b11 Lea Bet 500 Items With Answer

BATCH 11
BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON LAW ENFORCEMENT

ADMINISTRATION
Prepared by: Prof. LYEN CAREL GARCIA, JUNE 2022 CLE TOP 1
LAW ENFORCEMENT ORGANIZATION AND 9. A single uninterrupted line of authority – often

ADMINISTRATION WITH INTER-AGENCY represented by boxes and lines of an organizational chart
APPROACH – is run in order by what we call –
1. A consciously coordinated social entity, with a A. organizational control B. administrative control
relatively identifiable boundary, that functions on a C. scalar chain D. span of control
relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or
sets of goals. 10. As provided by the Phil. Constitution of 1987,
A. Organization C. Administration the PNP shall be
B. Police Organization D. Police Administration A. Absorbed by the former PC and shall become a national
police.
2. According to RA 6975, the nature of the PNP shall B. National in character and civilian in scope.
be _____. C. National in scope and civilian in character.
A. Nucleus of the police organization D. The leading law enforcement agency in the country.
B. Attached with the military E. None of the Above.
C. Civilian in nature
D. The primary police organization of the land 11. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not
been promoted for a continuous service shall be retired or
3. An officer who has the more senior rank/higher separated if the said period of non promotion gained with
in a group or team. in
a) Sworn Officer A. 20 yrs B. 10 yrs C. 15 years
b) Commanding Officer D. 18 months E. none of these
c) Superior Officer
d) Ranking Officer 12.
The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM
4. A police organizational structure used by the PNP who shall conduct management audit, and prepare a
at present particularly at the central office is called _____. proposed reorganization plan. Who shall approve the said
A. Line C. Functional plan?
B. Line and Staff D. Line and A. DILG Secretary
Functional B. C/PNP
C. Congress
5. To improve delegation, the following must be D. President
done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards 13. What is the term of office of the four regular and
B. count the number of supervisors full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM?
C. require complete work A. 6 years B. 4 years
D. define authority and responsibility C. 5 years D. 9 years E. None of these
6. The police organization can be structured to 14. The placement of subordinate into the position
attain effective, efficient and economical police service. for which their capabilities best fit them is referred to as
Following are the organic units that form part of the A. Staffing B. None of these
components, EXCEPT: C. Planning D. Organizing E. Directing
A. Operational Unit C. Auxiliary Unit
B. Service Unit D. Administrative Unit 15. What is the principle of organization suggesting
that communication should ordinarily go upward and
7. The administrative control and operational downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
supervision over the PNP is a power of; A. Chain of Command B. Unity of Command
A. DILG C. Congress C. Span of Control D. Delegation of Authority
B. NAPOLCOM D. Mayors
8. The operational supervision and control over the 16. The study of the processes and conditions of the
PNP assigned at cities and municipalities is a power of the: Law Enforcement pillar that is also called “police in action.”
A. Congress A. Police Management B. Police Organization
B. Department of Interior and Local Government C. Organizational Structure D. Police
C. Local Government Executives Administration
D. National Police Commission
17. If the CPNP assumes his office in July 8, 2005, his
last day in office as the CPNP will be on
A. July 7, 2009
B. July 7, 2010
Amici Review Center Page 1

C. July 7, 2011 26. Direction that is provided on a one-to-one basis
D. July 7, 2002 is called __________.
A. Administration C.
18. What is the law provides the National Police Supervision
Commission to conduct Police examination? B. Management D. Organization
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040 27. Police officers who are overweight, after the
C. RA 4864 effectivity of RA 8551 shall be given a reasonable time to
D. RA 6141 satisty the weight requirement. What is the duration of
time of satisfying the weight requirement given to a PNP
member?
19. On October 3, 1901, Insular Constabulary was A. Six months
renamed as Philippine Constabulary pursuant to Organic B. 1 year
Act 255. Who was the first Chief of the then Philippine C. 2 years
Constabulary? D. 4 years
a. Sir Robert Peel
b. General Howard Taft 28. What will happen to a police officer who, after a
c. Brigadier General Rafael Crame given time period fails to satisfy a continuing specific
d. Lt. Col. Henry T. Allen requirement for employment with the PNP?
A. Separated from the service if he is below 50 years of
20. What article and specific section of the 1987 age and has served in government for less than 20 years
Philippine Constitution that provides for the establishment B. Retired if he is from the age of 50 and above and has
and maintenance of one police force which shall be served the government for at least 20 years without
national in scope but civilian in character that shall be prejudice in either case to the payment of benefits he may
administratively controlled and operationally supervised by be entitled to under existing laws
the National Police Commission? C. Dismissed from the service if he is either below or above
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution 50 years of age and rendered less that 20 years service
b. b Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution D. Both A or B
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine
Constitution 29. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution Superintendent is vested in the;
A. Chief, PNP
21. Responsible for the processing of claims and B. President
benefits of personnel PNP personnel, retirees and C. Civil Service Commission
separated PNP personnel and their direct dependents. D. NAPOLCOM
a. Information Technology Management Service
b. Directorate for Plans 30. The first Insular Police Force created by virtue of
c. Communications and Electronic Service Organic Act No. 175.
d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits Service A. Philippine Constabulary
B. Guardia Civil
22. The standard manning level in rural areas is: C. Philippine National Police
a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents D. PC/INP
b. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents
c. 1 police officer for every 500 residents 31. How many Deputy Director General ranks are
d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents there in the PNP?
A. 1 B. 3
23. The “rule of thumb” regarding the manning level C. 2 D. 4
of the police in urban areas:
a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents 32. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the
b. 1 police officer for every 500 residents __________.
c. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents A. DDG for operation
d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents B. Chief, Directorial Staff
C. DDG for administration
D. Chief, PNP
24. Decisions from the PLEB involving demotion or
dismissal from the service are appealable to? 33. How many percent is added for every year of
a. Court of Appeals active service rendered beyond 20 years?
b. National Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM a. 5%
c. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM b. 3%
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) c.10%
d. 2.5%
25. When is the operational supervision and control
powers conferred to mayors by the NAPOLCOM is 34. Formulates plans and policies on the career
suspended and temporarily given to the COMELEC? development of PNP members; formulates doctrines
a. 30 days before and after any national, local pertaining to organization, administration and operations
or barangay elections of PNP; and determines training requirements of the PNP
b. 60 days before and after any national, local or personnel and units and formulates training programs and
barangay elections directives for the purpose.
c. 90 days before and after any national, local or a. Directorate for Human Resource and
barangay elections Doctrine Development
d. 180 days before and after any national, local or b. Directorate for Investigation & Detective
barangay elections Management
c. Directorate for Information and Communication
Technology Management
d. Directorate for Plans

a. Police organization
35. The following are the appropriate eligibilities for b. Law enforcement group
Police Officer 1, except: c. Non-government organization
a. Honor Graduates pursuant to P.D. 907 d. Organization
b. Licensed Criminologists pursuant to R.A. 6506
c. Bar and PRC Board Passers pursuant to R.A. 1080 46. The first Chief of Police of Manila was
d. Holder of a Master’s Degree pursuant to a. Capt. George Curry
CHED Memorandum Order b. Capt. Henry Allen
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
36. A PC Staff Sergeant who joined the PNP in 1992 d. Capt. Howard Taft
has a rank of _____.
A. SPO1 47. The lowest administrative penalty
B. SPO2 a. reprimand
C. SPO3 b. restriction
D. SPO4 c. admonition
d. forfeiture of pay
37. Complaints against personnel of the IAS shall be
brought either to the Inspector General's office or to the; 48. MNSA or Master’s in National Security
A. Chief of PNP C. Congress Administration is offered and administered by an
B. NAPOLCOM D. President institution known as
a. PPSC
38. Dr. Johnny is a Doctor of Philosophy in Education; b. NAPOLCOM
he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would c. National Defense Office
be his initial rank upon entry? d. National Defense College
A. Senior Inspector B. Chief Inspector
C. Inspector D. NONE 49. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if
a. recruitment falls on summer
39. Which of the following statement is TRUE?. b. qualified applicant falls below quota
A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the c. ordered by the President
police personnel. d. none of them
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
increases of promotion. 50. Caloocan City maintains a police force with a total
C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
police personnel. must be established?
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to a. two
determine the quality of work performance or b. four
personnel. c. three
d. five
40. It administers and attends to cases involving
crimes against chastity. 51. Insubordination is an administrative infraction
A. CIDG referred to as
B. DSWD a. citizens complaint
C. IAS b. grave misconduct
D. Women’s Desk c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them
41. The following are the management process
except one: 52. PLEB is composed of how many person?
A. Planning B. Organizing a. 3
C. Leading D. Coordinating b. 5
c. 4
42. Maintenance of intended delegation requires that d. 6
the decisions within its authority of individual commander
should be made by them and not be referred upward or 53. What is the length of service before a PNP
downward in the organizational structure is referred to as; member would be qualified for optional retirement?
A. principle of delegation by result expected a. 5 years
B. principle of absoluteness of responsibility b. 10 years
C. principle of parity and responsibility c. 15 years
D. authority level principle d. 20 years
43. When can the President extend the tenure of 54. In this form of authority, personnel do not give
service of the Chief, PNP? orders but they offer advice. Frequently, this advice is
a. after 4 years based on a high level of expertise but the advice carries
b. there is no successor no formal requirement for acceptance.
c. during martial law A. Democracy C. Functional
d. national emergencies B. Line D. Staff
44. Benefits derived by a PNP officer qualified for

early retirement 55. The forecasting in detail of the results of an
a. two ranks higher officially recognized program of operations based on the
b. one rank higher highest reasonable expectations of operating efficiency.
c. his present rank a. Budgeting c. Controlling
d. one year gratuity b. Reporting d. Staffing
45. An association or group of individuals with a 56. The replacement of the old Police Anti-Crime and
common goal. Emergency Response Force or PACER.

a. Anti-Cybercrime Group c. Aviation Group processes and administers application of leaves and other
b. Anti-Kidnapping Group d. Highway benefits.
Patrol Group a. Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
b. Directorate for intelligence
57. Formulates and implements information c. Directorate for Operations
technology policies, plans and programs of the PNP. d. Directorate for Logistics
a. Information Technology Management Service
b. Directorate for Plans
c. Communications and Electronic Service 66. Manages the recruitment and appointments of
d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits Service PNP personnel; plans for the
It exercises control, direction, coordination and monitoring
58. . A promotion granted to police officers meeting of all PNP operations, including patrolling, conduct of
the mandatory requirements for position. search, arrest and seizures, aviation security, maritime
a. Regular Promotion security, civil disturbance management, civil security and
b. Promotion by Virtue of Position traffic management; and prepares, coordinates and issues
c. Special/Meritorious/Spot Promotion operational plans, orders and directives.
d. Posthumous Promotion a. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
b. Directorate for intelligence
59. Disciplinary authority where the offense is c. Directorate for Operations
punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to d. Directorate for Logistics
specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any
combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen 67. The date of effectivity of RA 8551
(16) days but not exceeding thirty (30) days. a. 1990
a. Chief of Police b 2001
b. City or Municipal Mayors c. 1998
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) d. 2003
d. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
68. Which of the following agencies attest
60. It refers to an act or omission not involving moral appointments of PNP Non-Commissioned Officers?
turpitude but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP. A. National Police Commission
a. Grave offense B. Commission on Election
b. Minor offense C. Commission on Appointment
c. Criminal offense D. Civil Service Commission
d. Breach of Internal Discipline
69. To defend Against external and internal threats
61. Permanent Physical Disability of the PCOs and To territorial integrity and sovereignty And promote the
PNCOs is compensable provided that the following welfare of the people in order to create a secure and stable
requisites are present, except: environment Conducive to national development Is the
A. Finding and certification by the appropriate medical mission of
officer that the extent of the disability and sickness renders A. DND
them unfit or unable to perform duties of the position B. PNP
B. Duly recommended by the Regional Director and C. DDB
Chief PNP D. DILG
C. Injuries suffered or sickness contracted resulting to
permanent disability is due to the performance of official 70. The following are the Bureau of Immigration core
duties values, except;
D. Certification by the NAPOLCOM A. Integrity
B. Patriotism
62. The term Time-in-Grade as criteria for promotion C. Commitment
refers to: D. Professionalism
A. total length of service in the PNP
B. Over-all length of service in the government 71. Who was the first Secretary of National Defense?
C. over-all length of service in the present A. Teofilo Sison
rank B. Artemio Ricarte
D. Length of permanent status in the present rank C. Ramon Magsaysay
D. Tomas Cabili
63. No person in an organization can do all the tasks
necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, 72. What is the law that established the Council of
A. chain of command National Defense, forerunner of Department of National
B. command responsibility Defense?
C. delegation of authority A.Executive Order number 2 series of 1935
D. unity of command B. Executive Order number 3 Series of 1935
C. Executive Order number 230 series of 1939
64. The orderly and organized physical movement of D. Executive Order number 94 series off 1947
elements or units of the PNP.
A. employment 73. The Department of Agriculture is composed of
B. deployment how many bureaus?
C. assignment A. 5
D. designation B. 7
C. 8
65. transfer and assignment of personnel as well as D. 15
the adjustment of qualification standards; assesses
personnel fitness and performance; and records, 74. It is a Bureau under DA which is tasks to ensure
availability of quality seeds, safety of plant food and

development of crop farming technologies and safeguard B. MARSEC
the plant industry. C. MARSAR
A Bureau of Animal industry D. MARLEN
B. Bureau of Fisheries and aquatic resource E. MAREP
C.Bureau of Plant Industry
D Bureau of Soils and Water Management 84.To enforce regulations in accordance with all relevant
maritime international conventions, treaties or instruments
75. What is the parent agency of the Bureau of and national laws for the promotion of safety of life
Customs? property at sea within the maritime jurisdiction of the
A DOJ Philippines and conduct port state control implementation
B. DoF This is function of PCG. This statement is -
C. DILG A. TRUE
D. DENR B. FALSE
C. PARTLY TRUE
76.It is charged with assessing and collecting customs D. PARTLY FALSE
revenues, curbing illicit trade and all forms of customs
fraud and facilitating trade through an efficient and 85. What is the highest rank in the Philippine Coast Guard?
effective customs management system. A.Commandant
A Bureau of customs B. Coast Guard Admiral
B. Bureau of Treasury C. Coast Guard Vice Admiral
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue D. Coast Guard Rear Admiral
D Bureau of Local Government Finance
86. What is the maximum tenure of Coast Guard Admiral?
77.The Bureau of Customs is headed by the Customs A. 3 YEARS
Commissioner who is assisted by how many deputy B. 4 YEARS
commissioners? C. 5 YEARS
A1 D. 7 YEARS
B2
C4 87. Formerly known as Videogram Regulatory. It operates
D6 against proliferation of fake and pirated VHS,DVD, VCD,
CD tapes.
78.Border control to prevent entry of smuggled goods is A. OMB
one of the functions of the Bureau of Custom . This B. MTRCB
statement is - C. LTO
A true D. PNP cyber crime unit
B. False
C. partly through 88. The PCG shall consist of the following categories of
D. partly false officers and employees - except
A. PCG officers;
79.It is responsible for the administration and enforcement B. PCG non-officers;
of immigration, citizenship and alien admission and C. Probationary ensign; and
registration laws in accordance with the provisions of the D. Cadets and Cadettes
Philippine Immigration Act Of 1940. It also plays a role in E. Non of the above
enforcement of RA 9208, Also known as the anti trafficking
in Person Act of 2003. 89. It acts as a national clearing house of criminal records
A Bureau of customs and other related information for the benefit of the
B. Bureau of immigration government;
C. Bureau of Fire Protection A. NBI
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology. B. PNP
C. NICA
80.What is the parent agency of the Bureau of D. PDEA
Immigration?
A. DOJ 90. An Act Reorganizing and Modernizing the National
B. DILG Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
C. DND A. RA 10867
D. DOTR B. RA 10687
B. RA 10768
81.The Bureau of Immigration is headed by - C. RA 10876
A. Commissioner
B. Chairperson 91. The ____ acts as the principal law agency (EO No.
C. Chief of Immigration 292) and legal counsel of the government.
D. None of these A. NATIONAL PROSECUTORS OFFICE
B. DOJ
82.The following organization Is mandated and C. SUPREME COURT
responsible to perform maritime search and rescue, D. COURT OF APPEALS
maritime law enforcement, maritime safety, marine
Environmental Protection and maritime security? 92. The following are constituent agencies/units under
a. Bureau of customs DOJ -
b. PNP Maritime group I. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Philippine Navy II. Bureau of Immigration
d. Philippine Coast Guard III. Bureau of Corrections
IV. Board of Pardons and Parole
83.The function of PCG, designed to help prevent or V. Parole and Probation Administration
minimize unnecessary loss of lives and properties at sea
A. MARSAF A. I,II

B. I,II,III D. International Red Cross
C. I,II,III,IV E. Geneva Conventions
D. I,II,III,IV,V
93. The NBI is headed by a Director and assisted by how 2. This type of society has not only codified laws but
many deputies? also laws that prescribe good behavior and a specialized
A. 1 police system and principle based system of punishment,
B. 2 being followed by England and the US:
C. 3 A. Bureaucratic society
D. 4 B. Urban-industrial society
C. Post-modern society
94. The following are powers and functions of NBI D. Folk-communal society
agent,except E. Urban-commercial society
A. Undertake investigations pursuant to the mandate of
the NBI; 3. The type of police and criminal justice system are
B. Conduct searches, arrests, and seizures in accordance distinguished by a strong adversarial system where
with existing laws, rules and regulations; lawyers interpret and judges are bound by precedent.
C. Take and require sworn statements of any person or A. Civil law systems
persons so summoned in relation to cases under B.Common law systems
investigation; C. Socialist system
D. Administer oaths in cases under investigation; and D. Islamic system
E. None of these
4. The theory of comparative policing that sees
95. “The Philippine Immigration Act of 1940.” problem as society is becoming too complex.
A. Commonwealth Act no. 613 A. Deprivation theory
B. Commonwealth Act no. 612 B.Demographic theory
C. Commonwealth Act no. 614 C. Modernization theory
D. Commonwealth Act no. 615 D. Opportunity theory
E.Theory of anomie and synomie
96. Responsible for the efficient and effective law
enforcement of all the provisions on any dangerous drug 5. This theory suggests that people report more
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical as crime to police and demand the police to become more
provided in RA 9165. effective in solving crime problems.
A. PDEA A.Alertness to crime theory
B. DDB B. Economic or migration theory
C. DEA C.Opportunity theory
D. PNP D.Modernization theory
E. Deprivation theory
97. PDEA highest rank is
A. Director General 6. The first Arab country to recruit women to its
B. Secretary police force and opened a Women’s Police Academy for
C. Undersecretary the purpose.
D. Chief, PDEA A. Jordan
B. Dubai
98. DDB or Dangerous Drugs Board has the power to C. Kuwait
Administer oath,issue subpoena and subpoena duces D. Abu Dhabi
tecum relative to the conduct of investigation involving the
violations RA 9165. This statement is - 7. Similar unit of the PNP Aviation Security Group in
A. TRUE Hongkong.
B. FALSE A.Airport Security Unit
C. PARTLY TRUE B. Auxiliary Police Force
D. PARTLY FALSE C. Custom’s Police
D. Air Transportation Office
99. Also known as the “Customs Modernization and Tariff
Act (CMTA)” 8. In the PNP the highest rank is Director General,
A. RA 10863 in the Indonesian National Police the highest is:
B. RA 10683 A. Police General
C. RA 10368 B. Police Grand Commissioner
D. RA 10836 C. Police Commissioner General
D. Police Brigadier General
100. This Act shall be known as the "Philippines Coast
Guard Law of 2009“ 9. The equivalent rank of Chief PNP in the Royal
A. RA 9933 Thailand Police.
B. RA 9993 A. Police Commissioner
C. RA 9339 B. Police General
D. RA 9939 C. Policeman Constable
D. Police Lieutenant General
COMPARATIVE POLICING SYSTEM
10. Pertains to all those forms of policing that in some
1. An agency mandated to promote police co- sense, transgress national borders.
operation in all cases of international crime except those A. Global policing
of political, military, religious or racial character. B. International policing
A. INTERPOL C. Preventive policing
B.United Nation D. Transnational policing
C. Commission on Human Rights

A. Bushido
11. It is now a common form of policing practiced in B. Ninja
most advance countries that involves information C. Samurai
exchange, has a common monopoly around the world. D. Kidotai
A. Community oriented policing
B. Broken window policing 21. What is the minimum rank of Indonesia National
C. Intelligence led policing Police?
D. Problem oriented policing A. PO1
B. Junsa
12. These police force are often referred to as C. Police Constable
“Bobbies or Peelers” of London that became the model for D. 2nd bhayangkara
the police forces in the US and the British Empire.
A. Gendarmerie Police Force 22. The present Police Force of the Republic of
B. Prefectural Police Force3 Singapore.
C. Marine Police Force A. Republic of Singapore Police Force
D. Metropolitan Police Force B. Singapore Federal Police
C. Singapore Police Force
13. All except one uses a centralized system of D. Singapore National Police
policing.
A. Israel 23. The Philippines has PNP; the Hong Kong has
B. France ________________.
C. United States A. Royal Hong Kong Police Force
D. Philippines B. Hong Kong National Police
C. Federal Police of Hong Kong
14. Established to detect and fight transnational D. Hong Kong Police
crime and provide for international cooperation and
coordination of other police activities, except political 24. The motto of HongKong Police force:
crimes. A. Law and Order
A. UN Peacekeeping Forces B. Safer Communities together
B. Visiting Forces Agreement C. To Serve and Protect
C. Joint Military Exercises D. We serve with pride and Care
D. International Criminal Police Organization
Note: Hong Kong Police Force's new motto: 'Serving
15. The police force of Canada is under the direction Hong Kong with Honour, Duty and Loyalty'
and control of the: Kung wala sa choices ang new motto ung luma ang isagot.
A. Minister of Public Safety
B. Minister of Interior 25. With high standard of living, victims become
C. Prime Minister more careless of their belongings, and opportunities for
D. Minister of Defense committing crime multiply. What theory describes this?
A. demographic theory
16. In the Philippines the PNP is under NAPOLCOM, B. alertness to crime theory
Japan National Police is under the: C. economic theory
A. National Police Agency D. opportunity theory
B. Public Safety Bureau
C. National Public Safety Commission 26. In Japan Police Force, it is the highest rank in the
D. Police Administrative Bureau system, the chief of metropolitan police department.?
A. Commissioner General
17. The PNP has the Police Community Relations B. Superintendent General
unit, the Royal Bahamas Police has the: C. Chief Superintendent
A. Community and Neighborhood Policing D. Corporal
Unit
B. Special Response Unit 27.
C. Detective/Scenes of Crime Unit The Filipino president of the INTERPOL in 1980-1984 was
D. Civil Relations Unit –
A. Roger Delos Santos
18. Religious police in Saudi Arabia whose duty is to B. Ernesto Maceda
ensure strict adherence to established codes of conduct. C. Jolly R. Bugarin
A. Taliban D. Pablo San Jose
B. Schupo
C. Mutawa 28. At the INTERPOL, each member country has its
D. Ngā Pirihimana o Aotearoa own National Central Bureau (NCB). In the Philippines,
which of the following is the chairman of the NCB Manila?
19. These are residential police box in Japan is A. NBI Director
usually staffed by a single officer. It is typically located B. Sec. of DOJ
outside of urban districts in villages and is operated by one C. Chief PNP
community officer, who resides with his family in this D. The President
police facility.
A. Sokoiya 29. At the INTERPOL, the Executive Committee,
B. Chuzaisho composed of the President, VPs and Delegates are
C. Koban mandated to meet ___ in a year prior to the General
D. Kobun Assembly.
A. 3 times
20. Riot police in Japan whose criteria for selection is B. 2 times
their physical strength, command of the martial arts and C. 5 times
ability to cope in stressful situation is called: D. Every month

A. Alertness to crime theory
30. Which of the following is not one among the B. Economic theory
official language of the INTERPOL? C. Opportunity theory
A. English D. Anomie and Synomie theory
B. German
C. Spanish 40. This system uses measurement of crime control
D. French efficiency and effectiveness based on absence of crime or
low crime rate?
31. The final modification of the INTERPOL flag was A. continental policing
made in __. B. modern policing
A. 1923 C. modernization
B. 1973 D. colonization
C. 1953
D. 1983 41. As a nation develops, people’s alertness to crime
is heightened. They report more crime to police and
32. There are seven Regional offices of the demand the police to become more effective in solving
INTERPOL, which one of the following is not one among crime problems. What theory best describes this situation?
them? A. modernization theory
A. Thailand B. alertness to crime theory
B. Zimbabwe C. economic theory
C. Kenya D. opportunity theory
D. Malaysia
42. Under the rules and function of Australian Federal
33. The National Headquarter of the Royal Malaysian Police, the AFP falls under the portfolio of:
Police is located in – A. Home Affairs Ministry
A. Mabes B. Attorney-General
B. Bukit Aman C. Minister for Home Affairs
C. Phnom Phen D. Minister for Justice and Customs
D. Bangkok
43. It is traditional in nature as it is based its crime
34. What is this law that gives Japanese police the control efficiency to the number of arrest and people being
authority to arrest people with “wrong thoughts”. put to jail for punishment.
A. Peace process law A. continental policing
B. Peace talk law B. modern policing
C. Peace preservation law C. modernization
D. Preserved peace law D. colonization
35. This center is created by virtue of Executive Order 44. The primary threat to law enforcement brought
No. 62 to establish a shared database among concerned about by globalization which is evidenced by genocide or
agencies for information on criminals, methodologies, mass killing.
arrests and convictions on transnational crime A. Unfair access to global mechanism by the under
A. Philippine National Police (PNP) privilege
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH) B. Occupation of nations by the most powerful
C. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes C. Conflict between nations
(PCTC) D. Increasing human rights violations
D. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
45. The type and form of government in northern
36. This is a package of transnational flows of people, Asia (Russia) consist of composite systems which includes
production, investment, information, ideas and authority. federal state, semi-presidential and republic. Which type
A. Manufacturing of government which is characterized by a union of
B. Globalization partially self-governing states or regions united by a
C. Internationalization central government?
D. Transnational A. Republic state
B. federal state
37. What notice is being applied to help locate C. semi-presidential state
missing persons including children, or to help people to D. presidential state
identify themselves.
A. Blue notices 46. Which one below is NOT a benefits that the
B. Green notices Philippines Derive as Member of the INTERPOL?
C. Red notices A. Access to police information on international Criminal
D. Yellow notices Cases.
B. Access to International Summaries of Criminal Cases.
38. The researcher communicates with foreign C. Attend meetings and symposiums on case of special
researcher for his research. Which method is appropriate topics
for that research? D. Access to funds against transnational Crimes
A. Communication method E. Access to information dealing with economic
B. Safari method and financial crime in an international level
C. Collaborative method
D. Collective method 47. The collation of international covenants and
treaties on war crimes and for the protection of the rights
39. Which one below that suggests that progressive of women and children;
lifestyles and norms result in the disintegration of older A. International bill of human rights
norms that once held people together, but in other cases, B. Geneva conventions
people can come together and achieve social consensus or C. universal declaration of human rights
social cohesion over values; D. covenant on civil and political rights

D. Borderpol
48. In the Philippines the minimum age requirement
for police officers is 21 years old, what is the minimum age 58. It is the Interpol's supreme governing body. It
requirement in the Australian Federal Police? meets annually to take all important decisions related to
A. 17 policy, resources, working methods, finances, activities
B. 18 and programmes.
C. 19 A. General Assembly
D. 21 B. Executive Committee
C. General Secretariat
49. Consist of all the United Nations conventions D. National Central Bureaus
which seeks to safeguard life and human dignity in a global
scale. 59. Elected by the General Assembly, It is headed by
A. union of domestic concerns for global governance the President of the Interpol. It provides guidance and
B. Universal convention direction to the Organization and oversees the
C. universal protections and safeguards implementation of decisions made at the annual General
D. universal declarations Assembly.
A. General Assembly
50. When poor person commits a crime, the B. Executive Committee
government goes to work analyzing the family, education C. General Secretariat
and employment needs of everyone in that poor person’s D. National Central Bureaus
family. It is referring to?
A. Congo Police
B. Egypt Police 60. It is considered the lifeblood of INTERPOL
C. Ireland Police because it contributes to the criminal databases and
D. Switzerland Police cooperating together on cross-border investigations,
operations and arrests.
51. Conflicts are resolved by a tribunal council, and A. General Assembly
there are no jails and prisons. This type of society is an B. Executive Committee
excellent example of the folk-communal or informal justice C. General Secretariat
system. D. National Central Bureaus
A. Congo Police
B. Egypt Police 61. Interpol has how many member countries?
C. Ireland Police A. 180
D. Switzerland Police B. 185
C. 190
52. This is the kind of policing system where police D. 195 (new)
control is under direct control of the national government:
A. Fragmented 62. Cambodia National Police was established in what
B. Centralized year?
C. Integrated A. 1945
D. None of these B. 1946
C. 1947
53. This is a very broad category, encompassing D. 1948
everything from illegal immigration to international
prostitution, slavery, and child pornography. 63. The Permanent seat of the Aseanapol secretariat
A. Flow of people is in what place?
B. Migration A. Manila
C. Human trafficking B. Kuala Lumpur
D. Sex slavery C. Hanoi
D. Jakarta
54. Interpol as an organization became known as
such in 64. In police parlance, the term cop would refer to?
A. 1936 A. Law enforcer
B. 1946 B. A beat police officer
C. 1956 C. An investigator
D. 1966 D. A metal
55. The Organization known simply as Interpol is the

A. International Police Association 65. Period whereby most civilized countries have
B. Association of Chief of Police organized their police forces which is separate and distinct
C. International Criminal Police Organization from that of the military
D. None of the Above A. 12th century
B. 13TH CENTURY
56. The Present Interpol was officially created as the C. 17th century
International Criminal Police Commission in what year? D. 18th century
A. 1913
B. 1923
C. 1933 66. The first organized modern police organization.
D. 1943 A. Metropolitan Police force
B. Scotland Yard
57. It is the world’s largest international police C. Interpol
organization, with 195 member countries. D. FBI
A. International Police Organization
B. Aseanapol 67. Police officers in England were referred to as
C. Interpol A. Public servants

B. State servants B. False
C. law enforcers C. Partly true
D. bobbies D. Absolutely true
68. Police officers in the Philippines is generally 87. MHA means:

regarded as. a. Ministry of Highest Association
A. Public servants b. Ministry of Home Action
B. state servants c. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Peace officers d. Managing Hours of Action
D. public safety officers
88. In the Philippine National Police, we use the word

69. The Insignia usually worn by the law enforcer "trainees" to refer to those newly recruited members. In
with the highest police post. the Indonesian Police, police trainees are called
A. 1 star A. Kamara
B. 2star B. Kama
C. 3 star C. Kamra
D. 4 star D. Karma
70. Police as a social agency historically started as a

function of the? 89. The National Central Bureau of the Interpol in the
A. State Philippines is located in what city?
B. Royalty A. Makati City
C. Civic Society B. Quezon City
D. Military C. City of Manila
D. City of Pasay
80. Following countries advocated the home rule theory
except 90. A French term which claimed to be the origin of the
A. USA term Police Officer.
B. Japan A. Officer de la Paix
C. Great Britain B. Praetorian guards
D. Italy C. Constabuli
D. Sheriff
81. Around the world police organizations are usually
governed by 91. The one which organized the first formal policing in
A. Commission China.
B. Department A. Japanese Yakuza
C. Bureau B. Japanese Colonial Government
D. None of these C. Keihoryo
D. Japan National Police Agency
82. Organized police organization begun around this
period
A. 11th century 92. Is a special unit of Royal Malaysia Police with a vital
B. 12th century role in maintaining national security with thorough
C. 17th century surveillance and patrol from the air
D. 18th century A. Royal Malaysian Police Air Wing Unit
B. Federal Reserve Unit
C. UNGERI
83. This is the broad police mandate to keep the peace or D. The Police Field Force
otherwise prevent behavior which might disturb others.
A. Peace and order 93. Considered as the largest city police in the US with
B. Order maintenance 29,000 police officers?
C. Law enforcement a. LAPD
D. Criminal apprehension b. Manila Police District
c. NYPD
84. This police organization tend to exist only in d. Boston Police Department
metropolitan countries and have county wide jurisdiction
in some areas there is Sheriff Department which only 94. The following are the three types of policing, except:
handles minor issues such as service of papers, such as a. Service
constable in other areas along with security for the local b. Watchman
courthouse c. Legalistic
A. Federal police d. Social
B. State police
C. Local police 95. Ministry of Home Affairs is also known as?
D. County police a. Home Rule
b. Home Team
85. Rank and file officers are usually referred to us. c. Home Force
A. Uniform officers
B. Officers 96. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
C. non commissioned officers A. Johann Schober
D. None of these. B. Oskar Dressler
C. Jurgen Stock
86. Police organizations around the world usually utilizes D. Kim Jong Yang
military ranks. This statement is.
A. True 97. In 1981, the first formal meeting of The

Chiefs of ASEAN Police was attended by 5 B. B. 9 inches
original member countries. These are: C. C. 6 inches
I. Malaysia D. D. 20 feet or more
II. Indonesia
III. Brunei 6. The maximum number of private security
IV. Philippines personnel that a PSA/CGF/PDA may employ shall be: a.
V. Singapore 500
VI. Thailand b. 1500
A. I, II, III, IV and V c. 1000
B. I, II, IV, V and VI d. 2000
C. I, III, IV, V, VI
D. II, III, IV, V and VI 7. The importance of the firm or installation with
reference to the national economy security
98. Also known as “Continental Justice or Romano- a. relative vulnerability
Germanic Justice” b. relative necessity
A. Islamic System c. relative criticality
B. Common Law System d. relative security
C. Socialist System
D. Civil Law System 8. A type of fence that is constructed in such a way
that visual access through the fence is denied is called:
99. UNCTOC means: a. Chain link fence
a. Unites Nation Center on Transnational b. Solid fence
Organized Crime c. Concertina wire fence
b. Unknown and Not Constitutionally d. Full-view fence
Transparent On Countries
c. United Nation Crime Through Organized 9. The minimum age requirement for Security
Convention Manager or Operator of a security agency is :
d. United Nations Convention against A. 40 yrs old
Transnational Organized Crime B. B. 25 yrs old
C. C. 30 yrs old
D. 35 yrs old
100. INTERPOL global communication for the enforcement
community called? 10. What is the exposure and teaching of employees
a. I-360/24/7 on security and its relation to their work?
b. I-7/24 A. Indoctrination
c. I-24/7 B. Education
d. I-24/360/7 C. Training
D. Inspection
INTRODUCTION TO INDUSTRIAL SECURITY
CONCEPTS 11. Which of the following DOCTRINES is governing
planning, organizing and employment of PNP force in the
1. This is otherwise known as the Private Security accomplishment of basic security mission in maintaining
Agency Law. peace and order?
A. RA 5478 A. Complimentary
B. RA 5487 B. Operational
C. RA 8551 C. Fundamental
D. RA 8515 D. Functional
2. A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a 12. What security is involve in the protection of
temporary license to operate that is good for: classified papers from loss, damage and compromised
A. six months through disclosures?
B. one year and six months A. Industria
C. one year B. Warrant
D. two years C. Document
D. Physical
3. How is one classified if he steals primarily
because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity 13. What are documents or records which are
and little chance of detection? irreplaceable or any reproduction do not have the same
A. systematic pilferer value as the originals?
B. ordinary pilferer A. Secured
C. casual pilferer B. Important
D. unusual pilferer C. Vital
D. useful
4. A security force maintained and operated by any
private company/corporation utilizing any of its employees 14. A Private Security Agency who is applying for
to watch, secure or guard its business establishment regular license to operate must have a minimum of:
premises, compound or properties is called: a. 100 Guards
a. Company Guard Force b. 500 Guards
b. Government Guard Unit c. 200 Guards
c. Private Security Agency d. 1000 Guards
d. All of these
15. If Paco Alvarado wants to become a SG, how
5. The vault door should be made of steel at least many hours of training is needed to acquire his license as
in thickness? SG?
A. 7 inches A. 150 Hours

B. 48 Hours 25. What is the most active terrorist organization in
C. 72 Hours the Philippines wherein the efforts of PNP and AFP with
D. 300 Hours the support of the government show that there is a decline
in cases?
16. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff: A. Al Qaeda
A. Detachment Commander B. NPA
B. Chief Inspector C. ISIS
C. Post-in-Charge D. Muslim militants
D. Security Supervisor 1
26. The president and the consultant of a corporation
17. What type of SECURITY is when an architect were invited to be the speakers for the opening of another
assumed the owners of quality steel for the perimeter wall, company, what type of security was provided?
steel doors will be used for the main entrance to prevent A. Special
an unauthorized entrance? B. Personal
A. Natural C. Operational
B. Safe barrier D. Critical
C. Plain
D. Physical 27. The president and the consultant of a corporation
were invited to be the speakers for the opening of another
18. What term is applied to a device or system that company, what type of security was provided?
in the event of failure of a component the incapacity will A. Special
be signaled? B. Personal
A. Doppler effect C. Operational
B. Peterman D. Critical
C. Duress code
D. Fail safe 28. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical
fence in order to increase physical protection of
19. A type of protective alarm system where the establishments or installations
protective alarm located outside the installation. A. Top tower
A. Local Alarm system B. Top guard
B. Central Station System C. Cellar guard
C. Auxiliary System D. Tower guard house Guard Control Station
D. Proprietary
29. It refers to a protection against any type of crime
20. New employees should be briefed on security to safeguard life and assets by various methods and
rules and regulations of the organization and the device.
importance of observing them. This process is a. Physical Security
called________. b. Operational Security
A. Security promotion c. Perimeter Security
B. Security reminders d. Security
C. Security orientation.
D. Security investigation 30. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding
hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is
21. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer then made fast or secured.
before he can prepare a comprehensive security program a. Lock
for his industrial plan? b. Padlock
A. security conference c. Code Operated
B. security survey d. Card Operated
C. security check
D. security education 31. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted,
double strand, 12-gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in
22. Is the process of conducting physical examination an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
to determine compliance with establishment security ___ high excluding the top guard.
policies and procedures? a. 8 feet
A. Security Education b. 7 feet
B. Security Inspection c. 9 feet
C. Security Planning d. 6 feet
D. Security Survey
32. An act or condition, which results in a situation
23. What is the required capital investment for conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that,
organization of private security agency? could result to loss.
A. P 500,000 a. Hazards
B. P 1,000,000 b. Natural Hazards
C. P 100,000 c. Human Hazards
D. D. P 50,000 d. Security Hazards
24. It is a natural, man-made or physical device 33. Which among the following aspects of Security is
which is capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal the weakest of them all?
access to an installation. a. Physical security
A. Fence b. Personnel security
B. barrier c Personal Security
C. wall d Document Security
D. hazard
34. What LINE of defense is considered by using
perimeter fence, security guards and barriers?

A. Third 43. An authenticated list of personnel allowing entry
B. First to the plant, facility or room with classified work is called
C. Alternative what?
D. Second a. Access List
b. I.D. System
35. The minimum number of guards required for a c. Personnel List
Company Security Force is: d. VIP List
a. 1000
b. 100 44. A stationary luminary lighting devised in a way
c. 30 that its light beam is directed towards the intruder.
d. 200 a. Controlled Illumination
b. Movable Lighting
36. Common weakness for a sentry dog when used c. Stationary Luminary
as an animal barrier. d. Glare-projection Type
a. Ability to check identity
b. Keen sense of smell and hearing 45. What is an electronic or mechanical device that
c. Incorruptible serves to warn of danger by means of a sound or signal?
d. Loyalty It provides an electrical and mechanical means of
detecting intruders and announcing their proximity which
37. If utility opening such as air intakes, sewers, and endanger the security of a restricted area, a facility, or its
exhaust tunnels have a cross section of ninety-six inches components.
or more, as a security consultant what should be the a. Signaling System
appropriate recommendation? b. Fire Alarm
a. It should be protected by filters and bar grills c. Alarm
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of d. Siren
persons with petit physique
c. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times 46. A term used in England for lock pickers,
d. should be place on it to detect movements safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted areas.
a. Peter Pan
38. Protective guarding in a compound can be done b. Peter Pat
by the use of electronic hardware, human guards and even c. Peter Piper
animals. In England, an owner to protect his compound d. Peter Man
used this and they are not only effective but also the
cheapest to maintain. This man is using ___ 47. . Private Detectives of Private Detective Agencies
a. Doberman dogs are mandated to carry firearms.
b. Tamed tigers and lions a. Yes, it is needed in their line of work.
c. Geese b. Yes, they also have licenses issued by the PNP.
d. Ducks c. No, they are not allowed by law.
d. No, their use of firearms is optional.
39. Today there are three categories of security
guards belonging to the “Blue Army”. One of those listed 48. How many number of firearms ammunition is a
below does not belong to the group. private security guard allowed to have in his or her
a. Body guards possession.
b. Agency guards a. Fifty (50) rounds per firearm
c. Company guard b. Twenty-five (25) rounds per firearm
d. Government Security guards c. Seventy (70) rounds per firearm
d. one-hundred (100) rounds per firearm
40. There are many types of electronic and electric
protective devices available for security buildings, 49. Whose that carry sabotage work are called what
storehouses and compounds. One of the following is true. in intelligence parlance?
a. Electronic/ electric devices eliminated human guards a. provocateur
b. Each building or compound requires particular b. infiltrators
electronic/ electrical protective devices c. spies
c. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers d. saboteurs
of said devices
d. Electronic/ electric devices provide total protection for 50. Pilferage means theft, sabotage is the malicious
the place to be safeguarded disruption of plant operations, vandalism relates to
destruction of company property and espionage is about
41. What is the “program” given to employees of an covert gathering of information. These are collectively
installation by lecture and other means pertaining to known in security as what?
measures and safeguards to be taken to protect the a. Natural Hazards
interest of the installation from loss, damage, sabotage, b. Occupational Hazard
pilferage, and other criminal acts? a. Security Survey c. Man-made Hazards
c. Security Education d. Operational Hazards
d. Security Planning
d. Security Inspection 51. Comparing pilferage, sabotage, vandalism and
espionage, what is the most annoying of all and why?
42. VIP Security, Armored Car and Aviation Security a. Pilferage, because of its regularity in occurrence.
are what kind of security training programs? b. Sabotage, because it stops company operations.
a. Pre-licensing c. Vandalism, because it destroys company property.
b. Refresher d. Espionage, because important information is lost.
c. Specialized
d. Supervisory 52. Basic Security Guard Course and Security Officers
course are examples of this type of security guard training.
a. Pre-licensing Training ‘

b. Refresher Training C. Frederick the Great
c. Specialized Training D. Robert Peel
d. Supervisory Training
62. In security survey, who is NOT involved in crime
53. A written order/schedule issued by a superior prevention, but creates a situation that defer crime?
officer usually the private security agency/branch manager A. Manager
or operations officer assigning the performance of private B. Investigator
security/detective service duties. C. Surveyor
a. General Duty Order D. Personnel
b. Duty General Order
c. Duty Detail Order 63. Involve the installation of physical barriers,
d. Guard Detail Order security lighting, use of vaults, locks and others.
a. Active measures
54. Document issued by the Chief, Philippine National b. Passive measures
Police or his duly authorized representative, authorizing a c. All of the above
person to engage in employing security guard or detective, d. None of the above
or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage
or operate an individual or a private detective agency or 64. Those that will deter man from committing such
private security agency/company security force. act of fear of being caught, charge in court or get
a. Security Guard License dismissed
b. Security Agency License a. Active measures
c. License to Operate b. Passive measures
d. Business Permit c. All of the above
d. None of the above
55. The prescribed ratio of firearm to security guard
that a PSA must adhere to. 65. Unobstructed area maintain on both sides of the
a. 1:1 perimeter barrier.
b. 1:2 a. Zone
c. 2:1 b. Clear zone
d. 2:2 c. Zoning
d. All of the above
56. Key to a single lock within a master keyed
system. 66. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which
a. change key initiates conditions of associated circuits.
b. sub-master key a. Alarm
c. master key b. Barrier
d. grand master key c. Protective Alarm
d. Annunciator
57. Can natural hazards be prevented by security
force of a plant? 67. Type of perimeter barrier made of chain link
A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather bureau designed with mesh openings not larger than two inches
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevents it squares.
C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to life a. Wire fence
and property b. Fence
D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills c. barrier
d. All of the above
58. Which of the following types of lock is generally
used in car doors? 68. Type of barbed wire that is formed in large coils.
A. Warded lock a. Top guard
B. Lever lock b. Fence
C. Disc tumbler lock c. Wire Fence
D. Combination lock d. Concertina wire
59. Sir Robert Peel’s concept of modern police are 1. 69. Defined as mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
Organized along military lines who are screened and electronic device designed to prevent entry to a building
trained 2. Hired on a probationary basis and deployed by or room.
time and area 3. Accessible to the people and maintains a. Physical barrier
records 4. Good appearance commands respect. 5. Public b. Man made barrier
security demands that every police be given a code c. Lock
A. 1, 3 and 5 d. All of the above
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2 and 4 70. Private security agency/private detective
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 agency/company security force/government security force
is allowed to possess firearms in excess of five hundred
60. What unit of PNP handles the processing and (500) units.
issuances of license for private security personnel? a. True
A. PNP SOSIA b. False
B. PNP FED c. Partially True
C. PADPAO d. Partially False
D. PNP SAGSD
71. The title of the Republic Act 5487, as amended.
61. America’s most famous private investigator and a. Private Security Guard Law
founder of Criminal Investigation. b. Private Security Agency Law
A. Allan Pinkerton c. Private Security Detective Law
B. Cesar Nazareno d. None of the above

72. The numbers of security personnel to be d. Top Secret
maintained to secure regular license to operate by the
private security agency is a minimum of one hundred 81. Any information and materials, the unauthorized
licensed private security personnel and a maximum of one disclosure of which would be prejudicial to the interest or
thousand. prestige of the nation or governmental activity or would
a. True cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted
b. False injury.
c. Partially True a. Restricted
d. Partially False b. Secret
c. Confidential
73. The following are the basis for the confiscation of d. Top Secret
firearms, except.
a. When the firearm is actually being used in the 82. Term given to the requirement that the
commission of a crime dissemination of classified matters be limited strictly to
b. When the firearm has just been used in the commission those persons whose official duties require knowledge
of a crime thereof.
c. When the firearm being carried by the security guard is a. Need to know
unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized by law and c. Dissemination
regulation for his use. d. Classification
d. When the confiscation of the firearm is directed d. Tagging
by the order of the prosecutor
83. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter
74. It is an irresistible urge to steal items of trivial only to properly cleared persons when such classified
value. information is required in the performance of their official
a. The need or desire duties.
b. The criminal tendency a. Security Clearance
c. The psychological need b. Access
d. All of the above c. Document Security
d. Compartmentation
75. The susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
damage, loss, or disruption of operation due to various 84. Is an administrative determination that an
hazard. individual is eligible from a security standpoint for access
a. Relative vulnerability to classified matter of a specific category
b. Relative criticality of operations a. Security Clearance
c. Relative humidity b. Access
d. Relative security c. Document Security
d. Compartmentation
76. Practical test or exercise of plans or any activity
to test its validity, an operational readiness exercise 85. One of the purposes of the perimeter barrier is to
a. Dry run expose the perimeter of the area to be secured.
b. Exercises a. True
c. Drill b. False
d. All of the above c. Partially True
d. Partially False
77. Type of code system so that security personnel
or any employee when forced by armed men intending to 86. Interception of communication using an
enter an installation can five alarm by the use of certain electronic device
words. a. Eavesdropping
a. Duress Code b. Wiretapping
b. Coded Code c. Bugging
c. List Code d. Encoding
d. Secret Code
87. The Court may allow any Law Enforcement
78. A cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter Agency to conduct wiretapping in any offense under RPC.
than a vault but of bigger size to accommodate limited a. True
people to work on the records inside b. False
a. Vault room c. Partially True
b. Restricted area d. Partially False
c. File room
d. Exclusion area 88. A house like structures above the perimeter
barrier which increases the range of observation.
79. A grant given by the government to an inventor, a. Top guard
conveying and securing to him the exclusive rights to b. Wire Fence
make, use and sell his invention. c. Towers
a. Patent d. Security lighting
b. Intellectual property
c. Ownership 89. Distinctive identifying qualities which serve as an
d. Proprietary index to the essential or intrinsic nature of a person
a. Integrity
80. Any information and material, the unauthorized b. Discretion
disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave c. Morals
damage to the nation, politically, economically or militarily. d. Reputation
a. Restricted
b. Secret 90. The following are the advantages of the company
c. Confidential guard force, except.

a. High caliber and receives higher salary D. D. C/PNP
b. Provides better service
c. Can be trained to handle some of the more complex 100. The combination type of locks in that no key are
security duties used. There are open by pressing a series of numbered
d. May be required to join the union; buttons in the proper sequence.
A. Warded Locks
91. The following are the qualifications of the B. Disc Tumble Locks
Security Officer, except. C. Level locks
a. Filipino citizen D. Code-Operated Locks
b. Holder of a Masters degree
c. Physically and mentally fit
d. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATIONS WITH
or its equivalent PLANNING
1. One of the operative functions of the police
92. Involves the protection of top-ranking officials of personnel which is directly related to the study of the labor
the government , visiting persons of illustrious standing supply of jobs, which are composed of the demands for
and foreign dignitaries. employees in the organization to determine future
A. V.I.P. security personnel requirement’s which either to increase or
B. School Security decrease.
C. Hotel Security a. Police recruitment
D. Document Security b. police personnel planning
c. police placement
93. A barrier and which have cross sectional area of d. police compensation
96 square inches or more should be protected by bars,
grills and water. 2. Which of the following criteria is necessary in
A. Utilities opening obtaining an EFFECTIVE operational plan?
B. Gates and Door A. Identification of unseen scenarios that are
C. Sidewalk elevator possible to happen
D. Clear Zone B. Need for an increased logistics
C. More available space for conference
94. A system of alarm which required pressure on D. More man power
both side of the device and therefore the probability of
accidental alarm is reduce. 3. What PLAN prepares what to accomplish by
A. Foot button special divisions of the PNP of each of the police rank?
B. Double Squeeze buttons A. Tactical
C. Foot Rail activation B. Procedural
D. Microwave device C. Operational
D. Extra office
95. A person not a regular police force or member of
the A.F.P., who does detective work for hire, reward or 4. It is the formal process of choosing the
commission. organizational mission and overall objective for both the
A. Security guard short and long term as well as the divisional and individual
B. Security survey objectives based on the organizational objectives.
C. Security planning a. Directing
D. Private detective b. Planning
c. Organizing
96. In which the badge or pass coded for d. Managerial decision-making
authorization to enter specific areas issued to an
employees who keeps it in the possession until his 5. What plan is designed to take future possible
authorization is change or until he terminates. event into consideration?
A. Single Pass A. Synoptic
B. Pass exchange system B. Strategic
C. Visitors pass system C. Tactical
D. Multiple Pass System D. Contingency
97. Which of the following is NOT a false key? 6. What type of PLAN is a series of preliminary
A. picklock or similar tool . decisions on framework which in turn guides subsequent
B. A duplicate key of the owner. decisions that generate the nature and direction of an
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner. organization?
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner A. Procedural
B. Operational
98. PADPAO stands for: C. Strategic
A. Philippine Association of Detective and D. Police
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency 7. It is the formal process of choosing the
Operators, Inc. organizational mission and overall objective for both the
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency short and long term as well as the divisional and individual
Operators, Inc. objectives based on the organizational objectives.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective a. Directing
Associations Operators, Inc. b. Planning
c. Organizing
99. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, d. Managerial decision-making
license issued to security guards. A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG 8. As much as possible, the preparation of over all
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM development plan of the police organization should be

participated in by the head of all staff service and 17. Line units such as the patrol section or
operational/administrative support units. This policy is: investigation section in police stations prepare their
a. Desirable; offices can be properly trained in planning work programs which are called;
b. Undesirable; the presence of too many officers will a. Budgets
create confusion b. Management plan
c. Undesirable; there will be problems of credit grabbing c. Operational plan
after plan is formulated d. Tactical plan
d. Desirable; the officers will know the organization
better and a sense of ownership of the plan is 18. These are work programs of line divisions which
promoted relate to the nature and extent of the workload and the
availability of resources.
9. This model is especially appreciated for police a. Administrative plan
agencies as it based on problem-oriented approach to b. Operational plan
planning. It relies heavily on the problem identification and c. Strategic plan
analysis of the planning process and can assist police d. Tactical plan
administrator in formulating goals and priorities is called;
A. Long range planning 19. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at
B. Synoptic planning designated location and under specific circumstances?
C. Transactive planning a. Management plans
D. Problem oriented planning b. Operating plans
c. Procedural plans
10. . Planning is essential in every police organization d. Tactical plans
because _____.
A. it identifies activities and determines task of everyone. 20. It is the process of developing methods or
B. it combines all aspects of police works for efficient and procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate
effective performance. the accomplishment of an objective.
C. It utilizes the easiest method of crime prevention and a. Management
control. b. Budgeting
D. All of these c. Functioning
d. Planning
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of
effective plan? 21. This planning includes a face to face
A. Give police department a clear direction interactions with the people who are to be affected, it
B. Increase personnel involvement also include field surveys and interpersonal dialogue
C. Clearly define objectives and goals marked by a process of mutual learning is called;
D. Contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen A. Incremental planning
b. Transactive planning
12. The planning process generally consists of five c. Sypnoptic planning
(5) steps in sequential order. Which is the first step? d. Strategic planning
a. Formulation of the details of the plan
b. Gathering and analysis of the data 22. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
c. Setting up planning objectives members on routine and field operations and some special
d. Recognition of the need to plan operations.
A. Extra Departmental plan
13. The first step in the planning process is to B. Tactical Plan
recognize the need to plan. Which of the following is NOT C. Operational Plan
a way of discovering the need to plan? D. Policy or procedural plan
a. Conduct of research
b. Conduct of training 23. When the police plan can accomplish the purpose
c. Conduct of inspection or its goal, then, the plan is
d. Conduct of management audit A. Feasible
B. Suitable
14. This particular procedure calls for the recognition C. Acceptable
of the predicament and comprehending all the history and D. Flexible
record then seek for possible solutions for the dilemma.
This statement is pertaining to what step of planning: 24. They are concerned with the specific purpose and
A. collecting of facts conclude when an objective is accomplished or a problem
B. analyzing facts is solved..
C. clarifying the problem A Standing Plan
D. developing alternative plan B. Functional Plan
C. Time Specific Plan
15. What is the next planning step after the need to D. Procedural Plan
plan is recognized?
a. Evaluate alternatives 25. Which of the following is the MOST important
b. Execute the plan characteristics of a good and effective operational plan?
c. Formulate the objectives A. Details of the plan are known to all
d. Gather and analyze data implementations
B. Allocation of funds is presented
16. . Procedures that relate to reporting, raids, C. Objectives and goals are presented
arrest, stopping suspicious persons, touring beats and D. It is possible that the plan is feasible
investigation of crimes are example of;
a. Field procedure 26. Incrementalism concludes that long range and
b. Headquarters procedure comprehensive planning are not only too difficult, but
c. Special operation procedure inherently bad. This refers to:
d. Standing operating procedure a. Synoptic planning

b. incremental planning A. Policies or procedures
c. transactive planning B. Tactical plans
d. advocacy planning C. Operational plans
27. Beneficial aspects of this approach include a D. extra-office plans

greater sensitivity to the unintended and negative side 37. Refers to the production of plans, which
effects of plans. determine the schedule of special activity and are
a. Synoptic planning applicable from one week or less than year duration. Plan
b. incremental planning that addresses immediate need which are specific and how
c. transactive planning it can be accomplished on time with available allocated
d. advocacy planning resources.
a. Strategic or long range planning
28. It is the systematic and orderly determination of b. Intermediate or medium planning
facts and events as basis for policy formulation and c. Operational or short range planning
decision affecting law enforcement management. d. Police planning
a. Plan
b. Planning 38. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
c. Police planning (CIDG) Strategic Plan against Organized Crime Groups.
d. Calendar a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
29. Broad design or method; or a plan to attain a c. LOI Pagpapala
stated goal or objectives. d. Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan
a. Tactics
b. Strategy 39. Anti-Illegal Drugs Master Plan
c. Procedure a. Master Plan Sandigan-Milenyo
d. Guidelines b. Master Plan Sandugo
c. Master Plan Banat
30. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and d. Master Plan Sang-ingat
quality efforts and accomplishments. It refers to the
process of determining the contribution on efforts that can 40. Essential statements that identify the role of the
make or provide with allocated resources. police in the community and a future condition or state to
a. Strategic planning which the department can aspire. It may also include a
b. Intermediate or medium planning statement of values to be used to guide the decision
c. Operational planning making process in the department.
d. Police planning a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
31. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? c. Visionary plans
A. STANDARD OPERATION PROCEDURES d. Operational plans
B. STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES
C. SPECIAL OPERATION PROCEDURES 41. Developed in anticipation of problems. Although
D. SPECIAL OPERATING PROCEDURES not all police problems are predictable, many are, and it is
possible for a police department to prepare a response in
32. It refers to the Anti – Crime Master Plan of PNP. advance.
A. Master Plan Sandigan Milenyo a. Reactive plans
B. Master Plan Sandugo b. Proactive plans
C. Master Plan Banat c. Visionary plans
D. Master Plan Saklolo d. Operational plans
33. In SWOT analysis, “W” means: STRENGTH, 42. Designed to meet the long-range, overall goals
WEAKNESSES, OPPORTUNITIES AND THREATS of the organization. Such plans allow the department to
A. Vulnerabilities adapt to anticipated changes or develop a new philosophy
B. Threats or model of policing (community policing).
C. Intelligence a. Reactive plans
D. Win b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
34. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance d. Strategic plans
on what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it
is in essence, preparations for action. 43. A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized
A. Operations activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such as
B. management personnel, intelligence operation, logistics, planning etc.
C. planning A. Operational
D. administration B. Functional
C. Ethical
35. Standard operating procedures, that is includes D. Fundamental
the procedures and the duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron
and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in 44. These are procedures in coping with specific
the duty manual. situations at known locations and plans for dealing with an
A. headquarters procedures attack against buildings, special community events and
B. special operating procedures other street affairs is called;
C. field procedures A. policy plan
D. operational plans B. tactical plan
C. operational plan
36. A type of plans, that considers plans for the D. extra office plan
operations of special divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and
juvenile delinquency control.

45. These are basic principles in planning,
organization and management of the PNP in support of the 54. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to
overall pursuits of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic insure supportive behavior.
action plan of the attainment of the national objectives, a. Discipline
a. Fundamental Doctrine b. Cooperation or Coordination
b. Operational Doctrine c. Authority
c. Functional Doctrine d. Doctrine
d. Complimentary Doctrine
55. It provides for the organizations objectives. It
46. . Formulated jointly by two or more bureaus in provides the various actions. Hence, policies, procedures,
order to effect a certain operation with regard to public rules and regulations of the organization are based on the
safety and peace and order. statement of doctrines.
a. Fundamental Doctrine a. Discipline
b. Operational Doctrine b. Cooperation or Coordination
c. Functional Doctrine c. Authority
d. Complimentary Doctrine d. Doctrine
47. . Two or more persons forming an organization 56. Plans that are developed as a result of crisis
must identify first the reason for establishing such a. Reactive Plans
organization. They must identify the organization’s b. Proactive Plans
_________: c. Visionary Plans
A. strategy d. Operational Plans
B. Goal
C. Tactic 57. This SOP prescribes the basic procedures to be
D. objective observed by all PNP Units and mobile patrol elements in
the conduct of visibility patrols.
48. Which of the following PLANS can map out in a. SOP #01
advance all operations involved in the organization b. SOP #02
management of personnel, materials and in the c. SOP #03
procurement of financial resources? d. SOP #4
a. Procedural
b. Management 58. It is a vantage spot adjacent to and either side of
c. Tactical the control point being used by a buddy foot control.
d. Operational a. Patrol standby points
b. Control point
49. . What type of PLANNING is appropriate for police c. Visibility point
agencies based on a problem-oriented approach? d. Choke point
a. Operational
b. Synoptic 59. It involves the consideration of the nature and
c. Radical causes of crimes. Patrol officers should know how crimes
d. Transactive are committed, when and who commits them.
a. Geographical distribution
50. The team SPO1 Elda was assigned to secure the b. Walking beats
Palarong Pambasa events, peace and order must be c. Police hazard
provided for the welfare of the participants and all the d. Chronological distribution
people present, what classification of plan must be applied
by the team? 60. The most common method of mapping.
a. Management a. Grid method
b. Operational b. Point method
c. Tactical c. Zone method
d. Extra-departmental d. Nota
51. If you are a police officer of the investigation 61. General statements and/or understandings which
department and you are encountered a day-to-day guide or channel thinking and action of subordinate is
operation problem, what solution do you and your called
department needs? A. Objectives
a. None of these B. Programs
b. Operation program C. Policies
c. Standard operating seminar D. Decisions
d. Regular operating program
62. The Three (3) criteria used to test the solution of
52. The police are the public and the public are the a plan, whether for the police or military are feasibility,
police. This question was answered by the father of acceptability and
modern policing system in person of: A. Suitability
a. William Norman B. . Solvability
b. King Charles II C. Possibility
c.Henry Fielding D. Adaptability
D. Robert Peel
63. In police operational planning, the use of the
53. Are rules of action for the rank and file to show wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line, would be most
them how they are expected to obtain the desired effect. likely for
A. Strategy A. coup de etat
b.Tactics B. Disaster and relief operation
c. Guideline C. employees walk-out
d. Policy D. Civil Disturbance

64. This is an important step in synopsis planning; 73. The plan must be Proactive not Reactive. This
trying to figure out what, if anything happened as a result statement implies that?
of implementing a selected alternative is called; A. Experience and training will be reflected on the plan you
A. describe the present situation make
B. identify and analyze problem B. People know what you want to do
C. monitor and evaluate progress C. A plan establishes the basis for what you are doing
D. identifying alternative courses of action D. It is best to solve a problem before it happens
65. The principle describing explicitly the flow of 74. “Seeing ahead and making sound assumptions”
authority refers to; refers to what skill needed in planning?
A. principle of balance A. Prioritizing
B. principle of unity objective B. Forecasting
C. scalar principle C. Monitoring
D. unity of command D. Documenting
66. That defines the fundamental principles 75. PMaj Alday drafted a Patrol Plan which requires
governing the rules of conduct, attitude, behavior and the personnel to bring poncho (raincoat) especially during
ethical norm of the PNP. rainy days. This statement implies what?
A. ETHICAL DOCTRINE A. Flexibility
B. COMPLIMENTARY DOCTRINE B. Contingency
C. FUNDAMENTAL DOCTRINE C. Interoperability
D. OPERATIONAL DOCTRINE D. Documenting
67. Two cardinal principles of _____ are 1: the police 76. Monitoring as one of the skills needed in planning
should get there first and 2: they should be in sufficient means?
force. A. Identifying success indicators and follow-up
A. Decisive police action B. Know where you are going and how to get there
B. Crowd control C. Keep a record of what is happening
C. Preparedness D. Part of the plan, are the sets of success criteria or
D. Positive police action indicators of success.
68. The body of principles officially accepted and 77. PNP PATROL PLAN 2030 AND BEYOND, aims to
taught about as the best way of conducting public safety transform the PNP personnel to become effective and
functions namely: law enforcement, crime prevention and credible police by 2030, what type of plan is this?
control, maintenance of peace and order, fire safety A. Medium Term Planning
protection, jail management and penology and social B. Tactical Planning
defense in general, is called – C. Strategic Planning
A. Public Safety Doctrine D. Operational Planning
B. Police Operational Doctrine
C. Public Trust Doctrine 78. SWOT Analysis, SWOT means?
D. The Peel Principles A. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities and Threats
B. Strong, Weakness, Optimistic and Threats
69. What is the policing system that is focused on the C. Strong, Weak, Opportunities and Threats
problem that serves as root causes or breeding grounds of D. Super, Weak, Obvious and Total
crime?
A. Policing through participative law enforcement 79. To prevent and control crimes is on of the PNP’s
B. Problem Solving policing what?
C. Community oriented policing A. Mission
D. Political Era B. Vision
C. Principle
70. The CODE-P strategic plan of the PNP under the D. Aspiration
administration of Gen. A. Purisima, being the Chief
PNP,states that C in the acronym CODE is – 80. These are collection of personal missions. When
A. Control members realize that their organization is their vehicle for
B. Competence their personal missions, their energies and efforts are
C. Coordination multiplied?
D. Crime prevention A. Individual Missions
B. Organization Missions
71. These are work programs of the top management C. Individual Vision
unit which related to the nature and extent of the workload D. Organization Vision
and the availability of resources.
A. Administrative plan 81. What is the process that aid law enforcers to
B. Operational plan determine the exact location of a crime-prone area?
C. Tactical plan A. Mapping
D. OPLAN B. Observation
C. Investigation
72. A good plan is good image builder. This D. Inspection
statement connotes that?
A. Experience and training will be reflected on the 82. What is becoming central to policing and crime
plan you make reduction in 21st century?
B. People know what you want to do A. Investigation
C. A plan establishes the basis for what you are doing B. Surveillance
D. It is best to solve a problem before it happens C. Crime mapping
D. Patrol

83. When the statistics show that snatching is D. Image
rampant in the university belt, if you are the Chief of
Police, what will be your action? 92. Refers to the streets and other linear features
A. Investigate that are represented by segments that connects at
B. Observation interserction.
C. More police visibility in the area A. Connectivity
D. Do mapping B. Contiguity
C. Linear
84. What can help law enforcement agency's process D. Geometry
of collecting and storing information in the data base?
A. Geographic System for Police 93. It refers to the fact that all features in the
B. Geographic Information System geographic information system have at least one set of –x
C. Geographic Manual for Police and –y coordinates
D. Geographical Police System A. Connectivity
B. Contiguity
85. Is the general term used to describe the process C. Linear
of developing digital maps from aerial photographs, D. Geometry
satellite images, gps records, paper maps and other
archival data resources. 94. Refers to the adjacent areas that are
A. Computer Mapping represented by adjacent polygons.
B. Crime Mapping A. Connectivity
C. Conventional Mapping B. Contiguity
D. All of these C. Linear
D. Geometry
86. A special- purpose, single topic, statistical
mapping that focuses on the spatial variability of a specific 95. Is the relation ship between the dimensions of
distribution or theme the map and the dimensions of the earth.
A. Thematic Mapping Approach A. Scale
B. Computer Mapping b. Measurement
C. Mapping C.Topography
D.GIS d. None of these
87. It involves systematic analysis for identifying and 96. Kind of map that measures density across a map.
analyzing patterns and trends in crime and disorder Darker shades indicates higher density areas while lighter
a. Crime Analysis Mapping shades shows lower density rates.
b. Thematic Crime Mapping A. Heat maps
c. Computer Mapping b. Isoleth map
d. GIS c. Dot density map
d. Graduated symbol maps
88. A type of crime mapping which offers limited
utility because they are difficult to keep updated, keep 97. The following are advantages of Crime mapping:
accurate, make easy to read and can only display a limited I. It helps reveal crime patters
amount of data – II. It allows the identification of hot spot areas
a. Mapping III. It creates a profile of characteristic for criminals
b. Computer Mapping IV. It enhances the implementation of the various policing
c. Thematic Crime Mapping methodology and approaches in reducing overall criminal
d. Manual Pin Mapping activities and disorders.
V. It allows to understand places that requires high
89. The GIS components are the following except: allocation of preventive resources
a Data Representation A. I, II, III
b. Data features/visualization B.I,II,III,IV
c. Scale d. Querying C.I,II,IV
d. NOTA D.I, II, III, IV, V
90. The GIS can help you to: 98. Is a vertical photo taken from a satellite or a
I. Understand events and dynamics in the neighborhood plane that is digitized and placed within the GIS. a. A. Point
including persons, events and crime hazards B. Line
II. Identify risk factors including building or other location C. Polygon
that draw crime D. Image
III. Rapidly configure beats and reallocate resources after
analyzing crime trend is over 99. A type of thematic map that represents each data
IV. develop plans for special crime abatement teams to a point with a dot and are a great wat to measure density.
address regional and seasonal hotspot location A. Heat maps
V. Capture repeated call of service locations to apply b. Isoleth map
additional help and assistance c. Dot density map
A. I,II,IV d. Graduated symbol maps
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV 100. A plan to be effectively carried out must be
D. I,II,III,IV,V accepted by persons concerned at the appropriate level of
the plans development, and that is.
91. A feature of GIS data representation which is A. evaluation of the plan
analogous to a pin placed on a paper wall map. B. execution of the plan
A. Point C. selling the plan
B. Line D. selecting alternatives
C. Polygon

CFLM 1& 2 c. Expansionist d. State
1. __________ defines the nation as an association of 10. __________ nationalisms occur in those nations that
people who identify themselves as belonging to the nation, have been colonized and exploited. Religious nationalism
who have equal and shared political rights, and allegiance is a particular religious belief or affiliation.
to similar political procedures . a. Ethnic b. Civic
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole c. Expansionist d. State
Nationalism e. Third World
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic
Nationalism
11. The term __________ originally referred to the
2. ___________ nationalism refers to the ideology that Spanish criollos of the Philippines.
emerged in independence movements among the creoles a. Filipino b. Tagalog
(descendants of the colonizers), especially in Latin America c. Philippines d. guardia
in the early 19th century . civil
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole
Nationalism 12.The decline of __________ trade between Manila and
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic Acapulco was caused by the arrival of the ship Buen
Nationalism Consejo in 1765.
a. Commercial b. Galleon
3. __________ nationalism is a type of nationalism similar c. World d. Spanish
to creole or territorial types of nationalism, but which
defines belonging to a nation solely by being born on its 13. Shortly after opening Manila to __________ trade, the
territory. Spanish merchants began to lose their commercial
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole supremacy in the Philippines.
Nationalism a. Commercial b. Galleon
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic c. World d.
Nationalism Spanish
4. __________ nationalism, also known as ethno- 14. The first president of the Philippine Commonwealth.
nationalism, is a form of nationalism wherein the “nation” a. Emilio Aguinaldo b. Carlos P. Garcia
is defined in terms of ethnicity. c. Sergio Osemena d. Manuel L. Quezon
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole
Nationalism 15. The expulsion of __________ priests from the country
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic resulted to a shortage of priests in the parishes.
Nationalism a. Filipino b. Tagalog
c. Spanish d. Foreign
5. __________ nationalism seeks to preserve a given race e. Jesuit
through policies such as banning race mixing and the
immigration of other races. 16. Patriotism is a concept that has intrigued philosophers
a. Civic Nationalism b. Creole and political theorists for centuries. It is defined by
Nationalism __________.
c. Nativist Nationalism d. Ethnic a. Stephen Nathanson b. Leo Tolstoy
Nationalism c. Marcia Baron d. George Kateb
e. Racial Nationalism
17. __________ argues that patriotism is not morally

6. __________ nationalism defines the nation in terms of legitimate under two arguments - first, that patriotism
ethnicity, which always includes some elements Civic promotes one's country's interests at the expense of other
nationalism (or civil nationalism) is the form of nationalism nations, through whatever means necessary.
in which the state derives political legitimacy from the a. Stephen Nathanson b. Leo Tolstoy
active participation of its citizenry. from the degree to c. Marcia Baron d. George Kateb
which it represents the –will of the people of descent from
previous generations. 18. __________ argues that patriotism can be compatible
a. Ethnic b. with morality, as love for our country need not override all
Civic other moral considerations.
c. State d. a. Stephen Nathanson b. Leo Tolstoy
Expansionist c. Marcia Baron d. George Kateb
7. __________ nationalism (or civil nationalism) is the 19. He argues that "citizens” are not discernable.
form in which the state derives political legitimacy from individuals, and social ties are impersonal and invisible.
the active participation of its citizenry, from the degree to a. Stephen Nathanson b. Leo Tolstoy
which it represents the-will of the people. c. Marcia Baron d. George Kateb
a. Ethnic b. Civic
c. State d. Expansionist 20. A __________ is a country's national song.
a. Lupang Hinirang b. Bayang Magiliw
8. __________ nationalism is a radical form of imperialism c. Bayan ko d. Inang Bayan
that incorporates autonomous, patriotic sentiments with a e. national anthem
belief in expansionism and in superiority or dominance.
a. Ethnic b. Civic 21. __________ in the sense that you are loyal to the state
c. Expansionist d. State you are living in, and want it to flourish so good for the
development of the nation.
9. __________ nationalism is a variant of civic nationalism, a. Patriotism b. Nationalism
often combined with ethnic nationalism c. Marxism d.
a. Ethnic b. Civic Humanism

35. __________ patriotism has always sought to protect
22. __________ to create a fair power-balanced multipolar our democracy - defending the right to vote and seeking
world. to ensure that more Americans are heard.
a. Patriotism b. Decentralization a. Patriotism b. Cosmopolitans
c. Marxism d. Humanism c. Patriot d. Gratitude
e. Inclusive Patriotism
23. In contrast, feelings of nationalism are based on a
belief that one's country is superior to all others.
a. Patriotism b. Decentralization 36. Nationalism may prevent people from learning new
c. Marxism d. Humanism languages. This statement is true?
a. Yes b. No
24. Another big problem of patriotism is that people may c. Maybe d. Uncertain
feel __________ to other nationalities and countries.
a. Patriotism b. Decentralization 37. Scholars never used cosmopolitanism to gain similar
c. Marxism d. Superior interests when the situation required a cosmopolitan
attachment. This statement is true?
25. The act of patriotism and feeling patriotic are things a. Yes b. No
which will make for a stronger nation. c. Maybe d. Uncertain
a. Patriotism b. Decentralization
c. Marxism d. Superior 38. __________ emerged in the late eighteenth century
e. Patriotic appearing first in Europe, then in North and South
America.
26. The word __________ is a noun that means "devoted a. Racism b. Patriotism
love, support, and defense of one's country; national c. Nationalism d. Fascism
loyalty.” e. Liberalism
a. patriotism b. patriotic
c. national pride d. any of the 39. In the twentieth century, nationalism spread to many
above Asian countries and to the new independent nations of
__________.
27. A __________ person is always on the side of his own a. Asian countries b. Europe
nation and supports its leaders if they are deserving. c. Dubai d. Africa
a. patriotism b. patriotic e. None of the Above
c. national pride d. any of the
above 40. Nationalism is a relatively modern concept emerged in
the eighteenth to nineteenth centuries.
28. __________ is the feeling of love, devotion and sense a. Yes b. No
of attachment to a homeland and alliance with other c. Maybe d. Uncertain
citizens who share the same sentiment.
a. patriotism b. patriotic 41. This act shall be known as the “Flag and Heraldic Code
c. national pride d. any of the above of the Philippines.”
a. RA 8481 -nearest answer
29. __________ through its protectionist beliefs, is the b. RA 8184
polar opposite of globalism. c. RA 8418
a. Patriotism b. Patriotic d. RA 8814
c. National pride d. Nationalism
Correct answer: RA 8491
30. The soldiers showed exemplary patriotism defending 42. Shall mean the part of the flag outside the hoist or
their country from __________. length
a. patriotism b. patriotic a. Festoon
c. national pride d. b. Flag
nationalism c. Fly
e. attack d. Feast
31. __________ is defined as a special concern for one's 43. Shall mean places of hilarity marked by or providing
country's well-being, and that is not the same as an boisterous merriment or recreation;
exclusive and aggressive concern for it. a. Official Residences
a. Patriotism b. Nationalism b. Institute
c. Loyalty d. Nationalistic c. Places of Fidelity
d. Places of Frivolity
32. __________ serve their country and seek to uplift it
intellectually, materially and morally. 44. The flag shall be flown on merchant ships of Philippine
a. Patriotism b. Cosmopolitans registry of more than ______ gross tons and on all naval
c. Loyalty d. Nationalistic vessels.
a. 1000
33. Every __________ is honor-bound to serve his country b.10
with all his strength. c.100
a. patriotism b. cosmopolitans d10000
c. patriot d. Nationalistic
46. When the Philippine flag is flown with another flag, the
34. __________ probably the most popular among the flags, if both are national flags, must be flown on separate
grounds adduced for patriotic duty. staffs of the same height and shall be of equal size. The
a. Patriotism b. Cosmopolitans Philippine flag shall be hoisted first and lowered last.
c. Patriot d. Gratitude a. TRUE
b. FALSE

c. PARTIALY TRUE d. Generosity and Helpfulness
d. PARTIALY FALSE 57. It is in the Filipino value of going out of the way to
help, without being asked, i.e., unsolicited help.
47. Upon official announcement of the death of the a. Pakikiramay
President or any former president, how many days the flag b. Pakikisama
will put into half-mast? c. Bayanihan
a. 10 days d. Galang
b. 7 days
c. 15 days 58. One of the features which indicates that science and
d. 5 days management are the same is the universal acceptance of
scientific laws are the same in every case and in every part
48. The period from ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬______________ of of the world. Which of the following serves as an example
each year is declared as Flag Days. of this statement?
a. from June 12-14
b. from May 25-28 A. Unity of Direction Principle
c. from May 28 to June 12 B. Unity of Command Principle
d. from June 28-July 12 C. Scalar Chain Principle
D. Motivational Principle
49. The following are the National Motto of the Philippines
except: 59. A leadership trait that make sure each of the
a. Maka-Diyos subordinate is responsible for what they do by giving them
b. Maka-Tao a pat on the back if they do well but when they fail make
c. Makakalikasan them realize their mistakes and work together to improve.
d Maka Hayop
a. Commitment and Passion
50. When hoisting the flag to the top, it should be done b. Good Communicator
___ c. Accountability
a. Ceremoniously -→lowered d. Creativity and Innovation
b. Briskly
c. Slowly 60. This power shows influence based on special skills or
d. Solemnly knowledge as it relies on the notion that experience and
knowledge give the person respect.
51. Section 1 of Art. II of 1987 Constitution states that the
Philippines is a _________State. A. Informational Power
a. Democratic and Sovereign B. Referent Power
b. Democratic and republican C. Influential Power
c. Republican and Sovereign D. Expert Power
d. All of the above
52. UNESCO means ___ 61. What is a structured lesson designed to give people
a. United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural the knowledge and skills to perform a task?
Organization.
b. United Nations Environmental, Scientific and A. Evaluation
Cultural Organization. B. Supervision
c. United Nations Educational, Scientific and C. Training
Cultural Organization. D. Coaching
d. United Nations Economic, Scientific and Cultural
Organization. 62. This managerial concept is important for employing
different types of people and performing different activities
53. Civilian authority is, at all times, _______the military. such as training, growth, evaluation, compensation,
a. Supreme always welfare etc.
b. Supreme over
c. Supreme above A. Controlling
d. Nota B. Organizing
C. Planning
54. The separation of Church and State shall be inviolable. D. Staffing
Inviolable means_____
a. Prone to tarnish 63. This maintains an understanding of the situation and
b. Never to be broken, infringed, or ensures proper implementation of plans and involves
dishonored giving guidance and reviewing the performance of a job.
c. Indispensable
d. Nota A. Supervision
B. Monitoring
55. The national language of the Philippines is _______. C. Planning
a. Bisaya D. Organization
b. Jejemon
c. Tagalog 64. ______________ is the secret to efficient operations.
d. English Teamwork is important to the entire order, from the
e. Nota smallest unit.
Answer: Filipino A. Reconciliation

B. Cooperation
56. This is one of the most popular qualities of Filipinos. C. Coordination
a. Respect D. Correlation
b. Strong Family Ties and Religions
c. Hospitality

65. People and materials should be in the right place at
the right time. 75. Such leaders use eloquent communication and
persuasion to unite a team around a cause, instead of
A. Equity promoting actions by strict instructions.
B. Initiative
C. Order a. Democratic
D. Centralization b. Charismatic
c. Bureaucratic
66. This is shown when the group promotes team spirit d. Laissez-Faire
that build unity and harmony within the organization.
76. Leaders let their team members make decisions, solve
a. Esprit de Corps problems, and get their work done without having to worry
b. Brotherhood about their every move being obsessively watched by the
c. Gallantry leader.
d. Team Building
a. Democratic
67. Which is considered as supreme in aiming for what’s b. Autocratic
best for the business? c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
a. Individual Interest
b. General Interest 77. With this style of leadership, there is a specified
c. Financial Interest collection of boxes to check to be a true leader. Also means
d. Operational Interest “by-the-book.”
68. Employees obeying and respecting the rules and a. Democratic

regulations which governs the organization are b. Autocratic
manifesting this managerial concept. c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
a. Discipline
b. Authority 78. Which of the following is not a positive outcome of
c. Unity of Command practicing self - leadership?
d. Respect
A. Proactive participation with the group
70. An approach in decision-making when people will point B. Disciplined members
to a "gut feeling" or "hunch" as the cause for a choice, C. independent decision maker
reflecting that explanation is not accessible through D. too overwhelmed
conscious thought.
80. What do you call a set of principles relating to the roles
A. Rational of planning, coordinating, directing and regulating and the
B. Intuitive implementation of those principles in the efficient use of
C. Analytical physical, financial human and information capital to
D. Random achieve organizational objectives?
71. Also known as “Collaborative Decision-Making’’, is a A. Administration

situation faced when individuals collectively make a choice B. Management
from the alternatives before them. C. Decision-making
D. Leadership
A. Individual Decision-Making
B. Group Decision-Making 81. They include all levels of management between the
C. Bidirectional Decision-making supervisory level and the top level of the organization.
D. Partnered Decision-making These managers may be called functional managers, plant
heads, and project managers.
72. The Basic Functions of Administration are all but one:
A. first line managers
A. Planning B. middle level managers
B. Staffing C. top managers
C. Directing D. last managers
D. Controlling
82. Which quality of good leaders makes them visionary?
73. Line of authority from top management to the lower
ranks represents the hierarchy. A. Confident
B. Accountable and responsible
A. Unity of Direction C. Self-motivated
B. Unity of Command D. Long-term thinkers
C. Scalar Chain
D. Centralization
83. A ___________ leader gives people a little direction to
74. This type of leaders see themselves as having absolute help them tap into their ability to achieve all that they're
power and making decisions on their subordinates' behalf. capable of.
They decide not just what needs to be done, but how to
accomplish certain tasks too. A. Coaching
a. Democratic B. Laissez-faire
b. Autocratic C. Democratic
c. Bureaucratic D. Affiliative
d. Laissez-Faire

84. Treating people equally and advocates for their rights C. Situation
and doesn't let personal feelings bias decisions. Which D. Communication
quality of a good leader is this?
93. This theory states that some personality traits may
A. Compassion lead people naturally into leadership roles.
B. Fairness
C. Accountable and responsible A. Process Leadership Theory
D. People oriented B. Great Events Theory
C. Trait Theory
85. Which of the following statement is conclusive? D. Personality Theory
94. Today, it is the widely accepted theory. People can opt

a. Leaders must be influenced for leadership. People can learn the ability to take
b. Leaders are influencers leadership.
c. Leaders must influence and should be
influenced A. Process Leadership Theory
d. Leaders can be influenced B. Great Events Theory
C. Trait Theory
86. What does the statement "keep improving yourself" D. Personality Theory
means?
95. A crisis or important event can cause a person to rise
a. You have to learn something to the occasion, putting forth extraordinary qualities of
new leadership in an ordinary person.
b. Not making the same mistake twice
c. Start acting like a great leader A. Process Leadership Theory
d. Have a clear purpose B. Great Events Theory
C. Trait Theory
87. This requires giving instructions and motivating sub- D. Personality Theory
ordinates to accomplish their goals.
96. . This is based on fear. Employees who work for
a. planning someone having this are unlikely to commit themselves,
b. organizing and are more likely to resist the manager.
c. staffing
d. directing A. Coercive Power
88. What is the other term for first line managers? B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
a. superiors D. Reward Power
b. supervisors
c. leaders 97. Influence based on individual or desirable possession
d. boss of wealth or personal traits. Sometimes this is seen as
beauty, elegance, or appreciation. You like the individual
89. It allows leaders or senior officers, who undergo very and you want to do things for him or her.
little or no supervision, to prepare and set targets on their
own, as well as to control their own self to execute such A. Coercive Power
plans. B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
A. Leadership D. Reward Power99.
B. Organizational Leadership
C. Planning 98. The power a person receives in an organization's
D. Self-leadership formal hierarchy as a consequence of his or her role. The
person has the right to expect you to comply with valid
90. It’s a process whereby an individual influences other demands, given his or her status and your job
and guides the organization in a manner that makes it responsibilities.
more cohesive and coherent.
A. Leadership A. Coercive Power
B. Organizational Leadership B. Legitimate Power
C. Planning C. Referent Power
D. Self-leadership D. Reward Power
91. Different people expect different leadership styles. The

basic starting point is to have a clear understanding of 99. The following are considered as Leadership traits
human nature such as needs, feelings and motivation. This except one:
is a factor concerning _________.
A. Confidence
A. Leader B. Overruling
B. Followers C. Integrity
C. Supervisors D. Empathy
D. Top Management
92. You have to use your discretion to determine the best 100. Leaders prioritize working together and actively
course of action and the style of leadership needed for engaging their colleagues in the decision-making process.
each situation. This is a factor concerning _______. This type of leader respects other people’s ideas and
feedback, and encourage discussion of those inputs.
A. Leader
B. Followers A. Transformational

B. Transactional
C. Servant
D. Democratic

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BATCH 11

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON LAW ENFORCEMENT

LAW ENFORCEMENT ORGANIZATION AND 9. A single uninterrupted line of authority – often

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44. Benefits derived by a PNP officer qualified for

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55. The Organization known simply as Interpol is the

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68. Police officers in the Philippines is generally 87. MHA means:

88. In the Philippine National Police, we use the word

70. Police as a social agency historically started as a

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27. Beneficial aspects of this approach include a D. extra-office plans

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17. __________ argues that patriotism is not morally

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Answer: Filipino A. Reconciliation

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68. Employees obeying and respecting the rules and a. Democratic

71. Also known as “Collaborative Decision-Making’’, is a A. Administration

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94. Today, it is the widely accepted theory. People can opt

91. Different people expect different leadership styles. The

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