However, it is not straightforward at all to prove that you cannot use induction to prove part (ii)

from part (i). Luckily, you aren't asked to provide such a proof. All you are asked to do is to give
an explanation (which is much more of a pedagogical technique than it has to do with
mathematics).

So, why can't you use induction here? Induction says: Suppose you have a property P
such that P(0)
holds true and P(n)⟹P(n+1)
for all n∈N
. Then P(n)
holds for all n∈N

In our case the property P(n)

is "the union of n
countable sets is countable". By induction we get that P(n)
holds true for all n∈N

The statement "the union of countable many countable sets is countable" is not among those
statements P(n)
(there is no n∈N
such that "the union of countable many countable sets is countable" is equivalent to P(n)
). Hence induction doesn't provide us with any information about this statement.