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‫ ٔالرُسَٕب يٍ دعبئكى‬.

ِ‫اسخٕ اٌ ركٌٕ فٍٓب انفبئذ‬


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‫غزخذَ ي‬٠ ‫ذ‬٠‫سا‬ٍٛ‫و‬ٚ‫ذس‬١٘ ‫اء اخش‬ٚ‫ٌذ د‬ٚ‫رٕب‬
1- Ondansetron HCL is used for :
a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migrain
‫ئ‬١‫ اٌّؼبدح ٌٍّم‬d- Anti-emetic*
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‫ي ثبعزضٕبء‬ٛ‫ى‬١ٕ١‫ساِف‬ٍٛ‫خ ٌٍى‬١‫صبس اٌغبٔج‬٢‫غ ٘زٖ ا‬١ّ‫ع‬
2- All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :
a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
‫ذ‬٠‫ب ٔمض اٌؾذ‬١ّ١ٔ‫* أ‬d- iron deficiency anemia
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‫غزخذَ ي‬٠ Ticlopidine
3- Ticlopidine is used for :
a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
‫* ِىبفؾخ اٌظفبئؼ‬d- Antiplatelets
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‫ ثبعزضٕبء‬fibrinolytic ٟ٘ ‫ش‬١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬
4 All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :
*a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase
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‫ش ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫ش اٌّؼبدح ٌٍغجت رأص‬١‫غ ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬١ّ‫ع‬
‫خ‬١‫ؼ‬٠‫األ‬
5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
*e- Cyclophosphamide

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‫ش اٌّغزخذِخ‬١‫غ ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬١ّ‫ْ ع‬ٛ‫ّىٓ أْ رى‬٠
: ‫ح ثبعزضٕبء‬ٟٔٛ‫الالسوٕغ‬
6- All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :
a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
*d- Nedocromil Sod
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: ‫داد ثبعزضٕبء‬ٞ‫بص‬١‫غ ٘زٖ اٌؾبالد ال ػالط ِغ اٌض‬١ّ‫ع‬
7- all These cases not cure with thiazides except :
*a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia
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: ٍٟ٠ ‫ّىٓ أْ رذاس ِٓ لجً ثبعزضٕبء ِب‬٠ ‫خ‬١‫عىزخ لٍج‬
8 Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except
a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
*c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline
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: ٛ٘ .I.V ٝ‫ؼـ‬٠ ْ‫ّىٓ أ‬٠ ٞ‫ٓ اٌز‬١ٌٛ‫األٔغ‬
9 Insulin which can be given I.V. is :
ٞ‫ع اٌؼبد‬ٌٕٛ‫*ا‬a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above
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‫ب‬١ٔ‫شّب‬٠‫اء ٌّؼبٌغخ اٌال‬ٚ‫غزخذَ د‬٠
10 Drug is used for Leishmania :
*a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole
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‫ب ثبعزضٕبء‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ِؼبدح ٌٍجىز‬ٟ٘ ‫ش‬١‫غ ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬١ّ‫ع‬
11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :
*a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone
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2
‫خ ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫ؼ‬١‫ٕبد اٌـج‬١‫ع‬ٚ‫ االعزش‬ٟ٘ ٖ‫وً ٘ز‬
12 All These are natural Estrogens except :
*a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol
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‫زؼّٓ ؛‬٠ Trimethoxazole ٟ‫شبسن ف‬
13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains ;
Trimethopirm + Sulphmethoxazole
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ٟ‫ػبئ‬ٚ ‫خ لذ أصش‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫ أؽذ اٌخ‬ٛ٘ٚ
14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :
a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A
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ٌْٕٛٛ١‫ػخ ِٓ اٌى‬ّٛ‫غذ ِغ‬١ٌ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫أؽذ اٌخ‬
15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :
a- Nalidixic aci
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin
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‫غذ ٌٍظشع‬١ٌ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫أؽذ اٌخ‬
16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :
a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
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: َ‫ب ئال الٌغزا‬ِٙ‫ّىٓ اعزخذا‬٠ ‫ب ال‬ٍٙ‫٘زٖ و‬ٚ
17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :
a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
*d- INH
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3
: ً‫غزخذَ ِٓ أع‬٠ ْ‫عّبرشثزب‬
18 Sumatriptan is used for :
a- Hypertension
ٟ‫* ػالط اٌظذاع إٌظف‬b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy
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: ‫ُ ِؾفض‬٠‫ أض‬ٖٚ ٌٟ‫اؽذح ِٓ اٌزب‬ٚ ٟ٘ ‫ِب‬
19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :
*a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C
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: ‫ ثبعزضٕبء‬، ٛ‫خ ِٓ ِشع اٌشث‬٠‫لب‬ٌٍٛ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫وً ِٓ اٌزب‬
20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :
a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
*d- Salbutamol
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]ٓ١ِ‫غزب‬١ٌٙ‫ش اٌّغىٕخ ِؼبداد ا‬١‫ [غ‬NSAH ٛ٘ ٍٟ٠ ‫وً ِب‬
: ‫ثبعزضٕبء‬
21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating
antihistamine ] except :
a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
*d- Azotodin
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: ٍٟ٠ ‫ـش اٌّخذساد ثبعزضٕبء ِب‬١‫ رغ‬ٍٟ٠ ‫وً ِب‬
22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :
a- Rivotril
*b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam
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: ‫ ِب ػذا‬، ‫ط‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫خ اٌّؼبدح ٌٍف‬٠ٚ‫غ ٘زٖ األد‬١ّ‫ ع‬-
23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :
a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
*d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]
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: ٓ١‫سف‬ٌّٛ‫ؾذس ِغ ا‬٠ ‫اؽذ ِٓ األػشاع ال‬ٚ ٛ٘ٚ
24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with
morphine :
‫بي‬ٙ‫* االع‬a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting
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: ‫ األٌُ اٌؾبد‬ٟ‫خ ال رغزخذَ ف‬٠ٚ‫اؽذ ِٓ ٘زٖ األد‬ٚ ٛ٘ٚ
25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :
a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
*d- Prednisolone
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ً‫اء اٌّفؼ‬ٚ‫ اٌذ‬ٛ٘ ‫اؽذ ِٓ ٘زٖ اٌّخذساد‬ٚ ٛ٘ٚ
Myxodema‫ي‬
26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for
Myxodema
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
*c- thyroxin sod
d- propyl thiouracil
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‫ الٌؼذ اٌشبئغ‬ٟ‫ػؼ‬ِٛ ‫ ػالط‬ٛ٘ ‫ذ‬٠‫وغب‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫ً ث‬٠‫ِبدح ثٕض‬
27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for Acne Vulgaris
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28 Vit. A daily dose is 30,000 - 50,000 IU for the correction
of
deficiency and for therapy from 100,000 - 200,000 IU /
daily

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: ‫جبد‬١ِ‫اء اٌّفؼً ٌؼالط األ‬ٚ‫اٌذ‬
29- The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :
a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
*d- Metronidazole
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‫ب‬ِٙ‫ ٔغزخذ‬ٟ‫ٌّٕغ اِزظبص أوضش ِٓ اٌّخذساد اٌغبِخ اٌز‬
:
30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :
a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
*d- Charcoal
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: ‫بة اٌىجذ‬ٙ‫عشػخ ِٓ ٌمبػ اٌز‬
31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :
a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
*c- Three times / Year
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: ‫ انًخذساد‬OTC ‫انزي ْٕ ٔاحذ‬
32 Which one is OTC drug :
‫* يسكٍ ثسٍط‬a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
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‫ٓ لذ أخفؼذ‬٠‫اسفبس‬ٌٛ‫ش ِؼبد ٌٍزغٍؾ اٌذَ ِٓ ا‬١‫رأص‬
: ‫ثٕغجخ‬
33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :
a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
*c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil
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‫ب‬١ِٛ٠ ‫اؽذح‬ٚ ‫ ِشح‬ٝ‫خ رؼـ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫أؽذ اٌخ‬
34 One of the following is given once daily
a- Amorphous Insulin
*b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin

6
d- Regular Insulin
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‫ؼزّذ‬٠ ‫ اٌجالصِب‬ٟ‫ ِٓ اٌّخذساد ف‬.conc ‫اعزّشاس ؽبٌخ‬ٚ
: ٍٝ‫ػ‬
35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma
depends on :
a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
*d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
‫ ِؼذي اإلصاٌخ‬ٌٝ‫ٔغجخ ِجبششح ئ‬
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: ‫ ِؼبداد اٌزخضش ثبعزضٕبء‬ٟ٘ ٖ‫وً ٘ز‬
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :
a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
*d- Dipyridamol
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: ‫ ثبعزضٕبء‬، َ‫ؾبد اٌذ‬١‫ اٌّؼبدح ٌٍظف‬ٟ٘ ٖ‫وً ٘ز‬
37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :
a- Dipyridamo
b- Aspirin
*c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine
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ْٕ
38 Ferrograde is :
‫ص‬ٚ‫ذ‬٠‫زبد اٌؾذ‬٠‫* وجش‬a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate
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ْٕ
39 Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
*d- Qunidine

7
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‫ ن‬.‫ذ‬١‫خ ػًّ ٌف‬١ٌ‫ آ‬ٟ٘ ‫ِب‬


40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?
Vit. K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation
factors by hepatic cells.
ِٓ ًِ‫ا‬ٛ‫غ ٌٍزخضش ػ‬١ّ‫ رغ‬ٟ‫ب ف‬١‫سا أعبع‬ٚ‫ ن د‬.ٓ١ِ‫زب‬١‫ف‬
‫خ‬٠‫ب اٌىجذ‬٠‫اٌخال‬
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: ٍٟ٠ ‫ وً ِب ػذا ِب‬ٟ‫ي رغجت ف‬ٛ‫ذ ِذساد اٌج‬٠‫بص‬١‫اٌض‬
41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :
a- Hypokalamia
b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
*f- Hypernatremia
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‫ ػذَ ارغبق‬ٍٝ‫ؼزّذ ػ‬٠ ‫اٌّؼبٍِخ ِغ ِىبفؾخ اٌّخذساد‬
: ‫ٔجؼبد اٌمٍت ِب ػذا‬
42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on
except :
a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
‫* ج َس انًشٌض‬c- Patient sex
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: ً‫ ِٓ لج‬ٟ‫غ‬١‫ٓ ثشىً سئ‬١‫وغ‬ٛ‫غ‬٠‫ د‬ٍٝ‫اٌمؼبء ػ‬
43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :
a- Kidney
b- Liver
‫* كال‬c- Both
d- None of the above
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: ‫خ‬١ٌ‫ ٌألعجبة اٌزب‬.I.V ‫شد‬٠ Dobutamine
44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :
*a- It is not stable in the gastric PH
‫ اٌّؼذح‬ٟ‫ػخ ف‬ّٛ‫ دسعخ اٌؾ‬ٟ‫غذ ِغزمشح ف‬١ٌ ‫ب‬ٙٔ‫ا‬
b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly

8
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: trimetren ‫ وأعجبة‬Amilorid
45- Amilorid as trimetren causes :
a- CNS disturbance
*b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]
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ُ‫ز‬٠ ٗٔ‫ّىٓ اْ رغجت ػشسا فا‬٠ ‫ش‬١‫ أوضش اٌؼمبل‬ٛ٘ ‫ِب‬
) OTC ( ‫خ‬١‫طف‬ٚ‫خ اال‬٠ٚ‫ئػـبء االد‬
46- What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given
OTC ?
a- Captopril
*b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin
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‫ اٌّخذساد‬ٟ‫ ٔفظ رؼبؿ‬ٛ٘ ‫خ وّب‬٠‫ئدِبْ اٌّخذساد اٌّبد‬
47- Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse
‫ؼ‬١‫* طؾ‬a- True
b- false
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ذ؟‬٠‫بص‬١‫ي اٌض‬ٛ‫ٓ ِٓ ِذساد اٌج‬١ٕ‫أروش اص‬
48- Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?
1- Chlorothiazide 2- Hydrochlorothiazide
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ٍٍ‫يبْٕ انفشق ث‬
49- What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?
‫ يشاد ٌٕيٍب‬4 QID = 4 times / day
‫ سبعبد‬6 ‫ ثعذ كم‬Q6H = every after 6 hours
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‫خ؟‬١ٌ‫بد اٌزب‬٠‫ٓ اٌّؼبدح ٌٍفـش‬١‫ اٌفشق ث‬ٛ٘ ‫ِب‬
50 What is the difference between the following anti-
fungal ?
Miconazole = local & systemic ‫انًحهٍخ ٔخٓبصٌخ‬
Amphotercin = parenteral only ‫ثبنحمٍ فمط‬
Griseofulvin = oral ًً‫ف‬
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9
: ‫خ‬١ٌ‫ش اٌزب‬١‫ اٌؼمبل‬ٍٝ‫ ِإششا ػ‬ٟ‫رؼـ‬
51 Give the indication of the following drugs :
1- Gimfibrazole for hyperlipidaemia
2- Cisapride for gastro-oesophegyal reflux
3- Fluoxetin SSRI [ selective serotonin reuptake inh.]
( Antidepressant )
4- Carbimazole for hyperthyrodism
5- Imipramine Tricyclic anti-depressant
6- Ipratropium Br. Anti muscarinic as broncho-dilator
--------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫خ ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫ؼ‬٠‫ْ ٌالأل‬ٚ‫غ ِؼبد‬١ّ‫ايع‬
52 All are anti-metabolic except :
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
*e- Cyclophosphamide
--------------------------------------------------------------------
ْٕ
53 Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
*b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin ٌٍ‫ خٍم انسٍفبنٕسجٕس‬2ND
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above

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‫إخز‬٠ ْ‫ّىٓ أ‬٠ ٟ‫خ اٌز‬٠ٛ١‫ذ اٌّؼبداد اٌؾ‬٠‫ص‬ٛ‫ى‬١ٍ‫غ‬ٕٛ١ِ‫أ‬
‫ك اٌفُ؟‬٠‫ػٓ ؿش‬
54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?
a- Gentamycin
*b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin

--------------------------------------------------------------------

10
ٍٝ‫ش ِّبصً ػ‬١‫ ٌٗ رأص‬ٞٛ١‫ اٌّؼبد اٌؾ‬Teicoplanin
: ٌٟ‫ اٌزب‬ٛ‫ إٌؾ‬ٍٝ‫خ ػ‬١‫غبث‬٠‫اٌغشاَ ئ‬
55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram
positive as :
*a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
d- Kanamycin
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‫ٓ؟‬١ٍ‫اؽذ ال اٌززشاعى‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?
a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
*d- Clindamycin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫َ؟‬ٛ١‫اد اٌىبٌغ‬ٕٛ‫اؽذ ال ؽبطشاد ل‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?
a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
*d- Cinnarzine
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫بٔخ ِغفشح‬١‫ط‬ٚ ‫غزخذَ ٌؼالط‬٠ Mesalazine
58- Mesalazine is used for the treatment & maintenance of
remission
ً‫ يٍ أنزٓبة انمٕنٌٕ أنزمشح‬of Ulcerative Colitis
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ٕبد اٌمبثٍخ‬١ِ‫زب‬١‫اٌف‬ٚ ‫خ‬١ٕ٘‫ َْ اٌّبدح اٌذ‬4 ‫أروش‬
‫ثبْ؟‬ٚ‫ٌٍز‬
59- Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?
Vit. A, D ,E & K
--------------------------------------------------------------------
60- Imipenam [ Carbapenam ]
It is the first Thiemamycin Beta - Lactam anti-biotic
‫ اوزبَ اٌّؼبدح‬-- ‫زب‬١‫ ث‬Thiemamycin ‫ي‬ٚ‫ب ا‬ٙٔ‫ا‬
‫خ‬١‫بئ‬١‫ٌالألؽ‬

11
‫ ثبعزضٕبء ِب‬.T.B ‫ ػالط‬ٟ‫خ اٌّغزخذِخ ف‬٠ٚ‫غ ٘زٖ األد‬١ّ‫ع‬
: ٍٟ٠
61- All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :
*a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫ ثبعزضٕبء‬ٟٕ١ٌٛ‫خ اٌّؼبدح ٌالٌى‬٠ٚ‫غ ٘زٖ األد‬١ّ‫ع‬
62- All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :
a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
*d- Dobutamin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫خ ِب ػذا‬٠ٛ١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌّؼبداد اٌؾ‬
63- All Of These are antibiotics except :
*a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫خ‬٠‫ط ٔمض إٌّبػخ اٌجشش‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫اؽذ ٌف‬ٚ ‫اء‬ٚ‫غزخذَ د‬٠ ‫ٕ٘بن‬
:
64- There is one drug is used for HIV :
*a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫؟‬Suprax ‫ؽذح‬ٚ ٟ٘ ‫ِب‬
65- Which one is Suprax ?
*a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫؟‬Sporanox ‫ؽذح‬ٚ ٟ٘‫ِب‬
66- Which one is Sporanox ?
a- Cefixime
*b- Itraconazole
--------------------------------------------------------------------

12
‫ ػالط اٌغزاَ ثبعزضٕبء‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ِٙ‫ّىٓ اعزخذا‬٠ ‫ب ال‬ٍٙ‫ٖرٖ و‬ٚ
67- All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :
a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
*d- INH

--------------------------------------------------------------------
: ٓ٠‫خش‬٢‫عذ ِضً ا‬ٌٟ ٖ‫اؽذح ِٓ ٘ز‬ٚ
68- One of these is not like the others :
a-Timolol Non – selective
*b- Acebutalol Selective Beta Blocker
‫وش‬ٍٛ‫زب ث‬١‫ ث‬ٟ‫ االٔزمبئ‬Acebutalol
c- Labetolol Non – selective
d- Betaxolol Non – selective
-----------------------------------------------------------------
‫ذ؟‬٠‫ص‬ٛ‫ى‬١ٍ‫غ‬ٕٛ١ِ‫غذ أ‬١ٌ ٟ٘ٚ
69- Which is not Aminoglycoside ?
a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
*d- Lymecyclin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫د‬ٞ‫سا‬ٍٛ‫و‬ٚ‫ذس‬١٘ ٓ١‫زب ٘غز‬١‫ث‬
70- Betahistine HCL
‫ اٌّشع‬Mieniere‫* ي‬a- For Mieniere disease
b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ خظُ؟‬HT35 ‫اؽذ ال‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
71- Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?
a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
*c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron
--------------------------------------------------------------------

13
‫ك اٌفُ؟‬٠‫غذ ِؼبدح ٌٍزغٍؾ اٌذَ ػٓ ؿش‬١ٌ ٟ٘ٚ
72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?
a- Warfarin
*b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone

َ‫جب‬٠‫بص‬٠‫ؼ؟ اٌذ‬١‫ّب اٌظؾ‬ٙ٠‫أ‬


73 Which is correct ? Diazepam
a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
*d- Is not used for long term
ً٠ٛ‫ األعً اٌـ‬ٟ‫ال رغزخذَ ف‬
--------------------------------------------------------------------
َٛ٠ / ُ‫ ع‬4 ٛ٘ ‫ي‬ِٛ‫زب‬١‫ ٌٍجبساع‬ٜٛ‫اٌغشػخ اٌمظ‬
74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 Gm / day

--------------------------------------------------------------------
: ٟ٘ ‫ ِٓ لجً ٌغٕخ ِىبفؾخ اإلس٘بة‬.T.B ِٓ ‫ِذح اٌؼالط‬
75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :
a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
*d- 6 months
--------------------------------------------------------------------
ٓ١ِ‫ثب‬ٚ‫ خظُ اٌذ‬ٛ٘ ‫ذ‬١ِ‫ثشا‬ٍٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ز‬١ِ
ٚ ] . V.C[ ‫ء ِشوض‬ٟ‫ب ِٓ خالي ِٕغ اٌم‬٠‫األفؼبي ِشوض‬
]CTZ[ ‫ َعزمجالد اٌضٔبد ِٕـمخ‬ّٛ١‫ ش‬ٍٝ‫ب األفؼبي ػ‬١‫ـ‬١‫ِؾ‬
76 Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist
acts centrally by blocking Vomiting Center [ V.C. ] and
peripherally acts on the Chemo-Receptor Trigger Zone [
CTZ ]
to be used as anti-emetic.
.‫الستخدامها لمكافحة مقيئ‬
-------------------------------------------------

14
: ًّ‫ اٌؾ‬ٟ‫اؽذ ِؼبد اعزـجبة ف‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :
a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chlorphenramine
*d- Ciprofloxacin

--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫اء؟‬ٚ‫خ ٌٍذ‬٠ٛ١‫ف االربؽخ اٌؾ‬٠‫ رؼش‬ٛ٘ ‫ِب‬
78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?
Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug
absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other
route in a certain period of time .
OR : It is the conc. of the drug in the blood in a certain
period of time
‫ رشىً عضءا ِٓ ٔشؾ ِٓ اٌّخذساد‬ٟ‫خ اٌز‬١ّ‫ اٌى‬ٟ٘
ٜ‫ٌخ أخش‬ٚ‫ د‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٚ‫ب اٌذَ ِٓ خالي األِؼبء أ‬ٙ‫ّزظ‬٠
.‫لذ‬ٌٛ‫ٕخ ِٓ ا‬١‫ فزشح ِؼ‬ٟ‫ك ف‬٠‫اٌـش‬
‫ ثؼغ‬ٟ‫ اٌذَ ف‬ٟ‫ ِٓ اٌّخذساد ف‬.conc ٗٔ‫ ئ‬: ٚ‫أ‬
ِٓ‫فزشح ِٓ اٌض‬
-------------------------------------------------
‫؟‬ٞ‫ اٌّخذساد اٌزغُّ اٌىجذ‬ٍٝ‫ ٌٍؾش ػ‬.ٓ١‫ اٌغبثم‬ٟ‫ؼـ‬٠
79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?
1- Paracetamol
2- Ketoconazol
3- Rifampcin
4- Quinolones
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫؟‬ٍٞٛ‫ اٌّخذساد اٌى‬ٍٝ‫ ٌٍؾش ػ‬.ٓ١‫ اٌغبثم‬ٟ‫ؼـ‬٠
80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?
Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ْ ٌّىبفؾخ وً ِٓ اٌؼٕبطش‬ٕٛ‫ ؽت ٌذسعخ اٌغ‬ٟ‫أػـ‬
‫خ‬٠‫اٌزبي‬
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :
a- Heparin Protamine Sulphate
b- Paracetamol Acetyl cystine
c- Warfarin Vit. K
d- Morphine Naloxone
--------------------------------------------------------------------

15
B12 ٍٍ‫يبْٕاألسى انعهًً نفٍزبي‬
82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?
Cyanocobolamine
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫خ‬٠‫ط ٔمض إٌّبػخ اٌجشش‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫غزخذَ ٌف‬٠ ٓ٠‫د‬ٛ‫ف‬ٚ‫ذ‬٠‫ص‬
83 Zidovudine is used for HIV
--------------------------------------------------------------------

‫ اٌفمشاء؟‬ٝ‫ ٌالِزضبي اٌّشػ‬ٕٝ‫ِب ِؼ‬


84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?
The patient did not take the medication properly [ not
proper
dose, not proper time ] may be due to the dose regimen is
not
easy or the dose is high, or the side effects is clear
ُ١ٍ‫ؼ [ال اٌغ‬١‫اء ثشىً طؾ‬ٚ‫أخز اٌذ‬٠ ‫غ ال‬٠‫اٌّش‬
َ‫غخ ٌٕظب‬١‫ْ ٔز‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫لذ إٌّبعت] لذ‬ٌٛ‫ظ ا‬١ٌٚ ، ‫عشػخ‬
‫ظ‬١ٌ ‫اٌغشػخ‬
‫ش‬١‫خ غ‬١‫صبس اٌغبٔج‬٢‫ ا‬ٚ‫ أ‬، ‫خ‬١ٌ‫ عشػخ ػب‬ٚ‫ً أ‬ٙ‫ِٓ اٌغ‬
‫اػؾخ‬ٚ
-------------------------------------------------
ْٕ
85 Fluxotine is :
Prozac is selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor
‫خ ِضجؾ ئػبدح اِزظبص‬١‫ٓ االٔزمبئ‬١ٔٛ‫ر‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫ اٌغ‬ٛ٘ ‫صان‬ٚ‫ثش‬
--------------------------------------------------------------------
ْٕ
86 Omeprazole is
Losec is a proton pump inhibitor
ْٛ‫ر‬ٚ‫ ِضجـبد ِؼخخ اٌجش‬ٟ٘ Losec
---------------------------------------------------------
‫رِخ؟‬ٌٛ‫ رغجت ا‬ٟ‫ٓ ِٓ األِشاع اٌز‬١ٕ‫أروش اص‬
87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?
‫ انفشم انكهٕي‬1- Renal Failure
ًَ‫ لصٕس أنمهت األحزمب‬2- Congestive Heart failure
--------------------------------------------------------------------

16
‫ اٌزفبػالد اٌّخذساد؟‬-- ‫ اٌّخذساد‬ٍٝ‫ئػـبء أِضٍخ ػ‬
88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?
1- Warfarin Aspirin
2- Insulin B-Blockers
3- Heparin Aspirin & Ampicillin
4- Warfarin Vit. K
5- Warfarin Phenobarbital
6- Spironolactone Digoxin
7- ACEI Pot. Sparing diuretics

--------------------------------------------------------------------
:‫اعُ ػبَ ي‬
89 Generic name of :
a-Vit. B1 Thiamine
b-Vit. B2 Riboflavin
c-Vit. B6 Pyridoxin
d-Vit. B12 Cyanocobolamine
--------------------------------------------------------------------
ٍٟ٠ ‫ ثبعزضٕبء ِب‬ٟ‫ٓ ث‬١ِ‫ي اٌىبال‬ٍٛ‫ٔبد ِؾ‬ٛ‫ب ِى‬ٍٙ‫٘زٖ و‬
:
90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P.
except :
a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
*e- Sod. Sulphate
--------------------------------------------------------------------
:‫ب ي‬١‫ػؼ‬ِٛ َ‫غزخذ‬٠ ٓ١‫ٕبف‬١‫اٌزشث‬
91 Terbinafine is used topically for :
a- Eczema
b- Candida
‫خ‬٠‫* االٔزبٔبد اٌفـش‬c- Fungal infections

--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ اٌؾًّ؟‬ٟ‫ظ ِؼبد اعزـجبة ف‬١ٌ ‫اؽذ‬ٚ ٛ٘ٚ
92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?
a- Captopril
b- Enalpril

17
c- Lisinopril
*d- Methyldopa
--------------------------------------------------------------------
]ٟٕ٠‫س‬ٛ‫ و‬ٞٛ‫بة اٌشئ‬ٙ‫االٌز‬ٚ ٞٛ‫ [اٌشئ‬ٟ‫اٌزشاث‬
93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]
a- Virus
b- Bacteria
ٍٟ١‫*اٌـف‬c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum
--------------------------------------------------------------------

‫خ؟‬٠ٛ١‫ظ ٌٍّؼبداد اٌؾ‬١ٌ ٍٟ٠ ‫ِّب‬


94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?
a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
*d- Finasteride
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫عزبد‬ٚ‫ذح فشؽ رٕغظ اٌجش‬١ّ‫غزخذَ ٌؾ‬٠ ‫اؽذ‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
[ BPHP ]
a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
*d- Finasteride

--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ٓ ثبعزضٕبء‬٠‫س‬ٛ‫عج‬ٌٛ‫فب‬١‫ً اٌضبٌش ِٓ اٌغ‬١‫ اٌغ‬ٟ٘ ٖ‫وً ٘ز‬
96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :
a- Cefixime
*b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫غذ ؽبي ٌٍجٍغُ؟‬١ٌ ٍٟ٠ ‫ِّب‬
97- Which of the following is not mucolytic ?
a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol

18
d- guaphenesin
*e- Dextromethorphan
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ؾبد؟‬١‫اؽذ اٌّؼبدح ٌٍظف‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
98- Which one is anti-platelet ?
*a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon
--------------------------------------------------------------------

: ‫ساَ ػذا‬ٚ‫وً ٘زٖ اٌّؼبدح ٌال‬


99- All of these anti-neoplastic except :
a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
*d- Amlodipine
--------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ٓ]؟‬١‫ضث‬٠‫د‬ٚ‫غذ [ثٕض‬١ٌ ٟ٘ٚ
100- Which is not Benzodiazepine ?
a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine*

‫ ِب‬، ‫ط‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫ش اٌّؼبدح ٌٍف‬١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬


‫ػذا‬
1( All These drugs are anti-viral except :
a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
G-CYCLOSPORIN*
-----------------------------------------------------
ٓ٠‫سفش‬ٌٛ‫ ِٓ ا‬ٛ٘ َ‫ش ِؼبد ٌٍزغٍؾ اٌذ‬١‫رأص‬
2)Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is
decreased by :
a- Rifampcin

19
b- Aspirin
*c- Vit. K
d- VerapamiL
-----------------------------------------------------
‫َ؟‬ٛ١‫اد اٌىبٌغ‬ٛٔ‫اؽذ ال ؽبطشاد ق‬ٚ ٛ٘ ٞ‫اٌز‬
3(Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?
a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
*d- Cinnarzine
-----------------------------------------------------
: ‫ـش اٌّخذساد ئئوغجذ‬١‫ رغ‬ٍٟ٠ ‫غ ِب‬١ّ‫ع‬
4)All the following are controlled drugs
EXEPT:
a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
c)Imipenem*
d)primidon
----------------------------------------------------

: ‫غزخذَ ٌؼالط‬٠ Vasopressine


5(Vasopressine is used for treatment of :
‫ ِٓ اٌىبرة‬ٞ‫ ِشع اٌغىش‬a)Diabetes of insipidus*
b)Diabetes mellitus type I
c)Diabetes mellitus type II
d)Antihypertensive
-----------------------------------------------------
‫غذ‬١ٌ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫ أؽذ اٌخ‬ٛ٘ٚ
ٓ١ٍ‫اٌززشاعى‬
6)Which one of the following is not
Tetracycline a)Minocycline

20
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
d)Clindamycin
-----------------------------------------------------
: ً‫غزخذَ ِٓ أع‬٠ ٓ٠‫فش‬١ٍ١ٕ١‫ف‬
7)Phenylephrine is used for :
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
ٖ‫ وً ِب روش أػال‬d)All of the above*
-----------------------------------------------------
ًُ‫رع‬
8(QOD MEAN
a)four tims daily
b)for four day*
c)after meals

-----------------------------------------------------
‫ي‬ِٛ‫زب‬١‫صاسح إٌمً اٌّؼبدح ٌٍجبساع‬ٚ
9(ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL
A)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron
d)a and b
-----------------------------------------------------
ُ‫ خظ‬ٟٔ‫ٓ اٌضب‬١‫رٕغ‬ٛ١‫أٔغ‬
10(ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST

21
A)LOSARTAN*
LABETALOL
c)lumenal
-----------------------------------------------------
ٟ‫ اٌّغزخذِخ ف‬Glucocrticoids
11(Glucocrticoids used in
a)running nose
b)bronchial asthma*
c)leprosy
-----------------------------------------------------

12(cefouroxime
a)first genration
b)second genration*
c)fourth genration
-----------------------------------------------------

13(Aspirin
a)aspirin with analgesic&anti_inflamatory
b)antipalelet
c)contraindicated for pregnancy
d)a and c only
‫ كم يب سجك‬e)all of the above*
-----------------------------------------------------
‫اعـخ صسق‬ٛ‫ ث‬Treatement
14(Treatement Glaucoma by

22
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
‫ كم يب سجك‬e)all of the above*
-----------------------------------------------------
ُ‫ اع‬treate ٓ١‫غز‬١‫ً اٌغ‬١‫أعز‬
15(acetyl cysteine treate poison
a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin
-----------------------------------------------------
hosbital ٟ‫فش ف‬ٛ‫ٓ ال رز‬١‫وغ‬ٛ‫غ‬٠‫د‬
16(digoxin no available in hosbital
a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750

-----------------------------------------------------
spairing َٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ِذساد اٌج‬
17(potassium spairing diuretics
a)mannitol
b)spironolacton*
c)amiloride
d)furesmide
-----------------------------------------------------
‫والء‬ٌٛ‫ ا‬ANTIEPILPTIC
18) ANTIEPILPTIC AGENTS
a)pheytoin
b)tegritol

23
c)luminal
‫ كم يب سجك‬d)all of the above*
-----------------------------------------------------
trede ُ‫ٓ اع‬١ِ‫جشا‬١ٍِٛ‫و‬
19(clomipramine treade name
a)anafranil*
b)tofranil
c)mebaral
d)luminal
-----------------------------------------------------
ٓ١‫ج‬٠‫بص‬٠‫د‬ٚ‫ اٌجٕض‬treade ُ‫اع‬
20(treade name of benzodiazepine
a)amlodepine
b)diazepam*
c)zolpdem
d)temazepam
-----------------------------------------------------

21(Diazepam
a)antianxity
b)sedatives
c)hyponotics
d)all of thl above*
-----------------------------------------------------
22(diazepam
a)antianaxity
b)hponotics
c)non of the above
d) a and b correc*

24
----------------------------------------------------
23( ‫يٍ انًزطهجبد انٕاخت عذو رٕفشْب‬1-
iv room ‫ثب‬
‫ انذكسزشٔص‬-1
ٍٍ‫انُٕسيبل سبن‬2
*ًّ‫اٌ ركٌٕ انغسفّ غٍش يعم‬3
-----------------------------------------------------

24)iv room‫االدٌّٔ انٍذ الٌزى رحضٍشْب ثبل‬


1- t p n
*‫االدٌّٔ انزً رعطى عٍ طشٌك انفى‬2-
ٌّ‫انًحبنٍم انٕسٌذ‬3-
-----------------------------------------------------
: ‫ش‬١‫و‬ٍٛ‫خ ث‬١‫ال ثبء ٔم‬
25)Not pure B-Blocker:
Trandate®
---------------------------------------------------------------------

: ُ‫ك اٌف‬٠‫إخز ػٓ ؿش‬٠ ٓ١ٌٛ‫ع ِٓ األٔغ‬ٛٔ ٞ‫أ‬


26)which type of insulin taken orally:
Insulin not taken orally.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫خ‬٠‫ٓ اٌؼبد‬١ٌٛ‫األؽشف االٔغ‬
27)Regular insulin characters:
-clear
-colorless
-watery
-all of the above -
---------------------------------------------------------------------
28)Cefotaxime:
3rd generation cephalosporin.
---------------------------------------------------------------------

25
: ‫اح‬ٚ‫ لذَ اٌّغب‬ٍٝ‫ة ػ‬ٛ‫ اٌؾج‬100
29)100 grain equal:
-0.65 g
-0.065 g
-‫اة‬ٛ‫٘زا اٌج‬-6.5 g
-non of the above
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ً‫ش رغزخذَ ِٓ أع‬١‫و‬ٍٛ‫ة ث‬
30)B-Blocker used for :
-angina
-hypertension
-hyperthyroidism
- all of them

---------------------------------------------------------------------
ٛ٘
31)Fosinopril is:
Staril®
---------------------------------------------------------------------
ِٓ ٗٔ‫ا‬ٚ ..ٍّٟ‫ االعُ اٌؼ‬ٛ٘ ً٠‫ثش‬ٕٛ٠‫ص‬ٛ‫ف‬
: ‫فئخ‬
32)fosinopril is the generic name .. and it's class
‫س ِثجط‬٠‫ ا‬: ACE inhibitor
---------------------------------------------------------------------
33)Enalapril:
Rentic ٟ‫ شبسن ف‬Co-Rentic®
‫أٗ ِٓ فئخ‬ٚ ..ٍّٟ‫ االعُ اٌؼ‬ٛ٘ ً٠‫ئٔبالثش‬
34)Enalapril is the generic name .. and it's class
‫س ِثجط‬٠‫ ا‬ACE inhibitor
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫ش رغجت اإلِغبن‬١‫اؽذح ِٓ ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬ٚ
35)which one of these drug cause constipation:

26
Morphine
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫الٔذ ثبعزضٕبء‬ٛ‫اغ‬ٛ‫ى‬١‫وً ٘زٖ أز‬
36)All of these Anticoagulant except:
-heparin
-warfarin
-ancord
-clopidogrel
---------------------------------------------------------------------
ٛ٘
37)Ticlid® is:
‫حبد‬١‫ صف‬Antiplatelet
**Ticlid® = Ticlodipine ..
--------------------------------------------------------------------
ٚ‫ٓ أ‬١‫ ِٓ اٌؼ‬ٟٕ١‫ع‬ٚ‫ذس‬١ٌٙ‫اٌشلُ ا‬ٚ
: ٛ٘ ٓ١‫غبد ؽً اٌؼ‬٠‫ْ ِٕبعجخ إل‬ٛ‫ف‬١ٍ‫اٌز‬
38)The PH of eye is or ph suitable for eye
solution is :
From 6-8
---------------------------------------------------------------------
ٛ٘
39)Zestril® is :
Lisinopril
ِٓ ٗٔ‫ا‬ٚ ..ٍّٟ‫ االعُ اٌؼ‬ٛ٘ ً٠‫ثش‬ٕٛ١‫غ‬٠
‫اٌـجمخ‬
40)Lisinopril is the generic name .. and it's class
: ACE inhibitor
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ ثبعزضٕبء‬ٛ‫ اٌشث‬ٟ‫خ رغزخذَ ف‬١‫لبئ‬ٚ ٖ‫وً ٘ز‬
41)All of these used as prophylactic in asthma
except:
-Ketotifen
-Nedocromil

27
-Sod. Cromoglycate
-Ventolin –
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ٓ١ٌٛ‫ اٌضٔه األٔغ‬Protamin
42)Protamin Zinc insulin:
Taken once daily
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: Sulphonylureaًٌ ‫خ‬١‫صبس اٌغبٔج‬٢‫ا‬
43)Side effect of Sulphonylurea:
Hypoglycemia
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ٟ‫ اٌّغزخذِخ ف‬Cinnarizine
44)Cinnarizine used in:
Migraine headache
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ٟ٘ ‫ ٌغشػخ اٌىجبس‬ٝ‫ي اٌؾذ األلظ‬ٚ‫اد‬
45)Adol Maximum dose for adult is:
4 grams or 4000 mg
--------------------------------------------------------------------
َٛ٠‫د‬ٛ‫ذ اٌظ‬٠‫س‬ٍٛ‫خ ِٓ و‬٠ٛ‫إٌغجخ اٌّئ‬
ٛ٘ ْ‫ص‬ٚ / ْ‫ص‬ٚ mg500
46)Percentage of Nacl 500mg w/w is:
0.9%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ‫جب‬١ِ‫وّب رغزخذَ ٌّىبفؾخ اال‬
47)Used as Anti amoeba:
Anazol
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ ي‬ٞ‫ االعُ اٌزغبس‬ٛ٘ ® Anazol
48)Anazol® is the trade name of
"metronedazole".
---------------------------------------------------------------------

28
: ٟ٘ ‫ؼخ ٌإلداسح‬٠‫خ عش‬٠‫ثذا‬
49)The rapid onset of administration is:
I.V
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ االؿالق‬ٍٝ‫زُ ػ‬٠ ٟ‫ ِٓ اٌّخذساد اٌز‬ٕٝ‫اٌّؼ‬
‫خ‬٠‫ اٌؾًّ ِٓ لجً اداسح االغز‬ٟ‫ثـالْ ف‬
: ‫ش‬١‫اٌؼمبل‬ٚ
50)The meaning of drug that is absolutely
contraindicated in pregnancy by FDA :
Pregnancy Category X
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ رغزخذَ اوزئبة اٌغؼبي‬ٍٟ٠ ‫وً ِب‬
: ‫ثبعزضٕبء‬
51)All of the following are used as cough
depressant EXCEPT :
a)Guaifenesin*
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte
d)Morphine hydrochloride
---------------------------------------------------------------------

ٛ٘
52)Theophyllin is :
a)Bronchodilatorb*
b)DERMATITS
c)All of the above
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ي‬ِٛ‫زب‬١‫ ٌٍجبساع‬ANTIDOT
53(ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL
a)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron

29
d)a and b
---------------------------------------------------------------------
ُ‫ خظ‬ٟٔ‫ٓ اٌضب‬١‫رٕغ‬ٛ١‫أٔغ‬
54(ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST
a)LOSARTAN*
b)LABETALOL
c)CAPTOPRIL
---------------------------------------------------------------------
َ‫جب‬٠‫بص‬٠‫ اٌذ‬ٞ‫االعُ اٌزغبس‬
55(Trade name Diazepam
a)valium*
b Narcan)
c)fentanyl
d)luminal
---------------------------------------------------------------------
: ً‫ظرخذَ ِٓ أع‬٠ ٓ٠‫فش‬١ٍ١ٕ١‫ف‬
56(Phenylephrine is used for :
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
d)All of the above*
---------------------------------------------------------------------

---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫اعـخ صسق‬ٛ‫ ث‬Treatement
57)Treatement Glaucoma by
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
e)all of the above*
---------------------------------------------------------------------

30
ُ‫ األع‬treate ٓ١‫غز‬١‫ً اٌغ‬١‫أعز‬
58(acetyl cysteine treate poison
a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin
---------------------------------------------------------------------
hosbital ٟ‫فش ف‬ٛ‫ٓ ال رز‬١‫وغ‬ٛ‫غ‬٠‫د‬
59(digoxin no available in hosbital
a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫غزخذَ ي‬٠ ‫اء اخش‬ٚ‫ٌذ د‬ٚ‫رٕب‬
60)ondansetron is used for
a-hypertension
b-angina pectoris
c-prophylaxis of migrain
d-anti-emetic

-----------------------------------------------------
ِٓ ‫خ‬١‫صبس اٌغبٔج‬٢‫غ ٘زٖ ا‬١ّ‫ص ع‬
: ‫ي ثبعزضٕبء‬ٛ‫ى‬١ٕ١‫ساِف‬ٍٛ‫اٌى‬
61)all these r side effects of chloramphenicol
except:
a-irreversible a plastic anemia
b-optic neuritis
c-perpheral neuritis
d-iron deficiency anemia
-----------------------------------------------------

31
‫غزخذَ ي‬٠ ticlopidine
62)ticlopidine is used for
a-anticoagulan
b-antibiotic
c-anticholinergic
d-antiplateleta
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ش ص ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬
fibrinolytic
63)all these drugs r fibrinolytic except
a-dipyridamole
b-streptokinase
c-urikinase
-----------------------------------------------------
---- ‫خ ٌّىبفؾخ اٌّخذساد‬١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌمؼ‬
‫ش ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫ رأص‬BOLIC
64) all these drugs CAUSE ANTI----BOLIC
EFFECT EXCEPT
A-METHOTREXATE
B-FLUROURACIL
C-CYTABRIN
D-AZOTHIOPRINE
E-CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
-----------------------------------------------------
ْ‫ّىٓ أ‬٠ ‫اعزخذِذ وً ٘زٖ اٌّخذساد ال‬
ْٛ‫ٌجبعزضٕبء ثبسوٕغ‬
65)ALL THESE DRUG CAN BE USED FOR
PARKINSONISM EXCEPT
A-SELGITINE HCL
B-CARBIDOPA
C-PERGOLIDE
D-NEDOCROMIL SOD

32
-----------------------------------------------------
‫ذ‬٠‫بص‬١‫وً ٘زٖ اٌؾبالد ال ػالط ِغ اٌض‬
‫ثبعزضٕبء‬
66)ALL THESE CASES NOT CURE WITH
THIAZIDE EXCEPT
A-HYPERNATRIMIA
B-HYPERGLYCEMIA
C-HYPOKALAEMIA
D-HYPERURICAEMIA
-----------------------------------------------------
‫شٖ ثبعزضٕبء ِب‬٠‫ّىٓ أْ رذ‬٠ ‫خ اٌمجغ‬١‫لٍج‬
ٍٟ٠
67)CARDIAC ARREST COULD BE MANAGED
BY THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A-EPHEDRINE
B-LEDOCAINE
C-PROPRANOLOL
D-NORMAL SALINE
-----------------------------------------------------

ٛ٘ .I.V ٖ‫ّىٓ ئػـبؤ‬٠ ٞ‫ٓ اٌز‬١ٌٛ‫األٔغ‬


68)INSULIN WICH CAN BE GIVEN I.V. IS
A-REGULAR TYPE
B-30\70 TYPE
C-NPH TYPE
D-NON OF THE ABOVE
-----------------------------------------------------

33
LESHMANIA‫غزخذَ ي‬٠ ‫ِخذس‬
69)DRUG IS USED FOR LESHMANIA
A-SOD. STIBOGLYCONATE
B-SOD. CROMOGLYCONATE
C-MEBENDAZOLE
---------------------------------------------------------------------
‫ش اٌّؼبدح ثبعزضٕبء‬١‫غ ٘زٖ اٌؼمبل‬١ّ‫ع‬
BACTERIAL
70)ALL THESE DRUGS ARE ANTI0BACTERIAL
EXCEPT
A-ZALCITABINE
B-LOMEFLOXACIN
C-CEFPRAZONE
-----------------------------------------------------
ِْٛ‫خ ثبعزضٕبء ٘ش‬١‫ؼ‬١‫وً ٘زٖ َادٖ ؿج‬
ٓ١‫ع‬ٚ‫االعزش‬
71ALL THESE R NATURAL ESTROGEN EXCEPT
A-MESTRONOL
B-OESTRONE
C-OESTRIOL
D-OESTRADIOL
-----------------------------------------------------

ٟ‫ػبئ‬ٚ ‫ش‬١‫خ رأص‬١ٌ‫اؽذح ِٓ اٌزب‬ٚ ٞ‫اٌز‬


72)WICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING HAVE
VASODILATOR EFFECT
A-NICOTINE
B-CHOLESTYRAMIN
C-URIKINASE
D- VIT. A

34
-----------------------------------------------------
‫ػخ‬ّٛ‫غذ ِٓ ِغ‬١ٌ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫أؽذ اٌخ‬
ٌْٕٛٛ١‫اٌى‬
73)ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FROM
QUINOLONE GROUP
A-NALIDIXIC ACID
B-QUININE
C-EOXACIN
D-NORFLOXACIN
-----------------------------------------------------
‫غذ ٌؼالط اٌظشع‬١ٌ ‫خ‬١ٌ‫بساد اٌزب‬١‫أؽذ اٌخ‬
74)ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FOR
EPILEPSY
A-CLORIZEPAM
B-PHENYTOIN
C-PRIMIDONE
D-IMIPRAMINE
-----------------------------------------------------
75(‫؟‬. ‫ك‬٠‫أخز عٓ طش‬٠ ٓ١‫س‬ٕٛ٠‫االد‬
iv inj push
---------------------------------------------------------------------
76(atenolol
‫ع‬ٛٔ ٞ‫ِٓ ا‬
tacchardiyaِٓ
---------------------------------------------------------------------
77(digoxen
‫ع‬ٛٔ ٞ‫ِٓ ا‬
tacchardiya??ِٓ
---------------------------------------------------------------------
78(tetracyclin
‫ٗ ٌٗ ؟؟‬١‫االثبس اٌجبٔج‬
ُ‫ض‬ٌٙ‫بص ا‬ٙ‫ش ج‬٠‫ رخش‬-

35
‫‪ -‬فشً وٍ‪ ٞٛ‬حبد‬
‫‪ -‬رغ‪١‬ش ٌ‪ ْٛ‬األسٕبْ‬
‫‪ -‬رشمك اٌشفخ‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫‪79(gentamycin‬‬
‫االثبس اٌجبٔج‪ٌٗ ٗ١‬‬
‫‪ -‬اٌزسُّ اٌىٍ‪ٞٛ‬‬
‫‪ -‬رسُّ اٌعصت اٌسّع‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪ -‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬خٗ‬
‫‪ -‬فمذاْ اٌش‪١ٙ‬خ‬

‫‪ٛ٠ٚ‬جذ عٍ‪ ٝ‬شىً ؟؟‬


‫‪ear ,eay,ointment‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٛ‬االسُ ٌٍجش‪ٚ‬سزمالٔذ اٌز‪٠ ٞ‬سزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌجٍ‪ٛ‬و‪ِٛ‬ب؟(‪80‬‬

‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬

‫اٌفسق ث‪ ٓ١‬اٌىش‪ٚ ُ٠‬اٌّشاُ٘؟(‪81‬‬


‫‪ -‬اٌّشاُ٘ ‪:‬‬
‫‪1-‬اٌمبعذح ال رز‪ٚ‬ة ف‪ ٟ‬اٌّبء‬
‫‪2-‬دٕ٘‪١‬خ‬
‫‪3- w-o‬‬
‫‪ -‬اٌىش‪ّ٠‬بد‪:‬‬
‫‪1-‬اٌمبعذح رز‪ٚ‬ة ف‪ ٟ‬اٌّبء‬

‫‪36‬‬
‫‪2-‬غ‪١‬ش دٕ٘‪١‬خ‬
‫‪3- o-w‬‬

‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫اٌفشق ث‪ ٓ١‬اٌىش‪ٚ ُ٠‬اٌّعج‪82(paste ْٛ‬‬
‫اٌىش‪: ُ٠‬‬
‫ٔسجخ اٌّ‪ٛ‬اد اٌسبئٍخ ف‪١‬خ أوثش ِٓ اٌصٍجخ‬
‫اٌّعج‪: paste ْٛ‬‬
‫ٔسجخ اٌّ‪ٛ‬اد اٌصٍجخ ف‪١‬خ رى‪ ْٛ‬أوثش ِٓ أٌسبئٍخ‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌش‪ ٟ‬اٌز‪ ٞ‬ال‪٠‬عًّ ف‪ِ ٟ‬عًّ اٌص‪١‬ذٌ‪ ٗ١‬؟؟(‪83‬‬
‫‪iv‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌز‪ ٞ‬ال‪٠‬ؤخز ِع اٌذا‪٠‬ج‪ٛ‬وسٓ ؟؟(‪84‬‬
‫‪ -‬وٍ‪b blocker ِٓ ُٙ‬‬
‫‪verpmil-‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٟ‬جشعخ االسجش‪ ٓ٠‬ارا وبْ ‪85(? antiplatlet‬‬

‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ارا وبْ ‪ٚ‬احذ عٕذٖ اوزئبة شٕ‪ ٛ‬اٌ‪ِ ٟ‬بٔعط‪ ٗ١‬ا‪٠‬بٖ؟؟(‪86‬‬
‫عص‪١‬ش ثشرمبي‬
‫ا‪verpmel ٚ‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫??‪87(1grain‬‬
‫وُ ‪٠‬سب‪ ٞٚ‬ثبٌجشاَ‬

‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫‪88(cascara‬‬
‫االسُ اٌزجبس‪ ٞ‬ال‪ ٞ‬د‪ٚ‬اء؟‬
‫‪Sagrada‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬

‫‪37‬‬
‫رعش‪٠‬ف االربحٗ اٌح‪ ٗ٠ٛ١‬؟(‪89‬؟‬
‫هي انكمية انحي جشكم جزءا من نشط من انمخذرات‬
‫يمحصها انذم من خالل األمعاء أو أي دونة أخري‬
‫الطريق في فحرة معينة من انىقث ‪.‬‬
‫أو ‪ :‬إنه ‪ conc.‬من انمخذرات في انذم في بعض‬
‫فحرة من انزمن‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫‪90(b blocker‬‬
‫ِبرا رعًّ ؟‬
‫رض‪٠‬ذ ِٓ االوسج‪cattropcٚintropc ٚ ٓ١‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪91) adrengic receptor\ٛ‬‬
‫‪a1‬‬
‫‪b1‬‬
‫‪a2‬‬
‫‪b2‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ا‪ٛٔ ٞ‬ع ِٓ اٌّعبدْ ‪٠‬سزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌش‪ِٚ‬برضَ؟؟(‪92‬‬
‫أب ار‪ٛ‬لع أٗ إٌحبط‪capper‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫‪ٌٍresels‬ذ‪ٚ‬اء عٍ‪ِ ٝ‬برا ‪٠‬عزّذ )‪93‬‬
‫‪ph‬‬
‫‪enzym‬ا‪ٚ‬‬
‫‪bady flud‬‬
‫ِب‪٠‬عزذ عٍ‪ُٙ١‬‬
‫‪--------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌطش‪٠‬مٗ اٌز‪٠ ٟ‬ى‪ ْٛ‬اِزصبص اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ف‪ٙ١‬ب ‪94(%100‬‬
‫(بانىريذ ‪) I.V‬‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫ِب٘‪ ٛ‬االسُ اٌزجبس‪ ٞ‬ي‪95)impramen‬‬
‫‪Tofranil‬‬

‫‪38‬‬
---------------------------------------------------------------------
96(َٛ١ٌ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ؤخز ِشٖ ف‬٠ ٞ‫ٓ اٌز‬١ٌٛ‫ع االٔس‬ٛٔ ٛ٘‫ِب‬
‫ أنسولين البامير‬To Apamir
---------------------------------------------------------------------
97(‫ش ِعهس ؟‬١‫ غ‬ٟ‫ْ صبف‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ٞ‫ٓ اٌز‬١ٌٛ‫ع االٔس‬ٛٔ ٛ٘‫ِب‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫ع اٌّفع‬٠‫ سش‬ٜ‫ش اٌّذ‬١‫ٓ لص‬١ٌٛ‫ األٔس‬ٛ٘
---------------------------------------------------------------------
98(ْٛ‫ى‬٠ regular ٓ١ٌٛ‫االٔس‬
‫ِسزحٍت‬
ٟ‫ي ف‬ٍٛ‫ ِح‬ٚ‫ا‬
ٚ‫ا‬vial
impul
---------------------------------------------------------------------
99) co_tremoxazolٞٛ‫حز‬٠ ‫ ِبرا‬ٍٝ‫ع‬
tremethoprin ,sulfamethaxazol
---------------------------------------------------------------------
100(sulfamethaxazol
ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ِبرا‬
co_tremoxazol
---------------------------------------------------------------------
1-most of drugs are :
Weak electrolyte*

Non electrlolyte

Non ionic

Strong electrolyte

B+ C

2-90% of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both to give 80% of
substance X solution ?

3: 1 **

1:3

10:30

5: 9

B+C

39
3-trade name of lisinopril ……

Zestril , zinopril

4- antipseudomonas drug :
metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine, **vancomycin ............

5- arrhythmia happened due to :

increase of Cardiac output

, …………increase in o2 demand

dialitation in myocardium

6-digoxin differ from digitoxin :

Half life

Excreted hepatically

Excreted unchanged in urine ***

7- In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded??


stop digixin adminstration ,

phenytoin adminstration

give lidocaine

give digoxin immune fab

electrical cardio*****……

8- which is not asthma properties :

Bronchodilator

Bronchospasm

Increase mucous secretion

Chest pain

9- example of antimetabolite anticancer …..

10- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

Aldosterone

40
Growth hormone ………

Primary product

mineralocorticoids (eg, aldosterone)

glucocorticoids (eg, cortisolndrosterone)

weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)

11- immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation :

Predisolone

12- which is not NSAID ……….

13- liquid weight = …….. , volume = …….. ,

What is specific gravity ?

14- about side effect of quinidine

15- all of following are side effects of methotrixate except :

Bone marrow depression

Alopecia

Nausea and vomiting

*****Drive sex gland

16- mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug :

Dopamine receptor inactivation

17-drug used in hypertension and migrane :

Clonidine****

Hydralazine………

18- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

bilateral renal artery stenosis

41
19- about cardioglycosidic effect :

-ve inotropic

+ve inotropic ****

Hypertension

Tackycardia

Bradycardia

20-all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

Tissue solubility

Protein binding

Molecular weight of drug

Type enzyme response of metabolism *****

21-all factors affect on renal clearance except :

Age

Sex****

Both

Disease state

22- ointment used for :

Carrier of drug

Emollient

***Both

Increase absorption

Increase distribution

23-charcol used as antidote coz :

Adsorption activity

24- in hypodynamic shock treatment :

Use dopamine *****

Use nicotine

Use aspirin

42
25-acyclovir used to :

Herbs simplex

26- all following are viral infections except :

Tuberculosis

27- about radiation

28- warfarin monitoring:

Platelet formation

INR

The prothrombin time (PT) is the primary assay used in monitoring warfarin

29- lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true

1- avoid aspirin containing prepration

2-avoid doubling dose from herself

3-balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis

4-if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT******

5-take care about nasal bleeding

30- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?


a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
****b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

31- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab


a-IL-1 blocker****
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of infections
d-administered as IV infusion8
e-postadministration reactions include fever & chills

32- infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :

a) shriniking of blood cell


b) hemolysis****

c) hyperglycemia

d) hypoglycemia

e) b + d

43
? ‫كم كى ٌٕو رعطً اندشعخ نهًشٌض‬33- half life of drug is 7 days ,

..... ‫ يشاد‬4 , ‫ يشاد‬, 3 ‫ يشرٍٍ فً انٍٕو‬, ‫ كم ٌٕو‬, ‫يشح اسجٕعٍب‬

‫ٌعطى يشِ اسجٕعٍب‬

34- The term shock signifies :


a-hyperperfusion
****b-hypoperfusion
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above

35- which of following is least sedative action ?

Diazepam

Estazolam

Triazolam

Temazepam ***

36- which drug has spasmolytic action?

Resirpine

Amphetamine

37-desmopressine used in ……
nocturnal enuresis

38-salbutamol is :

Beta 2 agonist

39- pentophyllin used for : peripheral vasodilator

Hypertension

Couph suppressantIndications

Pentofyllin is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion, and in


diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank ulcers; gangrene; diabetic
angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynaud’s disease. In acute disorders of the brain
perfusion, including ischemic stroke and resultant conditions. Acute disorders of the retinal
blood supply.

40-2 mg \ L solution , according ppm :

44
0.002

0.000002

41- Pka for normal water in room temperature :

14

10^7

10^-14

10^14

42- normal water used for :

Eye preparption

Parentral preparation

Solution

Emultion

External preparation

43- ceftazidime :

3rd generation

44-about aminoglycoside , which is not true ?

Has gram –ve activity

Less toxicity

Narrow therapeutic

Compatable with other drug

Usually IV , IM

45- about norepinephrine

not true

increasr B.P

vasoconstrictive

used in cardiogenic shock

effective orally'

S.C

45
46- PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT :

Zero order

1st order

2nd order

Mixed order

A+B

47- Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect ?

a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia****
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

48-- The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :


a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.

49-- The latabbreviation for " before meal :

a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.

50 - o.d....... Once a day

51- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of kcl

exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution?

52- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?


a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-b-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ******
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

53- The mechanism of action of dopamine

muscarinic antagonist

muscarinic agonist*****
nicotinic antagonist

nicotinic agonist
non of the above

54- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :


a- AV nod
b- SA node***

46
c-pukinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above

55- about albuterol side effect ………

56- dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension ???

IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal ****........

57-solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

Accurate dose

Easy to handle

Morestable

****Faster action

B+C

58- ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER

TASTE :

Film coat

Enteric coat

Granding of tablet *****

59-ABOUT CARDIAC GLYCOSIDE ……..

60-which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary amine?

Amitriptyline

61- antihypertensive used in pregnancy ?

Methyldopa

62- drug make urine red other than rifampicin ?

63-drug used for peptic ulcer ?

Losec

47
64- all are ACEI except …….

65- drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg patient ….. what is total
dose??

) qqd 5) , qd 4) , 4 times daily3) , pc 2) , o.n .......


lisinopril .....‫ ؟‬6) generic name of zinopril
ً‫ يشرٍٍ ف‬. ‫ كم ٌٕو‬, ‫كم كى ٌٕو رعطً اندشعخ نهًشٌض ؟ يشح اسجٕعٍب‬7) half life of drug is 7 days ,
..... ‫ يشاد‬4 , ‫ يشاد‬3 ,‫انٍٕو‬
8) diltiazim classifid as : ca channel blocker ....
9)B carotine is precursop of : retinol , thiamine , riboflavin , pyridoxine , calcefirol
10) electrical property which produce impulses called :
conduction , automaticity , velocity , excitability .........
11) another name of true solution :
homogeneous , heterogenous , emultion ...........
12) what is false about ophthalmic product using as single dose :
..... ‫ اعزمذ ْٕ االخبثخ انصحٍحخ‬should contain preservative ... ‫كبٌ يٍ أحذ االخزٍبساد‬
13) solving liqiud in another liquid is called :
miscibility , immiscibility , disolving energy , solubility ......
14) how mg of substance X must added to 2000 gm of 10% substance X solution in order to
‫ ؟؟؟‬prepare 25% of substance x solution
a) 10000
b) 400
c) 40
d) 10
e) 0.4
.......... ‫أَب يبعشفذ أحم انًسأنخ ْذي اثذا‬
15) how microgram needed from drug , if 0.1 gm in ml , if 5 one tspfull doses contain 7.5 gm of
drug ???f
a) 0.0005
b) 0.5
c) 500
d) 1.5
e) 1500
... ‫ ٔيبثعشف ارا االخبثخ صحٍحخ أٔ أل‬.... ّ‫ ألَّ ألشة سلى ن‬1500 ‫ فبخزشد‬..... ‫أَب طهع يعً سلى غٍش كم األسلبو‬
‫ يسأنخ سٓهخ خذا‬16)
‫ يسأنخ ٔاضحخ‬17)
‫ يسأنخ يجبششح‬18 )
19) infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :
a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d
b ....... ‫طجعب االخبثخ‬
a..... ٌٕ‫ ٔاالخبثخ رك‬......... ‫ َٔفس انخزٍبساد‬hypertonic ٍ‫ َفس انسؤال انسبثك نكٍ ع‬20)
21) when 1 part of substance require 10000 parts of solvent , it called :
very soluble , soluble , sparingly soluble , slighty soluble , insoluble ......
slighty ....... ‫االخبثخ‬
22) which solution is colloid solution ?? ringer solution
23) tests required fordiabetic patient :
a) oral glucose test
b) HBa1c
c) WBC count
d) a+ c
e) all of above
24) patient given rifampicin , what advice him :
urine discoloration will happened
25) denaturation will happened in body for which compunds????f
penicillin , protien , lipid , carbohydrate , ............
26) major metabolism proccess in GIT is
hydrolysis , acetylation , oxidation , conjucation ,
hydrolysis ‫االخبثخ‬
27) in ovulation day , level of which is highest : progesterone , FSH , BOTH , LUTEINIZING
HORMONE ........
28) About side effects of hydralazine

48
‫يٕ يززكشح االحزٍبساد ٔال عبسفخ االخبثخ انصحٍحخ‬
29) about side effects of prozasin
30) dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension ???
IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal ........
31) drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with antihypertinsive ???
minixidil , hydralazine , dioxide , nitroprusside Na , acebutol .........
32) hypothirodism cause : weight gain , hypoglycemia , low body temp ...........
33) about ACE I mechanism of action as antihypertension ???
act on serotonin receptor , on dopamine receptor , inhibition of converting angiotensin I to
angiotensin II ........
34) About definition of first pass effect
, it increase with : increase rate of absorption , increase biotransformation ,both ,
increase pka
35) metal used in rheumatoid arthiritis : gold
36) drug cause or consider pressor
37) low density lipoprotien act as :
carrer cholestrol in plasma , transport fatty acid , good lipoprotein

stop digixin adminstration , phenytoin adminstration .............


39)about tonic clonic seziure :
occur in children , unconciousness , unvoluntry movement ....................
40)corticosteroid has strong antiinflmmatory effect?
cortisone , hydrocrtisone ...........................,
41) drug from NSAID but not given as OTC ?
brufen , naprosin , aspirin ............
42) antipseudomonas drug :
metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine ............
43) promethazone used in treatment of :
migrane and headache , nausea and vomiting , hypertension ..........
44) isoniazid :
treatment of TB ............
45) about tolerance associated with isosorbide dinitrate in angina patient............
46) phenytoin side effect
47) phenytoin mechanism of action
48) prazosin mechanism of action
49) in CHF:
decrease depolarization due to influx of K
----------- ---------------- ------ eflux of K
----------- repolarization ------- Ca ............
‫ثصشاحخ يٕ يزأكذح آَب يكزٕثخ ثبنصٍغخ انصحٍحخ نكٍ ًْ كبَذ رزكهى عٍ ْزِ االخزٍبساد ٔرأثٍش دخٕل‬
.........‫ٔخشٔج انجٕربسٍٕو ٔانكبنسٍٕو‬
‫ َفس انسؤال انسبثك ثبنضجط‬50)
51) Enoxaprim dosage form :
IV POLUS , IV INFUSION , IM , TRANSDERMAL , SC
52) most described dosage solid form :
powder , tablet , soft capsule , hard capsule , both types of capsule .
53)angina drugs dosage form ......
54)Digoxin side effects.......
55)about hypertension drugs side effects all is true EXCEPT :
clonidine cause drycough
ّ‫ دٔاء ٔاحذ االثبس اندبَجٍخ ن‬..... ‫ٔثبلً االخ رٍبساد عهى ْذا انًُط‬
ٌٍ‫ َفس انسؤال انسبثك نكٍ يع رغٍٍش فً اخزٍبس‬56)
57)MECHANISM OF ACTION OF Dobamine ......
58)-------------- -- --------- -- histamine .......
... ‫ اٌضب َفس انسؤال انسبثك يع رغٍٍش فً االخبثبد‬59)
60) AND 61) about antiarrythmic drugs phases :
phase A1 , B1 , II , III , IV
62) AND 63) AND 64) about arrythmia phases

1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate is :


a-mast cell stabilization b-bronchodilator
c-prostaglandins modifier d-leukotrienes modifier e-non of the above
2-The action of histamine is :
a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis e-slowing the heart rate

49
3-One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase :
a-penicillin V
b-penicillin G
c-floxapen ( flucloxacillin )
d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin
4- Inderal is :
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker
a and b – adrenergic receptor blockere-
5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :
a-impaired fat absorption b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis
6- Which of the following is selective b1 blocker ?
a-labetalol but it is non selective b blocker
b-terazosine
c-cloridine d-captopril
e-verapamil
7- The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.
8- The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- q.i.d e- c.c.
9- The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is :
a- a.c. b- o.n. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.
10- Erythroped A :
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci >>and G –ve bacteria
b-is a macrolide antibioticc-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
ًُ‫ألَّ ٌسزخذو فً انحًم ٌٔسجت لًء ٔ اسٓبل ٌع‬.... ‫ يش عبسفخ االخبثخ يٍٍ فٍٓى‬e-all of the above
.........‫ٌضٌذ حشكخ انًعذح ٔفعبل ضذ انجكزٍشٌب انًٕخجخ ٔانسبنجخ‬
11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
a-salbutamol b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline
12- Allopurinol is used as :
a-analgesic agent b-uricosuric agent (as probenecid),
c-antiinflamatory agent d-antipyretic agent
e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing the
conversion of
hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid and resulting in
direct inhibition
of purine biosynthesis due to elevated oxypurine
concentration (negative
feedback). Oxypurinol also inhibits xanthine oxidase. So
anyway you have
dramatically decreased uric acid concentrations, decreased
renal tubular
transport of uric acid, and then the side effect of increased
tubular
‫ يش عبسفخ االخبثخ‬...... ‫ ثصشاحخ يحزبسح‬reabsorption of calcium.
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect ?
a-cataract b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections
14- A disease which is due to viral infection :
a-poliomyelitis b-rabies

50
c-chicken pox d-herpes
e-all of the above15- The mechanism of action of atropine is :
a-muscarinic antagonist b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist d-nicotinic agonist
e-non of the above
16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :
a-inotropy b-chronotropy
c-automaticity d-contractility
e-non of the above
17- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :
a- AV node b- SA node
c-pukinje fiber d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
18- Adenosine is used for :
a-ventricular arrythmias b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-non of the above
19- Adenosine P produces which of the following :
a-facial flushing
b-dyspnea c-marked tachycardia
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
‫ ٌبسٌذ ال عُذِ اخبثخ أكٍذح ٌحكٍهُب عهٍٓب‬... ‫ْذا انسؤال كًبٌ حٍشًَ كزٍش‬
20- Which of the following is responcible for buffering
a-magnesium b-chloride c-bicarbonates
d-potassium e-troponin

21- Respiratory acidosis is due to :


a- O2 removal b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal d- CO2 retention
e-non of the above
22- Which of the following is NOT colloid solution ?
a-albumin 5% b-ringer`s solution
c-dextran d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%
23- The term shock signifies :
a-hyperperfusion b-hypoperfusion c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia e-non of the above
24- In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered?
a-airway control b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm e-all of the above
25- Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?(…. by bacterial cell wall during
there growth)
a-endotoxin b-exotoxin c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin e-non of the above
26- the amount of water in adult male is about:
a-25% b-60% c-80% d-10% e-17%
27- Which of the following are causes of oedema?
a-increase hydrostatic pressure
b-decrease oncotic pressure
c-increase capillary permeability
d- a and b e- a , b and c
28- Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to
consume food containing tyramine because this combination causes:
a-postural hypotension b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock
d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertention
29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?
a-they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non selective agents give more effective action30- In the treatment of
osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast

51
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
[COLOR="red"]e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator[/COLOR]
31- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol b-indomethacin c-colchicine d-probencid e-sulfinylpyrazone
32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?
a-minimal exercise b-low calcium intake
c-male gender d-family history
e-minimal exposure to sunlight
33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :
a-lethergy & fatigue b-skin rash & headache
c-throbbing headache & dizziness
d-fluid retention hypotensione-ringing in the ears & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab
a-IL-1 blockerb-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of
infections
d-administered as IV infusione-postadministration reactions include fever & chills
35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:
a-gold preparations b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate d- a and b
e- a , b and c
36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis :
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine
d- a and b e- b and c
ّ‫يش فبًْخ انسؤال ٔيش عبسفخ احه‬
37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?
a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infectionc-should always be given regardless
type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true
‫رأكذٔا يٍ االخبثخ ألًَ يش يزأكذح يُٓب‬
38- Goals of diabetes mellitus management include :
a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b e- a , b and c
39- When dosing insulin which of the following is true?
a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illnessd- b and c e- a , b and c
‫رأكذٔا يٍ االخبثخ‬
40- What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2 ?
a-glyburinid b-insulin c-metformin
d-nateglinid e-repaglinid
41- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered :
a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test c- HBA1c
d- a and b
e- b and c
42- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :
a-analgesic b-hypnotic c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic e-antiulcerant
43- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg e- 1-2 mg
44- The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is :
a-naloxone b-bethidine c-morphine
d-celecoxib e-naproxen
45- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug
a-gastric ulcer b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension

52
46-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :
a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no
evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant
women or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in
controlled studies in women during trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no controlled
human studies or studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may
be acceptable despite the risk
47- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?
a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamine preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discolouration of urine
48- Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is :
a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injectionc-I.M. injection
d-IP(intraperitoneal) injection
49- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
a-Na valproate b-phenytoin c-lithium
d-quinidine e-carbamazepine
50- Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of action response to
morphine ?
a-oral b-S.C. c-I.V. d-I.M. e-rectal
51- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires :
a- K+ b- Na+ c- Ca++
d- CO3 e- acetate
52- Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to
a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
d-prevent oedema e-increase absorption of hydralazine
53- Fifty micrograms equals:
a-50000 ( nanogrames ) g b- 0.05 ( micrograms ) g
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c
54- The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :
a-hydrophilicity b-miscibility
c-immiscibility d-solubility equilibrium
e-solvation energy
55- These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:
a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln.
b-essences , collodions an elixirsc-gargles , douches and irrigation soln.
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits
56- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this
solution?
a- 3.33
b- 0.15 c- 1.60 x 10 -4
d- 0.30
e-3.00 x 10 -4
57- Which of the following is NOT correct ?
a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase inhibitors
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be startede-lisepro is rapid
acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals

58- In CHF management the following is not correct:


a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left ventricular function and reduces mortality
-blocker such as carvidailol may have beneficialb- effect in selected patient
c-spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemiad-non drug therapy
includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for proper therapy

53
59- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?
a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant
women
60- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature
a-gournal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutic & clinical use of drugc-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet e- JAMA
ًٍٍ‫ يدشد رخ‬....‫يش عبسفخ االخبثخ‬
61- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management :
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
-blockerc- for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
62- Regarding the use of ACEIs :
a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry coughd-a good first line treatment for hypertensive
diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need

63- References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral administration:


a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micro comedix
d- a and b
ًَ‫ثس احزًبل االخزٍبس انزب‬... ُّ‫كًبٌ ْذا يبعُذي فكشح ع‬
e- b and c
64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:
a-verify time of last time
b-check Mg and K levels and correct if neededc-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin e-supportive care
65- When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which of the following is NOT taken at the same time?
a-analgesic b-verapamil c-aspirin
d-diphenhydramine e-orange juice
66- The antimalarial to avoid glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase :
a-primaquine b-quinine c-chloroguanide
‫أعزمذ اٌ انسؤال طبنت األدٌٔخ انزً ٌدت اٌ ٌزدُجٓب انًشٌض‬
‫ٔاهلل اعهى‬
67-We can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking…….
68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:
a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more component that exist in one phase
c-homogenous
d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtratione-solute doesn`t precipitate as time
passes
The action of histamine is :
a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****
d-skeletal muscle paralysis e-slowing the heart rate

2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :


a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c. ***
d- i.c.
e- c.c.

3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :


a-inotropy b-chronotropy
c-automaticity****
d-contractility
e-non of the above

4- Which of the following is responcible for buffering

54
a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonates*****
d-potassium
e-troponin

5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not be considered?


a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****

6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?


a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast****
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator

7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis is arterial fibrilation:
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
d- a and b
e- b and c

8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:


a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg****
e- 1-2 mg

9- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?


a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d--blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ****
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

10- B carotine is precursor of :


a)retinol ****
b) thiamine
c)riboflavin
d)pyridoxine
e) calcefirol

11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :


a)Hydralazone*****
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine

12-process require CYP450 :


a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION

13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with antihypertinsive ???


a) minixidil
b) phenytoin ***
c) dioxide
d) nitroprusside Na
e) acebutol

55
14- hypothirodism will increase :
a) body weight ****
b) body temp
c) lipid profile

15- low density lipoprotien act as :


a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
b) transport fatty acid from cell membrane to cytoplasm,
c) good lipoprotien.........

16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone

17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you can use drug is :
a) 31\8\2010…..*****
b) 1\8\2010
c) 31\7\2010

18- digitoxin side effect :


a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension

19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :


Digoxin…………..

20-amphetamine used to treat :


a) Defect concentration *****
b) Insomnia

21-- which is not asthma properties :


a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain

22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :


a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH

23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :


a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine

24- about side effect of quinidine :


Chichonism*******

25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:


a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
ً‫ ٔكزت يعٓب كًبٌ ش‬e) Alopecia

26- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :


bilateral renal artery stenosis*****

27- Adsorption , which is not true :


a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible

56
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****

28-all are antibiotic except :


Famcyclovir *****

29- heparin monitoring :


a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT****

30- about digitoxin , which is false :


a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal ……

31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :


a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****

32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :


a) 7
b) 14****
c) 10^7
d) 10^-14
e) C + d

33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?


a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C

34-- o.m.......
every morning******

35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :


a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C

36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except :


a) ACEI
b) Methyldopa****

37- dose of drug in children is ……. Mg \ kg , what total dose for child 34.5 bound?
ٍٍ‫ٔكبٌ كبرت اخزٍبساد ثبنٕحذر‬
gm , mg
‫ف رحٌٕم انٕحذاد ضشٔسي‬

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****

39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :


Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***

57
40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase effectiveness of lidocaine?
Epinephrine …………..

41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?


a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment

42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c

43)volatile substance given by inhalation:


a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane………….

44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should we take from substance A ?
‫ لهذ‬...... ‫ثطشٌمخ َسجخ ٔرُبست‬..‫اَب حهٍزٓب صح‬
15+30 + 150 = 195
, ‫ارا ثذي اعشف كى َسجخ انًبدح االٔنى يٍ كم انٕصفخ‬
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %

So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm


( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
‫ يسبئم حهٍزٓى صح‬5 ‫ٔاَب كبَذ عاليزً ثبنًسبئم كبيهخ ٌعًُ انحًذهلل‬... ‫ْٕٔ أحذ االخزٍبساد انًٕخٕدح‬

45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X solution…… how gm we need from
substance X ?
0.05 gm***

46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:


a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****

47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivelance
b) Bioequivelance
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative

48-to compare between 2 drugs use:


a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter
e) Taste

49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:


a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****

50)-Binding to plasma protein:


a- Increases half life.***
b- Decreases half life

58
51) The antidote of heparin is:
Protamin sulphate****

52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?


Creatinine clearance****

53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :

54-diazoxide… side effect :

55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****

56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :


a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension

57-drug dependence which is true :


a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action
‫ثمٍذ االخزٍبساد كبَذ يسزجعذح رًبيب‬

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :


a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil

59)Enteric coated tablets:


Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach juices*****

60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :


a) Increase size of particles
b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
d) Decrease surface area
e) B + C******

‫ خبًَ سؤال كى خشعّ االسجشٌٍ ٔحبطٍٍ اخزٍبساد‬1


‫ ثس يٕ يزبكذ‬300 ‫ اَب حطٍذ‬300 1000 10 500

ً‫( ٔاعشفٕا كم دٔاء انى اي يدًٕعّ ٌُزًً كثٍش اسئهّ ردً ف‬antibiotics) ٌٍّٕ‫سكضٔا عهى انًضبداد انح‬
cephalosporins ّ‫االخزجبس ٔخبص‬
ٌٌّ‫ ْٕٔ يٍ انًدًٕعّ انثب‬cefaclor belongُّ‫خبًَ سٕال ي‬
1generation cephalosponins
2generation cephalospsonins
3generation cephalosponins2
4generation cephalosponins

ّ‫ يٍ اي يدًٕع‬ciprofloxacillinًَ‫ٔخب‬
aminoglycosid
cephalosporins
quinolones
penicillins

(heart failure ) ً‫ٔكًبٌ يبْٕ انذٔاء يٍ االرً انً ٌعبنح انفشم انمهج‬
digoxine ‫كبَٕا حبطٍٍ كزا اخزٍبس ثس االصح‬

t.i.d mean ّ‫اخزصباد كبَذ يشِ سٓه‬


three time daily
b.i.d
twice daily

‫ ثس انًشكهّ اٌ انحبسجّ يًُٕعّ ٔحزى ٔسلّ ٔلهى يبٌعطٕن يًُٕع َفسً اعشف‬4 ٍ‫انًسبئم كبَذ رمشٌج‬
... ً‫شهٌٕ ٌجَٕب َحهٓب انًٓى اٌ حهٍزٓب عشٕائ‬

ّ‫ٔكًبٌ ردً اسئهّ انذٔاء يٍ اي يدًٕع‬

59
‫سكضٔا عهى االدٌّٔ ٔيدًٕعبرٓب‬
atenolol belong
b blockers
b1 blockers
b2 blockers
b2 blockers

propranolol belong
b agonist,
b blockers
b2 blockers
b2 blockers

.. ّ‫االسًبء انعهًٍّ حهِٕ ٌعًُ حزى نٕ كبٌ انسٕال يبعشفزّ يٍ ا الخٕثّ رعشفّ الٌ االخٕثّ ركٌٕ ٔاضح‬
capoten generhc name
captopril

nifedipine trade name


adalat

simvastatin
zocor

acetazolamide used for


)‫ اندهكٕيب‬glacoma(

‫ٔكًبٌ خبًَ سؤال يبٍّْ االدٌّٔ انزً رسجت صٌبدِ َجضبد انمهت‬
‫ ثصشاحّ َبسً االخزٍبس‬tachycardia)
diazoxide ‫ثس اَب حهٍذ‬

which of the following will cause constipation as side effect

augmentin
morphine
multiviamine
diphenhydramine

...‫االَسٕنٍٍ ٔاالرشٔثٍٍ ٔانًٕسفٍٍ سكضٔا عهٍٓى كثٍش ردً اسئهّ يُٓى‬


.. ِ‫انصٍذنٍٍُبد سكضٔا عهٍّ انصهت ٔانسبئم ٔغٍش‬

‫؟؟‬..ٛ‫ِؼٗ سث‬ٚ ‫ اٌُ عىٓ األفؼً ٌشخض ػٕذٖ طذاع‬ٛ٘‫ِب‬/‫ط‬


paracetamol ‫ي‬ِٛ‫زب‬١‫اٌجبساع‬

‫؟؟‬..ًِ‫ا‬ٛ‫ اٌّؼبد إٌّبعت ٌٍح‬ٛ٘‫ِب‬/2‫ط‬


Amoxicillin ٓ١ٍٍ‫غ‬١‫وغ‬ِٛ‫األ‬

‫ي)؟؟‬ٌٕٛٛ١‫اء(ار‬ٚ‫ اٌذ‬ّٟ‫ٕز‬٠ ٗ‫ػ‬ّٛ‫ ِد‬ٌٝ‫ا‬/3‫ط‬


B-Blockers

‫ اٌذَ؟؟‬ٟ‫َ ف‬ٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ ٔغجخ اٌج‬ٟ٘‫ِب‬/4‫ط‬


3.5_5

‫ٗ؟؟‬١ٌ‫د‬ٟ‫ اٌظ‬ٟ‫غ ف‬٠‫ عدً اٌّش‬ٞٛ‫حز‬٠ ‫ ِبرا‬ٍٝ‫ػ‬/5‫ط‬


‫اٌدٕظ‬+ٗ٠ٚ‫االد‬+‫ض‬١‫اٌزشخ‬+‫اٌؼّش‬+ ‫غ‬٠‫اعُ اٌّش‬-

‫ذص؟؟‬٠‫ األ‬ٝ‫ ٌّشػ‬ٝ‫ؼط‬٠ ٞ‫ اٌؼالج اٌز‬ٛ٘‫ِب‬/6‫ط‬


zidovudine

60
‫ٗ؟؟‬٠‫ض‬١ٍ‫اء ثبٌٍغخ االٔد‬ٚ‫ اٌذ‬ٍٝ‫دٖ ػ‬ٛ‫خ‬ٌّٛ‫شاد ا‬٠‫ اٌزحز‬ٕٝ‫ ِبِؼ‬/7‫ط‬
precautions

diclofenac 500 ..ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ٗ رحز‬١‫طفٗ ؽج‬ٚ/8‫ط‬


‫غ؟؟‬٠‫ب ٌٍّش‬ٙٙ‫خ‬ٛ‫ ر‬ٟ‫ إٌظبئح اٌز‬ٟ٘‫ِب‬
ً‫اء ثؼذ األو‬ٚ‫بخز اٌذ‬٠ ْ‫ا‬

Neostigmin‫اء‬ٚ‫ي د‬ٚ‫وبٔذ رزٕب‬ٚ ًّ‫اِشأٖ اسادد اْ رح‬/9‫ط‬


‫اء؟؟‬ٚ‫ي اٌذ‬ٚ‫لف ػٓ رٕب‬ٛ‫ب أْ رز‬ٙ١ٍ‫دت ػ‬٠ ٟ‫وُ اٌّذح اٌز‬
ٓ١ِٛ٠-
ٓ١‫ػ‬ٛ‫اعج‬-
ٓ٠‫ش‬ٙ‫ش‬-
ٓ١‫عٕز‬-

‫؟؟‬OTC ٗ٠ٚ‫ ِٓ ٘زٖ االد‬ٞ‫ا‬/10‫ط‬


-Tegratol
-augmantin
-celebrex

amino glycoside ِٓ ‫خ‬٠ٛ١‫ ِٓ اٌّؼبداد اٌح‬ٞ‫أ‬/‫ط‬


:ُ‫ك اٌف‬٠‫ؤخز ػٓ ؽش‬٠
Gentamycin
Amikacin
Tobramycin
Neomycin

%%%%%%%%%%

G+ ٍٝ‫شارٗ ػ‬١‫ ربث‬ٟ‫ ِشبثٗ ف‬ٞٛ١‫ ِؼبد ح‬/teicoplanin ‫ط‬


‫اء؟؟‬ٚ‫ثذ‬

Jamica
Gentamycin
Kanamycin
Vancomycincin

%%%%%%%%%%

‫ ؟؟‬tetracycline ‫ػخ‬ّٛ‫ظ ِٓ ِد‬١ٌ ٍٟ٠ ‫ ِّب‬ٞ‫أ‬


Minocycline
Doxeycline
Demeclocline
Diltiazem

%%%%%%%%%%

‫ ؟؟‬calcium channel blocker ‫ػخ‬ّٛ‫ظ ِٓ ِد‬١ٌ ٍٟ٠ ‫ ِّب‬ٞ‫أ‬

61
‫‪Amlodipine‬‬
‫‪Cinnarazine‬‬
‫‪Verapamil‬‬
‫‪Diltiazem‬‬

‫‪%%%%%%%%%%‬‬

‫ػذد اٌف‪١‬زبِ‪ٕ١‬بد اٌزائجٗ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذ٘‪ْٛ‬؟؟‬

‫‪A – k – e –d‬‬

‫‪ 1-‬أ‪ ِٓ ٞ‬األد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪٠‬غزخذَ ٌؼالج ػغؾ اٌذَ؟ )‪(Inderal‬‬


‫‪2-‬إٌ‪ ٝ‬أ‪ِ ٞ‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ ‪ٕ٠‬زّ‪ ٟ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌزبٌ‪ Atenololٟ‬؟ ( ِدّ‪ٛ‬ػخ )‪B-Blockers‬‬
‫‪ 3-‬اٌ‪ ٟ‬أ‪ِ ٞ‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ ‪ٕ٠‬زّ‪ ٟ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌزبٌ‪ Spironolactoneٟ‬؟ ))‪Diuretcs‬‬
‫‪ِ 4-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌّؼبد اٌح‪ ٞٛ١‬إٌّبعت ٌٍح‪ٛ‬اًِ؟)‪(Amoxil‬‬
‫‪ 5-‬أ‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌخبطخ ٌٍؼغؾ ‪ّ٠‬ىٓ أػطبئ‪ٙ‬ب اٌحبًِ؟)‪(Methyldopa‬‬
‫‪ِ6-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌّغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج االِ‪١‬ج‪١‬ب اٌد‪١‬بسد‪٠‬ب؟‪(Metronidazole)flagyl‬‬
‫‪ِ 7-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ف‪١‬زبِ‪ B1ٓ١‬؟ )‪(Thiamine‬‬
‫‪ 8-‬أروش أعُ د‪ٚ‬اء ال ‪٠‬ؼط‪ٌّ ٝ‬ش‪٠‬غ ِظبة ثبٌشث‪ٛ‬؟‬
‫‪ِ 9-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌّذح اٌؼالخ‪١‬خ أ‪ِ ٚ‬ذح ػالج ِشع اٌغً‪ T.B‬؟ ِٓ ‪ 6‬أش‪ٙ‬ش اٌ‪ 9 ٝ‬أش‪ٙ‬ش‬
‫‪ِ10-‬بِؼٕ‪ OTCٝ‬؟ األد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌز‪ ٟ‬رظشف ثذ‪ٚ ْٚ‬طفخ ؽج‪١‬خ أ‪ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اال‪ٚ‬طف‪١‬خ‬
‫‪ِ11-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌزش‪٠‬بق ‪ Antidote‬اٌّغزخذَ ٌٍــ ‪Warfarin‬؟)‪(Vitamin K‬‬
‫‪ 12-‬أروش أعُ د‪ٚ‬اء ‪٠‬ؼط‪ OTCٝ‬؟‬
‫‪ِ 13-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌٍ ٟ‬ــ‪ Capotine‬؟)‪(Captopril‬‬
‫‪ِ 14-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌٍ ٟ‬ــ ‪ Flagyl‬؟ )‪(Metronidazole‬‬
‫‪ 15-‬أ‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج األ‪٠‬ذص ‪H.I.V‬؟)‪(Zidovudine‬‬
‫‪ِ16-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ذ‪ٚ‬اء‪ Prozac‬؟)‪(Fluxotine‬‬
‫‪17-‬ػٍ‪ِ ٝ‬برا ‪٠‬حز‪ ٞٛ‬اٌّحٍ‪ٛ‬ي‪ ORS‬؟‬
‫‪ِ 18-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬دسخخ حفظ االٔغ‪ٓ١ٌٛ‬؟ (ف‪ ٟ‬اٌثالخخ ثذسخخ حشاسح ِٓ ‪ِ 8-2‬ئ‪٠ٛ‬خ)‬
‫‪ِ 19-‬بٌ‪ ْٛ‬اٌج‪ٛ‬ي ٌألشخبص اٌذ‪٠ ٓ٠‬زٕب‪ Rifampicinٌْٛٚ‬؟(‪٠‬ظجح ٌ‪ ٗٔٛ‬أحّش)‬
‫‪ِ 20-‬بٔغجخ اٌ‪ّٛ١ٙ‬خٍ‪ٛ‬ث‪ ٓ١‬ف‪ ٟ‬ايدَ؟ (ف‪ ٟ‬اٌشخبي ِٓ ‪ٚ& 16.5-13.5‬ف‪ ٟ‬إٌغبء ِٓ ‪)15.5-12.5‬‬
‫‪ِ21-‬برا ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬االخزظبس ‪ q.i.d‬؟ (خشػخ ‪ٚ‬احذ أسثغ ِشاد وً أسثغ ‪ٚ‬ػشش‪ ْٚ‬عبػخ )‬
‫‪ٚ22-‬طفخ ؽج‪١‬خ رحز‪ ٞٛ‬ػٍ‪ Diclofenac Sodium ٝ‬ثّبرا رٕظح اٌّش‪٠‬غ ؟(ثأْ ‪٠‬أخز اٌؼالج ثؼذ‬
‫األوً)‬
‫‪ِ 23-‬ب أعُ إٌبلً ٌّشع اٌّالس‪٠‬ب؟ ( اٌجؼ‪ٛ‬ع)‬
‫‪ٚ24-‬طفٗ رحز‪ ٞٛ‬ػٍ‪٠ Prednsolone ٝ‬ؤخز ػٍ‪ ٝ‬إٌح‪ ٛ‬اٌزبٌ‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪1X Tid X 3 days‬‬
‫‪1X Bid X 3 days‬‬
‫‪1X qid X 3 days‬‬
‫وُ ػذد األلشاص اٌز‪ ٟ‬رظشف‪ٙ‬ب ٌٍّش‪٠‬غ؟ ‪(18‬لشص)‬
‫‪ 25-‬إِشاءح أسادد اْ رحًّ ‪ٚ‬وبٔذ رزٕب‪ٚ‬ي د‪ٚ‬اء ‪ِ Neostigmine‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌّذح اٌز‪٠ ٟ‬دت ػٍ‪ٙ١‬ب أْ‬
‫رز‪ٛ‬لف ػٓ أعزؼّبي اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء لجً اٌحًّ؟ (ِذح اٌز‪ٛ‬لف ٘‪ ٟ‬أعج‪ٛ‬ػ‪)ٓ١‬‬
‫‪ِ26-‬برا ‪٠‬ؼبٌح اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪ Acyclovir‬؟ ( األٌز‪ٙ‬بثبد اٌف‪١‬ش‪ٚ‬عبد)‬
‫‪ِ 27-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ف‪١‬زبِ‪ ٓ١‬ع‪ٟ‬؟)‪(Ascorbic Acid‬‬
‫‪ِ 28-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌز‪٠ ٞ‬م‪ َٛ‬ثبٌمؼبء ػٍ‪ ٝ‬د‪ٚ‬دح اإلعىبسط ؟)‪(Mebendazole‬‬
‫‪ِ 29-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌطش‪٠‬مخ اٌز‪٠ ٟ‬ى‪ ْٛ‬ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪% 100‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌدغُ؟ (ثبٌ‪ٛ‬س‪٠‬ذ) ‪I.V‬‬

‫‪62‬‬
‫‪ِ 30-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬ؽش‪٠‬مخ حفظ اٌٍمبحبد؟ (رحفظ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌثالخخ)‬
‫‪ِ 31-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬وٍّخ اٌزحز‪٠‬شاد اٌّ‪ٛ‬خ‪ٛ‬دح ػٍ‪ ٝ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ثبٌٍغخ االٔدٍ‪١‬ض‪٠‬خ؟)‪( Precautions‬‬
‫‪ 32-‬وُ ػذد خشػبد اٌزطؼ‪ ُ١‬إلٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬لبئ‪ٟ‬؟ ( ثالس ِشاد ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغٕخ)‬
‫‪ 33-‬أروش أسثؼخ ِٓ اٌف‪١‬زبِ‪ٕ١‬بد اٌز‪ ٟ‬رز‪ٚ‬ة ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذٖ ‪ْٚ‬؟ )‪(Vit.K,Vit.D,Vit.E,Vit.A‬‬
‫‪ِ 34-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌدشػخ اٌمظ‪ٌٍ ٜٛ‬جبساع‪١‬زبِ‪ٛ‬ي؟ (أسثؼخ خشاَ ٌىً ‪" َٛ٠‬أ‪ 8 ٞ‬ألشاص وً ‪")َٛ٠‬‬
‫‪ٌّ 35-‬برا رغزخذَ عٍفبد اٌجبس‪َٛ٠‬؟ (‪ٚ‬ع‪١‬طخ ٌألشؼخ)‬
‫‪ 36-‬اٌٍؼبة ‪٠‬م‪ َٛ‬ثزح‪ ً٠ٛ‬األوً اٌ‪ ٝ‬؟ ( ِبٌز‪ٛ‬ص)‬
‫‪ِ 37-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌدشػخ اٌمظ‪ٌٍ ٜٛ‬ــ‪ Captopril‬؟ (‪ٍِ 150‬دُ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌ‪ "َٛ١‬أ‪ ٞ‬لشط‪ٍِ 25 ٓ١‬دُ ثالس‬
‫ِشاد)‬
‫‪ 38-‬أروش اٌف‪١‬زبِ‪ٕ١‬بد اٌز‪ٚ‬اثخ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌّبء؟)‪(Vit.c,Vit.B‬‬
‫‪ٌ 39-‬زدٕت أِزظبص اٌّض‪٠‬ذ ِٓ اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌغبَ ‪٠‬ؼط‪ ٝ‬اٌّش‪٠‬غ ؟ ( اٌفحُ اٌطج‪"Charcoal"(ٟ‬‬
‫‪٠ 40-‬غزخذَ ِشػ‪ ٝ‬اٌغىش‪( ٞ‬إٌ‪ٛ‬ع اٌثبٔ‪ِ TypeII) ٟ‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ؟ )‪( Sulphonyl urea‬‬
‫‪٠ 41-‬غزخذَ د‪ٚ‬اء اٌث‪ٛ١‬فٍٍ‪ ٓ١‬ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ ؟ ( ِ‪ٛ‬عغ ٌٍمظجبد اٌ‪ٛٙ‬ائ‪١‬خ)‪Bronchodilator‬‬
‫‪ِ 42-‬ش‪٠‬غ اٌغىش‪ ٞ‬اٌّؼزّذ ػٍ‪ ٝ‬األٔغ‪٠ ٓ١ٌٛ‬ؼط‪ ٝ‬فمؾ ؟ (إٔغ‪)ٓ١ٌٛ‬‬
‫‪ 43-‬أ‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ال‪٠‬ؼط‪ ٝ‬ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ اٌحًّ؟ )‪(Ciprofloxacine‬‬
‫‪ٕ٠ 44-Cefaclor‬زّ‪ ٟ‬ألحذ اٌّدبِ‪١‬غ ‪ Cephalosporine‬فّب ٘‪ ٛ‬اٌد‪ً١‬؟ ( ٌٍد‪ ً١‬اٌثبٔ‪)ٟ‬‬
‫‪ِ45-‬بٖ ‪ ٚ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪ِٚ Voltaren‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬أعزخذاِخ؟ ‪٠ ( Diclofenac Sodium‬غزخذَ ف‪ٟ‬‬
‫حبالد س‪ِٚ‬بر‪١‬ضَ اٌّفبطً)‬
‫‪ِ46-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪ِٚZantac‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاِخ؟ ‪٠ ( Ranitidine‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ لشحخ‬
‫اٌّؼذح ‪ٚ‬اٌحّ‪ٛ‬ػخ)‬
‫‪ ِٓ 47-‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪٠‬غجت اٌغّ‪١‬خ ٌٍىجذ؟ ( ثبساع‪١‬زبِ‪ٛ‬ي)‬
‫‪ 48-‬أ‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪٠‬غجت اٌغّ‪١‬خ اٌىٍ‪٠ٛ‬خ؟ ( خٕزبِب‪٠‬غ‪)ٓ١‬‬
‫‪ِ49-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاَ اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪Sumatriptan‬؟ ( ‪٠‬غزخذَ ٌؼالج اٌشم‪١‬مخ "اٌظذاع إٌظف‪" (ٟ‬‬
‫‪ِ50-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاَ اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪Nitrofurantoin‬؟ ( ‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ إٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌّدبس‪ ٞ‬اٌج‪١ٌٛ‬خ)‪U.T.I.‬‬
‫‪ِ51-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاَ د‪ٚ‬اء ‪ Cimitidine‬؟ ( ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ لشحخ اٌّؼذح ‪ٚ‬اإلثٕ‪ ٝ‬ػشش)‬
‫‪ِ 52-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌّ ٟ‬غزحؼش ‪ِٚ Ventolin‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاِخ؟ "‪٠ ( Sulbatamol‬غزخذَ ف‪ٟ‬‬
‫حبٌخ اٌشث‪ِٛٚ ٛ‬عغ ٌٍشؼت اٌ‪ٛٙ‬ائ‪١‬خ)‬
‫‪ِ 53-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌّغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ اٌدفبف ٔز‪١‬دخ األع‪ٙ‬بي؟ (ِحٍ‪ٛ‬ي اٌدفبف)‪O.R.S‬‬
‫‪ 54-‬أروش أسثؼخ أد‪٠ٚ‬خ رغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج ِشػ‪ ٝ‬اٌغً؟‬
‫‪ِ 55-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌّغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ ٔمض‪ Thyroid Hormones‬؟ ( د‪ٚ‬اء ‪Thyroxine‬‬
‫)‪Sodium‬‬
‫‪ِ 56-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌّغزحؼش اٌّغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬حبي ص‪٠‬بدح‪ Thyroid Hormones‬؟ &‪( Carbimazole‬‬
‫)‪Propylthioracil‬‬
‫‪ِ 57-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬اٌحبٌخ اٌز‪٠ ٟ‬غزخذَ ف‪ٙ١‬ب ػمبس ‪ِٚ Gliclazide‬ب أعّخ اٌزدبس‪ٞ‬؟ ( ‪٠‬غزخذَ يِشػ‪ ٝ‬اٌغىش‬
‫‪ٚ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪Diamicron)ٞ‬‬
‫‪ِ 58-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌزدبس‪ٌ ٞ‬ؼمبس‪ Nifedipine‬؟)‪( Adalat‬‬
‫‪ِ 59-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌّ ٟ‬غزحؼش‪ Augmentin‬؟ ‪(ِAmoxicillin – Clavulanate‬‬
‫)‪potassium‬‬
‫‪ِ 60-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌّ ٟ‬غزحؼش ‪Co-trimoxazol‬؟‪( Sulfamethoxazole-‬‬
‫)‪Trimethoprim‬‬
‫‪ 61-‬أروش أعُ ِظرحؼش‪ِ ِٓ ٓ٠‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ ‪ Aminoglycoside‬؟‬
‫‪ 62-‬أروش خّغخ ِٓ األشىبي اٌظ‪١‬ذالٔ‪١‬خ؟‬
‫‪ 63-‬أروش األعُ اٌزدبس‪ٌ ٞ‬ؼمبس‪ Clarihromycin‬؟)‪(Klacid‬‬
‫‪ِ64-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌزش‪٠‬بق‪ٌ Antidote‬ؼمبس اٌ‪١ٙ‬جبس‪ٓ٠‬؟)‪(Protamin Sulphate‬‬

‫‪63‬‬
‫‪ 65-‬أروش األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌٍ ٟ‬ــ‪Vit.B6‬؟ )‪(Pyridoxine‬‬
‫‪ِ66-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬أعزخذاَ ػمبس ‪ِٚ Acetazolamide‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪ٞ‬؟ ( ‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج حبالد‬
‫اٌدٍ‪ٛ‬و‪ِٛ‬ب)‪Diamox‬‬
‫‪ِ 67-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬االخزظبساد اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪Susp,Sol,Syr,Cap,Drup,Oint‬‬
‫‪ِ 68-‬ز‪ ٝ‬ال ٔغزط‪١‬غ ‪ٚ‬طف األعجش‪ٌٍّ ٓ٠‬ش‪٠‬غ ؟ ( أرا وبْ ‪٠‬ؼبٔ‪ ِٓ ٟ‬لشحخ أ‪ ٚ‬حّ‪ٛ‬ػخ )‬
‫‪ِ 69-‬بٌفشق ث‪ ٓ١‬االِ‪ٛ‬وغ‪ٚ ً١‬اال‪ٚ‬خ‪ِٕٛ‬ز‪ ٓ١‬؟‬
‫‪ِ70-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬اٌّظطٍحبد اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ?"‪"Bid,I.V,Amp.SOS‬‬
‫‪ِ71-‬برا رؼٕ‪ ٟ‬إٌغجخ‪ Dextrose 5%‬؟ ( ِحٍ‪ٛ‬ي دوغزش‪ٚ‬ص ‪٠‬حز‪ ٞٛ‬ػٍ‪ٍِ 5ٝ‬دشاَ ٌىً ‪)ًِ100‬‬
‫‪ِ72-‬بألعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌّ ٟ‬غزحؼش‪ Aspirin‬؟ )‪(Acetylsalicylic Acid‬‬
‫‪ 73-‬أروش ثالس ؽشق ٌٕظبَ اٌزشر‪١‬ت اٌظ‪١‬ذٌ‪١‬خ؟ ( حغت االحشف االثدذ‪٠‬خ ‪ ,‬اٌشىً اٌظ‪١‬ذالٔ‪, ٟ‬‬
‫حغت األعذػّبي)‬
‫‪ٌّ 74-‬برا ‪٠‬غزخذَ ػمبس ‪ِٚMetoclopramide‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪ٞ‬؟ (‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج حبالد‬
‫اٌم‪ٟ‬ء ‪ٚ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪Plasil, Prempiran) ٞ‬‬
‫‪ِ 75-‬برا ‪ّ٠‬ىٓ اْ ‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج حبالد اإلِغبن ؟ ( رحبِ‪Glycerin) ً١‬‬
‫‪ 76-‬اػط‪ ٟ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌٍّ ٟ‬غزحؼشاد اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ‪" Captopril‬‬
‫‪,Cephlexin,Allopurinol,Capoten,Keflex,Zyloric‬؟‬
‫‪ 77-‬أروش اعّ‪ ِٓ ٓ١‬االعّبء اٌؼٍّ‪١‬خ ِٓ ِدّ‪ٛ‬ػخ اٌـ ‪Penicillin‬؟‬
‫‪ِ 78-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬اٌّظطٍح اٌزبٌ‪ T.B ٚ G.I.T ٟ‬؟‬
‫‪ 79-‬أرا وبْ ٌذ‪٠‬ه د‪ٚ‬اء ‪ٚ‬وزت ػٍ‪١‬خ ‪٠‬حفظ ف‪ ٟ‬دسخخ حشاسح ‪ 59‬ف‪ٙ‬شٔ‪ٙ‬بر‪١‬خ فىُ رى‪ ْٛ‬دسخخ اٌحفظ‬
‫ثبٌذسخخ اٌّئ‪٠ٛ‬خ ؟ ( اٌذسخخ اٌّئ‪٠ٛ‬خ = اٌذسخخ اٌف‪ٙ‬شٔ‪ٙ‬ب‪٠‬ز‪١‬خ –‪X 5/9 32‬‬
‫‪=(59-32) X 5 ÷ 9=15‬دسخخ ِئ‪٠ٛ‬خ)‬
‫‪ِ 80-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬األعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌّ ٟ‬غزحؼش ‪ِٚ Lasix‬ب أعزخذاِخ؟ ‪ٚ ( Frusemide‬اعزخذاِخ ِذس ٌٍج‪ٛ‬ي)‬
‫‪ِ81-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاَ ػمبس ‪ِٚ Simvastatin‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪ٞ‬؟ ( ‪٠‬غزخذَ ٌزمٍ‪ٔ ً١‬غجخ اٌى‪١ٌٛ‬غزش‪ٚ‬ي‬
‫ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ‪ٚ‬اعّخ اٌزدبس‪Zocor) ٞ‬‬
‫‪ 82-‬اروش اعُ ػمبس ِٓ ِدّ‪ٛ‬ػخ رزشاعب‪٠‬ىٍ‪ٓ١‬؟‬
‫‪ِ 83-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬دسخخ حشاسح اٌثالخخ ‪ِٚ‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬دسخخ حشاسح اٌغشفخ ٌحفظ االد‪٠ٚ‬خ؟ ( ف‪ ٟ‬اٌثالخخ ِٓ ‪8-2‬‬
‫دسخخ ِئ‪٠ٛ‬خ ‪ٚ ,‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغشفخ ِٓ ‪ 25-15‬دسخخ ِئ‪٠ٛ‬خ)‬
‫‪ِ84-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬االخزظبس ‪ O.R.S‬؟‬
‫‪ِ85-‬بِؼٕ‪ ٝ‬االخزظبس ‪NSAIDs‬؟‬
‫‪ِ86-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اعزخذاَ ػمبس‪ Metformin‬؟‬
‫‪ 87-‬أروش ثالس اعزخذاِبد ٌٍــ ‪Aspirin‬؟‬
‫‪ 88-‬أروش أثٕ‪ ِٓ ٓ١‬وً خ‪ٌّ ً١‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ اٌغ‪١‬فبٌ‪ٛ‬عج‪ٛ‬س‪ٕ٠‬بد؟‬
‫‪ 89-‬ا‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ‪٠‬غزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج اٌؼغؾ؟‪Diltazem‬‬
‫‪ 90-‬اٌ‪ ٟ‬ا‪ِ ٞ‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ ‪ٕ٠‬زّ‪ ٟ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء ‪Atenolol‬؟‪Bblockers‬‬
‫‪ 91-‬اٌ‪ ٝ‬ا‪ِ ٞ‬دّ‪ٛ‬ػخ ‪ٕ٠‬زّ‪ ِٓ spironolocton? ٟ‬اٌّذساد اٌج‪١ٌٛ‬خ اٌحبفؼخ ٌٍج‪ٛ‬ربع‪َٛ١‬‬
‫‪ 92-‬ا‪ ِٓ ٞ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌخبطخ ٌٍؼغؾ ‪ّ٠‬ىٓ اػطبئخ ٌٍح‪ٛ‬اًِ؟ ‪methyldopa‬‬
‫‪ 93-‬ا‪ ِٓ ٞ‬اٌخ‪ٛ‬اص اٌزبٌ‪١‬خ ِٓ خ‪ٛ‬اص ?‪ِ Mannitol‬ذس ث‪ٚ ٌٟٛ‬ال‪٠‬ؼط‪ ٝ‬ػٓ ؽش‪٠‬ك اٌفُ‬
‫‪٠ٚ‬ؼط‪I.V . I.Mٝ‬‬
‫‪ِ 94-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌّؼبد إٌّبعت ٌٍح‪ٛ‬اًِ؟‪Amoxicillin‬‬
‫‪ِ95-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪metronidazoleٛ٘FLAGYL? ًٌ ٟ‬‬
‫‪ َ96-‬ا٘‪ ٛ‬اٌذ‪ٚ‬اء اٌّغزخذَ ف‪ ٟ‬ػالج االِ‪١‬جبء ?‪metronidazoleٛ٘ GARDIASIS‬‬
‫‪ِ 97-l‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬اٌزش‪٠‬بق اٌّغزخذَ ًٌ ?‪vitamin k ٛ٘Warfarin‬‬
‫‪ِ 98-‬ب٘‪ ٛ‬االعُ اٌؼٍّ‪ٌ ٟ‬ف‪١‬زبِ‪THIAMINEٛ٘ B1? ٓ١‬‬
‫‪ِ 99-‬ب٘‪ ٟ‬االد‪٠ٚ‬خ اٌز‪ ٟ‬الرؼط‪ ٝ‬ف‪ ٟ‬حبٌخ اٌشث‪ٛ‬؟ ‪BRUFEN,ASPIRIN,VOLTAREN,‬‬

‫‪64‬‬
ADOL
‫ش‬ٙ‫ عزخ اش‬ٟ٘ T.B? ً‫ اٌّذح ٌؼالج َ سع اٌغ‬ٟ٘‫ِب‬100-
SIMPLE ANALGESIC ‫طخ‬١‫( اٌّغىٕبد اٌجغ‬OTC)? ‫طفخ‬ٚ ْٚ‫ ثذ‬ٝ‫ؼط‬٠ ٟ‫ ِٓ االر‬ٞ‫ ا‬101-

Question # 1 (True/False) Increased preload usually leads to increased


contractility:
A) true
B) false
Question # 2 (True/False) Heart rate X Stroke Volume = cardiac output
A) true
B) false
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Effect of concurrent administration of
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents on antihypertensive properties of
beta-blockers:
A) enhanced antihypertensive effect
B) diminished antihypertensive effect
C) no effect
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Major classes of diuretics used in
hypertension management:
A) loop diuretics
B) osmotic diuretics
C) potassium sparing diuretics
D) thiazides
E) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor's
Question # 5 (Multiple Answer) Possible antihypertensive effects:
A) increased peripheral resistance
B) decreased afterload
C) increased preload
D) decrease contractility
E) all of the above
Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Examples of selective beta1 adrenergic
receptor blockers:
A) propranolol (Inderal)
B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
C) atenolol (Tenormin)
D) acebutalol
E) albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil)
Question # 7 (Multiple Answer) Administration of anesthesia to patients
treated with antihypertensive drugs
A) increased likelihood of orthostatic hypotension
B) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to acute blood loss
C) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to body position changes
D) altered physiological response to sympathomimetic drugs
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Effect on renin levels of beta adrenergic

65
receptor blockers:
A) increased
B) decreased
Question # 9 (Multiple Answer) Neurogenic causes of systolic and diastolic
hypertension:
A) polyneuritis
B) elevated intracranial pressure
C) familial dysautonomia
D) polyarteritis nodosa
E) pheochromocytoma
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Hypertension of unknown etiology--
causes:
A) toxemia of pregnancy
B) acute intermittent porphyria
C) essential hypertension
Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive drugs classified as
"adrenergic neuron blockers":
A) clonidine (Catapres)
B) guanethidine (Ismelin)
C) guanadrel (Hylorel) and
D) reserpine
E) guanabenz (Wytensin)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Selective blockers of alpha1 adrenergic
receptors:
A) propranolol (Inderal)
B) phentolamine (Regitine)
C) prazosin (Minipress)
D) atropine
E) neostigmine (Prostigmin)
Question # 13 (True/False) Cardiac Output X Peripheral Resistance =
Arterial Pressure
A) true
B) false
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Heart block with intermittent conduction;
increasingly prolonged PR interval; QRS < 0.12 seconds; QRS dropped in a
repeating pattern
A) first degree heart block
B) second-degree heart block -- Mobitz type I
C) second-degree heart block-Mobitz type II
D) third degree heart block
Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with ganglionic
blocking drugs:
A) bladder dysfunction
B) xerostromia

66
C) paralytic ileus
D) blurred vision
Question # 16 (Multiple Answer) Endocrine causes of systolic and diastolic
hypertension:
A) polyneuritis
B) hypercalcemia
C) primary hyperaldosteronism
D) acromegaly
E) myxedema
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Principal thiazide site of action:
A) late distal tubule and collecting duct
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) loop of Henle
Question # 18 (Multiple Answer) Clinical conditions that increase stroke
volume and which may cause systolic hypertension:
A) thyrotoxicosis
B) fever
C) aortic regurgitation
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Ganglionic blockers might be used in this
condition because they reduce arterial blood pressure and the upslope of the
aortic pressure wave:
A) renal vascular stenosis
B) polyarteritis nodosa
C) dissecting aortic aneurysm
D) intermittent claudication
E) coronary insufficiency
Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of guanethidine (Ismelin)
and guanadrel (Hylorel):
A) symptomatic hypertension
B) sexual dysfunction in males
C) diarrhea
Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:
A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
B) pindolol (Visken)
C) acebutolol (Sectral)
D) propranolol (Inderal)
Question # 22 (Multiple Answer) Maintenance of antihypertensive drug
treatment during the perioperative period
A) Previously effective antihypertensive drug therapy should be continued
during the perioperative phase
B) The pharmacology of the particular antihypertensive drug should be
considered in the development of the anesthesia plan
Question # 23 (Multiple Answer) More likely to cause bronchospasm and
mask hypoglycemia:

67
A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
B) atenolol (Tenormin)
C) timolol (Blocadren)
D) pindolol (Visken)
Question # 24 (Multiple Answer) Concerning the baroreflex:
A) baroreceptor input goes to the tractus solitarius of medulla
B) excitation of the vagal centers is induced
C) negative inotropism results
D) positive chronotropism occurs
Question # 25 (Multiple Choice) Glucose intolerance and long-term
antihypertensive beta-blocker treatment--
A) more likely to develop
B) less likely to develop
C) unrelated
Question # 26 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with beta-
adrenergic receptor blockers:
A) bradycardia
B) bronchospasm
C) masking of hypoglycemia
D) impotence
E) sedation
Question # 27 (Multiple Answer) Centrally-acting sympatholytics:
A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
B) guanabenz (Wytensin)
C) clonidine (Catapres)
D) methyldopa (Aldomet)
E) guanethidine (Ismelin)
Question # 28 (Multiple Choice) Effect on angiotensin II levels of beta
adrenergic receptor blockers:
A) increased
B) decreased
Question # 29 (Multiple Answer) Thiazide diuretics:
A) The initial blood-pressure reduction is due to a decrease in cardiac output
and extracellular volume
B) Long-term hypertensive effects of thiazides is due to reduced myocardial
contractility
C) Site of action -- ascending loop of Henle
D) are potassium-sparing
Question # 30 (Multiple Choice) Cardioselective beta-blockers bind to this
receptor subtype:
A) beta1
B) beta2
Question # 31 (Multiple Choice) Effect(s) of beta adrenergic blockers on
blood lipids:

68
A) decreased blood triglyceride levels
B) increased levels of HDL cholesterol
C) both
D) neither
1
Physiological properties of nitrates:

cause vasodilation by releasing potassium which activates guanylyl cyclase

primarily cause venular smooth muscle relaxation

act primarily through dilation of coronary arteries

increased myocardial preloaded

increased myocardial wall tension

2
Antianginal agent most likely to cause methemoglobinemia:

isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)

propranolol (Inderal)

nitroglycerin

amyl nitrite

metoprolol (Lopressor)

3
Vasodilation by direct action on vascular smooth muscle

minoxidil (Loniten)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

nitroglycerin

all the above

4
Effective in management of variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:

69
propranolol (Inderal)

nitroglycerin

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

A&C

B&C

5
Antianginal agents administered by inhalation:

nitroglycerin

phentolamine (Regitine)

amyl nitrite

metoprolol (Lopressor)

captopril (Capoten)

6
Calcium channel blocker -- most effective vasodilator:

verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

nicardipine (Cardene)

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

nimodipine (Nimotop)

7
Antianginal agent which decreases myocardial contractility (negative
inotropism)

amrinone (Inocor)

nitroglycerin

70
amyl nitrite

metoprolol (Lopressor)

phentolamine (Regitine)

8
Calcium channel blocker most likely to decrease contractility, reduce
sinoatrial nodal impulse generation, and slow AV nodal conduction.

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

nicardipine (Cardene)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

nimodipine (Nimotop)

verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)

9
Blocks tachycardia resulting from nitroglycerin administration

atropine

phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)

propranolol (Inderal)

10
Side effect least likely to be seen with nitroglycerin:

hypertension

headache

dizziness

palpitations

Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Advantages of oral clonidine (Catapres)


(preanesthetic medication):
A) enhances intrathecal morphine plus tetracaine postoperative analgesia
B) decreases inhaled anesthetic requirement

71
C) decreases injected and esthetic requirement
D) reduces reflex tachycardia caused by direct laryngoscopy for tracheal
intubation
E) increases plasma catecholamines; helps to maintain BP
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Acts as a competitive antagonist in both
alpha1 and beta1 adrenergic receptors; has intrinsic sympathomimetic effect
at beta2 adrenergic receptors:
A) clonidine (Catapres)
B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
C) acebutolol (Sectral)
D) labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
E) atenolol (Tenormin)
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator which produces methemoglobin
in the body
A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
B) minoxidil (Loniten)
C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with ACE
inhibitors:
A) angioedema
B) dry cough
C) rhinorrhea
D) proteinuria
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Management of excessive hypotensive
reaction probably caused by continued ACE inhibitor treatment
perioperatively:
A) crystalloid fluid infusion
B) sympathomimetic administration
C) both
D) neither
Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with clonidine use
as analgesic:
A) respiratory depression
B) nausea
C) vomiting
D) delayed gastric emptying
E) none of the above
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil
(Loniten), administered as monotherapy, might be expected to produce:
A) water retention
B) cardiac stimulation (reflex-mediated)
C) both
D) neither
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of antihypertensive action:

72
clonidine (Catapres) --
A) peripheral alpha1 adrenergic receptor blocker
B) peripheral beta2 adrenergic receptor agonist
C) central alpha2 adrenergic agonist
D) central beta-adrenergic agonist
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Antihypertensive drug: hypertrichosis
A) methyldopa (Aldomet)
B) clonidine (Catapres)
C) diltiazem (Cardiazem)
D) minoxidil (Loniten)
E) propranolol (Inderal)
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of furosemide (Lasix):
A) gout
B) potassium depletion
C) ototoxicity
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator identified as especially
effective in managing severe hypertension associated with renovascular
disease, transplant rejection, renal failure
A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
C) minoxidil (Loniten)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with
hydralazine (Apresoline) (given alone):
A) palpitations
B) fluid retention
C) angina
D) headache
E) hypotension
Question # 13 (True/False) Clonidine can be used for dose-dependent
analgesia (epidural)
A) true
B) false
Question # 14 (Multiple Answer) ACE inhibitors:first line treatment for
patients with --
A) systemic hypertension
B) mitral regurgitation
C) congestive heart failure
Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Clinical uses: nitroprusside sodium
(Nipride)
A) controlled hypotension during anesthesia and surgery
B) controlled hypotension during surgery -- likely to ensure adequate
cerebral perfusion
C) acute & chronic heart failure
D) hypertensive emergencies

73
E) aortic surgery; reduction of proximal hypertension associated with aortic
cross-clamping
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilation:hydralazine (Apresoline) --
A) more pronounced effect on arterioles
B) more pronounced effect on venules
C) equal effect on arterioles and renewals
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Relaxes both arterial and venous vascular
smooth muscle
A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
C) minoxidil (Loniten)
Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Direct acting, nonselective peripheral
vasodilator; 44% cyanide by weight
A) minoxidil (Loniten)
B) hydralazine (Apresoline)
C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Class of antihypertensive drugs particularly
useful for management of low-renin hypertension:-- monotherapy
A) ACE inhibitors
B) loop diuretics
C) calcium channel blockers
Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Examples of loop diuretics:
A) mannitol (Osmitrol)
B) bumetanide (Bumex)
C) flecainide (Tambocor)
D) triamterene (Dyrenium)
E) spironolactone (Aldactone)
Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive vasodilators which
would be most readily used for chronic treatment:
A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
B) minoxidil (Loniten)
C) hydralazine (Apresoline)

2
Some asthmatic patients exhibit aspirin sensitivity (and sensitivity to other
NSAIDS). Daily administration of aspirin causes desensitization not only to
aspirin also to other NSAIDS. This phenomenon is:

the placebo effect

cross-tolerance

efficacy

74
potency

3
A thirty-eight year old asthmatic who has been using beta adrenergic
agonists for several years began to experience arrhythmias, premature atrial
contractions. In order to suppress the arrhythmias, high-dose metoprolol
therapy was started. Suggest a likely consequence:

The cardioselective beta-blocker, metoprolol, alleviated the arrhythmia and


did not affect the patient's asthma symptoms

Since metoprolol is a beta agonist, the patient's arrhythmias worsened, but


symptoms of asthma improved.

The expiratory component of the patient's flow/volume curve was shortened.

Metoprolol increased airway obstruction, worsening the patient's asthma,


but improved the cardiac rhythm disorder.

4
Anti-asthma agent that acts in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors
thus increasing cAMP

ipratropium

terbutaline

cromolyn

methoxamine

5
An asthmatic is prescribed an adrenergic agent. After administration, the
drug makes the patient tachycardiac and nervous. This drug was probably:

albuterol

isoproterenol

terbutaline

75
A&C
6
V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) mismatching which occurs in severe asthma
results in hypoxemia. Terbutaline inhalation inproves the V/Q ratio. Why?

Increased cardiac output increases pulmonary artery perfusion pressure in


the lung

Pulmonary vasodilation improves V/Q mismatching

Bronchiolar relaxation improves ventilation.

Actually, it is the use of supplimental oxygen that is more important than


terbutaline.

7
roperty combination Correct drug

theophylline: hepatic oxidation and demethylation

albuterol: beta2 adrenergic blocker

ipratropium bromide: well-absorbed quaternary anticholinergic; associated


with dry mouth

Beclomethasone: enhances release of chemical mediators of bronchospasm


which diminishes effectiveness of beta-2 adrenergic agonists.

8
Corticosteroids and the treatment of asthma:

Corticosteroids relax smooth muscle

Corticosteroids inhibit the inflammatory response.

Corticosteroids reduce patient responsiveness to beta agonists

In acute asthma, corticosteroids increase airway obstruction; therefore


corticosteroids should only be used for chronic treatment.

9
Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:

76
ipratropium bromide

aminophylline

metaproterenol

cyclosporine

10
Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of
bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells:

beclomethasone

cromolyn

metaproterenol

albuterol

1
Potassium sparing diuretic:

furosemide (Lasix)

triamterene (Dyrenium)

chlorothiazide (Diuril)

mannitol (Osmitrol)

torsemide (Demadex)

2
Increased urinary output in a congestive heart failure patient who has been
started on digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) is most likely due to:

renovascular dilatation

increased renal perfusion

decreased post glomerular arteriolar tone

77
a direct effect on renal sodium transport
a decrease in vagal tone to the kidney

3
Potassium sparing diuretic:

chlorothiazide (Diuril)

bumetanide (Bumex)

amiloride (Midamor)

mannitol (Osmitrol)

furosemide (Lasix)

4
Primarily an arterial vasodilator that may be useful in management of
congestive heart failure:

isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)

minoxidil (Loniten)

lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)

5
Digitalis-induced bradycardia in the normal heart is due to:

decreased conduction through the AV node

increased vagal tone

increased sympathetic tone

decrease in fluid load

peripheral vasodilation

6
Digitalis-effect on vascular resistance in congestive heart failure patients:

vascular resistance increases

78
vascular resistance decreases
7
Digitalis-induced diuresis in edematous patients is mainly due to:

renal vasodilation

increased post-glomerular arteriolar tone

increased cardiac output

decreased heart rate

blockade of the sodium-potassium transporter

8
Drug interaction that may reduce digitalis absorption:

quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)

cholestyramine (Questran, Questran Light)

norepinephrine

9
An example of a positive inotropic drug that acts by inhibiting myocardial
phosphodiesterase.

triamcinolone (Aristocort)

amrinone (Inocor)

ouabain

tranylcypromine (Parnate)

dopamine (Intropin)

10
Cardiac effects of. digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) include:

increased heart rate

increased automaticity

79
decreased velocity of contraction
increased conduction through the AV node

decreased cardiac output

11
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:

captopril (Capoten)

isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)

losartin (Cozaar)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

12
Calcium channel blocker with marked negative inotropic cardiac effects:

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

amlodipine (Norvasc)

amrinone (Inocor)

labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)

13
Positive inotropic agent that not only stimulates beta-1, beta-2, alpha-1,
alpha-2 receptors but also acts as a vasodilator to reduce aortic impedance
(afterload).

isoproterenol (Isuprel)

norepinephrine

dopamine (Intropin)

dobutamine (Dobutrex)

80
phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
14
Loop diuretic useful both in acute and chronic management of congestive
heart failure:

chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

chlorhalidone (Hygroton)

bumetanide (Bumex)

ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)

spironolactone (Aldactone)

15
Digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) clinical uses:

atrial fibrillation

atrial flutter

congestive heart failure

A&C

A, B & C

16
Useful in treating arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity:

lidocaine (Xylocaine)

potassium

both

neither

17
Effects of digitalis glycosides on the heart include:

increased conduction velocity through the AV node

81
decreased refractory period of the AV node
positive inotropic effects

positive chronotropic effects

A&C

18
Positive inotropic drug are not classified as a cardiac glycoside:

metoprolol (Lopressor)

prazosin (Minipress)

amrinone (Inocor)

methacholine (Provocholine)

quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)

1. Most common complication insulin therapy:

A. ? lipodystrophies
B. ? hypotension
C. ? gallstones
D. ? hypoglycemia
E. ? retinopathy

2. Effects associated with insulin- induced hypoglycemia:

A. ? tachycardia
B. ? palpitations
C. ? nausea
D. ? sweating
E. ? all of the above

3. Effective in the immediate management of the comatose, hypoglycemic


patient.

A. ? have the patient drink orange juice


B. ? provide IV infusion of 50% glucose solution
C. ? glucagon injection -- subcutaneous or intramuscular
D. ? B & C

82
E. ? A,B & C

4. Causes of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient:

A. ? insulin overdosage
B. ? delay in eating (later than normal)
C. ? unusual physical activity
D. ? A & B
E. ? A,B & C

5. Blockade of signs of diabetic hypoglycemia:

A. ? diabetic neuropathy
B. ? metoprolol (Lopressor)
C. ? propranolol (Inderal)
D. ? B & C
E. ? A, B & C

6. Insulin allergy:

A. ? immediate response is IgG mediated


B. ? anaphylaxis may result
C. ? change in insulin species(e.g. from pure pork or human from beef)
D. ? B & C
E. ? A, B & C

7. Biguanide-- oral hypoglycemic drug:

A. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
B. ? acarbose (Precose)
C. ? metformin (Glucophage)
D. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)
E. ? none of the above

8. Proposed mechanism(s) for hypoglycemic action of sulfonylureas:

A. ? enhancement of insulin release from pancreatic beta cells


B. ? increase of serum glucagon levels
C. ? potentiation of insulin effects at target tissues
D. ? A & B
E. ? A & C

9. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drug:receptor sites

83
A. ? muscarinic receptor
B. ? calcium channel
C. ? potassium channel
D. ? beta adrenergic receptor
E. ? alpha adrenergic receptor

10. Inhibitors of insulin release:

A. ? somatostatin
B. ? diazoxide (Hyperstat)
C. ? phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. ? vinblastine (Velban)
E. ? all of the above

11. Second generation sulfonylurea:

A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
B. ? tolazamide (Tolinase)
C. ? acetohexamide
D. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)

12. Second-generation sulfonylurea approved for once-daily use as


monotherapy in management of Type II diabetes:

A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
B. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
C. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
D. ? glimepiride (Amaryl)
E. ? metformin (Glucophage)

13. Oral hypoglycemic agent most likely to be prescribed for patients with
refractory obesity and who exhibit insulin resistance syndrome: in

A. ? acetohexamide
B. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
C. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
D. ? metformin (Glucophage)
E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)

14. Aldose reductase inhibitor:

A. ? metformin (Glucophage)
B. ? acetazolamide (Diamox)

84
C. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
D. ? acarbose (Precose)
E. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)

15. Cardiac effects of glucagon:

A. ? positive inotropic; positive chronotropic


B. ? negative inotropic negative chronotropic

16. Immediate pharmacologic/metabolic consequence of glucagon infusion:

A. ? increase hepatic glycogen; decrease blood glucose


B. ? decrease blood glucose; decrease stored hepatic glycogen
C. ? increased blood glucose; decreased hepatic glycogen
D. ? decreased blood glucose; increase stored hepatic glycogen
E. ? none of the above

17. Glucagon effect(s)-- at pharmacologic doses:

A. ? promote insulin release from normal pancreatic B cells


B. ? promote catecholamine release from pheochromocytoma
C. ? promote calcitonin release from medullary carcinoma cells
D. ? A & B
E. ? A, B & C

18. Following very significant alpha and beta-adrenergic blocker


overdosage; most likely to promote increased inotropic and chronotropic
cardiac response

A. ? isoproterenol (Isuprel)
B. ? phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
C. ? glucagon
D. ? mecamylamine (Inversine)
E. ? none of the above would be effective

Exam 1 Coagulation
This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button
corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking
'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through
hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.

85
‫رج‬ٌّٕٛ‫ ا‬ٍٝ‫أػ‬

Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Excessive anticoagulant effect in bleeding


due to warfarin can be reversed by:
A) stopping the drug
B) large doses of vitamin K
C) factor IX concentrates
D) cholestyramine
E) diuretics
Question # 2 (Multiple Answer) Protease inhibitor(s) that inactivators
coagulation proteins escaping from sites of vessel injury:
A) alpha2-macroglobulin
B) alpha2-antiplasmin
C) antithrombin III
D) alpha1 antiprotease
E) streptokinase
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Cutaneous necrosis was reduced protein C
activity occurs during the first weeks of therapy with:
A) streptokinase
B) abciximab
C) warfarin
D) ticlopidine
E) aspirin
Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Coagulation Factor(s) targets of heparin:
A) fibrinogen
B) proaccelerin
C) prothrombin
D) Christmas factor
E) antihemophilic globulin (AHG)
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Thrombus type most likely to be formed in
low pressure veins
A) white thrombus
B) red thrombus
Question # 6 (True/False) Warfarin crosses the placental barrier:
A) true
B) false
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Synonym for factor VII:
A) proaccelerin
B) prothrombin
C) proconvertin
D) Christmas factor
E) Fibrin-stabilizing factor
Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Fibrolytic drugs:
A) streptokinase

86
B) alteplase
C) reteplase
D) urokinase
E) cyclooxygenase
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Immediate hemostatic responds to the
damage vessel:
A) platelet adhesion
B) platelet aggregation
C) platelet viscous metamorphosis
D) vasospasm
E) white thrombus formation
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Coumarin anticoagulants resulted in
biologically inactive forms of:
A) factor VII
B) factor IX
C) factor X
D) anticoagulant protein C
E) anticoagulant protein S
Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Increases prothrombin time:
A) cimetadine
B) metronidazole
C) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D) fluconazole
E) disulfram
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Mouse/human chimeric monoclonal
antibody -- blocks IIb/IIIb platelet receptor
A) ticlopidine
B) timolol
C) abciximab
D) eicosapentaenoic acid
E) streptokinase
‫رج‬ٌّٕٛ‫أعفً ا‬

1
Second generation sulfonylurea antidiabetic drug:

chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

Tolbutamide (Orinase)

glipizide (Glucotrol)

A&C

87
A, B & C

2
Clinically use(s) for glucagon:

management of severe hyperglycemia

beta adrenergic receptor poisoning

diagnostic uses
B&C

A&C

3
Major manifestations of diabetes:

metabolic disorders

inappropriate hyperglycemia

both

neither

4
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:

Type I

Type II

5
Characteristics of Type I diabetes:

typically adult onset

low plasma glucagon

insulin nearly absent

pancreatic B cell is responsive to insulinogenic stimuli

88
6
In a patient with Type I diabetes, exogenous insulin is required to:

prevent ketosis

reverse hypoglucagonemia

reverses catabolic state

A&C

A, B & C

7
Symptoms Secondary to Hyperglycemia in a Type I Diabetic Patient

polyuria

polydipsia

polyphagia

A, B & C

none of the above

8
Cause(s) of metabolic effecct(s) associated with Type I diabetes:

relative or significant glucagon excess

an increase in glucagon/insulin ratio

excessive insulin concentration

A&B

A, B & C

9
IDDM: typical age of onset

89
less than 40 years of age

greater than 40 years of age

10
Acute complication: NIDDM

ketoacidosis

hyperosmolar coma

11
Plasma insulin concentration: NIDDM

low to absent

normal to high

12
IDDM: response to sulfonylurea drugs:

unresponsive

responsive

13
Characteristic(s)of Type II diabetes:

Group of milder forms of diabetes

Occurs mainly in children

Obesity: common risk factor

A&C

A, B & C

14
Clinical presentation: NIDDM

usually developed ketoacidosis

exhibits volume excess

90
CNS symptoms

exhibits hypo-osmolality

15
Hyperosmolar, nonketotic coma:

caused by sustained hyperglycemia diuresis when patients cannot drink


enough water to keep up with urinary fluid loss

complete manifestation occurs when volume depletion decreases urine


output
both

neither

16
Treatment of hyperosmolar coma states

large amounts of IV fluids

insulin

potassium salts

sodium bicarbonate

all the above

17
Type II diabetes treatment --

weight reduction

diet

insulin

sulfonylurea drugs

all the both

18

91
Clinical use for short-acting insulin

IV treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis

management of rapidly changing insulin requirements

both

neither

19
Tight glycemic control recommended:

for patients with advance renal disease

elderly

children under the age of seven years

none of the above

20
Most common complication of insulin treatment

excessive appetite

tachycardia, palpitations -- sympathetic overactivity

hypoglycemia

Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) More likely to affect the cytochrome P450


drug metabolizing system:
A) ranitidine (Zantac)
B) cimetidine (Tagamet)
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Only class of antiulcer drugs that can
eradicate Helicobacter pylori and cure associated gastritis:
A) sucralfate (Carafate)
B) colloidal bismuth
C) H2 blockers
D) Anticholinergic agents

92
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: melt-alkali syndrome:
A) aluminum hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) calcium carbonate
D) sodium bicarbonate
Question # 4 (True/False) Reduces basal unstimulated gastric acid secretion;
enhanced mucosal resistance to injury-- prostaglandins (PGE1/PGE2)
A) true
B) false
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: effective, but associated with
systemic alkalosis
A) calcium carbonate
B) sodium bicarbonate
C) magnesium hydroxide
D) aluminum hydroxide
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: most likely to cause systemic
phosphate depletion:
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) calcium carbonate
C) magnesium hydroxide
D) aluminum hydroxide
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Monotherapy effectiveness in eradication of
H. pylori-- bismuth compounds
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole
approved for clinical treatment of:
A) duodenal ulcer
B) erosive gastritis
C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and other gastric acid hypersecretory states
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Side effect profile-- antiulcer medication:
urinary retention, blurred vision, xerostromia,:
A) ranitidine (Zantac)
B) atropine
C) nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
D) sucralfate (Carafate)
Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Examplesof H2 (histamine receptor Type
II) antagonists:
A) cimetidine (Tagamet)
B) ranitidine (Zantac)
C) nizatidine (Axid)
D) famotidine (Pepcid)

93
E) terfenadine
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of action: cytoprotection, binds
to the ulcer base, antibacterial effect:
A) metronidazole (Flagyl)
B) tetracycline (Achromycin)
C) bismuth compounds
D) ranitidine (Zantac)
E) omeprazole (Prilosec)
Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Drug(s) used iin eradication of
Helicobacter pylori infection:
A) bismuth compounds
B) metronidazole (Flagyl)
C) clarithromycin (Biaxin)
D) omeprazole (Prilosec)
E) amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)
Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) Most widely used antacid in treating ulcer
disease:
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) calcium carbonate
C) magnesium hydroxide
D) aluminum hydroxide
E) combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Treatment of gastric a disease: atropine
vs.H2-receptor blockers -- atropine is:
A) more effective than H2 receptor blockers
B) less effective than H2 receptor blockers
C) equally effective
Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) Drawbacks of "triple therapy" {bismuth
compounds + metronidazole (Flagyl) + tetracycline (Achromycin)}in
treating peptic ulcer disease:
A) patient compliance (2 week treatment = 200 tablets)
B) side effects
C) both
D) neither
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: constipation
A) aluminum hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Most successful protocol for eradication of
H. pylori/treatment of peptic ulcer disease:
A) bismuth monotherapy
B) therapy using bismuth compounds, metronidazole (Flagyl), and
amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox) in combination -triple therapy
C) bismuth compounds and amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)
D) all of the above equally effective

94
Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: loose stools
A) aluminum hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) both
D) neither
Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Eradication of H. pylori effectiveness for
bismuth compounds when using combination with antibiotics:
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 80%
E) 95%

Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) In anesthesiology: high-risk patients for


aspiration pneumonitis:
A) patients with hiatus hernia
B) patients with esophageal reflux
C) patients with acute pain, "full stomach" -- emergency surgery
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Aspiration pneumonia less likely when:
A) metoclopramide (Reglan) is used alone
B) metoclopramide (Reglan) is combined with ranitidine (Zantac)
Question # 3 (Multiple Answer) Properties of metoclopramide (Reglan):
A) decreases upper gastrointestinal motility
B) decreases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
C) relaxes the pylorus
D) relaxes the duodenum
4-Pre-treatment with metoclopramide (Reglan) guarantees complete gastric
emptying:
A) true
B) false
5-Greatest increase in gastric fluid volume which may be associated with
antacid administration:
A) single dose antacid
B) multiple antacid dosing
C) repeated dosing with concurrent opioid administration (e.g. during labor)
6-Aspiration of gastric fluid containing particulate antacids may have
this/these consequences:
A) pulmonary edema
B) arterial hypoxemia
C) both
D) neither
7- Use of gastrokinetic drugs diminishes the need for correct, diligent
anesthetic techniques to protect the airway during anesthesia:
A) true

95
B) false
8-Metoclopramide (Reglan): may not be effective of increasing gastric
emptying following sodium citrate administration:
A) true
B) false
9-Omeprazole (Prilosec) and gastric acid suppression
A) effective if given by IV 30 minutes prior to induction
B) duration of action: about one day
C) both
D) neither
10- Effect on antacids on gastric fluid volume:
A) increases
B) decreases
C) no effect
12-Concerning nonparticulate antacids and their use in preoperative
medication:
A) may themselves produce pulmonary damage if aspiration gastric fluid
containing this type of an acid occurs
B) more effective than colloidal antacids suspensionsin increasing gastric
acid pH
C) both
D) neither
13-(Zofran) probably mediates its antiemetic effects by interacting with this
receptor system:
A) muscarinic, cholinergic
B) nicotinic, cholinergic
C) dopaminergic
D) serotonergic
E) GABA
14-In adults: relatively high risk of pulmonary complications if aspiration
volume is greater than 25 ml and pH < 2.5:
A) true
B) false
15-Physiological effects of metoclopramide (Reglan):
A) stimulates upper gastrointestinal motility
B) increases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
C) increases gastric fluid pH
D) increases gastric acid secretion
16-Drugs that may offset metoclopramide (Reglan) effect on the upper GI
tract:
A) opioids
B) concurrent atropine administration
C) both
D) neither

96
17- Greater "lag time" in increasing gastrointestinal pH:
A) antacids
B) H2 blockers
C) both about the same lifetime
18-Appropriate for preoperative antiemetic use:
A) droperidol (Inapsine)
B) metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) both
D) neither
19-Antiemetic drugs particularly useful for patients undergoing:
A) opthalmological surgery
B) laproscopic surgery
C) gynecologic procedures

1
This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal
artery stenosis:

clonidine (Catapres)

terazosin (Hytrin)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

captopril (Capoten)

metoprolol (Lopressor)

2
Antihypertensive drug typically used in patients with severe hypertension
and renal insufficiency; this agent produces significant fluid retention and
hypertrichosis.

hydralazine (Apresoline)

methyldopa (Aldomet)

minoxidil (Loniten)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

97
The drug of choice in management of hypertensive crisis when continuously
variable IV infusion is required.

lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)

diazoxide (Hyperstat)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

metoprolol (Lopressor)

4
A drug-induced lupus-like syndrome is associated with this antihypertensive
drug

minoxidil (Loniten)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

diazoxide (Hyperstat)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

acebutolol (Sectral)

5
Tachycardia due to hydralazine administration would be blocked by:

bumetanide (Bumex)

fosinopril (Monopril)

mecamylamine (Inversine)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

minoxidil (Loniten)

6
A diabetic patient is prescribed a new medication to control mild
hypertension. The patient then becomes less aware of hypoglycemic
symptoms. The antihypertensive drug was most probably:

98
phentolamine (Regitine)

atenolol (Tenormin)

enalapril (Vasotec) and

hydralazine (Apresoline)

prazosin (Minipress)

7
Which drug would be least likely used in the initial pharmacological
treatment of mild hypertension?

amlodipine (Norvasc)

metoprolol (Lopressor)

enalapril (Vasotec)

minoxidil (Loniten)

chlorothiazide (Diuril)

8
Which antihypertensive drug would be contraindicated if the patient were
taking tranylcypromine (Parnate)?

hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ, Esidrix, HydroDIURIL)

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

guanethidine (Ismelin)

lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)

labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)

9
Which drug would block the antihypertensive efficacy of guanadrel
(Hylorel)?

buspirone (BuSpar)

99
lorazepam (Ativan)

imipramine (Tofranil)

propranolol (Inderal)

chlorothiazide (Diuril)

10
Lisinopril belongs to which class of antihypertensive drugs?

centrally-acting sympatholytic

beta-adrenoceptor antagonist

angiotensin II receptor antagonist

beta-adrenoceptor agonist

angiotensin II converting enzyme inhibitor

11
Most likely to be used for initial drug management of moderate hypertension

guanethidine (Ismelin)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

minoxidil (Loniten)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

12
Antihypertensive agents -- side effect profile includes impaired glucose tolerance,
hypokalemia, increased serum lipids and increased renin secretion:

methyldopa (Aldomet)

chlorothiazide (Diuril)

100
nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

diazoxide (Hyperstat)

13
Effects of hydralazine (Apresoline):

increased renin levels

lupus-like syndrome
reflex bradycardia

hypertensive response if patient ingests food rich in tyramine

all of the above

14
Mechanisms by which blood-pressure may be reduced:

reduced cardiac output

increased vagus nerve activity

decreased central sympathetic outflow

reduced angiotensin II levels

all the above

15
Orthostatic hypotension:

minoxidil (Loniten)

imipramine (Tofranil)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

methyldopa (Aldomet)

all of the above

101
16
Antihypertensive drug least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension:

minoxidil (Loniten)

enalapril (Vasotec)

guanethidine (Ismelin)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

terazosin (Hytrin)
17
Vascular smooth muscle relaxation by means of calcium channel blockade:

hydralazine (Apresoline)

nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

captopril (Capoten)

phentolamine (Regitine)

18
Protects against tachycardia caused by minoxidil (Loniten) administration:

prazosin (Minipress)

diltiazem (Cardiazem)

metoprolol (Lopressor)

losartin (Cozaar)

methyldopa (Aldomet)

19
Mechanism of antihypertensive action:inhibition of peptidyl dipeptidase

metoprolol (Lopressor)

102
verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)

lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)

diazoxide (Hyperstat)

20
Antihypertensive agent that can produce a positive Coombs' test

clonidine (Catapres)

guanabenz (Wytensin)

guanfacine (Tenex)

methyldopa (Aldomet)

1
First-line the defense against antigenic insult

adaptive immune system

innate immune system

2
Adaptive Immune Response(s):

antibody production

lymphocyte activation

both

neither

3
Generation of specific immunity requires antigen-presenting cells, APCs,
including:

B lymphocytes

macrophages

Langerhans cells

103
A&B

A,B & C

4
Produced by TH1 subsets of T helper lymphocytes:

interferon-gamma

interleukin-2

tumor necrosis factor beta


A&B

A, B & C

5
Typically associated with B cell proliferation and differentiation into
antibody-secreting plasma cells

tumor necrosis factor beta

interferon-gamma

IL-4 (interleukin 4)

IL-2 (interleukin 2)

all of the above

6
T helper lymphocytes -- regulate each other; this substance produced by
TH1cells inhibits TH2 cellular proliferation:

interleukin-2

tumor necrosis factor beta

interferon-gamma

IL-4

IL-6

104
7
Extracellular bacteria promote elaboration of:

TH1 cytokines

TH2 cytokines

8
Intracellular organisms (e.g. Mycobacterium) promote production of:

TH1 cytokines

TH2 cytokines

9
Activated cytotoxic T cells induce target cell death (virus-infected cells) by:

Fas-Fas ligand apotosis pathway

lytic granule enzymes

perforin

all of the above

10
Hypersensitivity: cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood basophils
or tissue mast cells by antigen

Type I

Type II

Type III

11
Hemolytic disease of the newborn:

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I

Delayed Hypersensitivity

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II

105
Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III

12
Associated with elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes, which cause
tissue damage; complement activation results in anaphylatoxic and
chemotactic activities:

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II

Delayed Hypersensitivity
Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I

13
Administration of penicillin to allergic patients:

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III

14
Effective in eliminating infections caused by intracellular pathogens such as
Leishmania species:

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II

Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III

Delayed Hypersensitivity

15
Examples of autoimmune diseases

rheumatoid arthritis

insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

systemic lupus erythematosis

106
A&C

A, B & C

1
Example of first-class of hormonal agents noted to have lipolytic properties:

cyclosporine

prednisone (Deltasone)

tacrolimus
IFN-alpha

thalidomide

2
Glucocorticoid effects:

inhibition of leukotriene production

inhibition of prostaglandins

increased chemotaxis

A&B

A, B & C

3
Effective in lowering incidents of rejection in infectious complications in
transplant patients:

azathioprine (Imuran)

prednisone (Deltasone)

antilymphocyte antibodies

cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)

all the above

107
4
Tests of immunocompetency:-- measurements

in vitro IL-2 stimulation of lymphokine activated killer cell production

in vitro lymphocyte profilerative responses to mitogens

erythropoiesis

A&B

A, B & C

5
About two-thirds of children with early diabetic symptoms can discontinue
or reduce insulin treatment within about six weeks after starting treatment
with this drug:

tacrolimus

interferon

cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)

prednisone (Deltasone) and

thalidomide

6
This immunosuppressant antibiotic commonly approved for use in liver
transplantation, is 10 to 100 times more potent than cyclosporine in
inhibiting immune responses:

interferon-gamma

prednisone (Deltasone)

tacrolimus (FK 506)

A&B

A, B & C

108
Autoimmune (Type II) drug reaction:

penicillin

sulfonamides

iodides

phenytoin (Dilantin)

hydralazine (Apresoline)

8
Implicated in initiation of hypersensitivity vasculitis; a Type III vasculitic
reaction:

sulfonamides

penicillin

thiouracil

anticonvulsants

all the above

9
Blockade of mediator release following exposure of sensitized tissue mast
cells or blood basophils to drugs that initiate Type I drug allergic reactions:

isoproterenol (Isuprel)

antihistamines

theophylline

A&C

A, B & C

10
Example of immunostimulatory cytokine that may be useful in cancer
immunotherapy

109
levamisole

BCG

IFN-alpha

IL-2

none of the above

11
For synthesized for treating parasitic infections, this drug is now FDA
approved for clinical use in the treatment of Dukes class C colorectal cancer
after surgery:

inosiplex

thymopoietin

levamisole

BCG

IGIV

12
Alkylating agent; destroys proliferating lymphoid cells; in low doses -- for
effective against autoimmune disorders including systemic lupus
erythematosus

azathioprine (Imuran)

methotrexate

cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

antilymphocyte globulin (ALG)

all the above

13
Cytotoxic agents with immunosuppressive properties:

110
cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

vincristine (Oncovin)

methotrexate

cytarabine (ARA-C)

all the above

14
Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity:

due to elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes

stems from cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood basophils or


tissue mast cells by antigen

follows from formation of antigen- antibody complexes between foreign


antigen and IgM or IgG immunoglobulins

tissue damage due to influx of antigen-nonspecific inflammatory cells


(macrophages and neutrophils)

15
Autoimmune disorder: associated with antibodies made against self DNA,
red blood cells, histones, platelets

rheumatoid arthritis

systemic lupus erythematosus

insulin dependent diabetes

Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Structural analog/antimetabolite: cytotoxic


immunosuppressive drug:
A) vincristine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) azathioprine
D) none of the above
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Immunomodulatory sedative drugs used in
the management of some forms of leprosy; also effective in managing skin

111
manifestations of lupus erythematosus
A) tacrolimus
B) cyclophosphamide
C) thalidomide
D) buproprion
E) diazepam
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Drug of choice in treating autoimmune
hemolytic anemia:
A) cyclophosphamide plus factor XIII
B) Rho(D) immune globulin
C) prednisone
D) OKT3 monoclonal antibody
E) cyclosporine
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) Interferes with cell cycle of activated
lymphoid cells;example of the first class of hormonal agents recognized
have lympholytic properties:
A) cyclosporine
B) tacrolimus
C) IFN-alpha
D) dexamethasone
E) 15-desoxyspergualin
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Useful in management of idiopathic
thrombocytopenic purpura refractory to prednisone
A) dactinomycin
B) vincristine
C) cyclophosphamide
D) azathioprine
E) all of the above
6 -Drug of choice in treating hemolytic anemia of the newborn:
A) cyclosporine
B) prednisone
C) OKT3 monoclonal antibody
D) tacrolimus
E) Rho(D) immune globulin
7-Clinical uses of interferon:
A) cancer treatment
B) multiple sclerosis
C) both*
D) neither
8-Type 1 hypersensitivity: cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood
basophils or tissue mast cells by antigen
A) true
B) false
9-immunomodulating agents:

112
A) thymosin
B) interferon beta
C) interferon-gamma
D) TNF alpha
E) all the above
10- Class 1 MHC molecules present mainly fragments of cellular antigens
A) true
B) false*
11-Inhibits antigen recognition of B-cell
A) prednisone
B) azathioprine
C) methotrexate
D) Rho(D) immune globulin
E) tacrolimus
12-Antilymphocyte antibodies:
A) binds to the surface of T cells
B) acts mainly on small, long-lived peripheral lymphocytes
C) may be used in induction of immunosuppression*
D) may be obtained by hybridoma technique for monoclonal antibody
generation
E) all of the above
13-Clinical uses of immunosuppressive drugs:
A) organ transplantation
B) hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) autoimmune disorders
D) A & C*
E) A, B & C

All the following are controlled drugs EXEPT :

a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
c)Imipenem*
d)primidon

Vasopressine is used for treatment of :


a)Diabetes of insipidus*
b)Diabetes mellitus type I
c)Diabetes mellitus type II
d)Antihypertensive

All of the following are used as cough depressant EXCEPT :


a)Guaifenesin*
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte

113
d)Morphine hydrochloride

Which one of the following is not Tetracycline :


a)Minocycline
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
d)Clindamycin

Theophyllin is :
a)Bronchodilator*
c)DERMATITS
d)All of the above

QOD MEAN
a)four tims daily
b)for four day*
c)after meals

ANTIDOT FOR PARACETAMOL


A)acetylcysteine*
b)atropine
c)iron
d)a and b

ANGIOTENSIN II ANTAGONIST
A)LOSARTAN*
LABETALOL
C)CAPTOPRIL

Trade name Diazepam


a)valium*
b Narcan)
c)fentanyl
d)lumenal

Glucocrticoids used in
a)running nose
b)bronchial asthma*
c)leprosy

Phenylephrine is used for :


a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic

114
c)Running nose
d)All of the above*
cefouroxime
a)first genration
b)second genration*
c)fourth genration

Aspirin
aspirin with analgesic&anti_inflamatory
b)antipalelet
c)contraindicated for pregnancy
d)a and c only
e)all of the above*
Treatement Glaucoma by
a)timolol
b)pilocarpine
c)atropin
d)non of the above
e)all of the above*

acetyl cysteine treate poison


a)aspirin
b)heparin
c)paracetamol*
d)digoxin

digoxin no available in hosbital


a)0.57
b)250
c)0.25
d)750
: All of the following are macrolides EXEPT ) 1
a)Clarithromycin
b)Roxithromycin
c)Erythromycin
*d)Clindamycin

: of the following are used as Antiepileptic EXEPT All) 2


valproate . a)Sod
b)Carbamazepine
*c)Nedocromil

) 3 metronidazole is The main use of


*a)Antiamoebiasis
b)Antihelmintic
c)Antibiotc
d)Antimalaria

115
: diuretic which is used with captopril is The) 4
a)Aldacton
acid b)Ethacrynic
c)furesemide
*d)None of the above

: pre-anesthitic to Atropine is used as) 5


parasympathatic a)Give skeletal muscle relaxation as the effect of
*b)decrease salive
anesthetic c)Help the sleepin effect of
d)Treat the side effect of anesthetic

: of pharmacist work in hospital is The responsibility) 6


a)Admenstration of the drug
with patient b)deal
*c)deal with drug interaction
drug d)monitor affect of the

: protien bound drugs forming a compound which is) 7


*a)Inactive while the free part is active
part is inactive b)Highly active while the free
c)less active whike the free part is active
while the free part is more active d)active

: drugs EXEPT All the following are controlled) 8


a)stesolid
b)Diazepam
*c)Imipenem
d)primidon

: colitis is a side effect of Pseudomembrane) 9


a)Vancomycin
*b)Clindamycin
c)Reserpine
d)I.N.H

: Hypothermia is usually a side effect of Malignant ) 10


*a)Anaeshtesia
b)Azathropin
c)Phenytoin
d)Aspirin

: is used for treatment of Vasopressine ) 11


*a)Diabetes of insipidus
type I b)Diabetes mellitus
c)Diabetes mellitus type II
d)Antihypertensive

: following are used as cough depressant EXCEPT All of the ) 12


*a)Guaifenesin
b)Dextromethorphane
c)Codiene Phospahte
hydrochloride d)Morphine

: Which one of the following is taken orally ) 13


a)Estrogen
*b)Estrogen gluconate
c)Estrogen malate

: choice to treat Leishmaniasis Drug of) 14


*a)Sod. Stibogluconate
Cromoglycate . b)Sod
c)Metronidazole

116
d)Mebendazole

: agonist) is used for Sumatriptan (5-HT1) 15


a)Hypertention
*b)Migrane and headach
pectoris c)Angina
d)Epilipsy

: drugs is not used due to Hyperkalemia In patient with Renal disease one of these ) 16
a)Bu****nide
*b)Amiloride
c)Fursemide
acid d)Ethocrynic

: choice In patient who asking for a decongestant , which drug is the best ) 17
a)Terfenadine
b)Astimazole
c)Loratedine
*above d)All of the

: Allopuranol affects through enzyme action by ) 18


a)Decarboxylase inhibition
*b)Xanthine oxidase inhibition
c)Cycloxygenase inhibition
d)All of the above

: following is consider as enzyme inducer Which one of the ) 19


*a)Rifampicin
b)Chloramphinicol
c)cimetidine
d)Vit C

: new non-sedating antihistamine are related to The) 20


a)H2 - antagonists
*antagonists - b) H1
H2 antagonists & c)Both H1
above d)Non of the

: sulfonamides .. you should , When a patient comes to you with a pre******ion of penicilline ) 21
food a)Ask patient to avoid taking drug with
b)Ask him to avoid taking the drug with milk
*allergic to this drug c)Ask him if he is an
d)All of the above

: following is not Tetracycline Which one of the ) 22


a)Minocycline
b)Doxycycline
c)Demeclocycline
*d)Clindamycin

: should be treated with TB) 23


a)single drug to avoid resistance
shorten the therapy period b)Two drugs to
*microorganism c)three to four drugs to ensure eradication of
d)Non of the above

: Food poisoning is caused by ) 24


a)Virus
*b)Bacteria
c)Worms
d)Tinea

: following is the drug of choice for Hypothyrodisim Which one of the ) 25


a)Carbimazole
*b)Thyroxine
c)Iodine
d)Propylthiouracil

117
: one of these diuretics is more potent than the other Which) 26
a)Fursemide
b)Torasemide
acid c)Ethacrynic
*d) bumetanide
: Phenylephrine is used for ) 27
a)Decongestant
b)Sympathomematic
c)Running nose
*d)All of the above

you .. patient comes to you with pre******ion pf INDERAL, and you note that he wheezing A) 28
.‫؟‬should
a)Give him the medicin
b)Be contact with him
*doctor to ask him about the pre******ion c)Call the
asthmatic d)Ask the patient if he

: Theophyllin is) 29
*a)Bronchodilator
agonist b)β2
c)ANticholinergic
d)All of the above

: differ from Phenobarbital in Pentobarbital) 30


a)Longer duration
*action b)Faster in
c)a + b
d)not us

Pharmaceutical calculations
2- Autonomic nervous system
3- Cardiovascular system
4- Central nervous system
5- Abbrevations

2009-11 ‫ش‬ٙ‫ ش‬ٝ‫بدٌخ ف‬١‫ِزشن ٌٍص‬ٚ‫ اِزحبٔبد اٌجش‬ٝ‫أسئٍخ جبءد ف‬


1-A patient of prolonged use of enalapril will show
a)increase in k b) decrease in k
2- in digitalis toxicity treatmen…………????
a)monitor level of k and Mg and correct them if needed
b) monitor ECG
c)ask about the last dose of digitalis
3- in digitalis toxicity give patient an element which is:
a) digoxine fab.immuone
b) Mg c) k
4- domperidone is used for……… nausea& vomiting
‫سؤاي ِىشس‬

118
5- omeprazole is used for……… hyper acidity
6- atropine side effect
a) constipation b) diarrhea c) increase salive

7-All are side effect of methotrexate except…………????:


a)oral ulcer b)alopecia
c) d)
8-All are risk factors for osteoporosis except:
a)low Ca intake b)less exposure to sunlight
c)male gender
d)
9-Erythromycin antibiotic is:
a)slightly effective against Gm+ve
b)is an Aminoglycosides antibiotic
c) pregnant can not take it if it is necessary
d) pregnant can take it if it is necessary
10- Used as a decongestant is…… Phenylephrine

11- A side effect of enalapril:…..???


a) glucose intolerance b) arterial renal stenosis
12-A patient of prolonged use of Spironolactone diuretic will
show
a)increase in k b) decrease in k
13- A Characteristic of shock is
a) vasoconstriction b) hyperperfusion
c) hypoperfusion
14- Not given to patient of asthma
a)inhaled corticosteroids b) B2 agonist
c)leukotrienes modulators d) B2 antagonist

15-make depletion of biogenic amines from stores


a) Reserpine b) Guanethidine c) Guanabenze
16- Vit. C…….ascorbic a
17- carbidopa w levodopa :.
a) inhibition of levodopa decarboxylation
b) inhibition of levodopa oxidation
18- Cholestyramine………..anti-hyperlipidemic
19- A patient has slightly increase in LDL is advised to all the
following except
a) initiation of drug ttt b) excersize
c) low fat intake
20- Thiopental is described as
a) ultrashort-acting barbiturate b) fast acting barbiturate

119
21-cushing -like syndrome is due to
a) adrenal hyperplasia b) adrenal hyporplasia
c) Hypothyroidism d) hyperthyroidism

21- essential hypertension may be due to


a) taccy cardia b) pheorcomocytoma
c)family factor
22- Morphine causes respiratory depression by
a) depression of respiratory center in brain
b) activation of respiratory center in brain
c) depression of CTZ receptors center in brain
d) activation of CTZ receptors center in brain
23- one part of a solute dissolved in 10,000 parts in of a
solvent.the solute described as:…..???
a) high soluble b) slightly soluble
c) sparinegly y soluble d)insoluble

24- Reserpine not to be given to patient of Parkinsonism treated


by
a) levodopa b) Indomethacin
25-Calcium-channel blockers mode of action
a) increase the inward calcium to cells b) decrease the inward
calcium to cells
26-Propranolol…….none selective b blocker
)‫(سؤاي ِىشس‬
27-terazosin……alpha 1 blocker
…??? All the following are effects of Captopril except: 28-
a) block the ACE
b) decrease the breakdown of bradykinin
c) inhibition of aldosterone
d)ttt of CHf
e)vasoconstriction
28-A drug has the same moity of another one but not necessary
to has the same dosage form or the same dose .the two drug are
be described as:
a) bioequivalents b) Pharmaceutical equivalents
c) Pharmaceutical alternatives………..: make sure
29- First-pass metabolism depends on :……?????
a) biotransformation rate b) biotransformation capacity
c) pKa of the drug
30- Pharmacokinetic constant is: ……?????
a) Zero-order b) First-order c) 2nd-order
31-which is (are) electromagnetic waves……?????

120
a)X-ray b) Beta- ray c) Gama- ray d)a+c
)‫(سؤاي ِىشس‬
32- in digoxin toxicity shows… PR prolongation???? : make
sure
33- Coal tar used for ttt of
a)Fat malabsorption b)psoriasis
34- degradation of a solid drug into small fragment in a process
befpre absorption : make sure
a)desintigration b)dissolution c) a+ b
35-Aspartame used as…….sweetener
36- ophthalmic preparations……: make sure
a) solution, suspention and then ointment
b) solution, ointment and then suspention
c) suspention, solution and then ointment
d) suspention, ointment and then solution
e) ointment, solution and then suspention

37- Tetracaine is:


a) Local Anesthetics b)opoid analgesic
38- highly used solid dosage form is:
a) tablet b)poweder
c) Soft Gelatin Capsule d) hard gelatin capsules
39-A patient of prolonged use of thiazide diuretic will show
a)increase in k b) decrease in k
40- cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibition by….???
a) hydrolysis b) oxidation
41- All are clinically used opioids except:
a) morphine b) codeine
c) Heroin d) methyl morphine
42- Measurement of drug effect by
a) Pharmacodynamic parameter b) pharmacokinetics parameter
43- A patient shows hypersensitivity w , Ampicillin can take
a) Erythromycin b) Cephalexin
c) Cefixime d) Augmentin
44- has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity…… pindolol
45- effect of histamine:
a) Vasoconstriction b) increase in gastric secretion
46- pH is :
a) Measurement of acidity b) low in basic drugs
c) high in acidic drugs
47- Elevation of HLDL means
a) high risk of atherosclerosis b) low risk of atherosclerosis

48- Phase 0 of Arrhythmia: This phase is one of rapid depolar-

121
ization caused by the influx of Na
49- Phase 1 of Arrhythmia: initial depolarization is due to a
transient and active potassium efflux. Calcium begins to move
into the intracellular
50- Phase 2 of Arrhythmia: plateau Phase Calcium influx
continues and is balanced to some degree by potassium efflux
ٝ‫جبء ف‬ٚ ‫شح‬١‫ وً االِزحبٔبد اٌفزشح األخ‬ٝ‫ رىشسد ف‬: Phases of Arrhythmia ‫الحظ‬
Phases ‫ُٕصح ِزاوشح وً اي‬٠ ‫ُ يرٌه‬ِٕٙ 3 ‫احذ‬ٚ ْ‫اِزحب‬
51- All are effects of digoxin except:
a)inotropic effect b) chronotropic effect
c) increase AV conduction d)
52- Antacid has a Cathartic side effect is…..?????
a)calcium carbonateb) magnesium hydroxide
c) Al .silicate d)
53- A salt is a 25 c temp. is soluble in benzene more than water
This salt is: : make sure
a)polar b) non-polar
c) hydrophilic d)
54- All are alpha 2 agonist except: …..?????
55-side effect of aldosterone…..?????
a) dyspnea b) flushing
c) a+ b d)
2009-11-14 ‫خ‬٠‫احذ ثزبس‬ٚ ْ‫ اِزحب‬ٝ‫) سؤاي اٌسبثمخ ف‬55(‫جبءد ٘زٖ اي‬
56- propranolol given w hydralazine to……reduce reflex
Tachycardia
57-O.M………….every morning
58-p r n…………when required
59-cyclizine is used for……… nausea& vomiting
60-warfarine antidote………….vit.K
61- propranolol………nonselective b b
62-Q 4 h…………. every 4 hours
63- doxazosin is
a) postsynaptic alpha1 blocker b) presynaptic alpha1 blocker
64-main side effect of nitrites is………..headache
65-volatile liquid drug given as inhaler…….Amyl nitrite
66- Nifedipine is………..CCB
67- Pancuronium is……neuromuscular blocker
68-used for hypertension and migraine……clonidine

‫اد اٌفعبٌخ ي‬ٌّٛ‫اسّبء ا‬ٚ ‫ّخ‬١‫س‬١‫خبصخ رم‬ٚ Diuretic anti coagulant Otocid *ANS
adrenegic &muscarinic agonist &antagoonist

1- what is meaning (chiral) writte in lable on drug substance

122
2-symptoms of adenosen

3-side effect of adenosen

4- GMP) mean)
a-Good Manufactor Protocol
b-Good Manufactor Product
c-General Manufactor Protocol
d-General Manufactor Product

‫الي ٌالسف‬ٌّٛ‫ذ حسبة ا‬٠‫ش‬٠ ٗ١‫ الٔٗ جبة ِسب ٌٗ حسبث‬molal ‫الي‬ٌّٛ‫مخ حسبة ا‬٠‫ي رعشف طش‬ٚ‫حب‬5-
‫ِش فبوش٘ب‬

6-(how many gm of water add to 5% KCL soln to make 180 gm of


solution(w\w

<...............5100 ‫ي‬ٍٛ‫ اٌّح‬ٟ‫ ف‬KCL ‫خ‬١ّ‫ال ٔحست و‬ٚ‫اٌحً ا‬


180< ...............X

KCL ‫خ‬١ّ‫و‬X= 9 gm

ٝ٘ ‫خ اٌّبء‬١ّ‫ارا و‬

180 - 9 =171 gm

7- .Regarding to ophthalmic preparation when we use isoluble


substance it is

8- ...Regarding to freez dryer theory

9- according to steril method which of the following is false about


filtteration
able to filtter viscous substance‫ه اْ رخزبس‬١ٍ‫ع‬

10- ACEI pharmacologicaly act as

11- Ca channel blocker act as

12- when you know the preservative used with anti biotic is not
suitable you make
a- use another one
b- add another to increase it is activity
c- use tow or more presrvative
d- a+c***

13- side effect&toxicity of digoxin

123
14- parkinsonism is due to degeneration of paroreceptor of

15- anti histaminic<....................claritin act as

16- phenothiazen act as

17- promethazen act as

18- about drugs that treat hyperthyrodism & its side effect

19- deltiazem act as


Ca channel blocker ‫بس ِجبشش‬١‫٘زا خ‬
ٓ٠‫بس‬١‫ُ خ‬ِٕٙ ‫ش ِجبششٖ ارزوش‬١‫بساد غ‬١‫ ٔفس اٌّزحبْ جبءد اٌخ‬ٟ‫ٌىٕٗ ف‬
a- block Ca to intracellular & its metabolism**
b- stimulateCa to intracellular & its metabolism

ٗ‫ظ‬ٛ‫ٍِح‬
‫ب‬ِٕٙ ٍٗ١ٍ‫ت اسئٍٗ ل‬١‫ج‬١‫ّٗ الٔٗ ث‬٠‫ه ِشاحعخ االِزحبٔبد اٌمذ‬١ٍ‫ع‬
‫ع‬١ّ‫فك اٌج‬ٛ٠ ْ‫شا اسبي اهلل ا‬١‫اخ‬

antiarrythmic class 1b is:


lidocain*

delpets the catecholamins's store :


reserpsin *

not dispensed without a prescription :


aspirin
baclofen
maalox
ibuprofen
doxycyclin

ٗ‫أب ِش عبسف االجبث‬

used as a nasal decongestant :


ephedrine and phenyephirin*

cyclocystine used as :
mucolytic*

124
how nitroglycerin work as anti angiana:
‫بساد‬١‫ِش فبوش االخز‬

when the exp. date is november 2006 that means u can dispense
the product untill date :
1 november 2006
15 november 2006
31 novermber 2006
1 novermber 2007
15 novmber 2007
ٗ‫ِش عبسف االجبث‬

molarity‫ِسبٌٗ عٓ اي‬

ppm‫ِسبٌٗ عٓ اي‬ٚ

bioequivalence determine by factors of :


*1- pharmaceutical kinteics
2- pharmaceutical dynaimics
3- weight
...........................

when 2 producats have identical but not same active ingredients


are :
a-pharmaceutical alternatives
b- pharmaceutical equivalents
c- bioequivalent
c- biological
e- a and b
f - b and c
inderal is ‫ثشدٖ ِش‬
(propranolol)whicl is adrenergic beta blocker

2_propranolol is
beta blocker

3_salbutamol is

selctive b1 agonist

4_which is false about nor epinephrin


a_ effictive orally
b_can used in cardiogenic shock
c_can used subcutanous
d_raise blood pressure
the answer is (a

125
5_which is the folowing block the alpha receptor in vains and arteries and amke v.d.
a_terazosin
b_minoxidil
c_propranolol
answer is a

6_syncop may occure with the 1st dose of the folowing


a_digoxin
b_salbutamol
c_prazosin
d_reserpin
e_ clonidin
answer is c

7_one of the fllowing used in asthmatic patient


answer is albuterol

8_the pharmacolpgical action of clofibrate is


decreas action of lipoprotienlipase enzyme
b_increase clolesterol synthis
c_decreas lipoprotien synthes
d_decrease cholesterol absorption

answer is c

9_one of the following has cathertic effect


a_ca carbonat
b_magnesium oxide
c_alimenium hydroxide
d_sodium bicarbonate

answer is b

10_loratidin is
a_ca channel blocker
b_ laxitave
c_antihistaminic
d_anti hypertension

answer is c

11_which of the following not anti bacterial


..........

12_which one is more effective agaienst traveller diarrhea

a_amoxiciilin
b_ciprofloxacin
c_sulphamethoxasol
d_erythromycin

126
i think amoxicillin is right

13_which is the following istrue about erythromycin


a_decrease the GIT motility
b_could be used in pregnant women if need
c_could not be used in pregnant women if need
d_less active against gram +ve cocci
answer is b

14_which one is active against psoudomonal


a_metronidasol
b_ampicillin
c_becampicilline
d_imipinem
anwere is d
‫ِش ِزبوذ‬

_15_A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :


a-analgesic
b-hypnotic
c-diuretic
answer b
16_ the action of TCA is
inhibit reuptak of noradrenalin and serotini

17_Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic


doses ?
a-Na valproate
b-phenytoin
c-lithium
answer is b

18_The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires :


a- K+
b- Na+
c- Ca++
answer is a

19_antihypertensive produce tackycardia :


a)Hydralazone
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine
answer is a

20_ the pharmacological action of nitroglycerin is

127
21_the action of digoxin can reduced with
a_ antacid
b_verapamil
hypokalemia
d_hypothirodism
e_hyperthyrodism
answer is a
22_ the main cause of digitalis toxicity is
a_diabetes milli
b_ hypertension
c_hepatitis
d_renal faliure
i think d

23_digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with


a_lidocain
b_quinidin
c_procainamide
d_propranolol
answer is a

24_which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block


answer is phynetoin

25_the action of antiarrhythmic drug classs 1A is


a_rapid the repo;arization of phase 0
b_delay the repolarization of phase 3
answer is b

26_which one is antiarrythmic class 1A


a_phynetoin
b_disopyramide
c_propranolol
d_verapamil
e_propafenon
answer is b

27_which one doesnt affect platellet in the body


a _ aspirin
b_dipyridamol
c_acetyl salcylic
d_captopril
e_clopidogril

answer is d

28_action of theophyllin
a_vasocostrector
b_ bronvhodilator

128
c_anti arrythmia
answer is b

29_anti cancer derived from venca is_


a_cyclophosamide
b_flourouracil
c_doxurubcin
d_ cicplastin

i think d

30_ alkylating agent used as anticancer


a_methotrexate
b_ mercaptopurin
c_5_flourouracil
d_cyclophosphamide

answer is d

31_ascorpic acid is
a_vit A
b_ vit C
c_ vit E

answer is b

32_reserpin shouldnt be used in parkinsonism patient talking..........

33_one of the following not NSAID


a_ naprocyn
b_indocid
c_ticotil
‫بس اػزمذ‬١‫ا دٖ وبْ االخز‬ٛ٘ ‫ ِش فبوش اعّٗ ثظ‬d_

34_pentoxifillin used as

35 _ which one used to trigeminal neuralgia


answer is tegretol
phynetoin‫ِّىٓ ثشدٖ اي‬ٚ

‫ وبٔذ اعئٍٗ اٌفبسِب‬ٞ‫د‬

ً‫اٌّغبئ‬

ً‫ ِغبئ‬5 ٟ‫وبْ ف‬
1_ how many doses in abottle contain 90 gram and the dose is 75mg

answer

129
number of dose = 90/0.75=120

2_A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of nacl

exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution

answer

molarity= number of moles/volume in liter

number of moles=weightin gram/molecular weight

M.W.of NaCL=MW ob Na(23.5+MW of Cl (35=58.5

then number of mole= 17.5/58.5=0 .3

molarity = 0.3/2=0.15

3_the solution contain 9ppm of NaCl the the concevtration of the compound in the
solution

a_0.9
b_.09
c_.009
d_.0009
e_.00009
0.009‫ب‬ٙ‫أب حٍز‬
.‫ال غٍؾ‬ٚ ‫ثظ ِش ػبسف طح‬

4_ how much amount of water need to add to 250 ml of solution os 1/500 of


benzonium clorid to bacome 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L
0.4‫ب‬ٙ‫أب وزجز‬
‫ال غٍؾ‬ٚ ‫ِؼشفش طح‬ٚ

‫اٌّغبٌٗ اٌخبِغٗ ِش فبوش٘ب‬


ٗ‫اوزج‬ٚ ٟ‫اْ شبء هللا افزىش اٌجبل‬ٚ

ceutics and clinical‫ثبٌٕغجٗ ي‬


ٍٗ‫اوزت االعئ‬ٚ ‫ي افزىش‬ٚ‫٘حب‬

1_the statement (put in cold place ) mean acoording to USP


a_ in the freezer
b_in refrigerator
c_ temp between(10_20 c)f
d_ a&c

130
e_ b&c

c ‫ب‬ٙ‫أب وزجز‬
e‫ب‬ٙٔ‫ ا‬ٌٟ‫ب‬١ٙ‫ثظ ِز‬

2_all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

a_Tissue solubility

b_Protein binding

c_Molecular weight of drug

d_Type enzyme response of metabolism

answer is d

3_ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER

TASTE :

a_Film coat

b_Enteric coat

c_Granding of tablet
answer is c

4_major metabolism proccess in GIT is


a_hydrolysis
,b_ acetylation
c_oxidation
d_ conjucation
answer a

5_the amount of water in adult male is about:


a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%
e-17%
answer is b

6_process require CYP450 :


a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION

131
e)SULFERATION
oxidation‫ال غٍؾ‬ٚ ‫ب ثظ ِؼشفش طح‬ٙ‫أب وزجز‬

7_Adsorption , which is not true :


a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d
answer is e

8_acording to 1st order kinetics t1/2 equal


a_k
b_1/k
c_k+1
d_2k+1
e_ 639/k
answer is e

9_the responce of the drug not affected by


a_mental status
b_genetic
c_binding to plasma ptn
d_lipophilicity of the drug

ٌٟٚ‫ٗ ثظ اخزشد اال‬١ٔ‫اٌزب‬ٚ ٌٟٚ‫ٓ اال‬١‫أب وٕذ ِحزبس ث‬

ٌٗٛ‫ ِش ػبسف حٍٗ ثظ ٘م‬ٌٟ‫ عؤاي خب‬ٟ‫ف‬10_


ٞ‫ٗ ) د‬١ٍ٠‫ّبد اٌظذ‬١ٍ‫ب رؼ‬ٙ‫خذ ث‬ٛ٠ٚ ٗ١ٌ‫ذ‬١‫ اٌظ‬ٟ‫ٓ ف‬١ٍِ‫ب ٌٍؼب‬ٙ‫ىزج‬١‫ٗ ث‬١ٌ‫ذ‬١‫ طبحت اٌظ‬ٌٍٟ‫سلٗ ا‬ٌٛ‫ اٌغؤاي (ا‬ٟٕ‫ِؼ‬
ٗ٠‫ب ا‬ّٙ‫اع‬

ٗ‫ج‬٠‫بساد غش‬١‫ اخز‬ٟٕ٠‫ؽجؼب وبْ ِذ‬ٚ

‫ اٌشف‬ٍٟ‫ٗ ػ‬١ٌ‫ذ‬١‫ اٌظ‬ٟ‫ْ ف‬ٛ١‫ت ِغزحؼشاد اٌؼ‬١‫ٗ رشر‬١‫ف‬١‫ ػٓ و‬ٟٔ‫ ثشدٖ عؤاي رب‬11_
‫٘ىزا‬ٚ )‫ي‬ٍٛ‫( اٌّؼٍك ثُ اٌّشاُ٘ ثُ اٌّح‬ٚ‫ي ثُ اٌّشاُ٘ ثُ اٌّؼٍك )ا‬ٍٛ‫ (اٌّح‬ٟ‫ ِثال ٔشرت وبالر‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

ٗ١ٍ‫ اٌفبػ‬ٟ‫ك اٌفشق ف‬٠‫ فبد ثظ ػٓ ؽش‬ٌٍٟ‫ٔفظ اٌغؤاي ا‬12_

13_about steady state concentration during IV adminestration


a_directly ptoportional to volume of distribution
b_inversly proportional to volume of distribution
c_directly ptoportional to infusion rate
d_ inversly proportional to total body clearance
e_ c&d

answer is e

14_disentegration of drug to small molecule is

132
a_ reduction
b_ sublimation
c_ solubility
a ‫ب‬ٙ‫بساد ثظ أب حٍز‬١‫ االخز‬ٟ‫ِش فبوش ثبل‬

the way for 1st pass metabolism_15

from mesentric vain to portal vain ٗ‫بساد ثظ االخبث‬١‫ اخز‬ٟ‫وبْ ف‬

16_ which of the following decreas gastric emptying rate


a_ metoclopramid
b_ atropin
c_ hypothyroism
d_a&b
e_b&c
answer is e

1-The action of histamine is :


a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****
d-skeletal muscle paralysis e-slowing the heart rate

2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :


a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c. ***
d- i.c.
e- c.c.

3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :


a-inotropy b-chronotropy
c-automaticity****
d-contractility
e-non of the above

4- Which of the following is responcible for buffering


a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonates*****
d-potassium
e-troponin

5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not be


considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution

133
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****

6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT


true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast****
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator

7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial


diagnosis is arterial fibrilation:
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
d- a and b
e- b and c

8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:


a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg****
e- 1-2 mg

9- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?


a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve
absorption
-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient ****d-
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

10- B carotine is precursor of :


a)retinol ****
b) thiamine
c)riboflavin
d)pyridoxine
e) calcefirol

11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :


a)Hydralazone*****
b)Reserpine
c)Methyldopa

134
d)Atenolol
e)Clonidine

12-process require CYP450 :


a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION

13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with


antihypertinsive ???
a) minixidil
b) phenytoin ***
c) dioxide
d) nitroprusside Na
e) acebutol

14- hypothirodism will increase :


a) body weight ****
b) body temp
c) lipid profile

15- low density lipoprotien act as :


a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
b) transport fatty acid from cell membrane to cytoplasm,
c) good lipoprotien.........

16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed


corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone

17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you can use
drug is :
a) 31\8\2010…..*****
b) 1\8\2010
c) 31\7\2010

18- digitoxin side effect :


a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension

19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :

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Digoxin…………..

20-amphetamine used to treat :


a) Defect concentration *****
b) Insomnia

21-- which is not asthma properties :


a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain

22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :


a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH

23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :


a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine

24- about side effect of quinidine :


Chichonism*******

25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:


a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
ٟ‫ب وّبْ ش‬ٙ‫وزت ِع‬ٚe) Alopecia

26- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :


bilateral renal artery stenosis*****

27- Adsorption , which is not true :


a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****

28-all are antibiotic except :


Famcyclovir *****

136
29- heparin monitoring :
a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT****

30- about digitoxin , which is false :


a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal ……

31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :


a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****

32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :


a) 7
b) 14****
c) 10^7
d) 10^-14
e) C + d

33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?


a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C

34-- o.m.......
every morning******

35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :


a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C

137
36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except :
a) ACEI
b) Methyldopa****

37- dose of drug in children is ……. Mg \ kg , what total dose for


child 34.5 bound?
ٓ١‫حذر‬ٌٛ‫بساد ثب‬١‫وبْ وبرت اخز‬ٚ
gm , mg
ٞ‫س‬ٚ‫حذاد ضش‬ٌٛ‫ً ا‬٠ٛ‫ف رح‬

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****

39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :


Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***

40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase


effectiveness of lidocaine?
Epinephrine …………..

41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?


a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment

42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not


removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c

43)volatile substance given by inhalation:


a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane………….

44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should we
take from substance A ?
‫لٍذ‬......‫رٕبست‬ٚ ‫مخ ٔسجخ‬٠‫ثطش‬..‫ب صح‬ٙ‫ز‬١ٍ‫أب ح‬

138
15+30 + 150 = 195
, ‫صفخ‬ٌٛ‫ ِٓ وً ا‬ٌٝٚ‫ اعشف وُ ٔسجخ اٌّبدح اال‬ٞ‫ارا ثذ‬
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %

So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm


( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
ُٙ‫ز‬١ٍ‫ ِسبئً ح‬5 ‫ اٌحّذهلل‬ٟٕ‫ع‬٠ ‫ ثبٌّسبئً وبٍِخ‬ٟ‫أب وبٔذ عالِز‬ٚ...‫دح‬ٛ‫ج‬ٌّٛ‫بساد ا‬١‫ أحذ االخز‬ٛ٘ٚ
‫صح‬

45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X solution……


how gm we need from substance X ?
0.05 gm***

46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:


a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****

47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive


ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivelance
b) Bioequivelance
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative

48-to compare between 2 drugs use:


a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter
e) Taste

49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:


a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****

50)-Binding to plasma protein:


a- Increases half life.***
b- Decreases half life

51) The antidote of heparin is:

139
Protamin sulphate****

52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?


Creatinine clearance****

53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :

54-diazoxide… side effect :

55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****

56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :


a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension

57-drug dependence which is true :


a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action
‫بساد وبٔذ ِسزجعذح رّبِب‬١‫ذ االخز‬١‫ثم‬

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :


a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil

59)Enteric coated tablets:


Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach
juices*****

60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :


a) Increase size of particles
b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
d) Decrease surface area
e) B + C******

1-Yedeek molarity for ex 6.32x10^-6 M and m.wt. for sucrose


432.4g/mole we yetlob concentration by ppm
Ans. You must know that Molarity= no. of mole / volume (L)
Ana eftaradt en 6.32x10^-6 = 6.32x10^-6 / 1 liter
We olt en 1 mole --------> 432.4 g (m.wt)
6.32x10^-6-----> x g
X=0.002732 g

140
We tab3an e7na 3arfeen en 1ppm= 1mg/liter
So that concentration by ppm = 0.002732 x 1000 = 2.73 ppm

Ana tab3an mesh faker el arqam bel zabt bas yareet tekon el fekra
wasalet.
2-Yedeek prescription maktoob feha
-Timolo e.d
-Mitte 15 ml
- gtt iod bid
We yedek e7’tyarat ana e7’tart:
Instill 1 drop in the right eye two times daily
3- Yedek trade name we yes2al da beta3 eh ana e7’tart Cilazapril
la2an kol el ACEI elly kan gayebhom ana kont 3aref el trade name
beta3hom ella da
4- Not alpha 2 agonist in CNS:
-clonidine
- guanethidine >>>>
- guanfacine
5- chiral indicate:
- optical activity>>>>
- chelation properties
Kan tab3an fe e7’tyarat tanya bas ana kateb elly kont shakek
fehom we el ba2y bo3ad gedan 3an el sa7
6-digitalis toxicity precipitated by……ana e7’tart hypokalemia
7- in hypertension emergency which antihypertensive not use
Benhom kan nifedipine ana e7’arto bas wade7 enoo 3’alat
8- cyproheptadine is
-antihisaminic
- Antipsychotic
9- ergot alkaloids used for
-uterine contraction
10- posterior pitutary galand excrete …….oxytocin

1- drug which have the same site of action of penicillin


a-tetracycline
b-cephalexin
c-chloramephinechol
d-amphotericin
2- provac drug
a- anticoagulant
b-antibiotic
c-antiplatlets
d-………..
3- salbutamol

141
a-bronchodilator
4-phenyephrin
a- alpha &beta acion
b- alpha action
c-beta action
d-nicotinic
e-mucascarinic
5-phentolamine (ask for receptors) as question4
6-category C FDA pregnancy drugs
7-declofenac used in gout
a-anti-inflammatory and analgesic only
b-uricosuric agent
c-prevent excessive damage of joints
8-allopuruinol
a- uricosuric agent
b-increase absorption of uric a in tubules
9-side effect of nitrate....
10-claritin anti…..
11-patient has apenicillin allergy suitable antibiotic
a-penicillin
b-cephalexin
c-erythromycin
d-cloxacillin
e-augmentin(clavulinic )
12-tyramine+ACEI …….
13-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following not
removed by that?
14-heparin mechanism to prevent clot
……..
15- heparin test
……..
16-ophthalmic common traditional in market
a-solution-oint-suspension
b-solution- susp-oint
c-susp-oint – solution
d-all are common the same
17- needed to be sterile
a-parentral
b-syrup
c-ophalamic prep.
d-a&c
18-hypertonic solution make
1-shrinkage of blood cell
2-hemolysis
3-hyperglycemia
4-hypoglycemia
5-a&c

142
19- adenosine cause
Flushing –dyspnea
20- obse diabetic take firstly metformin
21- o.d means
22- a.c means
23-t.d means
24- about aminglcosides what is false
25-vitamin c for adult female
a-25mg
b-40mg
c-90mg
26-which of the following not antifungal
27-guanthedin SE
a-prevent ejaculation
b-sever hypotension
c-‫يش فبكش‬
28- bioavilability……………
29-process of drug metabolism in intestine
a-hydrolsis
b-oxid
c-glucouroniatin
d-……
30-digoxin
Increase contractility of myocardium
31-clonidine
32-
33- acid –base law
a-henry's
b-mivhelis menten
c- frank
‫كًبٌ شٌٕخ اسًبء يش فبكشْى‬d-
34- not from blood cells
a- reticleucyte
35-omperazole
Decrease acidity
36-Which of the following is not betamethasone side effect ?
a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness
d-sodium retention
37-
The mechanism of action of atropine is15
a-muscarinic antagonist b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist d-nicotinic agonist
e-non of the above
38-We can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl2 by taking
a-12g solute in 100ml solvent

143
b-12mg solute in 1000ml solvent
c-12g solute in 1ooml solvent
d-12mg solute in 100ml solvent
38- what is tertiary amine of TCA……..
39-vit A not used with
a-scurvy
b-night blindness
c-pregnancy
d-…..
40-_process require CYP450 :
a)oxidation
b)hydrolsis
c)

41-heparin monitoring :
a) INR
b) PT
c) APTT

how much amount of water added to 250 ml of solution as 1/500 of


benzonium clorid to be 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L
‫ب‬ٌٙ ً‫فزش ح‬ٛ‫ ِش‬ٟ‫لز‬ٌٛ‫ٌحذ د‬
‫ ِشاد‬4 ‫ رضبعف‬ٟٕ‫ع‬٠ 2000/1 ٟ‫لً ثم‬ٚ 500/1 ٍٟ‫ض االص‬١‫ وذٖ اٌزشو‬ٟ‫ثس احزّبي رجم‬
‫ ٌزش ِثال‬1 ‫ض‬ٚ‫ اٌّفش‬ٟ‫جم‬٠
‫ب طٍعذ صح‬ٍٙ‫شى‬ٚ ‫ٌزش‬2 ‫ُ أب اخزشد‬ٌّٙ‫ثس ا‬
molality ‫ ِحٍزش ِسأٌخ‬ٟٔ‫ال‬

The Molal concentration of 0.559 M is (Mwt=331.23 &


density=1.157g/ml) is

Note::
side effects of hydralazine
Common side-effects include:

Diarrhea 
Compensatory tachycardia due to baroreceptor reflex 
Headache 
Loss of appetite 
Nausea or vomiting 
Depression 

144
Pounding heartbeat 
Drug-Induced Lupus Erythematosus ُّٙ٘‫أ‬ 

WBCs::

Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
Macrophage
Dendritic cells

145

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