INSTA December 2022 Current Affairs Quiz Compilation PDF

INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS
QUIZ
DECEMBER 2022
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ
Table of Contents
1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................2
2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................8
3. GEOGRAPHY .................................................................................................................................... 17
4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 22
5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 28
6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 38
7. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 42
8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 51
9. STATES............................................................................................................................................. 56
10. AGRICULTURE .............................................................................................................................. 57
11. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 59
12. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 61
13. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 61
14. MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................................... 65
www.insightsonindia.com 1
1. Economy
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that is deemed as a crucial
part of the capital market structure.
2. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is the only state-owned share depository in India.
3. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities
transactions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository, alongside its
other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities
transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks
help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a
dematerialised form.
CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a crucial part of the
capital market structure, providing services to all market participants, including exchanges, clearing corporations,
depository participants, issuers and investors.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.

1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
2. The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can
reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so
written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance
of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a
loss.
After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They
have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from
the profit.
However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.
Private banks wrote off loans worth Rs 2,74,772 crore in the last five years in their effort to bring down NPAs and
whitewash their balance sheets.
Public sector banks reported the lion’s share of write-offs at Rs 734,738 crore accounting for 72.78 per cent of the
exercise.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched e-Rupee.

1. e-Rupee is an electronic version of cash, and will be primarily meant for retail transactions.
2. It can be exchanged one-to-one with the fiat currency.
3. Users will be able to transact with e-Rupee through a digital wallet offered by the participating bank
and store it on mobile phones and devices.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
India launched its e-Rupee on Thursday (December 1). The Reserve Bank of India’s Central Bank Digital
Currency (CBDC) is an electronic version of cash, and will be primarily meant for retail transactions. The pilot will
initially cover the four cities of Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru, and Bhubaneswar. Four banks will be involved in
the controlled launch of the digital currency in these four cities: State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank, and IDFC
First Bank.
Source
4) The GST Council has the power to make recommendations on which of the following matters?
1. A model GST law
2. The rates at which tax is to be levied
3. The goods and services that may be exempted from GST
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The GST Council was given the power to “make recommendations to the Union and States” on several different
matters. These include a model GST law, the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from
GST and the rates at which tax is to be levied.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.

1. Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
2. The maximum permissible investment limit will be 10 kg of gold for individual.
3. Both resident and non-resident Indian entities can invest in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
● The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.

● Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports.
● It was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with
Sovereign backing.
Key facts:
• Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals, HUFs, trusts,
universities and charitable institutions.
• Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1
gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8 years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest
payment dates.
• Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the
maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family and 20 kg for trusts and similar
entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time.
• Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied to the first applicant only.
• Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary
gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Share buyback.

1. According to SEBI proceeds, a loss-making company cannot repurchase its shares.
2. To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of
the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
While a company can go for repurchase of its shares when it is sitting on a lot of cash but does not have many
avenues to invest and prefers to return cash to shareholders, the case of Paytm is different – it’s sitting on huge
losses and now using part of investors’ proceeds for the buyback.
Who is eligible to participate in buyback?

To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the
company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement. The share
also needs to be held in the demat form.
As many as 56 companies, including Infosys, TCS, Bajaj Auto and ACC, had opted for share buybacks in 2022.
Source

1. Leather industry is among the top ten foreign exchange earners for India.
2. Eastern and North-eastern states of India are the major footwear and leather products producing
states in India.
3. Among all the leather products exported from India in 2021-22, leather footwear constitutes the
highest share.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
8) Which of the following taxes are considered as Direct taxes?

1. Personal Income Tax
2. Minimum Alternate Tax
3. Corporation Tax
4. Securities Transaction Tax
5. Value-added tax
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: b)
India’s net direct tax collections in 2022-23 surpassed the ₹11-lakh crore mark by December 17, reflecting a
19.8% uptick over last year. The net direct tax collection of ₹11,35,754 crore includes Corporation Tax (CIT) at
₹6,06,679 crore (net of refund) and Personal Income Tax, including Securities Transaction Tax at ₹5,26,477
crore.
MAT or Minimum Alternate Tax is a provision in Direct tax laws to limit tax exemptions availed by companies, so
that they mandatorily pay a minimum amount of tax to the government.
VAT is an indirect tax.
Source
9) Keki Mistry committee, that was recently in news was related to

a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
b) GM crops in India
c) Review the share buyback regulations
d) Reforms in the criminal Justice System.
Solution: c)
Keki Mistry-headed committee was set up by Sebi to review the share buyback regulations.
Source

1. A recession typically involves the overall output in an economy contracting for at least two consecutive
quarters.
2. Yield inversion happens when yields for longer duration bonds are higher than the yields on shorter
duration bonds.
3. One can predict a recession by looking at the Yield inversion in some economies.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
A recession typically involves the overall output in an economy contracting for at least two consecutive
quarters, along with job losses and reduction in overall demand.
What is the yield curve?

Governments borrow for durations ranging from 1 month to 30 years. Typically, yields are higher for longer
tenures because one is lending money for longer. If the yields for different tenures of bonds are mapped, it will
give an upward-sloping curve.
The curves can be flat or steep depending on the money available in the market and the expected overall
economic activity. When investors feel buoyant about the economy, they pull money out of long-term bonds and
put it into short-term riskier assets such as stock markets. As prices of long-term bonds fall, their yields rise — and
the yield curve steepens.
What is yield inversion?

Yield inversion happens when yields for shorter duration bonds are higher than the yields on longer duration
bonds. If investors suspect that the economy is heading for trouble, they will pull out money from short-term
risky assets (such as stock markets) and put it in long-term bonds. This causes the prices of the long-term bonds to
rise and their yields to fall.
This process first leads to flattening and eventually the inversion of the yield curve.
Yield inversion has long been a reliable predictor of recession in the US — and US treasuries have been
witnessing yield inversion for a while now.
Source

1. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
2. RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) controls Money supply in the market.
3. Inflation is indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Inflation:
• Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food,
clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc.
• Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time.
• The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’.
• Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
• RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Controls Money supply in the market.
• Inflation is measured by a central government authority, which is in charge of adopting measures to ensure
the smooth running of the economy. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
measures inflation.
• Inflation is primarily measured by two main indices — WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price
Index), which measure wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.
2. Ecology and Environment

1) Consider the following statements regarding CITES Agreement.
1. CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild
animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
2. When a country becomes a party to the CITES, all import, export and re-export of species covered
under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
3. Conference of the Parties (CoP), which is the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of
biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement
between governments — 184 at present — to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does
not threaten the survival of the species. The convention entered into force in 1975 and India became the 25th
party — a state that voluntarily agrees to be bound by the Convention — in 1976.
All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set
of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I
or II.
Source

1. CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species
are completely banned.
2. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must
be strictly regulated.
3. The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
4. India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely
and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily
threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES
Appendix I. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix II in
1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural
elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory
from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even
domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import
of African ivory in 1991.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.
1. The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected
and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
2. The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and
national parks.
3. Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and
conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. The community uses it to access resources available
within the traditional and customary boundary of the village; and for seasonal use of landscape in case of
pastoralist communities.
Each CFR area has a customary boundary with identifiable landmarks recognised by the community and its
neighboring villages. It may include forest of any category – revenue forest, classified & unclassified forest,
deemed forest, reserve forest, protected forest, sanctuary and national parks etc.

1. Phytoremediation is a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and
seaweeds to reduce the concentrations or toxic effects of contaminants in the environment.
2. Metals like cadmium, cobalt, nickel, lead and organic pollutants can be easily removed from the soil
through Phytoremediation.
3. Hyperaccumulator plants slows down the process of Phytoremediation.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
“Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds.
One particular way to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants
that absorb these substances from the soil.
Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the
soil and accumulate in their living tissue. Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances,
hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of
these substances than is normal for most plants.
This process can be used to remove metals like silver, cadmium, cobalt, chromium, copper, mercury, manganese,
molybdenum, nickel, lead and zinc; metalloids such as arsenic and selenium; some radionuclides; and non-
metallic components such as boron. But it cannot be used to remove organic pollutants from the ground due to
metabolic breakdown.

1. The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system, located off the coast of Queensland,
Australia.
2. Great Barrier Reef is in the List of World Heritage sites in Danger.
3. Under the 1972 World Heritage Convention, inscribing a site on the List of World Heritage sites in
Danger allows the World Heritage Centre to allocate immediate assistance from the World Heritage Fund to the
site and gathering international support to the site.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
What is the Great Barrier Reef?

Located off the coast of Queensland, Australia, the GBR is the world’s largest coral reef system with over 2,900
individual reefs, 900 islands and an area covering approximately 344,400 square kilometres. An irreplaceable part
of the global ecosystem, the GBR is one of the biggest biodiversity hotspots in the world as well as one of its
largest carbon sinks.
Keeping in mind the dangers that the reef faces, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and
UNESCO’s World Heritage Centre (WHC) report recommended adding the GBR to the List of World Heritage in
Danger.
According to UNESCO, “the List of World Heritage in Danger is designed to inform the international community of
conditions which threaten the very characteristics for which a property was inscribed on the World Heritage List,
and to encourage corrective action.”
Under the 1972 World Heritage Convention, inscribing a site on the List allows the WHC to allocate immediate
assistance from the World Heritage Fund to the endangered property, while simultaneously gathering
international support and attention to the site.
Source
6) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Black hydrogen : Produced by use of fossil fuel
2. Pink hydrogen : Produced through Natural Gas
3. Grey hydrogen : Produced through electrolysis, but using energy from nuclear power sources.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The production techniques of this ‘Energy-Carrier’ vary depending upon its applications — designated with
different colours such as black hydrogen, brown hydrogen, blue hydrogen, green hydrogen, etc. Black hydrogen is
produced by use of fossil fuel, whereas pink hydrogen is produced through electrolysis, but using energy from
nuclear power sources.
Grey hydrogen is produced from natural gas.

‘Green hydrogen’, the emerging novel concept, is a zero-carbon fuel made by electrolysis using renewable
power from wind and solar to split water into hydrogen and oxygen. This ‘Green hydrogen’ can be utilised for the
generation of power from natural sources — wind or solar systems — and will be a major step forward in
achieving the target of ‘net zero’ emission.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).

1. CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
2. CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
3. CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and
nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-
corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and
diesel fuels for vehicles.
CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and
fed into your engine’s combustion chamber.
CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher-octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less
exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide
(N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
8) Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.

1. Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
2. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
3. Usually Tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are
formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. They are transported from the open sea to the
shores by sea currents and waves.
Some of the balls are as big as a basketball while others are smaller globules. Tarballs are usually coin-sized and
are found strewn on the beaches. However, over the years, they have become as big as basketballs and can weigh
as much as 6-7 kgs.
Wind and waves tear the oil slick into smaller patches that are scattered over a much wider area. Various
physical, chemical and biological processes (weathering) change the appearance of the oil.
Why are tarballs found on the beaches during the monsoon?

It is suspected that the oil comes from the large cargo ships in the deep sea and gets pushed to the shore as
tarballs during monsoon due to wind speed and direction.
9) Consider the following statements regarding Green Turtles.
1. Green turtles are named because of the greenish color of their shells.
2. They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
3. Unlike other sea turtles, they do not migrate long distances.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles
are in fact named for the greenish color of their cartilage and fat, not their shells. In the Eastern Pacific, a group
of green turtles that have darker shells are called black turtles by the local community. Green turtles are found
mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. Like other sea turtles, they migrate long distances between feeding
grounds and the beaches from where they hatched.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Aichi Biodiversity Targets.

1. Aichi Biodiversity Targets adopted during the 2010 United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD) included goals such as reducing deforestation by at least half during the coming decade and curbing
pollution.
2. After parties adopted the Aichi Targets, they were expected to devise their own national biodiversity
strategies that would mimic the goals laid out by Aichi.
3. More than half of the parties have met all the Aichi Targets within its own borders.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Aichi Biodiversity Targets that expired in 2020. No single country met all 20 Aichi Targets within its own borders,
according to a September 2020 UN assessment.
What were the Aichi Targets?

The Aichi Targets, adopted during the 2010 CBD summit in Nagoya, located in Japan’s Aichi prefecture, included
goals such as reducing deforestation by at least half during the coming decade and curbing pollution so that it
no longer harmed ecosystems.
After parties adopted the Aichi Targets, they were expected to devise their own national biodiversity strategies
that would mimic the goals laid out by Aichi. Nearly all parties created these strategies, but most were never
fully implemented.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen.

1. Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table.
2. Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion
engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
3. Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
What is Hydrogen fuel?

• Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table. Since the weight of hydrogen is less than air,
it rises in the atmosphere and is therefore rarely found in its pure form, H2.
• At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a nontoxic, nonmetallic, odorless, tasteless, colorless, and
highly combustible diatomic gas.
• Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion
engines. It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion.
Occurrence of Hydrogen:
● It is the most abundant element in the universe. The sun and other stars are composed largely of hydrogen.
● Astronomers estimate that 90% of the atoms in the universe are hydrogen atoms. Hydrogen is a component of
more compounds than any other element.
● Water is the most abundant compound of hydrogen found on earth.
● Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs. Most hydrogen on Earth is
bonded to oxygen in water and to carbon in live or dead and/or fossilized biomass. It can be created by splitting
water into hydrogen and oxygen.
12) Consider the following statements regarding Indian roofed turtle.

1. Indian roofed turtle can be distinguished by the distinct "roof" at the topmost part of the shell.
2. It is listed on Appendix I of CITES.
3. It is found in the major rivers of South Asia.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Indian roofed turtle (Pangshura tecta) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae. It can be distinguished
by the distinct "roof" at the topmost part of the shell. It is found in the major rivers of South Asia. It is a
common pet in the Indian Subcontinent. It is found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan.
In India, it is found in Ganges, Brahmaputra and Indus River drainages.
It is listed on Appendix I of CITES.
13) The Climate Transparency Report 2022 provides an overview of the key facts and figures on the state of
climate performance of which of the following grouping
a) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
b) G7 countries
c) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
d) G20 countries
Solution: d)
The Climate Transparency Report provides a concise overview of the key facts and figures on the state of climate
performance of the G20 in a comparative stocktake. In 2022, the report especially highlights the link between
the climate emergency and energy crisis.
Developed by experts from 16 partner organisations from the majority of the G20 countries, the report informs
policy makers and stimulates national debates.
Source

1. The CITES ensures the regulation of the international trade of wild animals and plants so that their
survival is not threatened.
2. The World Wildlife Trade Report provides assessment of the global trade of animals and plants that are
regulated by CITES.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The World Wildlife Trade Report provides insights and assessment of the global trade of animals and plants
that are regulated by CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora).
The CITES ensures the regulation of the international trade of wild animals and plants so that their survival is
not threatened.
The report is a joint production involving a partnership of UN organisations and leading conservation
organizations: the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), the UN Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD), the World Trade Organisation (WTO), along with the International Union for the Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) and TRAFFIC.
15) Consider the following statements regarding Marine Sponges.

1. Sponges are among the most ancient and abundant animals on rocky reefs across the world.
2. They provide habitat for a range of other species such as crabs, shrimps and starfish.
3. Marine heatwaves leads to bleaching, tissue loss and decay in sponges.
4. Unlike corals, sponges do not contain symbiotic organisms for their survival.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: a)
Sponges are among the most ancient and abundant animals on rocky reefs across the world. In New Zealand,
they occupy up to 70% of the available seafloor, particularly in so-called mesophotic ecosystems at depths of 30-
150m.
They serve a number of important ecological functions. They filter large quantities of water, capturing small
food particles and moving carbon from the water column to the seafloor where it can be eaten by bottom-
dwelling invertebrates.
These invertebrates in turn are consumed by organisms further up the food chain, including commercially and
culturally important fish species.
Sponges also add three-dimensional complexity to the sea floor, which provides
habitat for a range of other species such as crabs, shrimps and starfish.
Like corals, sponges contain symbiotic organisms thought to be critical to their
survival. Cymbastella lamellata is unusual in that it hosts dense populations of
diatoms, small single-celled photosynthetic plants that give the sponge its brown
colour.
These diatoms live within the sponge tissue, exchanging food for protection. When
the sponge bleaches, it expels the diatoms, leaving the sponge skeleton exposed.
Tissue loss occurs when sponges are stressed and either have to invest more
energy into cell repair or when their food source is depleted and they reabsorb
their own tissue to reduce body volume and reallocate resources.
Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Black corals.

1. Black corals are located in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
2. They are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
3. They are found only in deep waters and they cannot survive in shallow waters.
4. They act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators.
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
Using a remote-controlled submarine, researchers at Smithsonian Institution, Washington, discovered five new
species of black corals living as deep as 2,500 feet (760 metres) below the surface in the Great Barrier Reef and
Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000
metres), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years.
Unlike their colourful, shallow-water cousins that rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy, black corals are
filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
Similarly to shallow-water corals that build colourful reefs full of fish, black corals act as important habitats
where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators in what is otherwise a mostly barren sea floor.
Source

1. The hippopotamus is a large semiaquatic mammal native to sub-Saharan Africa.
2. Hippopotamus is the largest land mammal on Earth.
3. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) has banned international
export/import of body parts of Hippopotamus.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
The hippopotamus is a large semiaquatic mammal native

to sub-Saharan Africa.
Aside from elephants and rhinos, the hippopotamus is
the largest land mammal. Hippos inhabit rivers, lakes,
and mangrove swamps.
The species is included in Appendix II of the Convention on

International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) meaning
international export/import (including in parts and derivatives)
requires CITES documentation to be obtained and presented to
border authorities.
Source
18) The Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary that was recently seen in news is located in
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Rajasthan
d) Sikkim
Solution: C)
The famous Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary in Rajasthan’s Churu district has received a protective cover
against a proposed move of the State government to reduce the size of its eco-sensitive zone. The World Wildlife
Fund for Nature (WWF) has also taken up a major project for the conservation of raptors in the sanctuary, spread
in an area measuring 7.19 sq. km.
The sanctuary is host to about 4,000 blackbucks and other wild animals, over 40 species of raptors and more than
300 species of resident and migratory birds. The raptors, which include predators and scavengers, are on top of
the food chain and control the populations of small mammals, birds and reptiles as well as insects.
Source
19) Consider the following statements regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

1. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are on average several thousand times more potent greenhouse gas than
carbon dioxide.
2. Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding with mandatory HFC reduction targets for
countries.
3. HFCs have very high potential to deplete the stratospheric ozone layer.
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
HFCs are on average several thousand times more potent than carbon dioxide.
Kigali Amendment is a legally binding agreement designed to create rights and obligations in international law.
While HFCs do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, they have high global warming potential, which has an
adverse impact on climate.
3. Geography
1. A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
2. When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to
the other.
3. Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
a) 2 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs
on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes like this?

The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis
because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.”
The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.
Source
2) Match the following volcanoes and their location.

Volcano Location
A. Krakatoa 1. USA
B. Mount Vesuvius 2. Japan
C. Mount Fuji 3. Italy
D. Mount St Helens 4. Indonesia
ABCD
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 2 1
Solution: c)
Here are some famous volcanoes in the world.

Krakatoa, Indonesia: One of the most catastrophic volcanic eruptions ever occurred in Krakatoa in 1883.
Mount Vesuvius, Italy: In 79 CE, Mount Vesuvius erupted (VEI 5), in one of the deadliest eruptions in European
history, killing as many as 16,000 and destroying the town of Pompeii.
Mount Fuji, Japan
Kīlauea, Hawaii: Adjacent to the Mauna Loa, this is one of the most active volcanoes on the planet.
Mount St Helens, USA: Located in Washington State, Mount St. Helens was a major eruption that occurred on
May 18, 1980 (VEI 5), and it remains the deadliest and most economically destructive volcanic event in U.S.
history.
Source

1. Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth's
interior.
2. Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
3. Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magma that
has low viscosity.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat ﬂowing
from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates
what geologists call ‘magma’.
Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the
potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the
Earth’s crust is referred to as lava.
Why are some volcanic eruptions explosive and some not?

In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous.
Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of
the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace,
people typically have enough time to move out of the way.
If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-
up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an
explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano.
The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosivity of a volcano. It has a range of 1 to 8
with a higher VEI indicating more explosivity.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.

1. A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters.
2. It is a system of high-speed winds blowing clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counter-
clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
3. Tropical cyclones in the formative stages of their development are very calm and does not cause any
threat to life and property.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
A cyclone is a low pressure system that forms over warm waters. Essentially, it is a system of high speed winds
rotating around a low-pressure area, with the winds blowing counter clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere
and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
According to the World Meteorological Organization, “Tropical cyclones are one of the biggest threats to life and
property even in the formative stages of their development. They include a number of different hazards that can
individually cause significant impacts on life and property, such as storm surge, flooding, extreme winds,
tornadoes and lighting.
How are cyclones named?

Cyclones that form in every ocean basin across the world are named by the regional specialised meteorological
centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs). There are six RSMCs in the world, including the
India Meteorological Department (IMD), and five TCWCs.
As an RSMC, the IMD names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal
and Arabian Sea, after following a standard procedure. The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other
countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.
Source

1. India is the only country which produces tobacco in two seasons.
2. India is the largest tobacco producing country in the world.
3. Tobacco is the only plant which is not pollinated because of its strong, musty smell.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
India is the second largest tobacco producer behind China. India is the only country which produces tobacco in
two seasons. It exports to more than 115 countries throughout the world. The country exports tobacco mainly to
Belgium, the Philippines, Egypt, Arab Rep., Germany, Nepal, USA, Turkey, Nepal and many more countries
worldwide. Out of these countries, Belgium is the biggest importer of tobacco at around 17% of the total exports
from India.
Tobacco is pollinated by moths.

1. The fall in temperature along with moisture and light winds over the Indo Gangetic Plain results in
dense fog over the region.
2. Western disturbances, which are storms that originate in the Mediterranean Sea, bring moisture-
bearing winds to northwest India.
3. Only Western disturbances causes fog in the northwest India.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
Solution: a)
The fall in temperature along with moisture and light winds over the Indo Gangetic Plain has resulted in dense
fog over the region, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Western disturbances, which are storms that originate in the Mediterranean Sea, bring moisture-bearing winds
to northwest India. This can result in increased moisture levels over the region. In the absence of western
disturbances, local moisture sources like water vapour from rivers and soil moisture can also cause fog.
According to a note issued by the IMD, the Indo Gangetic Plain is most vulnerable to fog occurrences, with major,
weeks-long spells of dense fog in the months of December and January. These foggy spells are linked to wind and
temperature patterns.
Source

1. Radiation fog A. It forms when warm, moist air passes over a cool surface, causing water
vapour to condense.
2. Advection fog B. It is the result of mountains preventing dense air from escaping, and in which
the fog is trapped in.
3. Valley fog C. It forms on account of calm winds and western disturbances.
Match the above statements and select the correct answer code:
a) 1:C; 2:B; 3:A
b) 1:A; 2:C; 3:B
c) 1:B; 2:A; 3:C
d) 1:C; 2:A; 3:B
Solution: d)
Radiation fog (or ground fog) episodes last for a few mornings on account of calm winds and western
disturbances, resulting in localised fog formation.
In contrast, “advection fog” is larger in scale both in terms of the area covered and duration. Advection fog forms
when warm, moist air passes over a cool surface, causing water vapour to condense. Advection fog mostly
occurs where warm, tropical air meets cooler ocean water. If the wind blows in the right direction, sea fog can be
transported over coastal land areas.
“Valley fog” — which is the result of mountains preventing dense air from escaping, and in which the fog is
trapped in the bowl of the valley and can last for several days — and “freezing fog”, which is the result of liquid
droplets freezing on solid surfaces. Cloud-covered mountaintops often see freezing fog.
Source
8) Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.

1. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden
drop in barometric pressure.
2. Bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide.
2. All bomb cyclones are hurricanes.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
A bomb cyclone is simply a storm that intensifies very rapidly. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface
rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
All bomb cyclones are not hurricanes. But sometimes, they can take on characteristics that make them look an
awful lot like hurricanes, with very strong winds, heavy precipitation and well-defined eye-like features in the
middle.
Hurricanes tend to form in tropical areas and are powered by warm seas. For this reason, they’re most common
in summer or early fall, when seawater is warmest.
In contrast, bomb cyclones don’t need balmy ocean waters in order to form. While they sometimes arise over the
ocean, they can also appear over land — as was the case with the cyclone that hit the northern Plains in March
2019.
Unlike hurricanes, bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide. They
rarely strike in summer, when the weather is generally warm across the Northern Hemisphere. Rather, they form
between late fall and early spring, when warm tropical air bumps up against frigid Arctic air.
Source

1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland
in the world.
2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the
world. It is located in Russia, in southwestern Siberia.
The swamp is a major reservoir of fresh water for the region, and the Vasyugan river has its source there.
Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Polar vortex.

1. Polar vortex is a mass of cold, low-pressure air that consistently hovers over the Arctic region.
2. It spins in clockwise direction, just like a hurricane does.
3. The weakening of the Polar vortex influence the Jet stream, which pushes the polar cold air towards
the mid-latitude regions.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
As a deadly blizzard grips the United States, scientists have once again started to discuss if the rising
temperatures of the Arctic are responsible for extreme cold conditions in the country and other areas of the
Northern Hemisphere.
The study largely focused on something called the polar vortex, which is a mass of cold, low-pressure air that
consistently hovers over the Arctic region. It is denoted by the word “vortex” because it spins counter-clockwise,
just like a hurricane does.
Usually, the polar vortex remains strong and compact, meaning the mass of frigid air stays at the North Pole. But
sometimes it weakens, like a wobbling top, and expands to influence the jet stream — an area of fast-moving air
high in the atmosphere that surrounds the polar vortex. Once the jet stream is impacted, the cold polar air finds
its way towards the mid-latitude regions.
In the study, researchers found that the expansion of the polar vortex has been occurring more than twice as
often in recent years and the reason for it is the rapidly warming Arctic.
With the help of observational analysis and numerical modelling, the study demonstrated that the melting sea ice
in Barents and Kara seas north of Russia and Scandinavia and increasing Siberian snowfall create larger and more
energetic atmospheric waves that ultimately stretch the polar vortex, causing extreme winter weather in the US
and other places.
Source
4. Government Schemes and Programmes

1) Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971.
1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 has not been amended since inception.
2. The MTP Act recognises abortion as a choice of the women.
3. It makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions.
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
The MTP Act, first enacted in 1971 and then amended in 2021, certainly makes ‘medical termination of
pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions. However, this Act is framed from a legal standpoint to
primarily protect medical practitioners because under the Indian Penal Code, “induced miscarriage” is a criminal
offence. This premise points to a lack of choice and bodily autonomy of women and rests the decision of abortion
solely on the doctor’s opinion. The MTP Act also only mentions ‘pregnant woman’, thus failing to recognise that
transgender persons and others who do not identify as women can become pregnant.
The MTP Act does not recognise abortion as a choice, they need the approval of medical professionals even in
the first few weeks of the pregnancy.

1. Family Planning Logistics Management Information System is a dedicated software to ensure
procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health facilities.
2. Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices and to
successfully increase the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR).
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Family Planning Logistics Management Information System — a dedicated software to ensure the smooth
forecasting, procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health
facilities.
Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices, to successfully increase
the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR), especially among female non-users from vulnerable
communities.

1. DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless
and contactless processing.
2. DigiYatra works on facial recognition technology.
3. DigiYatra Foundation is a joint-venture company, where Airports Authority of India is a majority
shareholder.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The government has introduced paperless entry at select airports to make air travel hassle-free. Under this
initiative, airports will use a facial recognition software called ‘DigiYatra’ for entry.
DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless and
contactless processing, using facial features to establish their identity, which would be linked to the boarding
pass. With this technology, the entry of passengers would be automatically processed based on the facial
recognition system at all checkpoints – including entry into the airport, security check areas, aircraft boarding,
etc.
Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports.
How is DigiYatra being implemented?

The project is being implemented by the DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-venture company whose shareholders
are the Airports Authority of India (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport, Delhi Airport, Hyderabad
Airport, Mumbai Airport and Cochin International Airport. These five shareholders equally hold the remaining
74% of the shares.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).
1. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance
to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
2. It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with
funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
3. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Government has modified the earlier scheme of ‘Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS)
with nomenclature ‘Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY)’, for implementation during 2021-22 to
2025-26, which aims at mitigating gaps and providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal
population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe
Component.
It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having at least 50% ST population and 500 STs across States / UTs with
notified STs during the period.
The main objective of this scheme is to achieve integrated socio-economic development of selected villages
through convergence approach. It includes the following components.
• Preparing Village Development Plan based on the needs, potential, and aspirations;
• Maximizing the coverage of individual / family benefit schemes of the Central / State Governments;
• Improving the infrastructure in vital sectors like health, education, connectivity and livelihood;
Source Source

1. Aadhaar is a verifiable 12-digit identification number issued by Unique Identification Authority of India
on behalf of the Government of India.
2. The masked Aadhaar implies displaying only the first four digits of the Aadhaar number and replacing
the last 8 digits of Aadhaar number with some characters.
3. The masked Aadhaar facility has been in place since the launch of Aadhaar facility.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Aadhaar is a verifiable 12-digit identification number issued the Unique Identification Authority of India on
behalf of the Government of India.
The masked Aadhaar number facility — that can be downloaded from the UIDAI website — and which displays
only the last four digits of the Aadhaar number. This was a sensible advisory. The masked Aadhaar facility has
been in place since 2018 and this came about following a report by the Centre for Internet and Society.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Public Financial Management System (PFMS).
1. Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online application developed with the
objective of tracking funds released under various schemes of Government of India and real time reporting of
expenditure at all levels of Programme implementation.
2. It is implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
3. It facilitates transfer of funds directly to the account of beneficiaries.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Public Financial

Management System (PFMS)
is a web-based online
software application
developed and implemented
by the Controller General of
Accounts (CGA), Department
of Expenditure, Ministry of
Finance, Government of
India. PFMS started during
2009 with the objective of
tracking funds released
under all Plan schemes of
Government of India, and
real time reporting of
expenditure at all levels of Programme implementation. Subsequently, the scope was enlarged to cover direct
payment to beneficiaries under all Schemes.
Source
7) Recently the Government started the MAARG portal, that aims to

a) Promote bioenergy usage and create an investor-friendly ecosystem based on circular economy
b) Reimburse the expense incurred by the new startup ventures
c) Facilitate mentorship for start-ups across diverse sectors
d) Extend financial aid required for the development expenses of Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects
in the infrastructure sector.
Solution: c)
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry, has launched a call for startup applications for registration on the MAARG portal, the National
Mentorship Platform by Startup India.
MAARG portal - Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth, is a one stop platform to facilitate
mentorship for startups across diverse sectors, functions, stages, geographies, and backgrounds. The objectives
of the MAARG portal are –
•To provide sector focused guidance, handholding, and support to startups throughout their lifecycle
•To establish a formalized and structured platform that facilitates intelligent matchmaking between the mentors
and their respective mentees
•To facilitate efficient and expert mentorship for startups and build an outcome-oriented mechanism that allows
timely tracking of the mentor-mentee engagements
Source
8) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 guarantees which of the following rights for the Consumers in India?
1. Right to choose
2. Right to be heard
3. Right to be informed
4. Right to safety
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is an Act of the Parliament of India. It repeals and replaces the Consumer
Protection Act, 1986. Rights guaranteed under Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
1. Right to safety
2. Right to choose
3. Right to be informed
4. Right to consumer education
5. Right to be heard
6. Right to Seek redressal
9) Which of the following are the components of Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) related to
De-notified, Nomadic and Semi- nomadic Tribes?
1. To provide health insurance facilities.
2. To facilitate livelihoods initiatives at community level.
3. To provide financial assistance for construction of houses.
4. To provide coaching to enable them to appear in competitive examinations.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs
(SEED).
The De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes are the most neglected, marginalized and economically and
socially deprived communities.
The Scheme has following four components:

• To provide coaching of good quality for DNT/NT/SNT candidates to enable them to appear in competitive
examinations.
• To provide health insurance to DNT/NT/SNT Communities.
• To facilitate livelihoods initiative at community level to build and strengthen small clusters of DNT/NT/SNT
Communities institutions.
• To provide financial assistance for construction of houses to members of the DNT/NT/SNT Communities.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MNREGA).
1. The MGNREGA is a supply-led scheme, guaranteeing at least 100 days of unskilled work to any rural
household that wants it.
2. Women are guaranteed one third of the jobs made available under the MGNREGA.
3. If work is not provided within 15 days, applicants are entitled to an unemployment allowance.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The MGNREGA is a demand driven scheme, guaranteeing 100 days of unskilled work to any rural household that
wants it.
At least 100 days of wage employment is guaranteed against the demand made by a rural household.
Unemployment allowances is paid to beneficiaries who could not be employed within 15 days from the date of
they have demanded for work.
All other demands for work, where the beneficiary has already completed 100 days in the current financial year or
the beneficiary who demanded work died before 15 days of the date of the demand of work are not eligible for
unemployment allowances.
Women are guaranteed one third of the jobs made available under the MGNREGA.

1. A process patent ensures that the rights to the final product is protected and anyone other than the
patent holder is restrained from manufacturing it.
2. At present, India has product patents regime across the pharma, chemicals, and biotech sectors.
3. India became a party to the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
Agreement following its membership to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
A patent represents a powerful intellectual property right, and is an exclusive monopoly granted by a government
to an inventor for a limited, pre-specified time. Patents can be either process patents or product patents.
A product patent ensures that the rights to the final product is protected, and anyone other than the patent
holder can be restrained from manufacturing it during a specified period, even if they were to use a different
process.
A process patent enables any person other than the patent holder to manufacture the patented product by
modifying certain processes in the manufacturing exercise.
India moved from product patenting to process patenting in the 1970s, which enabled India to become a
significant producer of generic drugs at global scale. But due to obligations arising out of the TRIPS Agreement,
India had to amend the Patents Act in 2005, and switch to a product patents regime across the pharma,
chemicals, and biotech sectors.
5. Science and Technology

1) Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in
a) Cricket
b) Chess
c) Football
d) Tennis
Solution: c)
FIFA has implemented what they call “semi-automated offside technology” this World Cup.
According to FIFA, “The new technology uses 12 dedicated tracking cameras mounted underneath the roof of the
stadium to track the ball and up to 29 data points of each individual player, 50 times per second, calculating their
exact position on the pitch. The 29 collected data points include all limbs and extremities that are relevant for
making offside calls.”
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Monkeypox.

1. Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
2. Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that means, the disease is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
3. Human-to-human transmission is limited.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
The monkeypox virus is an orthopoxvirus, which is a genus of viruses that also includes the variola virus, which
causes smallpox, and the vaccinia virus, which was used in the smallpox vaccine. Monkeypox causes symptoms
similar to smallpox, although they are less severe.
Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that is, a disease that is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
Human-to-human transmission is limited. Transmission, when it occurs, can be through contact with bodily
fluids, lesions on the skin or internal mucosal surfaces, such as in the mouth or throat, respiratory droplets and
contaminated objects, the WHO says.

1. Recently the monkeypox has spread mainly in the United States and Europe, primarily among men
who have sex with men (MSM).
2. Monkeypox was named because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive
monkeys.
3. Assigning names to new and existing diseases is the responsibility of World Health Organisation (WHO)
under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The World Health Organisation (WHO) announced that it would start using the term “mpox” for monkeypox,
which has infected about 80,000 people in the first major outbreak of the viral disease outside Africa that began
early this summer. The disease spread mainly in the Americas including the United States and Europe, primarily
among men who have sex with men (MSM).
Monkeypox, which was named in 1970 because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive
monkeys in 1958, does not have much to do with monkeys. The most likely reservoir for the virus, which has
circulated for several years in a few central African countries after jumping to humans through zoonosis in the
bush, are rodents.
The WHO said that assigning names to new and, in some cases, existing diseases is the responsibility of the
global body under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) and the WHO Family of International Health
Related Classifications through a consultative process which includes WHO Member States. In the case of
monkeypox, the process was accelerated.
According to WHO best practices, “new disease names should be given with the aim to minimize unnecessary
negative impact of names on trade, travel, tourism or animal welfare, and avoid causing offence to any cultural,
social, national, regional, professional or ethnic groups”.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).

1. They are infections that are common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of
Africa and Asia.
2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic worms.
3. HIV-AIDS, malaria and Tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
What are Neglected Tropical Diseases?

● They are infections that are most common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of
Africa, Asia and the Americas.
● Caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms.
● They generally receive less funding for research and treatment than malaises like tuberculosis, HIV-AIDS and
malaria.
● Some examples include snakebite envenomation, scabies, yaws, trachoma, Leishmaniasis and Chagas disease.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Stiff person syndrome.

1. Stiff person syndrome is a rare autoimmune neurological condition.
2. It affects the central nervous system and can cause rigidity throughout the body and painful muscle
spasms.
3. There is no cure for stiff person syndrome, so the treatment focuses on symptom and pain
management.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Stiff person syndrome is a rare autoimmune neurological condition that affects the central nervous system and
can cause rigidity throughout the body and painful muscle spasms.
The exact cause of the condition is not clear, but “the immune system is involved. The syndrome is difficult to
diagnose.
Stiff person syndrome often begins with stiffness in the torso and abdomen, which can then spread to the legs,
arms and face.
There is no cure for stiff person syndrome, so doctors focus on symptom and pain management.
Who is at risk of stiff person syndrome?

Anyone at any age can get the condition, but it’s most typical for people in middle adulthood, between 30 and 60,
and can be associated with highly stressful events. Like many other immune conditions, it’s more common in
women than men.
Source
6) Consider the following statements regarding Lead content in human body.

1. Lead is stored in the teeth and bones, where it accumulates over time.
2. WHO has identified lead as one of the chemicals of major public health concern.
3. Young children are most vulnerable to lead exposure because they can absorb it more than adults.
4. Global Alliance to Eliminate Lead Paint is a voluntary partnership formed by the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Health Organization (WHO).
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
About Lead:
● Lead in the body is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney and bones. It is stored in the teeth and bones, where
it accumulates over time.
● Lead in bone is released into blood during pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the developing
foetus.
● WHO has identified lead as 1 of 10 chemicals of major public health concern.
● WHO has joined with the United Nations Environment Programme to form the Global Alliance to Eliminate
Lead Paint.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Microwaves.

1. They fall between the infrared radiation and radio waves in the electromagnetic spectrum.
2. Glass and plastic materials reflect microwaves.
3. Microwaves of certain frequencies are absorbed by water.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
Microwaves are defined as electromagnetic radiations with a frequency ranging between 300 MHz to 300 GHz
while the wavelength ranges from 1 mm to around 30 cm.
They fall between the infrared radiation and radio waves in the electromagnetic spectrum.
Properties of microwaves:
• Metal surfaces reflect microwaves.
• Microwaves of certain frequencies are absorbed by water.
• Microwave transmission is affected by wave effects such as refraction, reflection, interference, and
diffraction.
• Microwaves can pass through glass and plastic.
8) Consider the following statements regarding High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS).
1. HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere.
2. These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
3. They are intended to replace the conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems, which operate in the stratosphere at an altitude of 70,000 feet
continuously for 2-3 months, to maintain surveillance on the ground below. The solar energized system is
designed to act as a bridge between Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) and conventional satellites.
HAPS are cost-effective and are easier to launch. These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond
Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
9) By analyzing selected DNA sequences, a crime laboratory can develop a profile to be used in identifying a
suspect. In this context DNA can be extracted from which of the following sources?
1. Hair
2. Bone
3. Saliva
4. Blood
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Each person’s DNA, except for identical twins, is unique. By analyzing selected DNA sequences (called loci), a
crime laboratory can develop a profile to be used in identifying a suspect.
DNA can be extracted from many sources, such as hair, bone, teeth, saliva, and blood. Because there is DNA in
most cells in the human body, even a minuscule amount of bodily fluid or tissue can yield useful information.
Samples may even be extracted from used clothes, linen, combs, or other frequently used items.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Inactivated vaccines.

1. Vaccines of this type are created by inactivating a pathogen, typically using heat or chemicals.
2. They are used in the protection against Polio and Rabies.
3. They provide strong immunity when compared to live vaccines.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Inactivated vaccines:
● Inactivated vaccines use the killed version of the germ that causes a disease.
● Vaccines of this type are created by inactivating a pathogen, typically using heat or chemicals such as
formaldehyde or formalin.
● This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate, but keeps it “intact” so that the immune system can still
recognize it. (“Inactivated” is generally used rather than “killed” to refer to viral vaccines of this type, as viruses
are generally not considered to be alive.)
● They usually don’t provide immunity (protection) that’s as strong as live vaccines. So you may need several
doses over time (booster shots) in order to get ongoing immunity against diseases.
● They are Used to protect: Hepatitis A, Flu (shot only), Polio (shot only), Rabies.
11) Which of the following technologies can be used at the airports for the detection of explosives in the
electronic devices?
1. Dual x-ray
2. Computer tomography
3. Neutron beam technology
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Technologies such as dual x-ray, computer tomography and neutron beam technology will eliminate the need
for passengers to remove laptops and other electronic devices.
While the traditional x-ray machines currently used at airports produce a 2-D image, newer technologies such as
computer tomography produce a 3-D image with a higher resolution, and have better automated detection of
explosives.
Source
12) Which of the following statements best describe the term Proton Mail service?
a) Two-factor authentication system
b) Closed source software (CSS) service
c) End-to-end encrypted email service
d) Server-side encrypted email service
Solution: c)
The probe into the cyberattack on some servers at AIIMS in the national capital has found that the IP addresses of
two emails, which were identified from the headers of files that were encrypted by the hackers, originated from
Hong Kong and China’s Henan province. Sources said the senders used the email service Protonmail.
Proton Mail is an end-to-end encrypted email service founded in 2013 in Geneva, Switzerland. It uses client-side
encryption to protect email content and user data before they are sent to Proton Mail servers, unlike other
common email providers such as Gmail and Outlook.com.
Source
13) Consider the following statements regarding Aorta.

1. The aorta is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body.
2. It is also the human body’s largest blood vessel.
3. An aortic aneurysm is a weakening and bulging in a portion of the aorta.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The American football writer Grant Wahl died recently after a catastrophic tear in a major blood vessel leading
out of his heart.
An aneurysm is a localised weakening of the wall of a blood vessel, which causes the vessel to bulge in that area
— as a result of which the vessel may widen to more than 50 per cent of its usual diameter. Aneurysms are more
commonly seen in arteries than in veins.
The aorta is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body; it is also the
body’s largest blood vessel. An aortic aneurysm is a weakening and bulging in a portion of the aorta; “thoracic”
refers to that section of the blood vessel that passes through the chest.
An aneurysm increases in size over time, and the wall of the blood vessel gets progressively weaker in that area.
The vessel may ultimately burst or separate, triggering a bleeding rush that can be life-threatening, and
potentially lethal.
Possible causes of thoracic aortic aneurysm (i) degenerative disease that causes breakdown of the aortic wall
tissue; (ii) genetic disorders; (iii) family history; (iv) vasculitis, or inflammation of the arteries; and (v)
atherosclerosis, or the build-up of plaque on the walls of the artery. In rare cases, an infection can also trigger an
aneurysm.
Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding Anthrax.

1. The bacteria that causes Anthrax will live in the environment like soil only for a short period of time.
2. Animals like cattle, sheep and goat are more infected to Anthrax than humans.
3. Usually it does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: d)
• Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, a spore-forming bacteria.

• Affects animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats more often than people.
• People can get anthrax from contact with infected animals, wool, meat, or hides.
• Spread: It does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another; it is spread by spores.
These spores can be transported by clothing or shoes.
• Gastrointestinal (GI) infection in humans is most often caused by consuming anthrax-infected meat and is
characterized by serious GI difficulty, vomiting of blood, severe diarrhea, acute inflammation of the intestinal
tract, and loss of appetite.
• Cutaneous anthrax, also known as Hide porter’s disease, is the cutaneous (on the skin) manifestation of
anthrax infection in humans.
15) Consider the following statements regarding Psychoactive drugs/substances.

1. Psychoactive drugs are substances that, when taken in affects how the brain works and causes changes
in consciousness, awareness and emotions.
2. The Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, an international treaty signed by India, is concerned with the
control of production and distribution of psychoactive drugs.
3. WHO does not recognise alcohol and caffeine as Psychoactive substances.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Psychoactive drugs are substances that, when taken in or administered into one's system, affect mental
processes, e.g. perception, consciousness, cognition or mood and emotions. Psychoactive drugs belong to a
broader category of psychoactive substances that include also alcohol and nicotine.
However, in recent years, the most influential document regarding the legality of psychoactive drugs is the Single
Convention on Narcotic Drugs, an international treaty signed in 1961 as an Act of the United Nations. India has
signed the convention.
Source Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Live-attenuated Vaccines.

1. Live vaccines use a weakened form of the germ that causes a disease.
2. They are used against Rotavirus and Smallpox.
3. They are generally given to people with weakened immune systems.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Live-attenuated Vaccines:
● Live vaccines use a weakened (or attenuated) form of the germ that causes a disease.
● Because these vaccines are so similar to the natural infection that they help prevent, they create a strong and
long-lasting immune response.
● The limitation of this approach is that these vaccines usually cannot be given to people with weakened
immune systems.
● Live vaccines are used against: Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Rotavirus, Smallpox
among others.
17) Consider the following statements regarding Dark energy.

1. Dark energy is the mysterious form of energy that makes up less than 1% of the universe.
2. While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of
our universe.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Dark energy, the mysterious form of energy that makes up about 68% of the universe, has intrigued physicists
and astronomers for decades. Dark energy has been noted as “the most profound mystery in all of science”. With
advanced technologies and newer experiments, scientists have found certain clues about it and, recently an
international team of researchers made the first putative direct detection of dark energy.
Everything we see – the planets, moons, massive galaxies, you, me, this website – makes up less than 5% of the
universe. About 27% is dark matter and 68% is dark energy. While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies
together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.
18) Consider the following statements regarding iNCOVACC vaccine.

1. It is the world’s first intranasal vaccine for COVID-19 to receive approval.
2. It can be used only as a booster dose and not as a primary dose.
3. Like Covaxin, it uses an inactivated sars-cov2 virus.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
iNCOVACC is rolled out as a booster dose for those above 18 years of age and is the world’s first intranasal
vaccine for COVID to receive approval for the primary 2-dose schedule, as well as a heterologous booster dose.
Unlike Covaxin, which was an inactivated sars-cov2 virus, the nasal vaccine contains only a part of it, namely the
spike protein and is wrapped in a virus that is typically harmless to people.
Source
19) Consider the following statements regarding Naegleria fowleri, recently seen in news.
1. Naegleria is an amoeba, a single-celled organism.
2. It is commonly found in warm freshwater bodies, such as hot springs, rivers and lakes.
3. It is known for killing the harmful tissues in the human brain.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
South Korea reported its first case of infection from Naegleria fowleri or “brain-eating amoeba”.
Naegleria is an amoeba, a single-celled organism, and only one of its species, called Naegleria fowleri, can
infect humans. It was first discovered in Australia in 1965 and is commonly found in warm freshwater bodies,
such as hot springs, rivers and lakes.
The amoeba enters the human body through the nose and then travels up to the brain. This can usually happen
when someone goes for a swim, or dive or even when they dip their head in a freshwater body. In some cases, it
was found that people got infected when they cleaned their nostrils with contaminated water. Scientists haven’t
found any evidence of the spreading of Naegleria fowleri through water vapour or aerosol droplets.
Once Naegleria fowleri goes to the brain, it destroys brain tissues and causes a dangerous infection known as
primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), according to the CDC.
Source
20) Consider the following statements regarding Subunit, Recombinant, Polysaccharide, and Conjugate Vaccines.
1. They can be used on people with weakened immune systems and long-term health problems.
2. They use specific pieces of the germ like its protein, sugar, or capsid.
3. These vaccines are used to protect against Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) disease and Hepatitis B.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Subunit, Recombinant, Polysaccharide, and Conjugate Vaccines:

● They use specific pieces of the germ – like its protein, sugar, or capsid (a casing around the germ). They give a
very strong immune response.
● They can also be used on people with weakened immune systems and long-term health problems.
● These vaccines are used to protect against: Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) disease, Hepatitis B, HPV
(Human papillomavirus), Pneumococcal disease among others.
21) Consider the following statements regarding Toxoid Vaccines.

1. They use a toxin made by the germ that causes a disease.
2. Toxoid vaccines are used to protect against Diphtheria and Tetanus.
3. They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Toxoid Vaccines:
● They use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease.
● They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself. That means
the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ.
● Toxoid vaccines are used to protect against: Diphtheria, Tetanus.
6. International Relations and Organisations

1) Consider the following statements regarding the grouping of G33 Countries.
1. G33 is a coalition of 33 developing countries.
2. India is a member of G33 coalition.
3. It deals with the resolution of the WTO’s mandated issues in agriculture.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
India is a part of the G33, which is a group of 48 developing and least developed countries.
The G-33 Joint Ministerial Statement reaffirms commitment for expeditious resolution of the WTO’s mandated
issues in agriculture.
2) The ‘Boao Forum for Asia (BFA)’ is China’s equivalent of

a) United Nations Industrial Development Organisation
b) International Transport Forum
c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
d) World Economic Forum
Solution: d)
The Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from
government, business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues
in this region and the world at large. BFA is modelled on the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos.

1. G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded
in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
2. G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
3. The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
4. The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to
include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union. The G20 members
represent around 85 per cent of the global GDP, over 75 per cent of global trade, and about two-thirds of the
world population.
India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023.
The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis, as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank
Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues. The G20 was upgraded to the level of Heads of
State/Government in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007, and, in 2009, was designated
the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency. The G20 initially focused
largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has since expanded its agenda to inter-alia include trade, climate
change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, energy, environment, climate change and anti-
corruption.
The G20 consists of two parallel tracks: the Finance track, led by Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors;
and the Sherpa track. Within the two tracks, there are thematically oriented working groups in which
representatives from the relevant ministries of the members as well as from invited/guest countries and various
international organisations participate.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
1. The UN Charter established ECOSOC as one of the six main organs of the United Nations.
2. It is the principal international body dedicated to the promotion of gender equality and women
empowerment.
3. It coordinates the work of UN specialised agencies and issues policy recommendations to the UN
system and to member states.
4. At present India is not a member of ECOSOC.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
5) Consider the following statements regarding Pacific Island Countries (PICs).
1.They are located largely in the tropical zone of the Pacific Ocean between Asia, Australia and the
Americas.
2. Though the islands are very small in land area, they have some of the largest Exclusive Economic Zones
(EEZs) in the world.
3. Fiji, Marshall Islands and Solomon Islands are part of Pacific Island Countries.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Pacific Island Countries are located largely in the tropical zone of the Pacific Ocean between Asia, Australia
and the Americas.
They include Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Republic of Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia (FSM),
Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu.
The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific
ocean. As a result, though they are some of the smallest and least populated states, they have some of the
largest Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) in the world.
6) Border dispute between India and Nepal are over the regions which include Kalapani, Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura
and Susta. Which of these regions are located in Uttarakhand?
1. Limpiyadhura
2. Susta
3. Kalapani
4. Lipulekh
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3,4
Solution: c)
The disagreements between India and Nepal over the border dispute is over the regions which includes Kalapani,
Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura (all three in Uttarakhand) and Susta (Bihar).
7) Indian Ocean Region Forum, recently seen in news is the initiative of

a) India
b) China
c) United States
d) Australia
Solution: b)
China recently convened a first “China-Indian Ocean Region Forum” bringing together 19 countries from the
region – and all of India’s neighbours, except for India itself, the lone absentee from a new Beijing strategic
initiative. The forum underlined China’s stepped-up diplomacy in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Source
8) The BIMSTEC countries are partner to which of the following Connectivity Projects?
1. Kaladan Multimodal Project
2. Asian Trilateral Highway
3. BBIN Motor Vehicles Agreement
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Important Connectivity Projects:

• Kaladan Multimodal Project – links India and Myanmar.
• Asian Trilateral Highway – connecting India and Thailand through Myanmar.
• Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal (BBIN) Motor Vehicles Agreement – for seamless flow of passenger and
cargo traffic.
9) Which of the following conventions govern various patent related matters?

1. Budapest Treaty
2. Paris Convention
3. Berne Convention
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
India is also a signatory to several IPR related conventions, all of which govern various patent related matters.
They include:
• Berne Convention-which governs copyright.
• The Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the
Purposes of Patent Procedure
• The Paris Convention-for the Protection of Industrial Property,
• The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT).
7. Polity
1. The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission.
3. Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy the same status and receive
salary and perks as Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commissioners

The CEC and ECs are appointed by the President to a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is
earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution itself. Under Article 324, the powers
of “superintendence, direction and control of elections” is to be vested in an Election Commission.
Size of the Election Commission

• The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission. Article 324(2) says that “the Election
Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election
Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix”.
• From the beginning, the Election Commission of India consisted of just the Chief Election Commissioner.
However, on October 16, 1989, the government appointed two more Election Commissioners, making the
Election Commission a multi-member body.
Source

1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as
political parties.
2. The Constitution of India provides Election Commission of India (ECI) the power to deregister political
parties.
3. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols
with religious or communal connotations.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars
associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation
of the People Act-1951”.
The EC generally does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an
electoral reform to the government many times.
On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having
symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings.

1. In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure
protection and privacy of the parties involved.
2. In the In-camera proceedings, to maintain the freedom of press, the press is allowed to report on the
matter being heard, without the permission of the court.
3. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.
a) 1only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
In-camera proceedings are private, unlike open court proceedings. Conducted as per the court’s discretion in
sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved, the proceedings are usually held
through video conferencing or in closed chambers, from which the public and press are excluded.
In an open court or open justice system, which is the usual course of proceedings, the press is allowed to report
on the matter being heard.
Section 327 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on
camera, including inquiry into and trial in rape case.
The said section states that if the presiding judge or a magistrate thinks fit, she can order at any stage of the
proceedings that the public generally, or any particular person, shall not remain present in the courtroom or the
court building.
Section 327 of the CrPC states that it shall not be lawful to publish any matter in relation to in-camera
proceedings except with the previous permission of the court. It adds that the ban on publishing of trial
proceedings for offence of rape may be lifted subject to maintaining confidentiality of name and address of the
parties.
In-camera proceedings are usually conducted at family courts in cases of matrimonial disputes, including judicial
separation, divorce proceedings, impotence, and more. In-camera proceedings are also conducted during the
deposition of witnesses of terrorist activities as per the court’s discretion, so as to protect them and maintain
national security.
Source

1. Article 3 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court of India exclusive jurisdiction to decide on the
boundaries of states.
2. The State Reorganisation Act that was passed in 1956, was based on the findings of the Justice Fazal Ali
Commission.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Karnataka has cited Article 3 of the Constitution to argue that the Supreme Court does not have the jurisdiction
to decide the borders of states, and only Parliament has the power to do so.
The State Reorganisation Act was passed by the Parliament in 1956. The Act was based on the findings of the
Justice Fazal Ali Commission, which was appointed in 1953 and submitted its report two years later.
Source

1. The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in
consonance with its modern ethos, it should be sensible and easy to apply.
2. The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) seeks to achieve
progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance
with its modern ethos, it should be “sensible” and “easy to apply”.
In modern societies, this primitiveness necessitated the principle of non-retrogression, or the doctrine of
progressive realisation of rights. Article 2(1) of International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
(ICESCR) — India is a signatory — seeks to “achieving progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in
the Covenant by all appropriate means, including particularly the adoption of legislative measures”.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Elections in India.

1. Absentee voters are those who are unable to physically cast their vote due to their service conditions.
2. There is a facility for absentee voters to vote through postal ballots.
3. The Returning Officer is appointed by the Election Commission of India and is the highest authority in
the constituency.
4. Generally, the District Magistrate is the ex-officio Returning Officer in Lok Sabha elections.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
There is also a facility for absentee voters to vote through PBs. These voters are those who are unable to
physically cast their vote due to their service conditions. For instance, railway employees who are posted
outside their home state are counted as absentee voters.
The Returning Officer:

The RO is appointed for each constituency by the Election Commission. During the duration of the election, the
RO is the highest authority in the constituency having a wide range of powers in order to peacefully and
impartially conduct elections.
ROs themselves do not count all votes but verify the counting at multiple stages and announce the results. They
are the final authority in the matter of vote counting in an election. To assist the RO, the EC also appoints
Assistant Returning Officers (AROs) to assist the RO in carrying out all the duties.
Generally, the District Magistrate is the ex-officio RO in Lok Sabha elections while the Sub-Divisional Magistrate
is the RO in state assembly elections.
Source Source
7) Recently the Uttarakhand Assembly passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women
in state government services. Consider the following statements in this context.
1. A vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
2. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as
vertical reservation.
3. Horizontal reservation refer to reservations for the beneficiaries such as women, the transgender
community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Uttarakhand Assembly recently passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women in
state government services.
In simple terms, while a vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law,
the horizontal quota is always applied separately to each vertical category, and not across the board.
Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical
reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to the equal opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries
such as women, veterans, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the
vertical categories.
For example, if women have 50 per cent horizontal quota, then half of the selected candidates will have to
necessarily be women in each vertical quota category — i.e., half of all selected SC candidates will have to be
women, half of the unreserved or general category will have to be women, and so on.
Source

1. Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax
(GST).
2. To give effect to GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either
deleted or amended.
3. The recommendations of Goods and Services Tax Council are binding on any legislative body.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST), and
that the Goods and Services Tax Council’s recommendations were just that: recommendations that could never
be binding on a legislative body.
When, in July 2017, the Union government introduced the GST regime through the 101st constitutional
Amendment, it did so based on an underlying belief that tax administration across India needed unification. ‘One
Nation, One Tax’, was the mantra. To give effect to this idea, many entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the
Constitution were either deleted or amended.

1. The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the
executive power of the state extends.
2. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such
advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The power under Article 161 is exercisable in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state
extends. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 163), the binding nature
of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.

1. Indian Constitution can be described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’.
2. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede
from the federation.
3. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in Article 1 of the Constitution, where it describes India as a
‘Union of States’.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 2 only
Solution: b)
The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.

Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is
not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-
federal’ by K C Wheare.
11) Consider the following statements regarding the Panel of Vice-Chairpersons of Rajya Sabha.
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha nominates a panel of vice-chairpersons from among the members.
2. In the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, any of the panel members can
preside over the House.
3. According to the Rajya Sabha Rules, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and not eligible to become
the member of the panel.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha nominates a panel of vice-chairpersons from among the members, according
to the Rajya Sabha Rules. In the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman, any of them can preside over
the House. When presiding, he has the same powers as the Chairman.
Nominated Rajya Sabha member and athlete P.T. Usha is now on the panel of Vice-Chairman of the House.
Ms. Usha is the first nominated member in the history of the Rajya Sabha to be included in the panel.
Source

1. As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council shall, unanimously or through a majority of 75%
of weighted votes, decide on all matters pertaining to GST and recommend such decisions to the Union and State
governments.
2. The recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either the Union or the States
Governments.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Supreme Court of India has ruled that, The recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either
the Union or the States.
Article 279A stipulates the creation of the GST Council and its functions. The Council has to function as a platform
to bring the Union and State governments together, and as a mark of cooperative federalism, the Council shall,
unanimously or through a majority of 75% of weighted votes, decide on all matters pertaining to GST and
recommend such decisions to the Union and State governments.

1. According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject.
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentions about the prohibition of the consumption of
intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes.
3. More than 10 states in India has total prohibition of sale of alcohol.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
One of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentions that “in particular, the State shall endeavour to
bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs
which are injurious to health.”
However, according to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, alcohol is a state subject, i.e. state legislatures
have the right and responsibility to draft laws regarding it, including “the production, manufacture, possession,
transport, purchase and sale of intoxicating liquors.”
All states have some regulations with regards to alcohol consumption and sale (like age requirements or dry
days). Currently, there are five states with total prohibition and some more with partial prohibition.
Source

1. Article 246A states that, the Parliament and the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws
with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
2. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
246A – (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in articles 246 and 254, Parliament, and, subject to clause (2), the
Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax imposed by the
Union or by such State. (2) Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax
where the supply of goods, or of services, or both takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.
15) Who among the following have the power to increase the retirement age of judges of the High Court and the
Supreme Court of India?
a) Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice
b) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice
c) Parliament
d) Supreme Court collegium
Solution: c)
Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years, and judges of the 25 high courts in the country retire at 62
years.
The Constitution, 114th Amendment Bill was introduced in 2010 to increase the retirement age of high court
judges to 65 years. However, it was not taken up for consideration in Parliament and lapsed with the dissolution
of the 15th Lok Sabha.
Source

1. The productivity of each house of the parliament depends on the total number of sitting held and the
time duration of the sitting of the house.
2. The productivity of each house of the parliament cannot be more than 100%.
3. The session of the house of parliament cannot be adjourned sine die before the schedule.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Winter Session of the Lok Sabha was adjourned sine die (indefinitely) six days ahead of schedule, with the
Opposition parties forcing repeated adjournments in the final days.
In his valedictory address to the Lower House, Mr. Birla said the productivity of the House was 97% during the
13 sittings and seven bills were passed.
Regardless of the sparring between the two sides over various issues, the Rajya Sabha reported 102%
productivity.
Source Source
17) Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission.

1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the
Election Commission of India.
2. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
3. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative
Assembly, they cannot effect any modification in the orders.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes in
population. The main objective of delimitation is to provide equal representation to equal segments of a
population.
Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission, appointed by the Government of India
under provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the
President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is composed of the
following: a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner of India and respective State Election
Commissioners.
The Commission is a powerful and independent body whose orders cannot be challenged in any court of law.
The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However,
modifications are not permitted.
Source
18) According to the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the dispute between
1. The Government of India and one or more States
2. The Government of India and any State on one side and one or more other States on the other
3. Two or more States on any matter
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Supreme Court in its original jurisdiction decides imputes between states. Article 131 of the Constitution
reads: “Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court,
have original jurisdiction in any dispute
(a)between the Government of India and one or more States; or
(b)between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the
other; or
(c) between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on
which the existence or extent of a legal right depends: Provided that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to a
dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagements, and or other similar instrument which,
having been entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution, continues in operation
after such commencement, or which provides that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to such a dispute.
Source
19) Recently the term ‘triple test’ was seen in news in light of Allahabad High Court order to the Uttar Pradesh
government. The term ‘triple test’ is used in relation to
a) Motor vehicles insurance
b) Booster dose vaccination for Covid-19
c) Reservation to OBCs in the local bodies.
d) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
Solution: c)
After the Allahabad High Court ordered the Uttar Pradesh government to hold urban local body elections
without reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) because the ‘triple test’ requirement for the quota had
not been fulfilled.
What is triple test?

The triple test requires the government to complete three tasks for finalisation of reservation to OBCs in the
local bodies. These include:
a) To set up a dedicated commission to conduct a rigorous empirical inquiry into the nature and implications of
the backwardness in local bodies;
b) To specify the proportion of reservation required in local bodies in light of recommendations of the
commission, so as not to fall foul of overbreadth;
c) To ensure reservation for SCs/STs/OBCs taken together does not exceed an aggregate of 50 per cent of the
total seats.
These triple test/conditions were outlined by the Supreme Court in the case of Vikas Kishanrao Gawali vs. State of
Maharashtra and others, decided on March 4, 2021.
Source
8. History, Art and Culture

1) Consider the following statements regarding Ahom kingdom.
1. The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam.
2. It was a multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra
valley.
3. Ahoms had a very friendly relations with the Mughals.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam for nearly 600 years, from the early 13th
century to the early 19th century. This was a prosperous, multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper
and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra valley, surviving on rice cultivation in its fertile lands.
The Ahoms engaged in a series of conflicts with the Mughals from 1615-1682, starting from the reign of Jahangir
till the reign of Aurangzeb. One of the major early military conflicts was in January 1662, where the Mughals won
a partial victory, conquering parts of Assam and briefly occupying Garhgaon, the Ahom capital.
The counter-offensive to reclaim lost Ahom territories started under Ahom King Swargadeo Chakradhwaja Singha.
After the Ahoms enjoyed some initial victories, Aurangzeb dispatched Raja Ram Singh I of Jaipur in 1669 to
recapture the lost territory — eventually resulting in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list.
1. Intangible cultural heritage ascribes importance to the wealth of knowledge and skills that is
transmitted through it from one generation to the next.
2. The Convention for the Safeguarding of the intangible cultural heritage (ICH) was adopted by the
General Conference of UNESCO for preserving intangible heritage from across the globe.
3. The list officially recognize the standard of excellence or exclusivity.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
UNESCO defines “intangible” as “expressions that have been passed from one generation to another, have
evolved in response to their environments and contribute to giving us a sense of identity and continuity…”
It ascribes importance to “the wealth of knowledge and skills that is transmitted through it from one generation
to the next,” which necessitates their preservation. The document states that the safeguarding of an ICH means
ensuring that it “remains an active part of life for today’s generations that they can hand on to tomorrow.”
The adoption of the Convention for the Safeguarding of the ICH by the General Conference of UNESCO in 2003
was a crucial step towards preserving intangible heritage from across the globe. UNESCO’s list of Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity was established in the year 2008.
The list does not attribute or recognize any standard of excellence or exclusivity.
Source
3) The intangible cultural heritage that can be inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage
(ICH) include
1. oral traditions
2. performing arts
3. social practices
4. festive events
5. knowledge and practices concerning nature
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: d)
Baguette — the staple French bread — was inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage (ICH). The
baguette is a long and thin loaf made of flour, water, salt and yeast, and is consumed as a staple in France.
According to an official document by UNESCO, ‘intangible cultural heritage’ includes “oral traditions, performing
arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe or the
knowledge and skills to produce traditional crafts.”
Source
4) What are the criteria for an intangible cultural heritage to be inscribed in the UNESCO’s list of Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
1. It must be recognized by communities and groups as part of their cultural heritage.
2. It must be transmitted from generation to generation and be constantly recreated by communities and
groups in response to their environment.
3. It must provide a sense of identity and continuity, thus promoting respect for cultural diversity and
human creativity.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
There are three criteria for an intangible cultural heritage to be inscribed in the United Nations list. The entity
must “(1) be recognized by communities, groups and, in some cases, individuals as part of their cultural
heritage, (2) be transmitted from generation to generation and be constantly recreated by communities and
groups in response to their environment, their interaction with nature and their history and (3) provide them
with a sense of identity and continuity, thus promoting respect for cultural diversity and human creativity,”
according to UNESCO report.
Source
5) Which of the following elements from India have been listed on the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural
Heritage of Humanity?
1. Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat
2. Kolkata’s Durga Puja
3. Kumbh Mela
4. Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur
5. Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)
What are India’s intangible cultural symbols on the UNESCO list?

This year, India nominated Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat, for
inscription on UNESCO’s ICH list.
The elements which have been on the representative list of intangible cultural heritage from India in the past
decade include Kolkata’s Durga Puja (2021), Kumbh Mela (2017), Navroz (2016), Yoga (2016), traditional brass
and copper craft of utensil-making among coppersmiths of Punjab (2014), Sankirtana, a ritual musical
performance of Manipur (2013), and the Buddhist chanting of Ladakh (2012).
Before 2011, the list included Chhau dance, Kalbelia folk songs and dance of Rajasthan, and Mudiyettu, a dance
drama from Kerala (2010), Ramman, a religious festival and theatre performance of Garhwal in the Himalayas
(2009), and Kutiyattam or Sanskrit theatre, and Vedic chanting (2008).
Ramlila, a traditional performance of Ramayana, was also included in 2008.
Source

1. Several autonomous bodies within the Ministry of Culture actively function towards promoting and
preserving intangible cultural heritage within India.
2. Sangeet Natak Akademi files nominations of intangible cultural entities from India to UNESCO’s
Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
3. The Ministry of Culture launched the Scheme for Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage and
Diverse Cultural Traditions of India that aims to enhance “awareness and interest” in the safeguarding,
promotion and propagation of intangible cultural heritage.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Who manages nominations to the UNESCO list in India?

According to a press release by PIB, several autonomous bodies within the Ministry of Culture actively function
towards promoting and preserving intangible cultural heritage within the country.
The Ministry of Culture has appointed the Sangeet Natak Akademi, an autonomous organisation under the
Ministry of Culture, as nodal office for matters relating to the intangible cultural heritage including for
preparation of the nomination dossiers for the Representative List of UNESCO.
The Ministry of Culture also launches regular schemes, in an attempt to preserve, protect and promote
intangible cultural heritage in the country. Among them, the “Scheme for Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural
Heritage and Diverse Cultural Traditions of India” aims to “professionally” enhance “awareness and interest” in
the safeguarding, promotion and propagation of ICH.
Source Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding the pilgrimage site Unakoti.

1. Unakoti located in Tripura is famously known as the ‘Angkor Wat of the North-East’.
2. It has Shaivite rock carvings figures and images of gods and goddesses.
3. It has been recognised as a UNESCO world heritage.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Unakoti, famously known as the ‘Angkor Wat of the North-East’, is

vying for a UNESCO world heritage tag with both the government and
ASI working to preserve the lakhs of Shaivite rock carvings figures and
images of gods and goddesses. “The structures of the rock-cut
sculptures are gigantic and have distinct mongoloid features and display
almost the same mystical charm as the spellbinding figures in the
Angkor Wat temple of Cambodia. So call it the Angkor Wat of North-
East.
The Centre has approached UNESCO to declare it a World Heritage

Site
The images found at Unakoti are of two types, namely rock-carved figures and stone images.
Source
8) ‘Ashtadhyayi’, an ancient text written by

a) Chanakya
b) Maitreyi
c) Panini
d) Kapila
Solution: c)
‘Ashtadhyayi’, an ancient text written by the scholar Panini towards the end of the 4th century BC. Written more
than 2,000 years ago, the ‘Ashtadhyayi’ is a linguistics text that set the standard for how Sanskrit was meant to be
written and spoken. It delves deep into the language’s phonetics, syntax and grammar, and also offers a ‘language
machine’, where you can feed in the root and suffix of any Sanskrit word, and get grammatically correct words
and sentences in return.
Source

1. Tentative list of UNCESO World Heritage Sites is an “inventory of those properties which each State
Party intends to consider for nomination”.
2. India now has more than 50 sites on UNESCO Tentative List, which indicates rich cultural and natural
wealth of India.
3. The Sun Temple at Modhera has the architectural and decorative details representing the Solanki
style.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Gujarat’s Vadnagar town, the iconic Sun Temple at Modhera, and the rock cut sculptures of Unakoti in Tripura
have been added to the tentative list of UNCESO World Heritage Sites.
The UNESCO tentative list is an “inventory of those properties which each State Party intends to consider for
nomination”.
“With this, India now has 52 sites on UNESCO Tentative List. The list indicates rich cultural and natural wealth
of India and shows huge diversity of our heritage.
The Sun Temple, Modhera dedicated to Surya Dev, is the earliest of such temples which set trends in
architectural and decorative details, representing the Solanki style at its best.
The Sun Temple is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji taluka of
Mehsana district. This east-facing temple is built with bright yellow sandstone.
Source
10) Bhasha Samman awards are given by the Sahitya Akademi. Which of the following statements best describes
the Bhasha Samman awards?
a) It recognises young writers under the age of 35
b) It is conferred on persons in recognition of their substantial contribution in the field of Persian, Arabic,
Pali and Prakrit languages
c) It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of classical and medieval literature
d) It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of tribal languages
Solution: c)
Bhasha Samman awards will be given to scholars who have done valuable work in the field of classical and
medieval literature.
Source

1. Centrally Protected Monuments or Sites in India are under the protection of the Archaeological Survey
of India (ASI) and are regularly inspected by the ASI officials to assess their present condition.
2. Tamil Nadu has the largest number of Centrally Protected Monuments in India.
3. Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment) Act, 2010 prohibits the
construction within 500 metres around a protected monument.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of Centrally Protected Monuments which have been encroached upon,
closely followed by Tamil Nadu. Uttar Pradesh also has the largest number of Centrally Protected monuments
in the country at 743, while Tamil Nadu has 412.
India has a total of 3,695 Centrally Protected Monuments or Sites in the country, under the protection of the
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
The monuments are regularly inspected by the ASI officials to assess their present condition.
The ASI regulates construction around the protected monuments through the Ancient Monuments and
Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment) Act, 2010. The Act prohibits the construction within 100 metres
around a protected monument. The next 300-metre radius is regulated too.
Source
9. States
1) Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was
launched by which state?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Jharkhand
c) Bihar
d) West Bengal
Solution: c)
Bihar Chief Minister recently launched the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Rajgir. It is a unique and ambitious
initiative to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
The scheme will help to harvest the excess water of the Ganga during the monsoon season. The water will be
stored in reservoirs in Rajgir and Gaya before being channelled to three treatment-and-purification plants, from
where it will be supplied to the public.
Har Ghar Gangajal is part of the Bihar government’s Jal, Jeevan, Hariyali scheme.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Hatti community.

1. The Hattis got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat and wool
at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns.
2. They are declared as Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) from Himachal Pradesh.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Parliament clears Bill to grant Scheduled Tribe status to Hatti community in Himachal Pradesh
Who are the Hattis?

The Hattis are a close-knit community who got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown
vegetables, crops, meat and wool etc. at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns.
The Hatti community, whose men generally don a distinctive white headgear during ceremonies, is cut off from
Sirmaur by two rivers called Giri and Tons. Tons divides it from the Jaunsar Bawar area of Uttarakhand. The Hattis
who live in the trans-Giri area and Jaunsar Bawar in Uttarakhand were once part of the royal estate of Sirmaur
until Jaunsar Bawar’s separation in 1815.
Statement 2 is wrong.
10. Agriculture
1. In India, the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
2. Generally Millets are high in proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
3. The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly
(UNGA).
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the Agriculture Ministry declared
millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
The Story of Millets published by the Karnataka State Department of Agriculture in association with ICAR-Indian
Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad, says, “Millets contain 7-12% protein, 2-5% fat, 65-75% carbohydrates
and 15-20% dietary fibre.
On March 3, 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to declare 2023 as the
International Year of Millets. The proposal was moved by India, and was supported by 72 countries.
Source

1. Wheat is considered a ‘living grain’.
2. Wheat tends to gain some weight during storage due to absorption of moisture.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Wheat, considered a ‘living grain’, tends to gain some weight during storage. This is known as ‘storage gain’
and it mostly happens due to absorption of moisture. There are three parts of the grain — bran (outer layer rich
in fibre), germ (inner layer rich in nutrients) and endosperm (bulk of the kernel which contains minerals and
vitamins). The moisture is mostly absorbed by the endosperm.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Krishi-Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS).
1. Krishi-DSS is being developed on the lines of Gati Shakti, using RISAT-1A and VEDAS of the Department
of Space.
2. It will use geospatial technologies and related databases for enhancing evidence-based decision-
making capability of all the stakeholders in the agriculture sector.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and Department of Space signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) to develop the Krishi-Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS) using geospatial technologies
and related databases for enhancing evidence-based decision making capability of all the stakeholders in the
agriculture sector.
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is developing Krishi-DSS, a decision support system, on the lines
of Gati Shakti, using RISAT-1A and VEDAS of Department of Space. This will enhance the evidence-based
decision-making capability of all the stakeholders in the agriculture sector by way of integration with MOSDAC
and BHUVAN (Geo-platform) of ISRO and systems of ICAR.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Golden rice.

1. Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the
beta carotene content.
2. It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
3. India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified
golden rice.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta
carotene content.
Golden Rice can help in the fight against vitamin A deficiency (VAD), particularly among the people who depend
mostly on rice for nourishment.
Philippines became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified
golden rice.

1. The National Farmers Day in India is celebrated to honour the 2nd Prime Minister of India Lal Bahadur
Shastri.
2. The slogan Jai Jawan Jai Kisan was introduced by Lal Bahadur Shastri.
3. In India, Agriculture, including agricultural education and research comes under the State list in the 7th
schedule of the Constitution.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
11. Defence and Security

1) Consider the following statements regarding Emergency Procurement (EP) through the fast-track
procurement (FTP) route in India.
1. Emergency Procurement powers were granted to the armed forces by the Union Defence Ministry.
2. Under the FTP route, the armed forces can procure weapons systems without any financial limits, on an
urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
3. Such acquisitions are applicable only from indigenous sources.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Emergency financial powers were granted to the armed forces by the Defence Ministry in the past on three
occasions, post the Uri surgical strikes in 2016, the Balakot air strike in 2019 and the 2020 standoff with China in
eastern Ladakh.
Under the FTP route, the forces can procure weapons systems upto ₹300 crores on an “urgent basis without
any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
Such acquisitions are applicable for both indigenous sources and ex-import.
FTP acquisitions can be categorised as under.

. Procurement of equipment already inducted into Service.
. Procurement of new equipment.
. Procurement of weapon system/platform, which is in service in a friendly foreign country and is available for
transfer/lease or sale.
Source Source

1. Six Scorpene submarines are being built under Project-75 by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
(MDL) under technology transfer from Naval Group of France.
2. All the Scorpene submarines have Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) modules included in them.
3. INS Arihant Is India’s first indigenous nuclear ballistic missile submarine.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The fifth Scorpène-class conventional submarine, Vagir, was delivered to the Navy by Mazagon Dock
Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) Mumbai on December 20.
Six Scorpene submarines are being built under Project-75 by MDL under technology transfer from Naval Group
of France. The first submarine INS Kalvari was commissioned in December 2017, second submarine
INS Khanderi in September 2019, third one INS Karanj in March 2021 and the fourth one INS Vela joined service
in November 2021.
The Navy currently has 15 conventional and one nuclear submarine in service. It includes seven Russian Kilo class
submarines, four German HDW submarines, four Scorpene class submarines and the indigenous nuclear ballistic
missile submarine INS Arihant.
The Navy has drawn up plans to install Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) modules on all Scorpene submarines
as they go for their refit beginning with INS Kalvari in the next couple of years to enhance their endurance.
Source
3) Which of the following diseases can be caused through biological warfare?

1. Anthrax
2. Botulism
3. Smallpox
4. Plague
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Bioterrorism agents are pathogenic organisms or biological toxins that are used to produce death and disease in
humans, animals, or plants.
Bioterrorist attacks could be caused by virtually any pathogenic microorganism.
The bioterrorist agents with highest priority are the causes of anthrax (Bacillus anthracis), botulism (Clostridium
botulinum), plague (Yersinia pestis), smallpox (variola major), tularaemia (Francisella tularensis) and viral
haemorrhagic fevers (filoviruses and arena viruses).
4) Which of the following are India’s aircraft carriers?

1. INS Vikrant
2. INS Viraat
3. INS Vagir
4. INS Vikramaditya
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
India’s first aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant (British-built). Its replacement, INS Viraat (British-built).
INS Vikramaditya (Russian-built) is a medium-sized STOBAR-type aircraft carrier, capable of both fleet air
defence and land attack, carrying up to 30 aircraft and helicopters.
Source
12. Reports and Indices

1) The India Development Report, was recently released by
a) NITI Ayog
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) World Bank
d) International Monetary Fund
Solution: c)
The World Bank in its latest India Development Report titled ‘Navigating the Storm’ lifted its growth forecast for
India’s economy this year to 6.9%, after having downgraded it to 6.5% in October, citing resilience in economic
activity despite a deteriorating external environment.
Source
13. Maps / Places

1) The pacific Islands can be divided on the basis of physical and human geography into which of the following
parts?
1. Melanesia
2. Micronesia
3. Polynesia
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The islands are divided on the basis of physical and

human geography into three distinct parts —
Micronesia, Melanesia and Polynesia.
The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific
Ocean.
2) Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in

a) Sikkim
b) Ladakh
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Himachal Pradesh
Solution: c)
Yangtse in the Tawang sector of Arunachal Pradesh has been

repeatedly targeted by Chinese PLA troops. Yangtse is one of the 25
contested areas along the 3488-km Line of Actual Control between the two
countries, stretching from the Western Sector to Middle Sector to Eastern
Sector.
Source
3) Bangladesh shares land boundary with which of the following Indian states.
1. West Bengal
2. Assam
3. Tripura
4. Nagaland
5. Mizoram
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: b)
Bangladesh share its land border Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and West Bengal.

1. Afghanistan shares its land boundary with only three central Asian countries.
2. Afghanistan shares its longest land boundary with Iran.
3. The Salma Dam, also called the Afghan-India Friendship Dam is located on the Hari Rud river.
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Afghanistan shares its land boundary with three Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan,
and Tajikistan. Afghanistan shares its longest land boundary with Pakistan.

1. The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
2. Scarborough Shoal is located south of Spratly
Islands.
3. More than two nations are involved in the dispute
over the Spratly Islands.
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
China not only challenges international maritime laws in the

South China Sea, but also confronts Japan over the Senkaku
Islands. Six nations, including China and Taiwan, are
involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands, which are
supposedly sitting on vast reserves of oil and natural gas.
China has vigorously militarised some portions of the
disputed isles, islets and coral reefs; and countries like
Vietnam and the Philippines are anxious not to be left
behind.
6) The Line of Actual Control (LAC) that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory,
passes through which of the following states?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Uttarakhand
4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Ladakh
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: d)
The LAC separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory. It is divided into the Eastern
Sector (Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim), Middle Sector (Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh) and Western Sector
(Ladakh).
India and China do not agree on the LAC.
In the Eastern Sector, the alignment of the LAC is along the McMahon Line, which takes its name from Sir Henry
McMahon, foreign secretary of British India, who drew the 890-km line as the border between British India and
Tibet at the 1914 Simla Convention Between Great Britain, China, and Tibet.
Source
7) Which of the following countries are part of Nordic countries?

1. Finland
2. Sweden
3. Norway
4. Poland
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
The Nordic countries are a geographical and cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. It includes
the sovereign states of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden; the autonomous territories of the Faroe
Islands and Greenland; and the autonomous region of Åland.
8) Consider the following statements regarding the Geography of Uzbekistan.

1. Uzbekistan is a doubly landlocked country located in Central Asia.
2. Both Aral Sea and Caspian Sea shares border with Uzbekistan.
3. Amu Darya and Syr Darya are the major rivers that flow through Uzbekistan.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Uzbekistan is a doubly landlocked country located in Central Asia.

It is surrounded by five landlocked countries: Kazakhstan to
the north; Kyrgyzstan to the northeast; Tajikistan to
the southeast; Afghanistan to the south; and Turkmenistan to
the southwest.
Uzbekistan is one of two doubly landlocked countries in the world

(that is, a landlocked country completely surrounded by other landlocked countries), the other
being Liechtenstein.
9) Arrange the location of the following countries from North to South.

1. Turkmenistan
2. Uzbekistan
3. Afghanistan
4. Kazakhstan
a) 4-2-1-3
b) 1-2-4-3
c) 2-4-1-3
d) 4-1-2-3
Solution: a)
14. Miscellaneous
1. Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non-government trust formed with the motive to promote Mahatma
Gandhi’s and Nelson Mandela’s values of non-violence.
2. The Gandhi Mandela Foundation instituted the Gandhi Mandela Award on the 150th birth anniversary
of MK Gandhi.
3. Gandhi Mandela Award is given to personalities who have made significant contributions in the fields
of Culture, Environment, Education, Healthcare, Sports and Innovation.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The 14th Dalai Lama was conferred the Gandhi Mandela Award 2022.
What is the Gandhi Mandela Award?

A government of India registered Trust, the Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non-profit organisation, formed
with the motive to promote Mahatma Gandhi’s and former President of South Africa Nelson Mandela’s values
of non-violence. It has constituted an international prize, the Gandhi Mandela Award.
The foundation instituted the award on the 150th birth anniversary of the Father of the Nation, MK Gandhi.
Who gets the award and how are they selected?

The award is given to personalities who have carried forward the legacies of Gandhi and Mandela by making
significant contributions in the fields of Peace, Social Welfare, Culture, Environment, Education, Healthcare,
Sports and Innovation.
Source

1. In India, the Law empower the States to undertake effective measures to mitigate the harms caused
during a medical emergency.
2. Test of proportionality is a standard of review that is invoked to keep a check on the infringement of
privacy of an individual by the state.
3. Being a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, India is bound
to take all possible measures to realise the enjoyment of “highest attainable standard of physical and mental
health” of its citizens.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The proportionality test is a standard of review that is invoked to keep a check on the infringement of bodily
integrity and privacy of an individual by the state.
The Disaster Management Act of 2005 and the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897 empower the States to undertake
effective measures to mitigate the harms caused during a medical emergency.
Being a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, India is bound to take
all possible measures to progressively realise the enjoyment of “highest attainable standard of physical and
mental health” of its citizens under Article 12 thereof.
3) Bazball method, that was recently in news is related to which sport?

a) Football
b) Cricket
c) Tennis
d) Golf
Solution: b)
Test cricket is a conservative game that often rewards patience, defensive technique and temperamental
fortitude over flair, bravado and innovation.
Bazball is a novel approach that tries to shed some of cricket’s long-standing assumptions on how to play,
specifically the approach to batting.
Instead of trying to preserve wickets, Brendon McCullum directed the English players to “go for it,” scoring as
quickly as possible. The theory behind this is that wickets are inevitable in cricket, regardless of the approach a
batter takes. The right ball can beat even the best player with the most solid defence. Hence, it is logical to
maximise scoring before that one unplayable delivery arrives.
Source

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INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................8

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 22

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 28

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 38

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 51

10. AGRICULTURE .............................................................................................................................. 57

11. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 59

12. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 61

13. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 61

14. MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................................... 65

2) Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.

3) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched e-Rupee.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.

● The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Share buyback.

Who is eligible to participate in buyback?

7) Consider the following statements.

8) Which of the following taxes are considered as Direct taxes?

VAT is an indirect tax.

9) Keki Mistry committee, that was recently in news was related to

10) Consider the following statements.

What is the yield curve?

What is yield inversion?

11) Consider the following statements.

2. Ecology and Environment

2) Consider the following statements.

4) Consider the following statements.

5) Consider the following statements.

What is the Great Barrier Reef?

6) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Grey hydrogen is produced from natural gas.

7) Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).

8) Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.

Why are tarballs found on the beaches during the monsoon?

10) Consider the following statements regarding Aichi Biodiversity Targets.

What were the Aichi Targets?

11) Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen.

What is Hydrogen fuel?

12) Consider the following statements regarding Indian roofed turtle.

14) Consider the following statements.

15) Consider the following statements regarding Marine Sponges.

16) Consider the following statements regarding Black corals.

17) Consider the following statements.

The hippopotamus is a large semiaquatic mammal native

The species is included in Appendix II of the Convention on

19) Consider the following statements regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes like this?

2) Match the following volcanoes and their location.

Here are some famous volcanoes in the world.

Mount Fuji, Japan

3) Consider the following statements.

Why are some volcanic eruptions explosive and some not?

4) Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.

How are cyclones named?

5) Consider the following statements.

Tobacco is pollinated by moths.

6) Consider the following statements.

7) Consider the following statements.

8) Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.

9) Consider the following statements.

Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.

10) Consider the following statements regarding Polar vortex.