Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (KHÔNG CHUYÊN)

Ngày thi: 11-12/03/2023

(Đề thi gồm có 10 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

SECTION 1: PRONUNCIATION (5 pts)

(Q1-Q3): Choose the best option A, B, C, or D that indicates the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from those of the other words.
Q1. A. enough B. rough C. laugh D. though
Q2. A. reserve B. conserve C. deserve D. preserve
Q3. A. talked B. looked C. naked D. worked

(Q4-Q5): Choose the best option A, B, C, or D that indicates the word whose primary stress is
placed on a syllable different from those in the other words.
Q4. A. economical B. maintenance C. correspond D. academic
Q5. A. copy B. remove C. notice D. cancel

SECTION 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 pts)

PART 1: Structure and meaning identification
(Q6-Q25): Choose the best option A, B, C, or D that best fits the gap in each of the given
sentences.
Q6: Ms. Mai asked me how she could _______ household chores equally in her family.
A. make B. divide C. give D. contribute
Q7: Many international volunteer organizations are trying to find a ________ to the problem of
world hunger.
A. way B. method C. suggestion D. solution
Q8: Excuse me, how much is a _______ to New York?
A. ticket return B. returning ticket C. ticket returning D. return ticket
Q9: During the Perfume Pagoda festival, a large number of _______ flock to the pagoda to pray for
happiness and prosperity in the coming year.
A. spectators B. passengers C. pilgrims D. travellers
Q10: As per the study, a handful of nuts daily can cut people’s _______ of heart disease and
cancer by nearly 22 percent.
A. chance B. luck C. opportunity D. risk
Q11: In the past, local _______ were chosen to make sophisticated embroidered costumes for the
Vietnamese king, queen, and other royal family members.
A. skill workers B. skilled artisans
C. skillful artists D. skillfully works

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Q12: Craft villages are becoming popular _______ in Vietnam.
A. tourism attractions B. tourist attractions
C. tour attractiveness D. tourism attractions
Q13: He is not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough to _______.
A. get through B. get on C. get by D. get up
Q14: Mr. Chen is more _______ because he has finally agreed to allow his daughter to join an
overseas volunteer organisation in Africa.
A. open-minded B. absent-minded C. narrow-minded D. single-minded
Q15: He asked her to marry him but she _______.
A. carried him out B. turned him down C. took him out D. let him in
Q16: Grace knew a lot about Web design though she _______ it.
A. has never studied B. had never studied C. will never study D. never studied
Q17: When we were in Athens, I bought a _____ statuette.
A. marble white beautiful little B. marble beautiful little white
C. beautiful little marble white D. beautiful little white marble
Q18: Nothing went wrong when the students came back to school after Covid-19 pandemic,
_______?
A. didn’t they B. did it C. didn’t it D. did they
Q19: If we had looked at the map we _______ lost yesterday.
A. wouldn't be B. wouldn’t have been C. will not be D. wouldn’t have
Q20: Bryan _______ the crime as he was in another country at the moment of the murder.
A. can’t commit B. can’t have committed
C. mustn’t have committed D. mustn’t commit
Q21: They offer me two shirts, _______ is made from cotton.
A. either of which B. both of which C. all of which D. none of which
Q22: Not until _______ the cartoonist _______ why he was popular with the public.
A. did I meet – that I realized B. I met – that I could realize
C. had I met – could I realize D. I had met – did I realize
Q23: According to the victim, she was attacked _______ a knife.
A. by B. from C. with D. under
Q24: We _______ while we were hailing a cab.
A. were stolen of our money B. were stolen
C. were robbed of our money D. had been robbed
Q25: The more make-up she puts on,_______.
A. she looks less attractive B. less attractive does she look
C. the less attractive she looks D. the less she looks attractive

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PART 2: Error identification
(Q26-Q30): Find ONE error (A, B, C, or D) in each of the following sentences.
Q.26: Having provided with sufficient information, the freshmen now feel more confident to
start their university life.
A. Having provided B. sufficient C. the freshmen D. more confident
Q.27: Spoken to the reporters after the results had been announced, he laughed at a question
about running again in another six years.
A. spoken to B. laughed at. C. a question D. in
Q.28: These measures have been taken with a view to increase the company's profits.
A. These measures B. taken C. a view to D. increase
Q.29: I haven’t finished the report yet, but by the time you return I will certainly complete it.
A. haven’t finished B. yet C. return D. will certainly complete
Q.30: Most of the candidates had the right qualifications but lacked of the necessary skills.
A. most of B. had C. lacked of D. necessary skills

SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

(Q31-Q40): Read the passage carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D for each gap.

1. Since (31) _______ launch in late November, ChatGPT seemed like a golden ticket for students
looking to get out of take-home assignments. The AI chatbot, developed by OpenAI, can quickly
generate human-sounding answers to homework prompts, like "write a 200-word essay about the
American Revolution in the style of a high school student," for example – and it's getting
increasingly difficult to detect. However, executives at anti-cheating software maker Turnitin say
they've cracked the code. The company said it plans to roll out a service this year that can
accurately tell (32) _______ ChatGPT has done a student's assignment for them.
2. Many teachers have expressed concern that the bot is likely being used to help write students'
assignments, according to Turnitin. One college professor recently told the New York Post he felt
"abject terror" upon realizing a student had used it to write an essay. "We're hearing from educators
that they want different tools at their disposal, whether straight detection or other features to
validate," Turnitin's chief product officer, Annie Chechitelli, said about ChatGPT.
3. Last week, the New York City Department of Education became the first school district to ban
the use of the chatbot on its networks and devices. (33) _______ the tool may be able to provide
quick and easy answers to questions, it does not build critical-thinking and problem-solving skills,
which are essential for academic and lifelong success," a department spokesperson said. Even
Turnitin said it wouldn't be able to detect ChatGPT with 100% accuracy. "I'm sure our first beta
release will not be perfect, but it will be enough that we can start getting signal and learning from
the instructors how to tweak it," Chechitelli said.
4. Zhou Yu, an assistant professor of computer science and Columbia University, said that for
Turnitin's AI detector to be successful, it would have to (34) _______ be updated and changed to
keep pace with the rate the AI bot is learning. The most statistically likely word that AI generates
today might be different than next year as OpenAI's product improves. Nevertheless, Yu said she
isn't (35) _______ concerned about ChatGPT as others in the education world. Instead, she

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 believes it can advance education when appropriately used as a tool: she is currently studying its
effectiveness in teaching new languages.
5. However, executives at Turnitin said they were concerned that OpenAI's product could
revolutionize education altogether. “Helping educators really grapple with how this technology is
going to have to shift teaching, learning, writing, knowledge creation, and the concept of originality
– that is really hard. Norms are going to have to shift," Wang said.
(adapted from Business Insider)

Q31:A. its B. it C. it is D. it was

Q32:A. that B. whether C. as D. what
Q33:A. Because B. Despite C. However D. While
Q34:A. likelihood B. unlike C. like D. likely
Q35:A. such B. the same C. as D. more
Q36: The phrase “golden ticket” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. a valuable ticket B. a good opportunity
C. a well-made object D. a rare object
Q37: The phrase “crack the code” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. solve a problem B. find a way in
C. program the computer D. destroy an object
Q38: The word “detect” in paragraph 3 can best be replaced by:
A. replace B. correct C. remove D. discover
Q39: The phrase “keep pace with” in paragraph 4 can best be replaced by:
A. catch up with B. stay the same C. look up to D. slow down on
Q40: The phrase “grapple with” in paragraph 5 can best be replaced by:
A. create B. control C. understand D. use
(Q41-Q50): Read the passage carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer each
question.

1. When Jules Verne wrote Journey to the Center of the Earth in 1864, there were many
conflicting theories about the nature of the Earth’s interior. Some geologists thought that it
contained a highly compressed ball of incandescent gas, while others suspected that it consisted
of separate shells, each made of a different material. Today, well over a century later, there is still
little direct evidence of what lies beneath our feet. Most of our knowledge of the Earth’s interior
comes not from mines or boreholes, but from the study of seismic waves – powerful pulses of
energy released by earthquakes.

2. The way that seismic waves travel shows that the Earth’s interior is far from uniform. The
continents and the seabed are formed by the crust – a thin sphere of relatively light, solid rock.
Beneath the crust lies the mantle, a very different layer that extends approximately halfway to the
Earth’s center. There the rock is the subject of a battle between increasing heat and growing
pressure.

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 3. In its high levels, the mantle is relatively cool; at greater depths, high temperatures make the
rock behave more like a liquid than a solid. Deeper still, the pressure is even more intense,
preventing the rock from melting in spite of a higher temperature.

4. Beyond a depth of around 2,900 kilometres, a great change takes place and the mantle gives
way to the core. Some seismic waves cannot pass through the core and others are bent by it.
From this and other evidence, geologists conclude that the outer core is probably liquid, with a
solid center. It is almost certainly made of iron, mixed with smaller amounts of other elements such
as nickel.

5. The conditions in the Earth’s core make it a far more alien world than space. Its solid iron heart
is subjected to unimaginable pressure and has a temperature of about 9,000°F. Although scientists
can speculate about its nature, neither humans nor machines will ever be able to visit it.

Q41. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Jules Verne’s supposition of the Earth’s center.
B. The Earth’s interior through the study of seismic waves.
C. The comparison between the Earth’s core and outer space.
D. The depth and the temperatures at the Earth’s interior
Q42. What is today’s richest source of information about the Earth’s interior for geologists?
A. Boreholes B. Shells C. Seismic waves D. Mines
Q43. The word “conflicting” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. controlling B. important C. outdated D. opposing
Q44. The word “there” in paragraph 2 refers to the _______.
A. mantle B. crust C. seabed D. Earth’s center
Q45. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of the Earth’s mantle?
A. Light, solid rock B. Uniformity of composition
C. Dramatically increasing pressure D. Compressed, incandescent gas
Q46. Which of the following terms is NOT given a definition in the passage?
A. mantle B. crust C. seismic waves D. outer core
Q47. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. At relatively great depths, the rock behaves more like a liquid than a solid
B. Some seismic waves cannot pass through the core
C. Deeper down the Earth, the rock is melted due to high-temperature
D. The outer core is liquid and the center is solid
Q48. The phrase “gives way to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. runs along B. rubs against C. turns into D. floats on
Q49. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. core B. mantle C. change D. depth

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Q50. Why does the author state in the last paragraph that the Earth’s core is ‘far more alien”
than space?
A. Government funds are not available to study the Earth’s core
B. Scientists aren’t interested in the characteristics of the Earth’s core
C. It is impossible to go to the Earth’s core to do research
D. The Earth’s core is made of elements that are dangerous to humans.

(Q51-Q60): Read the passage carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer each
question or to complete each gap.

THE MYSTERY OF YAWNING

1. According to conventional theory, yawning takes place when people are bored or sleepy
and serves the function of increasing alertness by reversing the drop in blood oxygen
levels through deeper breathing. Unfortunately, the few scientific investigations of yawning have
failed to find any connection between how often someone yawns and how much sleep they have
had or how tired they are. About the closest any research has come to supporting the tiredness
theory is to confirm that adults yawn more often on weekdays than at weekends, and that school
children yawn more frequently in their first year at primary school than they do in kindergarten.

2. Another flaw of the tiredness theory is that yawning does not raise alertness or physiological
activity, as the theory would predict. When researchers measured the heart rate, muscle tension
and skin conductance of people before, during and after yawning, they did detect some changes
in skin conductance following yawning, indicating a slight increase in physiological activity.
However, similar changes occurred when the subjects were asked simply to open their mouths or
to breathe deeply. Yawning did nothing special to their state of physiological activity. Experiments
have also cast serious doubt on the belief that yawning is triggered by a drop in blood oxygen or
a rise in blood carbon dioxide. [1] Volunteers were told to think about yawning while they breathed
either normal air, pure oxygen, or an air mixture with an above-normal level of carbon dioxide. [2]
If the theory was correct, breathing air with extra carbon dioxide should have triggered yawning,
while breathing pure oxygen should have suppressed yawning. [3] In fact, neither condition made
any difference to the frequency of yawning, which remained constant at about 24 yawns per hour.
[4] Another experiment demonstrated that physical exercise, which was sufficiently vigorous to
double the rate of breathing, had no effect on the frequency of yawning. Again the implication is
that yawning has little or nothing to do with oxygen.

3. A completely different theory holds that yawning assists in the physical development of the lungs
early in life, but has no remaining biological function in adults. It has been suggested that yawning
and hiccupping might serve to clear out the fetuses airways. The lungs of a fetus secrete a liquid
that mixes with its mother's amniotic fluid. Babies with congenital blockages that prevent this fluid
from escaping from their lungs are sometimes born with deformed lungs. It might be that yawning
helps to clear out the lungs by periodically lowering the pressure in them. According to this theory,
yawning in adults is just a developmental fossil with no biological function. But, while accepting
that not everything in life can be explained by Darwinian evolution, there are sound reasons for
being skeptical of theories like this one, which avoid the issue of what yawning does for adults.
Yawning is distracting, consumes energy and takes time. It is almost certainly doing something
significant in adults as well as in fetuses. What could it be?

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 4. The empirical evidence, such as it is, suggests an altogether different function for yawning—
namely, that yawning prepares us for a change in activity level. Support for this theory came from
a study of yawning behavior in everyday life. Volunteers wore wrist-mounted devices that
automatically recorded their physical activity for up to two weeks: the volunteers also recorded
their yawns by pressing a button on the device each time they yawned. The data showed that
yawning tended to occur about 15 minutes before a period of increased behavioral activity.
Yawning bore no relationship to sleep patterns, however. This accords with anecdotal evidence
that people often yawn in situations where they are neither tired nor bored, but are preparing for
impending mental and physical activity. Such yawning is often referred to as "incongruous"
because it seems out of place, at least on the tiredness view: soldiers yawning before combat,
musicians yawning before performing, and athletes yawning before competing. Their
yawning seems to have nothing to do with sleepiness or boredom—quite the reverse—but it does
precede a change in activity level.

Q51: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in paragraph 1?
A. It is the conventional theory that when people are bored or sleepy, they often experience a drop
in blood oxygen levels.
B. The conventional theory is that people yawn when bored or sleepy because yawning raises
blood oxygen levels, which in turn raises alertness.
C. According to conventional theory, yawning is more likely to occur when people are bored or
sleepy than when they are alert and breathing deeply.
D. Yawning, according to the conventional theory, is caused by boredom or lack of sleep and can
be avoided through deeper breathing.
Q52: The word “flaw” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. fault B. aspect C. confusion D. mystery
Q53: In paragraph 2, why does the author compare the physiological changes that occurred
when subjects simply opened their mouths or breathed deeply with those that occur when
people yawned?
A. To present an argument in support of the tiredness theory
B. To cast doubt on the reliability of the tests that measured heart rate, muscle tension and skin
conductance
C. To argue against the hypothesis that yawning provides a special way to improve alertness or
raise physiological activity
D. To support the idea that opening the mouth or breathing deeply can affect blood oxygen levels
Q54: The word “triggered” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. removed B. hollowed C. increased D. caused
Q55: According to the development theory of yawning presented in paragraph 3, what is the
role of yawning?
A. It caused hiccups, which aid in the development of the lungs.
B. It controls the amount of pressure the lungs place on other developing organs.
C. It prevents amniotic fluid from entering the lungs.
D. It removes a potentially harmful fluid from the lungs.

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Q56: The word “periodically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. continuously B. quickly C. regularly D. carefully
Q57: The word “empirical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. reliable
B. based on common sense
C. relevant
D. based on observation
Q58: The study of yawning behavior discussed in paragraph 4 supports which of the
following conclusions?
A. Yawning is associated with an expectation of increased physical activity.
B. Yawning occurs more frequently when people are asked to record their yawning.
C. People tend to yawn about fifteen minutes before they become tired or bored.
D. Mental or physical stress tends to make people yawn.
Q59: Why does the author mention “soldiers yawning before combat, musicians yawning
before performing, and athletes yawning before competing” in paragraph 4?
A. To argue that just the expectation of physical activity can make some people feel tired
B. To explain how the view that people yawn because they are tired accounts for yawning before
stressful situations
C. To support the view that yawning helps prepare a person for mental or physical exertion
D. To provide anecdotal evidence that conflicts with the experience of the volunteers in the study
Q60: In which place can the following sentence best fit?
This, however, was not the case.
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]

SECTION 4: WRITING
PART 1: Word formation (20 pts)
(Q61-Q70): Read each sentence carefully, then use the correct form of the word given in the right-
hand column to fit each relevant gap. The first sentence is given as an example. Write your
answers on your answer sheet.

Example: The Covid-19 pandemic has caused numerous problems around the global
globe.

Q61: Mark's been terribly busy this week. It's _______ whether he’ll attend our doubt
performance tomorrow.

Q62: Mutual accusations will get you nowhere. You’d better try to find a more solve
reasonable _______ to your conflict.

Q63: I wouldn't say these two statues were made by the same sculptor. In fact, resemble
there’s little _______ between them.

Q64: Due to a heavy snowstorm, the _______ of the train was delayed. depart

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 Q65: I have always admired her great _______ and skill in handling the most wise
intricate problem.

Q66: Eddie had imagined life on the farm to be enjoyable and peaceful, but the real
_______ turned out to be totally different.

Q67: Our national team has played beyond _______. They have beaten the world expect
champions twice.

Q68: The most _______ feature of his character is his great generosity. stand

Q69: I wouldn't assume that he would help you in case of trouble. He isn't so rely
_______ a person as you may think him to be.

Q70: It was the most splendid wedding _______ I have ever attended. I guess they receive
must have spent a lot of money preparing it.

PART 2: Sentence transformation (20 pts)

(Q71-Q80): Read the first sentence in each pair of sentences carefully, then complete the second
sentence so that it means the same as the first one. The first sentence is given as an example.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Example:
You should take care of your sore throat or it will get worse.
Your......................................................................................................................................................
Sample answer: Your sore throat should be taken care of or it will get worse.

Q71: Nobody told me about her sick mother.

I............................................................................................................................................................

Q72: People believe he won a lot of money on the lottery.

He is.....................................................................................................................................................

Q73: The temple was built in the 14th century. We visited it two weeks ago.
The temple which.................................................................................................................................

Q74: They couldn't climb up the mountain because of the storm.

The storm discouraged........................................................................................................................

Q75: He tries to practice English every day, so he can speak it more fluently.
The more..............................................................................................................................................

Q76: I would have called you if I’d known your phone number.
Had.......................................................................................................................................................

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Q77: What's the weight of your suitcase?
How......................................................................................................................................................

Q78: I regret that you didn't give me a chance to tell you the truth.
If only....................................................................................................................................................

Q79: “Don't live in this area because it is very dangerous,” they advised me.
It is advised that...................................................................................................................................

Q80: I don't like you to play the music so loudly at night.

I’d rather...............................................................................................................................................

— HẾT —

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 ANSWER KEYS Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (KHÔNG CHUYÊN)
Ngày thi: 11-12/03/2023
(Đáp án gồm có 02 trang)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ANSWER KEYS
SECTION 1: PRONUNCIATION (5 pts)

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B

SECTION 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 pts)

Part 1: Structure and meaning identification

6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D

11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B

16. B 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. B

21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C

PART 2: Error Identification

26. A 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. C

SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

31. A 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C

36. B 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C

41. B 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. C

46. D 47. C 48. A 49. A 50. C

51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. D

56. C 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. C

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SECTION 4: WRITING
PART 1: Word formation (20 pts)

61. doubtful 62. solution 63. resemblance 64. departure 65. wisdom

66. reality 67. 68. outstanding 69. reliable 70. reception

expectation(s)

PART 2: Sentence transformation (20 pts)

71. was not told about her sick mother.
72. believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
73. we visited two weeks ago was built in the 14th century.
74. them from climbing up the mountain.
75. he tries to practice English, the more fluently he can speak it now.
76. I known your phone number, I would have called you.
77. heavy is your suitcase? | much does your suitcase weigh?
78. you had given me chance to tell you the truth.
79. I (should) not live in that area because it was very dangerous.
80. you didn’t play the music so loudly at night.

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