1.15 77. What weight of FeSO 4 ( mol.wt. = 152 ) will be
Sol. M = ´ = 2.05
60 1120 oxidised by 200 mL of 1N KMnO4 solution in
PV acidic solution
73. Consider the equation Z = . Which of the
RT (1) 30.4g (2) 60.8 g
following statements is correct?
(3) 121.6 g (4) 15.8 g
(1) When Z > 1, real gases are easier to compress
than the ideal gas Ans. 1
(2) When Z = 1, real gases get compressed easily Sol. gm eq of FeSO4 = gm eq of KMnO4
(3) When Z > 1, real gases are difficult to
compress W
´ 1 = 0.2 ´ 1
(4) When Z = 1, real gases are difficult to 152
compress
0.2
Ans. 3 W = 152 ´ = 30.4 gm
Sol. Repulsive force > attractive force 10
74. Which species can not be used as oxidising agent 78. If Z is compressibility factor, vander waal's
equation for 1 mole gas at low pressure can be
(1) O3 (2) HNO3 written as
(3) KMnO4 (4) NH 3 a Pb

(1) Z < 1, (2) Z < 1 ,
Ans. 4
VRT RT
Pb RT
(3) Z < 1 ∗ (4) Z < 1 ∗
RT Pb
Ans. 1
13/27
Sol. At low pressure, b ® 0 82. H 2CO3 + NaHCO3 found in blood helps in
maintaining pH of the blood close to 7.4. An excess
æ a ö
Þ çP + 2 ÷ V = RT (for1mole ) of acid entering the blood stream is removed by
è V ø
(1) HCO -3 (2) H 2 CO3
PV a
Þ =1-
RT VRT (3) H + ion (4) CO 32 - ion
a Ans. 1
Þ Z =1- 83. The necessary condition for saturated solution is
VRT
79. Ostwalds’s dilution law for a weak acid HA may (1) Product of ionic concentrations
be given as - = solubility product
(2) Product of ionic concentrations
a .C
(1) K a = 1 - a C
< solubility product
( ) (3) Product of ionic concentrations
> solubility product
a 2 .C
K
(2) a = (4) None of the above
(1 - a ) Ans. 1
æ a2 ö
2
84. The correct relation between K sp and solubility
K =
(3) a çç .C ÷÷
è (1 - a ) ø for the salt KAl (SO 4 )2 is
a 2 .C (1) 4s 3 (2) 4s 4
(4) K a =
1-a 2 (3) 27s 4 (4) None
Ans. 2 Ans. 2
80. The pH of buffer of NH 4OH + NH 4Cl type is 85. If an ideal gas expands from 20dm3 to 50dm3 at
given by constant temperature. What will be the ratio of
initial and final pressure?
salt (1) 5 : 2 (2) 2 : 5
(1) pH = pK b + log
base (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
1 1 Ans. 1
(2) pH = pK b - log [salt ] / [base ] Sol. Boyle's law : – P µ 1/ V
2 2
(3) pH = 14 - pK b - log [salt ] / [base ] P1 V2 5
= =
P2 V1 2
(4) pH = pOH - pK b + [salt ] / [base ]
Ans. 3
81. A basic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing
the solution of
(1) Ammonium chloride and ammonium acetate
(2) Ammonium acetate and acetic acid
(3) Ammonium chloride and ammonium
hydroxide
(4) Ammonium cyanide and ammonium hydroxide
Ans. 3
14/27
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 88. Following two equilibrium is simultaneously

This section contains 15 questions. established in a container
Attempt any 10 questions. PCl3(g) + Cl 2(g)
PCl5(g )
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding COCl 2(g)
CO(g) + Cl 2(g)
to the correct option in the ORS. If some Ni(s) is introduced in the container forming
For each question, marks will be awarded in one Ni(CO)4(g) then at new equilibrium
of the following categories : (1) PCl3 conc. will
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding (2) PCl3 conc. will ¯
to the correct option is darkened.
(3) Cl2 conc. will remain same
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
(4) CO conc. will remain same
Ans. 2
86. Definite amount of NH4HS is placed in a flask
already containing NH3 gas at 0.5 atm. NH4HS Sol. Ni(s) combines with CO hence CO conc ¯ , so 2nd
decomposes to give NH3 and H2S. If the total equation move backward to compensate ¯ in conc.
pressure at equilibrium is 0.84 atm then equilibrium of CO which result in conc. of Cl2 due to which
constant for the reaction is :
1st reaction also moves backward to ¯ conc. of Cl2
(1) 0.30 (2) 0.18
(3) 0.17 (4) 0.114 hence it result in ¯ in conc. of PCl3.
Ans. 4 89. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur. The minimum mol.
wt. of insulin is:-
Sol. NH3 + H 2S
NH 4 HS (1) 941.176 (2) 944
at t = 0 0.5 (3) 945.27 (4) 947
at t = t 0.5 + p p Ans. 1
pT = 0.5 + 2p = 0.84 32
Sol. M.wt = ´ 100 = 941.176
3.4
p = 0.17
90. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a (1m)
k p = p NH3 p H2 S aqueous solution?
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177
= 0.67 ´ 0.17
(3) 0.177 (4) 1.770
» 0.114 Ans. 2
87. 2NH 3 (g )
N 2 (g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 1
Sol. X =
rnet = 4 ´ 10-5 [ N 2 ][H 2 ] - 2 ´ 10 -3 [ NH 3 ] 1755.55
3 2
Find the equilibrium constant 91. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give

- -
40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
(1) 2 ´ 10 3 mol 1lit (2) 2 ´ 10-2 mol-1lit hydrocarbon is:-
(3) 2 ´ 10-2 mol lit -1 (4) None (1) C 4 H 8 (2) C 4 H10
Ans. 2
(3) C5 H10 (4) C5 H12
Sol. rnet = rf - rb
Ans. 2
At equilibrium, rnet = 0 Þ rf = rb
4 ´ 10-5 [ N 2 ][H 2 ] = 2 ´ 10-3 [ NH3 ]

3 2
[ NH 3 ] = 2 ´10-2 mol-1lit
2
4 ´ 10-5
K eq = =
2 ´ 10 -3
[ N 2 ][H 2 ]
3
15/27
92. In a compound Carbon = 52.2%, Hydrogen = 13%, 94. The pK W of water at 50°C is 13.40. An
Oxygen = 34.8% are present and molecule mass
of the compound is 92. Calculate the molecular aqueous solution at 50°C has pH = 7. This
formula of the compound? solution is
(1) C4H12O2 (2) C4H14O4 (1) Acidic (2) Alkaline
(3) C5H6 (4) C8H12 (3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
Ans. 1 Ans. 2
Sol. 95. 4.0 g of NaOH and 4.9 g of H2SO4 are
Element -C H O dissolved in water and volume is made upto
Percentage - 52.2 13 1
250 ml. The pH of this solution is --
Atomic weight - 12 1 16
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.0
% 52.2 13 348
- = 4.35 = 13 = 2.2 (3) 2.0 (4) 12.0
Atomic weight 12 1 16
Ans. 1
4.4
96. At 30°C, the solubility of
4.4 13 22
Simplest ratio - =2 = 5.9 =1
2 22 22 Ag 2CO3 ( K sp = 8 ´ 10 -2 ) will be maximum in
Ratio -2 6 1
Empirical formula = C2H6O (1) 0.05 M Na 2 CO 3
Empirical mass = 12 ´ 2 + 16 + 6 = 46 (2) 0.05 M AgNO3
Molecular mass 92 (3) Pure water
n= = =2
Empirical mass 46 (4) 0.05 NH3
molecular formula = 2 ´ (C 2 H 6 O ) = C 4 H12 O2 Ans. 4
93. What weight of HNO3 is needed to convert 5 g 97. If the volume of gas is V0 at 300K, find out the V
of iodine into iodic acid according to the reaction, at 300°C, given that gas follow Charle's law at
2atm
I 2 + HNO3 ¾¾
® HIO3 + NO 2 + H 2 O
600 300
(1) V0 (2) V0
(1) 12.4 g (2) 24.8g 300 300
(3) 0.248 g (4) 49.6 g 573 300
(3) V0 (4) V0
Ans. 1 300 573
Sol. I2 + 10HNO3 + 6H 2O + 2HIO3 Ans. 3
Sol. Charle's law Þ V µ T
+10NO2 + 10H 2O
V1 T1
5 Þ =
n I2 = V2 T2
254
V 573
5 Þ = Þ V = 1.91V0
n HNO3 = 10 ´ V0 300
254
50
HNO3 = ´ 63 = 12.4 gm
254
16/27
98. V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2
for an ideal gas are shown in fig. Which is correct? SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
This section contains 35 questions.
P1
For each question, darken the bubble
P2
V corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one
T of the following categories :
(1) P1 > P2 (2) P1 < P2 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(3) P1 = P2 (4) All of these corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Ans. 2 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
n 1 darkened.
Sol. V = R.T Þ slope µ Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
P P
99. The r.m.s velocity of molecules of a gas with density 101. Select the incorrect pair.
4kg/m3 and pressure 1.2 ´ 105 N / m 2 is (1) Rudolf Virchow - Omnis cellula-e-cellula
(2) Robert Brown - Discovered the nucleus
(1) 900m/s (2) 600m/s
(3) Leeuwenhoek - First described a live cell
(3) 200 6m / s (4) 300m/s (4) Schwann and Schleiden - Modified and gave
Ans. 4 final shape to cell theory
Ans. 4
3RT
Sol. Vrms = M wt
Sol. NCERT pg no. 126
102. Choose the mismatched pair
RT P (1) Microbodies - Membrane bound vesicles
Also, PM wt = dRT Þ M = d (2) Satellite - secondary constriction of a
wt
chromosome
1.2 ´ 105 ´ 3 (3) Centromere - Primary constriction
Vrms = = 300 m/s
4 (4) Lysosomes - Optimally inactive at acidic pH
100. A sample of CO2 gas was found to effuse at a Ans. 4
rate equal to half times that of an unknown gas, Sol. NCERT pg no. 134
under similar conditions. The molecular weight of 103. Which of the following is not labelled correctly
unknown gas is__________g/mol
(1) 88 (2) 176
(3) 11 (4) 22
Ans. 3
1
Sol. rµ
Mwt
runknown gas ( Mwt )CO

Þ = 2
rCO2 ( Mwt )unknown gas (1) Plasma membrane

(2) Inter-doublet bridge
æ 44 ö
Þ (2 ) = ç
2
÷ (3) Central microtubule
è Mwt ø (4) Central sheath
Þ Mwt = 11g / mol Ans. 2
17/27
104. An improved model of the structure of cell 110. Select the odd one w.r.t. cell organelles of
membrane was proposed by endomembrane system
(1) Singer and Nicolson (2) Robertson (1) Golgi (2) ER
(3) Davison (4) All of the above (3) Vacuole (4) Peroxisome
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT PG 132, 8.5.1. Sol. NCERT pg no. 133
105. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body 111. GERL concerned with the biogenesis of
found in prokaryotes? (1) Golgibody (2) E.R.
(1) Cyanophycean granule (3) Mitochondria (4) Lysosomes
(2) Glycogen granule Ans. 4
(3) Polysome Sol. NCERT pg no. 133-134
(4) Phosphate granule 112. Hydrolytic enzymes are abundantly found in which
Ans. 3 cell organelles
Sol. Group of ribosomes ® Polysome (1) Ribosome
106. Cart wheel structure of tubulin are seen in (2) Lysosome
(1) Basal body of cilia (3) Oxysome
(2) Centriole (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Both (1) and (2) Ans. 2
(4) Shaft of cilia and flagella Sol. NCERT pg no. 134
Ans. 3 113. Both eukaryotic cilia and flagella emerge from
Sol. NCERT pg no. 137 (1) Hook (2) Filament
107. All of the following are layers of cell envelope in (3) Basal body (4) Centriole
prokaryotes, except Ans. 3
(1) Cell wall Sol. NCERT pg no. 137
(2) Glycocalyx 114. Which one of the following organelles in the figure
(3) Cell membrane correctly matches with its function?
(4) Nuclear membrane
Ans. 4
108. According to Virchow, new cells are generated from
(1) Bacterial fermentation
(2) Regeneration of old cells
(3) Pre-existing cells
(4) Abiotic materials
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT pg 126
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein
109. The nucleus is separated from surrounding
synthesis
cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, which is____
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of
(1) Double layered without pores
glycoproteins
(2) Single layered with pores
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(3) Double layered with pores
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
(4) Single layered without pores
Ans. 1
Ans. 3
18/27
115. G1 phase is not characterised by 120. Match the following

(1) Continuous growth Column I Column II
(2) Non-replication of DNA
a Prophase I
(3) DNA replication Decondensation of chromosome
(4) Active metabolism b Metaphase II Division of centromere
Ans. 3
Attachment of spindle fibres on
Sol. NCERT pg no. 163 c Anaphase III
kinetochores of chromosomes
116. G 0 phase is characterized by d Telophase IV
Initiation of condensation of
chromosomal material
(1) DNA duplication
(2) Duplication of cell organelles (1) a – IV , b – III , c – I, d – II
(3) Active metabolism (2) a – IV , b – III , c – II, d – I
(4) Chromosome formation (3) a – III , b – IV , c – II, d – I
Ans. 3 (4) a – III , b – IV , c – I, d – II
Sol. NCERT pg no. 163 Ans. 2
117. Match the columns :- Sol. NCERT pg no.164/165/166
121. If there are 14 chromosomes in each root cell of
Column I Column II onion, then what will be the number of chromosome
Condensation of in G2 phase and G1 phase respectively -
A Leptotene i
chromatin start (1) 28 & 14 (2) 14 & 28
Recombination nodule (3) 14 & 14 (4) 28 & 28
B Zygotene ii
formation
Ans. 3
C Pachytene iii Synapsis
Terminalisation of Sol. NCERT pg no.163
D Diplotene
iv chiasmata 122. The most dramatic period of cell cycle, involving a
Dissolution of major reorganisation of virtually all components of
E Diakinesis v cell is -
synaptonemal complex
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-v, E-iv (1) G1 (2) S
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-v, E-iv (3) G2 (4) M
(3) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i, E-iv Ans. 4
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-iv, E-i Sol. NCERT pg no.163
Ans. 1 123. During cell cycle DNA synthesis takes place in
Sol. NCERT pg no.168 (1) S–phase (2) G1–phase
118. Crossing over occurs between ______ chromatids (3) G2–phase (4) M–phase
of _______ chromosomes Ans. 1
(1) Non sister, Homologous Sol. NCERT pg no.163
(2) Non sister, non homologous 124. DNA containing cell organelles are
(3) Sister, Homologous (1) Chloroplast (2) Lysosome
(4) Sister, Non Homologous (3) Mitochondria (4) Both (1) and (3)
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no.163 Sol. NCERT pg no. 135
119. In which stage of mitotic division, cells do not show
Golgicomplex, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope
?
(1) Metaphase (2) End prophase
(3) Anaphase (4) All of these
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no.164
19/27
125. Match the following

A B C D E
Column I Column II Inter
Perforated
Splitting of centromere of (1) cellular Vacuole Lumen Simple pits
a Metaphase-I i end wall
each chromosome space
Separation of homologous Inter
b Anaphase -I ii Bordered
chromosomes (2) cellular Vacuole Lumen Simple pits
pits
Alignment of bivalents on space
c Telophase -I iii
equatorial plate Pit Bordered
Nuclear membrane and (3) Vacuole Protoplasm Simple pits
d Anaphase -II iv Cavity pits
nucleolus reappear
Thickened Perforated
(1) a – iii , b – ii , c – iv, d – i (4) Cell wall Pith Lumen
corners end wall
(2) a – ii , b – iii , c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iv , b – iii , c – ii, d – i Ans. 2
(4) a – i , b – ii , c – iii, d – iv Sol. NCERT pg no. 86
Ans. 1 129. The given figure shows which of the following cells
Sol. NCERT pg no.168/169 ?
126. Branch of botany related with the study of internal
structure of plants is
(1) Cytology (2) Anatomy
(3) Physiology (4) Ecology
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT pg no.84
127. In embryonic stage, cells are
(1) Collenchymatous (2) Sclerenchymatous
(3) Meristematic (4) Parenchymatous
Ans. 3 (1) Companion cell
Sol. NCERT pg no.85 (2) Sieve tube element
128. Observe the figure (A–E) given below and select (3) Xylem vessel
the right option out of 1–4, in which all the five
structure A, B, C, D & E are identified correctly. (4) Xylem tracheid
Ans. 3
130. Xylem translocates :-
(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic
nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen
and most of hormones
Ans. 4
20/27
131. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in : SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
(1) Having casparian strips This section contains 15 questions.
(2) Being imperforate Attempt any 10 questions.
(3) Lacking nucleus For each question, darken the bubble
(4) Being lignified corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
Ans. 2 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
Sol. NCERT pg no. 87 of the following categories :
132. Permanent tissue, having structurally similar type Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
of cells / only one type of cells that perform common corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
function.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(1) Simple permant tissue
darkened.
(2) Complex permant tissue
(3) Cambium
(4) Apical meristem
Ans. 1 136. The meristems which occur at the tips of roots
Sol. NCERT pg no.86 and shoots are
133. Aerenchyma is halpful to plants by (1) Primary tissues (2) Secondary tissues
(1) Providing buoyancy in hydrophytes (3) Tertiary tissues (4) Special tissues
(2) Promoting photosynthesis Ans.1
(3) Give mecanical strength to plants Sol. NCERT pg no.85
(4) Giving flexibility to plants 137. The meristem which occurs between mature tissues
is known as
Ans. 1
(1) Apical meristem
Sol. NCERT pg no.86
(2) Intercalary meristem
134. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma in
(3) Lateral meristem
(1) Retaining protoplasm at maturity
(4) Secondary meristem
(2) Having thick walls
Ans. 2
(3) Being enucleate
Sol. NCERT pg no.85
(4) Being meristematic
138. Newly formed cells become structurally and
Ans. 1 functionally specialised and lose the ability to divide
Sol. NCERT pg no.86 is
135. Which one is not a double membrane bound cell (1) Primary tissues (2) Secondary tissues
organelle ? (3) Tertiary tissues (4) Permanent tissues
(1) Plastid (2) Lysosome Ans. 4
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus Sol. NCERT pg no.86
Ans. 2 139. Permanent tissues having many different types of
Sol. NCERT pg no. 126 cells are called
(1) Primary tissues (2) Secondary tissues
(3) Complex tissues (4) Permanent tissues
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT pg no.87
140. _____________ cells forms the major component
within organs
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Vascular tissue
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT pg no.86
21/27
141. ________ regenerates parts removed by grazing 146. Match the following
herbivores 1. Amyloplasts p. oils and fats
(1) Parenchyma (2) Apical meristem 2. Elaioplasts q. chlorophyll
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) All of the above 3. Aleuroplasts r. protein
Ans. 3 4. Chloroplast s. carbohydrates
Sol. NCERT pg no. 85 (starch)
142. The sclereids are absent in (1) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s (2) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q
(1) Fruit walls of nuts (3) 1-r, 2-q, 3-p, 4-s (4) 1-q, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s
(2) Pulp of fruits like guava, pear and sapota Ans. 2
(3) Seed coats of legumes Sol. NCERT pg no.135
(4) Leaves of coffee 147. Identify a from the below picture
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT pg no.86
143. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem
?
(1) Intercalary meristem a
(2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Interfascicular cambium
(4) Phellogen
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT pg no. 85 (1) Centromere (2) Kinetochore
144. The tissue responsible for translocation of food (3) Centrosome (4) Chromatid
material is – Ans. 2
(1) Parenchyma (2) Phloem Sol. NCERT pg no.139
(3) Vessels (4) Fibres 148. __________chromosome the centromere is
Ans. 2 situated close to its end forming one extremely short
and one very long arm
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
145. Identify A and B
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
Ans. 3
149. Peroxisomes, in plant cells, are involved in:
(1) Photo oxidation
(2) Photorespiration
(3) Photophosphorylation
(4) Photolysis of water
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT pg no.140 refer. module as well
(1) A- Matrix, B- Cristae
150. In gymnosperms, phloem has __a__ and __b__.
(2) A- Matrix, B- Crevices
(1) a – Sieve cell, b – Albuminous cell
(3) A- Lamella, B- Cristae
(2) a – Sieve tube, b – Albuminous cell
(4) A- Inner space, B- Cristae
(3) a – Sieve tube, b – Companion cell
Ans. 1
(4) a – Sieve cell, b – Companion cell
Ans. 1
22/27
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 155. Match column I with II and select the correct options
This section contains 35 questions. from the codes given below
For each question, darken the bubble Column - I Column - II
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. A. Hyaline cartilage (i) Articular cartilage of femur
For each question, marks will be awarded in one B. Fibrous cartilage (ii) Thyroid cartilage
of the following categories : C. Elastic cartilage (iii) Pubic symphysis
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble D. Calcified cartilage (iv) Eustachian tube and epiglottis
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (2) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
darkened. (3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
151. Areolar connective tissue joins Ans. 2
(1) Fat body with muscles Sol. Allen Module
(2) Integument with muscles 156. How many of the following substances are secreted
(3) Bones with muscles by exocrine glands?
(4) Bones with bones Mucus, Thyroxine, Saliva, Earwax, Insulin, Oil, Milk,
Ans. 2 Digestive enzymes, Melatonin and Adrenalin:-
Sol. Allen Module (1) Four (2) Five
152. The function of the gap junction is to: (3) Six (4) Seven
(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue Ans. 3
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 103)
cells together 157. The epithelium cells of PCT in nephron has
(3) Facilitate communication between adjoining (1) Cilia
cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid (2) Microvilli
transfer of ions, small molecules and some (3) Steriocilia
large molecules
(4) No apical modification
(4) Separate two cells from each other
Ans. 2
Ans. 3
Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 101)
Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 102)
158. One of the following is true about fibroblasts:
153. Epithelial tissue arise from:
(1) Can differentiate to endothelial cells and
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm smooth muscle cells
(3) Mesoderm (4) All the above (2) Secrete collagen and elastic fibres
Ans. 4 (3) Large cubical cells
Sol. Allen Module (4) Responsible for storage of fat
154. Which of the following cells contains fat droplets? Ans. 2
(1) Macrophages (2) Plasma cells Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 103)
(3) Adipose cells (4) Leucocytes 159. Which is not an example of tissue?
Ans. 3 (1) Epidermis
Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 103) (2) A colony of protozoa
(3) Grey matter of spinal cord
(4) Blood
Ans. 2
Sol. Allen Module
23/27
160. Which type of epithelium is found in oesophagus, 164. Covering around bone is called
cornea and vagina? (1) Perichondrion (2) Periosteum
(1) Transitional epithelium (3) Epiosteum (4) Endosteum
(2) Columnar epithelum Ans. 2
(3) Non – keratinized stratified epithelium 165. The structure given below is the structure of which
(4) Keratinized stratified epithelium of the following compounds.
Ans. 3 O
Sol. Allen Module
161. Glisson’s capsule is a delicate connective tissue O CH 2 O C R1
capsule covering the R2 C O CH O

(1) Spleen (2) Liver lobules
CH 2 O P O CH 2 CH 2
(3) Kidney (4) Gall bladder
Ans. 2 HO N+
H 3C CH
Sol. Allen Module CH 3 3
162. The type of epithelial cells which line the surface of
fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are (1) Lecithin (Phospholipid)
known as : (2) Cephaline (Phosphatidyl serine)
(1) Squamous epithelium (3) Cephaline (Phosphatidyl ethanol amine)
(2) Columnar epithelium (4) Phosphosphingomyelins
(3) Ciliated epithelium Ans. 1
(4) Cubical epithelium Sol. NCERT Page: 145
Ans. 3 166. Select the correctly matched.
Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 101) (1) Anthocyanins - Alkaloids
163. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain (2) Carotenoids - Toxins
type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labeled (3) Ricin - Drugs
A, B, C and D, and select the right option about
them (4) Lemon grass oil - Essential oils
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page: 146
167. Which of the following compounds is used in the
chemical analysis of living tissue?
(1) CH 3 COOH (2) Cl3CCOOH
(3) HCHO (4) C 6 H12 O 6
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Page: 142
168. Which is least likely to be involved in stabilizing the
three dimensional folding of most protein?
Part A Part B Part C Part D (1) Ester bonds
Collagen (2) Hydrogen bonds
(1) Macro phage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres
(3) Electrostatic interactions
Collagen Macro
(2) Mast Cell
fibres
Fibroblast
phage
(4) Hydrophobic interactions
Ans. 1
(3) Macro phage Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell
Sol. Ester bonds are characteristic property of lipids not
Collagen proteins.
(4) Macro phage Mast cell Fibroblast
fibres
169. Which of the following is called as levulose?
Ans. 3 (1) Glucose (2) Fructose
Sol. (NCERT PG NO : 103) (3) Lactose (4) Maltose
Ans. 2
24/27
170. Carotenoids belong to which category of 177. Blubber of whale is an example of
secondary metabolites? (1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue
(1) Alkaloids (2) Lectins (3) Tendon (4) Muscular tissue
(3) Pigments (4) Terpenoides Ans. 2
Ans. 3 178. Desmosomes are associated with :
171. Unsaturated fatty acid with two double bonds is (1) Cell division
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Oleic acid (2) Cell excretion
(3) Linoleic acid (4) Stearic acid (3) Cytolysis
Ans. 3 (4) Attachment of cells
172. In mammals carbohydrate are stored in the form Ans. 4
of
179. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal
(1) Lactic acid in muscles world ?
(2) Glycogen in liver and muscles (1) Insulin (2) Trypsin
(3) Glucose in liver and muscles (3) Collagen (4) Haemoglobin
(4) Glycogen in liver and spleen Ans. 3
Ans. 2 180. Type of cell junction, which have finger like process
173. Element which is highest in both earth’s crust and & characteristic property of transitional epithelium-
in Human Body (1) Desmosomes (2) Gap junction
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Tight junction (4) Interdigitation
(3) Carbon (4) Silicon Ans. 4
Ans. 2 181. Teeth of human are
Sol. Oxygen in earth’s crust is 46.6% while in Human (1) Thecodont (2) Diphyodont
body it is 65%.
(3) Heterodont (4) All of these
174. Most abundant organic component in Human cell
Ans. 4
composition is-
(1) Water (2) Nucleic acids
182. Which of the following acts as a common
(3) Lipids (4) Proteins
passage for food and air?
Ans. 4
(1) Larynx (2) Pharynx
Sol. Proteins make 10-15% of Total cellular mass and
(3) Oesophagus (4) Glottis
high among all other organic molecules.
Ans. 2
175. Cholesterol is
183. Which part of stomach opens into the first part
(1) Wax (2) Triglyceride
of small intestine?
(3) Steroid (4) Phospholipid
(1) Cardiac (2) Fundic
Ans. 3
(3) Pyloric (4) Any of these
Sol. Cholesterol is Alcoholic steroid
Ans. 3
176. Transverse canal which connect two Haversian
canals in bone is 184. Dental formula is given to show
(1) Volkmann’s canal (1) The structure of molars
(2) Eustachian canal (2) Number and types of teeth in both jaws
(3) Pharyngeal canal (3) Homodont condition
(4) Circumferential canal (4) Diphyodont condition
Ans. 1 Ans. 2
185. The hardest substance in vertebrate body is
(1) Keratin (2) Dentine
(3) Chondrin (4) Enamel
Ans. 4
25/27
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 191. Which is the largest gland of our body?
This section contains 15 questions. (1) Parotid (2) Pancreas
Attempt any 10 questions. (3) Liver (4) Adrenal
For each question, darken the bubble Ans. 3
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. 192. Serosa is made up of
For each question, marks will be awarded in one (1) Mesothelium
of the following categories : (2) Some connective tissue
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (3) Both (1) and (2)
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (4) None of these
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is Ans. 3
darkened. 193. The function of gall bladder is
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (1) Storage of bile
(2) Concentration of bile
186. The tongue is attached to the floor of oral/buccal (3) Both (1) and (2)
cavity by (4) Formation of bile
(1) Epiglottis (2) Frenulum Ans. 3
(3) Gubernaculums (4) Mesentery 194. The bile duct and pancreatic duct opens together
Ans. 2 into the duodenum as hepato-pancreatic duct
187. Which of the following is true about appendix? which is guarded by sphincter called
(1) Narrow finger-like tubular projection (1) Sphincter of Boyden
(2) Arises from the caecum (2) Hepato pancreatic ampulla
(3) Vestigial organ (3) Sphincter of Oddi
(4) All of these (4) Cardiac Sphincter
Ans. 4 Ans. 3
188. Identify the order of the following histological 195. All are secretion of pancreas, except
layers which are present in the wall of human (1) Insulin (2) Glucagon
alimentary canal from esophagus to rectum. (3) Chymotrypsinogen (4) Enterokinase
A. Serosa Ans. 4
B. Bowman's layer 196. The major function performed by buccal cavity is
C. Muscularis (1) Mastication of food
D. Sub-mucosa (2) Facilitation of swallowing
E. Mucosa (3) Both (1) and (2)
F. Ganglion layer (4) None of these
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E Ans. 3
(3) A, B, D, F (4) A, C, D, E 197. Saliva contains
Ans. 4 (1) Salivary amylase / Ptyalin
189. The following are salivary glands, except (2) Electrolyte (Na+, K+ ,Cl-, HCO3- etc.)
(1) Parotid (3) Lysozyme
(2) Sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (4) All of these
(3) Sub-lingual Ans. 4
(4) Brunner’s gland 198. Lysozyme
Ans. 4 (1) Anti-viral agent
190. Intestinal villi are mainly concerned with (2) Anti-bacterial agent
(1) Assimilation (2) Secretion (3) Acts on lipid
(3) Ultrafilteration (4) Absorption (4) Acts on protein
Ans. 4 Ans. 2
26/27
199. Gastric glands are situated in 200. Select the total number of true statement from
(1) Sub-mucosa (2) Mucosa the following.
(3) Muscularis (4) Serosa A. In stomach the bolus is converted to chyme.
Ans. 2 B. Chief cells secrets intrinsic factor required
for absorption of Vit B12
C. Pepsinogen ¾¾ ¾
HCl
® pepsin
D. Pepsin converts protein into amino acids
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. 2
27/27

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PRE-MEDICAL - 2022

LEADER COURSE(PHASE - XI)

INTERNAL TEST - 01 DATE : 09 - 02 - 2022

Basic Mathematics Used In Physics And Vectors,

Kinematics(Motion In A Straight Line),

Kinematics (Motion In A Plane), Relative Motion(Complete)

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept Of Chemistry, Redox Reaction,

Behaviour Of Gases, Chemical Equilibrium,

Ionic Equilibrium (Complete)

Anatomy Of Flowering Plant (Up to Tissue System)

ZOOLOGY : Structural Organization In Animals (Animal Tissue), Biomolecules,

Digestion & Absorption(Up to Digestive Glands)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

8. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5iˆ + 0.8jˆ + ckˆ ,

Sol. The unit vector is given as A = 0.5iˆ + 0.8jˆ + ckˆ 5 5

Sol. Dis tan ce = 4 + 3 + 12 = 19m 2.63 + 2.56 + 2.42 + 2.71 + 2.80

(1) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ (2) ˆi - ˆj - kˆ 2.62 - 2.56 = +0.06 Þ 2.62 - 2.42 = +.20

16. The unit of permittivity of free space e0 is \ Percentage error in volume

35. sin 75° = 4 3

 Attempt any 10 questions. dR

(1) 1 m / s 2 toward east 20

Sol. Acceleration due to gravity acting on both the Sol. REF.Image.

Sol. Let angle of projection is q then we have

 2C(g) at a given 57. For the reaction :

favourable conditions for the formation of diamond NO 2 12

(3) KMnO4 (4) NH 3 a Pb

SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 88. Following two equilibrium is simultaneously

Find the equilibrium constant 91. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give

4 ´ 10-5 [ N 2 ][H 2 ] = 2 ´ 10-3 [ NH3 ]

runknown gas ( Mwt )CO

rCO2 ( Mwt )unknown gas (1) Plasma membrane

115. G1 phase is not characterised by 120. Match the following

125. Match the following

capsule covering the R2 C O CH O

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Attempt any 10 questions. dR

2C(g) at a given 57. For the reaction :