MCQ Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology

www.telegram.
me/dentistrybooks
‫ازﻣون‬#
MCQs in
Oral Medicine
and
Oral Radiology
Kamala G Pillai MDS

Faculty of the School of Dentistry
Faculty of Medical Sciences
The University of the West Indies
St. Augustine, Trinidad and Tobago
West Indies
JA YPEE BROTHERS
t
MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD.
New Delhi
Published by
Jitendar P Vij
Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd
B�3 EMCA House, 23/23B Ansari Road, Daiyaganj, New Delhi 110 002, India
Phones: +91-11-23272143, +91-11-23272703, +91-11-23282021, +91-11-
23245672, Rei: 32558559, Fax: +91-11-23276490. +91-11-23245683
e-mail: jaypee@jaypeebrothers.com.
Visit our web s ite : . www.jaypeebrothers.com
Branches
o 2/B, Akruti SOCiety, Jodhpur Gam Road Satellite, Ahmedabad 380 015
Phones: +91-079-26926233, Rei: +91-079-32988717
Fax: +91-079-26927094. e-mail: jpamdvd@rediffmail.com
o 202 Batavia Chambers. 8 Kumara Krupa Road, Kumara Park East

Bangalore 560 001, Phones: +91-80-22285971, +91-80-22382956
Rei: +91-80-32714073. Fax: +91-80-22281761
e-mail: jaypeemedpubbgl@eth.net
o 282 IIIrd Floor, Khaleel Shirazi Estate. Fountain Plaza, Pantheon Road
Chennai 600 008, Phones: +91-44-28193265, +91-44-28194897
Rei: +91-44-32972089, Fax: +91-44-28193231, e-mail: jpchen@eth.net
o 4-2-1067/1-3, 1st Floor, Balaji Building, Ramkote Cross Road

Hyderabad 500 095, Phones: +91-40-66610020, +91-40-24758498,
Rel:+91-40-32940929 .. Fax:+91�40-24758499,
e-mail: jpmedpub@rediffmail.com
o No. 41/3098, B & 81, Kuruvi Building. St. Vincent Road

Kochi 682 018, Kerala, Phones: 0484-4036109. +91-0484-2395739
+91-0484-2395740, e-mail: jaypeekochi@rediffmail.com
o i-A Indian Mirror S treet, Wellington Square, Kolkata 700 013

Phones:. �91-33-22451926, +91-33-22276404, '+91-33-22276415
Rei: +91-33-32901926, Fax: +91-33-22456075, e-mail : jpbcal@dataone.in
o 106 Amit . Industrial Estate, 61 Dr S8 Rao Road, Near MGM Hospital

Parel, Mumbai 400 012 . Phones: +91-22-24124863, +91-22-24104532
Rei: +91-22-32926896, Fax: +91-22-24160828
e-mail: jpm e d pub@bom7.vsnl.neUn
o "KAMALPUSHPA" 38, Reshimbag. Opp. Mohola Science College. Umred
Road. Nagpur 440 009 (MS), Phones: ReI: 3245220, Fax: 0712-2704275
e-mail: jaypeen agpur@dataone.in
MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
© 2007, Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers

All rights ·reserved. No part of this publication should be reproduced, stored in a
retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any m�ans: electronic, mechanical.
photocopying. recording. or otherwise, without the prior written permission onhe
author and the publisher.
This book has been published in good faith that th�fnaterial providl;ld by author
is original. !':very effort is made to ensure accuracy of material. but the publisher.
printer and author will not be held reSPOnsible foT' any inadvertent error(s). In case
of any dispute, all legal matters are to be settled under Delhi jurisdiction only.
First Edition: 2007

ISBN 81-8448-041-5
Typeset at JPBMP typesetting unit
Printed at Rajkamal Electric Press, G.T.Karnal Road, Industrial Area, Oelhi-33
Foreword
This book is directed to both undergraduate and postgraduate

students of Dentistry.� The goal of the author is to present a wide
range of clinical diagflostic knowledge through a series of selected
multiple choice questions in one volume.
The challenge for an educator is to foster the development of
elementary diagnostic skill for the student's early clinical activities.
This skill once acquired will be the basis of a strong and reliable
professional judgment in the dental specialty. Although there are
numerous excellent comprehensive volumes available on
Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology, a textbook is not currently
available to provide the dental students with a wide selection of
clinical diagnostic materials to learn and broaden their diagnostic
experience . This is the objective of this book. It covers most of
what they must know and a little of what they already know. This
book aims to help the student pass examinations and also presents
useful knowledge and understanding of Oral Medicine and Oral
Radiology th�t is necessary for a successful practitioner.
It is hoped that this.MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
will in some measure help the student recall and enhance their
knowledge and understanding of this important discipline of
Dentistry.
Nestor Hollist
BDS, FDSRCS (Edinburgh)
Professor of Conservative Dentistry (retired)
Jordan University of Science and Technology
Irbid, Jordan
Preface
This book seeks to help the undergraduate and postgraduate

students of oral medicine and radiology to learn the fundamentals
of the subject through a series of probing multiple-choice questions.
These time-tested MCQs has evolved from several years of
teaching of the subject at college of dental surgery, Manipal, India:
Faculty of Dentistry, Arab Medical University, Benghazi, Libya;
Faculty of Dentistry, Jordan University of Science and Technology,
Irbid, Jordan; SDM college of Dental Sciences, Dhatwad, India;
and School of Dentistry, University of the West Indies, Trinidad &
Tobago. It is intended primarily for the BDS graduates seeking
admission to postgraduate studies majoring in oral medicine and
radiology through the competitive entrance examination. It is
hoped that this book will also serve as a review for those students
who have already entered in to graduate studies , current under�
graduates .and as a reference/guide to teachers of this discipline.
The desire to compile multiple-choice questions and Il).ake it
available to students of the profession was propelled by the fact
that a book serving the intended purpose of this book is not
generally available and also because of. the frequent requests from
the students.
Constructive criticisms and suggestions from readers of this
book to enhance the quality and usefulness of this book would be
highly appreciated.
Kamala GPillai
Acknowledgements
The author is indebted to Dr. Nagamani Narayana, Asst.Professor,

Department of Oral Biology, College of Dentistry, University of
Nebraska Medical Center, USA and Dr. Yeshwant Rawal ,
Asst. Professor, Biologic and Diagnostic Sciences, College of
Dentistry, University of Tennessee Health Sciences ·Center, USA
for the overall review of the manuscript, for ensuring clarity,
technical accuracy and for their valuable suggestions on various
sections of the book I also acknowledge the intellectually stimulating
questions and enquiries from many of my students.
Contents
Part-I
1. MCQs in Oral Medicine .... . . ....... ........ ............ . ......... 1
Part-II
2. MCQs in Radiology ........................... • ................ 109
2 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
1. Which of the following has malignant�potetltia.l?

A. Leukoedema"
B. Speckled leukoplakia
C. White sponge nevus
D. Hairy leukoplakia
E. All· of the above
2. A white cauliflower-like protruding growth on the

buccal mucosa is likely to be a:
A. Lipoma B. Papilloma
C. �mphangiom9 D. Fibroma
3. Regarding leukoplakia:
A. All cases eventually transform to malignancy
B. Only 80% eventually transform to malignancy
C. Only 50% eventually transform to malignancy
D. Is a clinical term not necessarily mean dysplasia
4. White sponge nevus. is:

A. A· hereditary condition
Bo· Autoimmune in nqture
C. An acquired infective condition
D. Chronic cheek biting
5. Lymphadenopathy is clinically manifested by:

A. Hypersalivation
B. Swelling of the gland
C. Hyposalivation
D. Atrophy of the gland
6. A swelling or growth with a broad base is referre� to

as a:
A. Papillomatous lesion B. Pedunculated le�ion
C. Pleomorphic lesion D. Sessile lesion
7. The following lesions are considered to be ,prema

lignant except:
A. Hairy leukoplakia B. Candidal leukoplakia
C. Erythroplakia D. Submucous fibrosis
Oral Medicine 3
8. A-reliable-clinical indication of malignancy is:

A. Metastasis B. Tenderness
'
C. A nodule "D. Ulceration
9. The most common fooo of biopsy in a dental office

is:
A. Incisional biopsy B. Curettage
C. Punch biopsy D. Aspiration
10. Gingival swelling in leukemia is due to:

A. Infiltration of leukemic cells into the gingival tissues
B. Inflammatory edema
C. Poor oral hygiene
D. Proliferation of blood vessels
11. The treatment of angular cheilitis is by a combination

of:
A. Antibiotics and antifungal agents
B. Antibiotics and antiviral agents
C. Antifungal and analgesics
D. Antibiotics and steroid mouth wash
12. A marked increase in tongue coating is associated

with:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Erythematous candidiasis
D. Disturbance in oral physiology
13. Lymph from the middle part of the lower lip wiUdrain
into which Iy�ph node:
A. Deep cervical B. Submandibular
C. Submental D. Superficial cervical
14. Yellowish white spots which are usually present

bilaterally in the oral cavity may be:
A. Lymphonodular pharyngitis
B. Koplik's spots
C. Fordyce's spots
D. Focal ker.qtosis
-15.":'The.following�clinical·signs�are""indicative of a
"m
alignant neoplasm except:
A. Freely movable exophytic pedunculated relatively soft
mass
B. Firmly fixed fungating exophytic mass
C. Rolled elevated and indurated border with or without
an ulcerated centre
D. Firmly fixed indurated massof long duration
E. Firm . indurated base with crater-like defect
1 6. Multiple white nodular elevations with a central red

dot on the posterior part of the palate represent:
A. Thrush
B. Nicotina stomatitis palatina
C. Focal keratosis
D. Papillary hyperplasia
1 7 . In a 15-year -old patient with a complaint of swollen
gums and gingival bleeding, generalized body pain
and malaise, and recent loss of body weight, the most
probable diagnosis is:
A. 01lantin gingival hyperplasia
B. Puberty gingivitis
C. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Acute leukemia
E. Acute streptococcal gingivitis
1 8. Self:inflicted oral injuries:

A. Are a clinical entity
B. May be seen in children
C. May be associated wit� psychiatriC disorders
D. 'Cannot distinguish readily from natural disease
E. .:A11.are true
1 9. LeU:kQedema can be differentiated clinically from

ieuk6plakia when it:
A . Disappears while stretching the mucosa
I
B. Is bilateral in nature
'
C. Is rriilky white in appearance
D. All of the above
Oral Medicine 5
20. Leukoplakia is-a white lesion that:

A. Has no malignant potential .
B. Transforms into malignancy onl ylf1t'becomes extensive
C. Can become malignant irrespective of its size
D. Always has a predictable outcome
2 1. Clinical appearance of leukoplakia is a true indicator

of:
A. Moderate dysplasia
B. Carcinoma in situ
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. None of the above
22. Histologically squamous cell carcinoma shows

severe:
A. Dysplasia only
B. Dysplasia with an intact basement membrane
C. Dysplasia with keratin pearl in the epithelial layer
D. Dysplasia with keratin pearl in the connective tissue
.23. The homogeneous type of sublingual keratosis has

a:
A. High rate o f malignant potential
B. Malignant potential similar to homogenous leukoplakia
occurring" at any site
C. Malignant potential depending on the size of the lesion
24. The most common cause of keratosis is:

A. Physical trauma
B. Tobacco use
C. Genetic abnormalities
D. Mucocutaneous disease
E. Inflammatory reaction
25. Differential diagnosis of leukoedema includes the

following except:
A. Leukoplakia B. Cheek biting
C. White sponge nevus D. Aspirin bum
E. Linea alba
26. J)�erential diagnosis of white sponge nevus include

the following except:
A. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
B. Cheek biting
C. Pachyonichia congenita
D. Atrophic type of lichen planus
27. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis:

A. May cause blindness and oral lesions
B. Invariably involves the dorsum of the tongue
C. Usually starts in the second decade
D. Has a moderate risk of malignant transformation
28. Pachyonichia congenita is characterized by:

A. White lesions of the oral mucosa
B. White lesions of the rectum
C. Defective formation of the nails of hands and feet
D. Corneal opacity
E. All of the above
29. The following statements are all true, regarding snuff

dipping lesions except:
A. Prolonged period of exposure is necessary for malignant
change
B. �
W en malignant change occurs the lesions are generally
of high-grade malignancy
C. In':early stages of development it may resemble
leukoedema
D. The lesions are generally painless and asymptomatic
E. Lesions are discovered during routine oral examination
30. Whit"' plaque may be seen in the following congenital

·
·
diseas�I �s except:
.
· A. DY$Keratosis congenita
B. I?achyonichia congenita
C. Tylbsis with esophageal carcinoma
D. HairY leukoplakia
Oral Medicine 7
31. White plaque may be seen in the following acqu�red

conditions except:
A. Esophageal sideropenic dysphagia
B. Oral submucus, fibrosis
C. White sponge nevus
D. AIDS
E. Syphilis
32. Predisposing factors for the develop ment of

leukoplakia are:
A. Dysregulation of immune defense system
B. Trauma-mechanical, chemical and thermal
C. Infection-candidal, AIDS, syphilis, possibly herpes virus
D. Nutritional factors, irondeficiency,anemia,alcoholism /
deficiency of nutritional elements
E All of the above
33. Management of idiopathic leukoplakia consists of:

A. Periodic check up of the lesion
B. Incisional biopsy
C. Birnination of etiologicat:factol"S
D. Incisional biopsy and other relevant investigations
E All of the abpve
34. The following lesions have a very high risk for

malignant changes except:
A. Candidal leukoplakia
B. Verrucous leukoplakia
C. Syphilitic glossitis
D. Erythroplakia
E. Carcinoma in situ
35. Which of the following lesions is considere � to �e

premalignant:
A. Sublingual keratosis
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
C. Speckled leukoplakia
D. Idiopathic leukoplakia
E. All of the above
8 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
36. Which of the following statements is true:

1 . All l eukoplakia I�sions undergo malignant
transformation
2. Leukoplakia with a red component . is more likely
to becomenlalignarit
3. Leukoplakia that show dysplastic changes are
unlikely to develop into carcinoma
4. Leukoplakia occurring in patient who never
smoked have a greater chance for malignant
change
5. Leukoplakia occurring in smokers and non
smokers have an equal chance of malignant
change
6. Leukoplakia lesions in the tongue, have a
significantly higher maligriant transfonnation rate
in women than in men
A. 1,2,3,4' B. 2,3,4,5,6
C. 1,3,4,5,6 D. 3,4,5
E. 2,4,6
37. The following featUres are true regarding the nature

of pain in acute pulpitis except:
A. Stabbing pain
B. Excruciating pain
C. Sharp. in nature
D. Relief folloWing removal of the irritant
E. AnalgesiCS are of great help in relieving pain
38. Which of the following statements is true about

malignant lesions:
1 . The size of the tumor is an indicator of the degree
of dysplasia
2. There is no correlation between the degree of
dysplasia and the size of the tumor
3. Clinical appearance alone is sufficient to
determine the underlying malignancy
4. Biopsy is essential to diagnose the malignancy
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4
C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 4
Oral Medicine . . 9
39. Which of the following is true regarding sublingual

keratosis:
A. It has a high rate of malignant transformation
B. The homogenous type is not considered as a high-risk
lesion
C. The homogenous type mixed with red component is
only considered a high-risk lesion
D. Small lesions can be left alone and managed by periodic
check up
40. Erythroplakic lesions on histological examination

may show:
A. Moderate-to-severe dysplasia
B. Severe dysplasia
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Any of the above
41. The clinical appearance of carcinoma in situ are the

following except:
A. Leukoplakia
B. Ulcerated lesion
C. Indurated mass
. D. Erythroplakia
42. Which of the follOwing statements is true regarding

carcinoma in situ? It may appear as:
A. A white and ulcerated lesion
B. A red and ulcerated lesion
C. Shiny atrophic patches
O. Any of the above
43. Histologically, carcinoma in situ will show:

A. Mild-to-moderate dysplasia
B. Mild-to-severe dysplasia
C . · Presence of few epithelial cells in the c onnective tissue
D. Top-to-bottom changes in the epitheium
44. Histologically. carcinoma in situ may show:

A. An intact basement membrane
B. invasive characteristics
C. Microinvasion of lymph nodes·
D. Presence of few epithelial cells in the connective tissue
45. Topical steroid is the drug of choice in the manage

ment of the following conditions except:
A. Cold sore
B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
C. Major aphthous ulcer
D. Erosive lichen planus
46. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised in the following

conditions except:
A. Polyosteotic fibrous dysplasia
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteoma
D. Hyperparathyroidism
E Viral hepatitis B
47. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is increased in all

but one of the following condition�. Which one:
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Pregnancy
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Metastatic tumor of bone
E Rickets
48. Following conditions may be associated with iron

deficiency anemia except:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Burning mouth syndrome
C. Angular cheilitis
D. Atrophic glossitis
Oral Medicine 11
'
49. Differential diagnosis of chronic indurated ulce� does
not include: ,o c,
A. Chronic traumatic ulcer

B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
D. Squamous papilloma
50. All of the following lesions are indurated except:

A. Tuberculous ulcer
B. Syphilitic ulcer
C. Major aphthous ulcer
D. Noma
E Deep fungal infections
51. Coxsackie virus causes all these conditions except:

A. Hand, foot and mouth disease
B. Herpangina
C. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D. Herpetiform ulcers
52. Causes of neurological facial pain do not include:

A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Post-herpetic neuralgia
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Brainstem disease
E Causalgia'
53. Componenfs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include

A. Oral ulcers B. Peptic ulcers
C. Ocular lesions D. Skin lesions
E Genital ulcers
54. The following investigations are needed for the

diagnosis of 'Sjogren' s syndrome except:
A. Sialography B. Labial biopsy
C. Salivary flow rate D. Immunological
E. � Submandibular gland biopsy
55. The component��of Plummer-Vinson syndrome or

sideropenic dysphagia include the following except;
A. Red painful tongue
B. Epithelial atrophy
C. Dysphagia
D. Hyperchromic microcytic anemia
E. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
56. Which of these is not a complication of prolonged
systemic steroid therapy:
. A. Hypertension
B. Opportunistic infections
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Adrenal suppression
57. Which of the following oral mucosal conditions is not
associated with eye lesions:
A. Behcset's syndrome
B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid
D. Albright's syndrome
58. Topical steroid is a drug of choice in the management
of:
A. Herpetiform ulcers B. Thrush
C. Condyloma latum D. Verruca vulgaris
E. Papilloma
59. Periapical infection 'of the maxillary second molar
will involve the:
A. Preauricular node, B. Submandibular node
C. Retropharyngeal �ode D. Submental node
E. Postauricular node
. .
60. Condyloma l�tum is cii

A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Fungal infection .
D. Protozoal infection
Oral Medicine 13
61. Administration of aspirin should be avoided in

patients being treated with anticoagulants because
it:
A. Decreases anticoagulant effect
B. Causes gastritis
C. Over sedates the patient
D. Decreases platelet aggregation
62. Identify the true statement regarding primary

Sjogren's syndrome:
A. Causes similar microscopic changes on salivary gland
to those in secondary SjOgren's syndrome
B. Is associated with connective tissue disease
C. Tends to have less severe effect on glandular functions
than Sjogren's syndrome
D. Usually treated with topical corticosteroids
63. Potential complications of herpes zoster are the

following except:
A. Post-herpetic neuralgia
B. Facial paralysis
C. Corneal scarring
D. Neuropathy
64. Which of th� following is not relevant to. median

rhomboid gl�ssitis:
A. Microscopically, it may appear as chronic candidiasis
B. May be the result of persistence of the tuberculum
impar
..... C. Forms only on the midline
D. May be nodular in character
�
E. H':ls a h h:fate of malignant transformation
. I
,"
65 . Which of the�e Ip..sions have no ocular involvement:
A. .Behl;;et' 5 s Yndrome
B. Stevens-J6hnson syndrome
C� prin's pan syndrome
D� SjOgren's syndrome
- ,-
14 MCQs i n Oral MediGine a n d Oral Radiology
66. First line of drug treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

is:
A . Phenytoin sodium B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonazepam D. Valproic acid
E. Diazepam
67. Stevens- Johnson syndrome is managed mainly by:

A. Topical steroids
B. Topical and systemic steroids
C. Antibiotics and chlorhexidine mouthwash
D. Supportive treatment only since it is a self limiting disease
68. Which of the following lesions is not characterized
by sub-epithelial bulla:
A. Lichen planus
B. Chickenpox
C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
D. Epidermolysis bullosa
E. Dermatitis herpetiformis
(;9 . Aphthous stomatitis: _
A. Microscopically shows specific diagnostic features

B. Is more common in adolescents than in the _ elderly
C. Is always associated with autoimmune disease
D. Patients have vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency
70. Which of these statements does not apply to herpes
simplex virus:
A. Can cause painful ulcera�ion
B. Is a RNA virus
C. Can cause eye infections
D. May be fatal in immuriocompromised patients
7 1 . Which of these state6tents is incorrect regarding
pemphigus? :;:
A. Is an autoimmune disease
B. Is treated by steroids
C. Starts as a blood filled bullae on skin or mucosa
-
D. Is characterized histologically by intraepithelial bulla

E. Bulla ruptures soon resulting in extensive ulcerations
Oral Medicine 15
72. Median rhomboid glossitis:

A. Is considered always as a developmental anomaly
B. Appears to c hange it's position on the m u c o u s
membrane
C. Is considered as a premalignant lesion
D. Is treated by topical steroids
E. Is clinically seen as a raised depapillated area immediately
anterior to the circumvallate papilla
73. Herpetiform ulcers are caused by infection with:

A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Human immunodeficiency virus
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. None oithe above
74. Complete or partial absence of clavicle may be seen

in:
A. Infantile cortical hyperosteosis
B. Ectodermal dysplasia
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Craniofacial dysostosis
75. Which of the "following features is not characteristic

of systemic lupus erythematosus:
A. Typically associated with antinuclear autoantibodies
B. More common in males
C. Causes oral lesions in about 20% of patients
D. Oral, lesions may resemble lichen planus
E. May be associated with SjOgren's s'yndrome
76. Antibody titer remains relatively high after an attack

of herpes simplex virus for:
A. Six months
B. The active phase only
C. The healing phase only
D. Five to ten months
E. Ufe
16 MCQs .in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
. ..�
77. The least infective stage of syphilis is:
A. Primary stage .
B . . Secondary .stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. Primary and secondary stages
E. Primary and tertiary stages
78. Immunocompetent patients, aHlicted with

. chicken-
pox should be managed by:
A. Acyclovir alone
B. Combination of antibiotics and acyclovir
C. Combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids
D. Symptomatic and supportive treatment
79. Which of the following features is not characteristic

of major aphthous ulcers:
A. Occurs only on the keratinized mucosa
B. Occurs in the keratinized and. non ke ratinized mucosa
-
C. Heals slowly with scarring

D. Ulcers range in size from 1-3 an in diameter
80. Sialosis is 'treated mainly by:

A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Antibiotics and drainage
C. Antibiotics and anti inflammatory
- agents
D.' Antibiotic and mouth washes
E. None of the above
-
8 1 . Submucous fibrosis:
A. Is considered as a connective tissue disorder
B. May ultiII!ately lead to fibrosarcoma
C. Is associaled with chronic smoking
D. Lead� t,?changes in epitheli�m and connective tissue
82. Which of tfte

following is not relevant to the histopa
thologicat:llicture of oral lichen planus:
A.' Para' or'· orthokeratosis
B. Variabl� acanthosis and atrophy
C. Basal cell liquefaction' degeneration
, D. Dense band of neutrophil infiltration in lamina propia
E. Civette bodies in the basal· and sub-basal layers
Oral Medicine 17
83. Which of the following

a.'S '1.-'
.+
patients
JIO"'M
has
, (�v.:-
, __
'.'" �,,';'i.�o;_
" •.
chronic
.,
hepatitis.
B: .
A. HBsAg positive;-Anti-HBc negative, Anti-HBs negative
B. HBsAg positive, Anti-HBc positive, Anti-HBs negative
C. HBsAg negative, Anti-HBc negative, Anti-HBs positive
D. HBsAg negative, Anti-HBc positive, Anti-HBs positive
84. Which of the following is not a typical feature of oral
lichen planus:
A. Mostly appears as white striations on the mucosa
B. Is bilateral
in appearance
C. Mostly appears on the buccal mucosa
D. Commonly lesions are asymptomatic
E About 20% of the lesions eventually become malignant
85. Which of the following lesions is not caused by human _
papilloma virus:
A. Squamous cell papilloma
B. Condyloma latum
C. Verruca vulgaris
D. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
86. Identify the false statement. Carcinoma of the tongue:
A. Have early lymph node involvement
B. Have a better prognosis in comparison with other
carcinomas
C. May cause disability to the patient
D. Is treated mainly by combination of surgery and
radiotherapy
87. Malignant melanoma arises from: _
A. Keratinocytes B. Melanocytes
C. Merkel cells D. Langerhan cells
88. Differential diagnosis of primary herpetic gingivo
stomatitis includes the following except:
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Acute- necrotizing periodontitis---
C. Streptococcal gingivitis
D. Desquamative gingivitis
89. A reliable clinical indication of malignancy

-"
is:
A. An ulcerative lesion
B. An ulcerative and painful lesion
C. Ulceration and fixation of the lymph node
D. Bilateral involvement of the lymph node
E. Tenderness of the lesion as well as lymph node
90. In squamous cell carcinoma, painless lymph node

enlargement may be due to:
A. Infection of the malignant lesion
B. Reactive hyperplasia secondary to infection
C. InfiltratioD of lymph node by virus
D. Infiltration of lymph node by tumor cells
E. Infiltration of the lymph node by bacteria
91. Which of the following statement is false:

A. Well differentiated lesions or tumors are less aggressive
B. Well differentiated tumors have a better prognosis than
poorly differentiated tumors
C. Anaplastic tumors are highly malignant
D. Anaplastic tumors have better prognosis

A. Detection of tumor assoc�ated proteins can be of value
in early cancer detection.
B. Prost?te cancer is associated with a decrease in acid .
phosphatase level
C. Prostate cancer is associated with an increase in alkaline
phosphatase level
D. Neither acid or alkaline phosphatase level is decreased
93. Identify �� false statemenfregarding malignancy:

A. DNA patterns are indicative.
.
of true malignant cellular
.
�
alt rations
B. Clinicbl and histological evaluation is essential for the
dete tlnination of the prognosiS
C. The degree of malignancy and degree of differentiation
is inversely proportional
; D. Moderately differentiated tumor has a better prognosis
than well differentiated tUmors
Oral Medicine 19
94. Identify the false statement in the following. Etiological

or predfsposingfactors for lip cancer'are: -.
A. Pipe smoking
B. Poor oral hygiene
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Chronic trauma
95. Etiological/predisposing factors for carcinoma of the
tongue are the following except:
A. Use of tobacco
B. Poor oral hygiene
C. Use of alcohol
D. Hairy tongue
96. Predisposing factors for carcinoma of the tongue
include:
A. The presence of leukoplakia
B. Chronic irritation from broken down tooth
C. Chewing tobacco
D. All of the above
9 7 . Which of the following is not a characteristic clinical
appearance or features of tongue carcinoma:
A. Indurated, non-healing ulcer with elevated margins
B. Dy�phagia
C. Pain in the ear
D. Fixation of the tongue or inability to move the tongue
E Bilateral late involvement of the lymph nodes
98. Characteristic clinical features of carcinoma of the

tongue .•nclude the following except:
: A. Decieased salivation
. B. Incfkased salivation
C. Inapility to talk
D. Exophytic or endophytic growth pattern
E Deviation of the tongue
" .-.
99. Which of the following statements is true regarding

carcinoma. of the tongue? Lesions on the:
A. Posterior portion of the tongue is usually of higher grade
in malignancy" ' "
B. Anterior part of the tongue is usually of a higher grade

malignancy
C. Anterior, posterior and middle part usually have the
same grade of malignancy
D. Anterior 2 / 3 have poor prognosis than posterior 1/ 3
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect

regarding carcinoma of. the tongue:
A. Lesions metastasize at a very early stage
B. Early bilateral lymph node involvement is common
C. Lesions on the posterior 1 I 3 have better prognosis
than anterior 2 / 3
D . Lesions on the anterior 2 / 3 have better prognosis
than posterior 1/ 3
101. Regarding verrucous carcinoma, identify the wrong

.-
statement:
A. Clinically appear as a broad based wart like mass
B. Fast growing tumor
C. May resemble papilloma
D. Rarely metastasize
102. Which of the following is an incorrect statement

regarding verrucous, carcinoma:
A. Is a slow growing tumor
B. Is poorly differentiated histologically
C. Has a very good prognosis
D. Is surgically excised as the treatment of choice
103. D ifferential diagnosi s of oral s quam9us cell

carcinoma do not include:
A. Tuberculous ulcer B. Syphilitic ulcer
C. Acute traumatic ulcer D. Deep fungc:;l infections
E. Cheilitis glandularis
Oral Medicin e 21
104. Differential diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma

includes the foUowing except:
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
B. Squamous papilloma
C. Hyperplastic candidiasis
D. Midline granuloma
E. Keratoacanthoma
105. A 10-year-old male patient complains of multiple pin

size ulcers on soft palate accompanied with high fever
'
and sore throat. On examination, a sharply defined
ulcer with a grayish white base and clusters of small
vesicles with a red halo is seen on the soft palate and
tonsiller area or pillar. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Recurrent herpetic stomatitis
C. Herpangina
D. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
E Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
106. Wickham striae may be seen in the mucous membrane

of a patient with:
A. White sponge nevus
B. Lichen planus
C. ErYthema multiforme
D . Le'ukoplakia
107. WickJtam striae may be se�n in which of the following:

A. Discdid lupus erythamatosus
B. Nico;tine stomatitis
: C. Lin�a alba
,
D . Leiikoedema
-.
108.""A�patient",who�received a new··full denture retilmed

to the clinic after about two weeks with a complaint
of a sore mouth. 0Ae.xamination both maxillary and
mandibular ddges�re r �d and inflamed. Acrylic
shaving was taped on the arm of the patient. Forty
eight hours later a red inflamed area appeared where
the acrylic was placed. Indicate the most likely
diagnosis:
A. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
B. Denture stomatitis
C. Stomatitis medicamentosa
D . Stomatitis venenata
109. Clinical features of acquired syphilis do not have:

A. Chancre
B. Secondary mucous patches, macules and papules
C. Tertiary gummas and interstitial glossitis
D. Saddle nose
110. Which of the following statement is not true of

. tuberculosis: _ .
A. Can be a complication- in AIDS patients

B. Is caused by mycobacterium tuberculi
C. Only can affect young adults, old persons and immuno
compromised patients
D . Can affect any age group .
111. Regarding recurrent herpes la�ialis, it:

A. Is an exogenous type of infection
.
B. Is a reactivation of the latent virus
C. Usually causes rise in temperature
D. Occurs when a person come in contact with another-
person having herpes labialis -
112. Acute Iymphonodular pharyngitis is seen clidically a�:

" .-
A. Extensive ulcerated area
B. Discrete small ulcers of varying sizes
C. Small vesicles or bullas
D . Raised whitish yellow nodules
Oral Medicine 23
1 13. A p atient presents with a white lesion on the floor of

the mouth of 6 months duration. The next procedure
is:
A. Take an exfoliative cytology smear
B. Keep the patient under observation
C. Biopsy the lesion
D. Treat the lesion with kenalog ointment
1 14. The grayish-white discoloration of the marginal

gingiva and interdental papillae that is seen in an
acute necrotizing gingivitis represents:
A. Necrotic mucosal tissue
B. T hick mucous accumulating on the hyperplastic gingival
tissue
C. Accumulation of candidal organism that are normally
part of the oral flora
D. Accumulation of food debris due to inadequate home
care
115. Oral lesions of secondary syphilis (mucous patches):

A. Has a burning sensation
B. Are very painful
C. Are painless
D. Are indurated
1 16. Tuberculous lesion of the oral cavity is an irregular

ulcer that tends to increas� slowly in size and is: -
A. Usually painless
B. Itching
C. Oozing
D . Usually painful
1 17. Nikolsky sign is seen in:

A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Erythema rriultiforme
D . Discoid lupus· erythematosus
1 18. The most common cause of xerostomia is:

A. Aplasia of the gland
B. Use of antihistamines or tranquilizers
C. Sialadenitis
D. Salivary calculus in the duct
1 19. Identify the least common cause of xerostomia:

A. Aplasia of the gland
B. Ageing
C. Tumors of the salivary gland
D. Irradiation of the gland
120. Ocular lesions are a well-recognized complication

of the following except:
A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B. Beh�t' s . syndrome
C. Pemphigus foliaceus
D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
-
12 1. Regarding thrush, identify the incorrect statement:
A. Is characterized by plaque of proliferating epithelial and
other cells
B. Can be a complication of immune suppression
C. Can be a complication of systemic administration of
corticosteroids ·
D. Is commonly seen in AIDS patients or is ari indicator of
AIDS
E. Can be a complication of tetanus
. 122. Which of the following is incorrect regarding thrush:

A. Is seen -in · AIDS patients only
. B. ; Responds to nystatin
C. Is an opportunistic infection
D. Can affect any age group
Oral Medi<::fne 25
123; - Following lesions can be complicated with , ocular

lesions except:
A. Pachyonichia congenita
B. Sjogren' s syndrome'
C. Pemphigus vegetans
D. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
1 24. A flat circumscribed discoloration of the skin or
mucosa that vary in size and shape is referred to as:
A. An epulis B. A nodule
C. A papule D. A macule
125. Chemical burn can generally be differentiated from

keratotic lesions by:
A. The exfoliative cytology
B. An incisional biopsy
C. A thorough clinical examination
D. An adequate history
126. Sub-epithelial bulla is seen in:

A. - Pemphigoid
B. Major aphthae
C. Pemphigus
D. Herpes zoster
E. Herpes labialis
127. S ialorrhea is commonly seen in the fol lowing

conditions except:
A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Mercury poisoning
C. Lead poisoning
D. Bismuth poisoning
1 28. One of the most common developmental leSio1i,ls

affecting the tongue is:
A. Median rhomboid glossitis
B. Fissured tongue
C. Geographic tongue
D. Black hairy tongue
-129. A tooth that is tender to percussion indicates that

the:
A. Pulp is necrotic
B. Condensing osteitis is present
C. Pulp is vital
D. Periodontal ligament is inflamed
130. Clinical features of carcinoma of the maxillary antrum

do not include:
A. The failure of socket to heal after extraction
B. Paresthesia
C. A palatal ulcer
D. Pain in the affected area
E. Painless swelling
1 3 1 . Acute infections are not characterized by:

A. Insidious onset
B. Pain
C. Swelling
D. High fever
1 32. Usually most metastasis to the jaw occurs from the

fonoWing organs except:
A. Kidney .
B. Uver
C. Thyroid gland
D. Colon
133. Which of the following patients was vaccinated for

hepatitis B:
A. HBsAg positive, Anti-HBc negative, Anti-HBs negative
B. HBsAg positive, Anti-HBc positive, Anti-HBs negative
C. HBsAg negative, Anti-HBc negative, Antl-HBs positive
D. HBsAg negative, Anti-HBc positive, Anti-HBs positive
134. Clinical evidence of metastasis to 'the jaw include the

following except:
A. Bone pain B. Mobility of teeth
C. Bone swelling D. Up paresthesia
E. Deviation of the tongue
Oral Medicine 27
135. Following features may indicate metastasis to the jaw

except:
A. Gingival mass B. Pathologic fracture
C. Bony expansion D. Mobility of teeth
136. Systemic administration of acyclovir is the treatment

of choice in:
A. Healthy child with herpes simplex infection
B. Immunocompromised patient with h erpes simplex
infection
C. Herpes labialis
D. Chickenpox
137. Most common cause for halitosis is:

A. Poor oral hygiene
B. Drug therapy
C. Smoking and dietary habits
D. Psychogenic
138. A circumscribed elevation of the oral mucosa

containing clear fluid is a:
A. Pustule
B. Hematoma
C. Vesicle or bulla
D. Papule
139. Conditions or diseases that lead to blindness do not

include:
A. Herpes labialis
B. Beh<;et's disease
C. Stevens- - Johnson syndrome
D . Herpes zoster
140. The following lesions can lead to blindness except:

A. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. ,Heiter's syndrome
, D . Pemphigus erythematosus
28 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral -Radiology
· 1 4 1 . In differential diagnosis of chanlie, all of the following

is considered except:
A. Traumatic ulcer
B. Tuberculous ulcer
D. Ruptured vesicles of herpes simplex
142. Features of secondary sYPhilis do not include:

A. Generalized skin lesion, Le_ reddish-brown maculo-
papular cutaneous rash
B. Mucosal ulcers and patches
C. Generalized painful lymphadenopathy
D. System i c symptoms like fever, headache, malaise,
general aches and pains
143. The infectivity in syphilis is relatively very high in:

A. Primary stage .'
B. Secondary stage and tertiary stages
C. Primary and secondary stages
D. Primary and tertiary stages
E. Secondary stage
144. Uncontrolled diabetes may produce halitosis having '

the odor of:
A. Acetone
B. Mousy
C. Uremia
145. The most common cause of unilateraj paresthesia of

the lower lip is: � . ,
A. Impingement of the mentat nerv� b � an overextended

denture :: :
B. Chronic osteomyelitis
C . Trauma to the �nferior alveolar nerve during removal
.
of mandibular third molar
D. Osteogenic sarcoma
· Oral Medicine 29
146 . Which ofthe following conditions is associated with

.
a complaint of metallic taste:

A. Arsenic poisoning B. Silver poisoning
C. Galvanism D . Metronidazole therapy
147. Conditions associated with dryness of the skin do

not include:
A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism
C. Ectodermal dysplasia D . Senile keratosis
148. Metallic taste occurs in the following conditions

except:
A. Bismuth poisoning B. Copper poisoning
C. Mercury poisoning D. Lead poisoning
149. Differential diagnosis of secondary syphilis do not

include:
A. Major aphthae
B. . Tuberculous ulcer
D . Necrotizing sialometaplasia
E. Cheilitis granulomatosis
150 . Oral ulcers can be caused by th� following except:

A. Trauma B. Chemicals
C. Aphthae D. Sarcoidosis
E. Malignancy
151. Drugs which can precipitate an attack of erythema

multiforme do not include:
A. Sulphonamides B. Barbiturates
C. Dilantin D. Penicillin
152. Differential diagnosis of pemphigus do not include:

A. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
B. Bullous and mucous membrane pemphigoid
C. Erythema multiforme
D Btilldtlli" 1ich'en" planus
.
E. Discoid lupus erythamatosus

.-

--
1 53. Autoimmune disease that can: be associated with
pemphigus vulgaris includes the following except:
'
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid 1;lrthritis
C. Lupus erythematosus
D . Lichen planus
154. Disease that are associated with pemphigus vulgaris

do not include:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Hashimotd s thyroiditis
C. Thymoma
D. SjOgren's syndrome
155. An increased ESR indicates:

A. Endothelial cell reaction
B. High blood pressure
C. An increase in the size and weight of the red blood cells
D. An increased packed cell volume
:
156. Which of the following is likely to be a reliable test
for syphilis:
A. Biopsy
B. Dark field examination
C. VDRL test
D. Treponemal immobilization test
E. Full hematological examination
151. Duri n g an extraoral
exam i n a t i o n b i l ateral
'
enlargement of the superior de'ep cervical and
,
submandibular lymph nodes are nC!ted. These nodes
are discrete and firm. LymphadenoPathy of these .
_
I "r
nodes may be due to: :;�
A; PeriapiCal infection of mandibular, m'olars
B. Follicular tonsillitis
C: ' SquaJnous cell carcinoma;' 6fthe tongUe
D. Lymphatic leukemia
� . - . � ��.� � . �-- .----�---
Oral Medicine 31
158. Lichen planus is a common mucocutaneous disease

which manifests in the oral cavity as:
A. Multiple· discrete papules
B. Iris like or target like lesions
C. A bullous lesion
D . White radiating lines
159. Drugs which can impair platelef function do not

include:
A. Aspirin B. Paracetamol
C. Ibuprofen D. Ampicillin
160. One of the most frequent causes of irritation of the
denture supporting mucosa in a denture wearer is:
A. Allergy to coloring agent in the denture base
B. Allergy to denture base material
C. The nutritional status of the denture supporting tissues
D. Incorrect centric relation determination during the
denture fabrication
1 6 1 . Which of the following papillae is· considered as a
constant anatomical feature:
A. Circumvallate papillae
B. Foliate papillae
C� Fungi form papillae
D. Filiform papillae
1 62 . Site mainly associated with tast-; sensation on the
tongue is:
A. Filiform papilla
B. Fungiform papilla
C. Circumvallate papillae
�
D. Foliate papillae
1 63 . Highest rate of metabolic activit9 in the tongue is'
I
seen in:
....A"...Filiform·papillae B. Circumvallate., papillae
.
C. Foliate papillae D. Fungiform papillae

164. Papillae which manifests earliest evidence of

nutritional deficiencies or circulatory defects is:
A. Fungiform . . " " _" " "
. . B. Filiform
C. Foliate . D. Circumvallate
165. Which of the papillae is least affected by changes in

nutritional and circulatory state of a patient:
A. Circumvallate B. Filiform
C. Foliate D. Fungiform
.
. " • .".: � � ..'--:" . ";'., ;:
.� 0"i<.
166. Majority of the taste receptors in the tongue are

located immediately surrounding the:
A. Foliate papillae
B. Circumvallate papillae
C. Filiform papillae
D . Fungiform papillae
167. Characteristic features of acute bacterial sialadenitis

include the following except:
A. Tenderness and swelling of the affected gland
B. Pus exuding from the salivary dtict
C. Sialorrhea
D. Cervical lymph node enlargement and leukocytosis
E. Xerostomia

Sjorgen s syndrome:
A. Is the most common cause of persistent dry mouth
B. Develops in about 15% of patients with rheumatoid
disease
C. Affects many en�ocrine glands
D. Causes swelling of salivary glands only in minority of
patients
169. Subepithelial bulla is seen in the following conditions

except:
A. Bull ous lichen planus .
B. Pemphigoid
C. Epidermolysis bullosa
D. Erythema multiforme
'fd. t. __
. Oral Medicine 33
�- ·�..;
.-=:::::::';u; ;;;;·:;
. '(;
;•:::. ::;
'.i:::
:'tr:.;:
. ' . .w; . ", ::
': ..: ',. 1:
. ., � .=
� -=-: :. ,,.:
. ..�-----=�=--'--=.::,�",:
:-. _
.
_
,,".:_
�-= .:._
':"
:"
:if=:
"'io;i!
:·' t::
.t ...
...
. . ",,"
'� J
...
·ir
...
, ...
,··_ �
. _
.
.. '
,
170. Leukoedema of the buccal mucosa is due to:

A. Poor oral hygiene
B. Abnormal masticatory habits
C. Chronic cheek biting
D . Unknown etiology
171. White sponge nevus do not involve:

A. Buccal mucosa
B. Lateral border of the tongue
C. Anal and vaginal mucosa
D. Pharyngeal mucosa
E. Conjunctiva and cornea
172. Preferred screening technique for oral cancer is:

A. Brush biopsy B. Exfoliate cytology
C. Excisional biopsy D. Incisional biopsy
173. The purpose of fixing the biopsied tissue is to:

A. Prevent autolysis
B. Make the tissue rigid for easier handling
C. Kill tpe microorganism
D . All of the above
174. Identify the false statement. Leukoedema of the buccal

mucosa:
A. Is of unknown etiology
B. Can undergo malignant transformation
C. Occurs bilaterally
D. Has a predilection for black people
175. The most common form of oral mali�ancy is:

.
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Transitional cell carcinomp
D . None of the above
176. The most common form of oral 'malignancy is:

�.' ..
, ._,," �A. ....,&m.eIQblQ.stiG;..G9winoma .. . ,� . .
B. Osteogenic sarcoma . '

C. Primary intraosseous carcinoma
D . Squamous cell carcinoma
• t _
_...
. ',.._ .. .. ... ..-..,..__... .;, •. ••'� � _ •_____ �. ""._ •• _
. , . ,, ', .. ....�
. . --'...
., ,....
. _ ... _
-><...
�
.

-"
1 77 . Which of the following statements is not true

regarding Plummer- Vinson syndrome:
A. Is more common in women .
B. Consists of glossitis, dysphagia, hypochromicmicrocytic
anemia
C. Is ' not associated with oral malignancy
D. Has a strong association for post-cricoids carcinoma
E. Mainly affects Asians
. 1 78.·" Advantages of exfoliative cytology is: · " ' '':··�,:__'___. 'M'�5.N'' ... ,
A . Simplicity �
B. Can perform by all practitioners

C. Assists in identifying candidal infection
D. Identification of Tzanck cells
E. All of the above
1 79. Histologically carcinoma in situ reveals the following

except:
A . Noninvasive characteristics
B. Severe dysplasia
C. Top to bottom changes '
D . Distant metastasis
1 80. Which of the follOwing statements is trUe regarding

herpes simplex virus:
A. Is a DNA virus
B. Can cause primary. infection and secondary exogenous
infection
C. Is not a known carcinogenic agent
D. Can be a cause for herpes zoster
181. . Condyloma acuminatum is a:

A . Fungal infection' Bo Viral infection
C. Bacterial infection D . Protozoal infection
182. Immunocompetent patients afflicted �ith primary

herp etic gingivostomatitis should be managed by:
A. A combination of antibiotics and acyclovir
B. A combination of antibiotics and corticosteroid
C. Symptomatic and supportive treatment
D. Acyclovir alone
E Antibiotics and chlorhexidine mouthwash
Oral Medicine 35
183 . Components of Plummer-Vinson sylidrome do not

include:
A . Anemia B. · Dysphagia
C. Dystonia D. Red painful tongue
'
E. Mucosal atrophy
184. The involvement of maxillary antral floor in carcinoma

causes:
A. Pain in the teeth .
� ·';,';' ,.,�;:: ':W1'»o.,_.
B b tY . 4tjf<t:�'4if>· ti· 'H.�'·M••:••.·�;.iI�r.lf(Jt:.&�,_�c
· ;"� ��·� ' ��" ' The· ·� mo ili "· of�teeth:t.v.iJ _ 'ifr��
..
. �'��
C. Malocclusion
D . T he displacement of teeth
E. All of the above
185 . Which of the following blood diseases normally do
not cause oral ulceration:
A. Aplastic anemia B Leukemia
.
C. Neutropenia D. Sickle cell anemia
186. Treatment of xerostomia includes:

A. Control of infection
.
B. Prevention of dental caries
C. Use of artificial saliva
D. Use of fluoride trays
E. All of the above
187 . Components of Ramsay Hunt syndrome does not

include:
A . Vertigo
B. Facial palsy
C. Facial sweating
D . Vesicles of the ipsilateral external ear
E. Deafness
188. Pain associated with pulpitis has the following

characteristics except:
A . Spontaneous in nature
B. Increases with pressure
C. Outlasts the insulting agent
D . Very well localized
,.
...... .
" 11 11 I b i ll I t I Tt •
36 MCQs in Oral Me�n-cine and Oral Radiology
189. features of Hutchinson's triad does not include:

A. Dental abnormalities B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Deafness D . Corneal ulCer
. 1 90. Intraoral recurrent herpes infection normally occurs:

A. In persons who have no antibody protection
B. In the non-keratinized mucosa
C. In the keratinized mucosa
D. As large ulcers in the buccal mucosa
191. Which of the following lesions are considered as

predictors for AIDS development in HIV positive
patients:
A. Kaposi's sarcomas and lymphomas
B. Oral candidiasis
C. ANUG
D. Hairy leukoplakia
E. All of the above
192. Which of the following is true regarding syphilis:

A. Tertiary stage is not contagious at all
B. Oral lesions occurs -in less than 'one percent of cases
C. Atrophic glossitis represents the primary stage of the
disease
D . Dentists can be infected accidentally through contami
nated saliva
193. following are the features of bullous pemphigoid

except:
A . Is c;l mucocutaneous disease
B. Shows oral invol�em�nt in more than 60% . of patients
C. Patients have skin .involvement prior to mucosal
involvement .;. .
D. Is usually qssociated with pruritis
I .,
194. A reasonabl � treabri�nt plan is based on:

A. Correct interpretation of the observed signs only
B. . Adequate clinical judgment
C. An accutate diagnosis
D. Health status of the patient . ,'
Oral Medicine 37
195 . Following features are. all true regarding pemphigus

except:
A. Is an autoimmune disease
B. BuUa may not be visible in the oral . cavity
C. If not treated, may be fatal
D . Characterized by subepithelial bulla
19 6 . Malignancy that develop in submucous fibrosis is:

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
191 . A patient complains of fever, swelling and asymmetry

of the left side of the face. 0 / E swelling extend to
the inner canthus of the eye obliterating the nasolabial
fold. The swelling is fluctuant. The most probable
cause could be periapical infection of:
A. Left maxillary central incisor
B. Left maxillary lateral incisor
C. Left maxillary canine
D. Left maxillary premolar
E. Right maxillary central incisor
198. Acute bacterial sialadenitis is not associated with:
A. Tenderness and swelling of the affected gland
B . Pus extruding from the salivary gland duct
C. Leucopenia
D . Cervical lymph node enlargement
199. The most common white lesion seen in a healthy adult

male is:
A. Ni�otina stomatitis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Linea alba
D . Moniliasis
E. Frictional keratOSIs
"I i!V .• . t.t1' I•
•·r�
' .- - *"
'
..
·
.. 1il1io·'·.... ·�·.-_".....•• • ·....�
. '·4I.. ......��_,"
....,.;
. " ib'dt .
...
. .. .
. ..

> .
"'�,:"" . , - . -..... . ,......' • - -- '
200. Regar d i n g heieditary b e nign intra-epith e l i a l

dyskeratosis, the following statements are true
except:
. A. May cause oral lesions . '
B. May cause blindness

c. Usually appears with in a year after birth
D . Usually dorsum of the tongue is not involved
E. Has a high-risk of malignant transformation
20 1 . The most common oral lesion encountered in HIV

infected patients is:
-.
A. Recurrent herpes infection

B. Candidiasis
C. Recurrent aphthous ulcers
D . Hairy leukoplakia
202. One of the most frequent causes of irritation of . the

denture supporting mucosa in a long-term denture
wearer is:
A. Improper masticatory habits
B. Allergy to denture base material
C. Collection of food debris on the denture surface
D. Infection with Candida albicans
203. Topical steroid is: not a drug of choice in the

management ·of:
A. Minor aphthous ulceration ·
B. Erosive lichen planus
C. Herpetiform ulcers
D. Herpes zoster
E. Mucous membrane .'pemphigoid
204. Differential .diagno�s of indurated ulcers do not
•
I} "
mclude: :
. ' --
:::
.
A. Primary syphilitic ulcers

B. Tuberculous ulcerS
C. Aphthoys ulcers
D. Malignant ulcers
- I'
run ' '. , . ·.III I F I' Ii ' .r tU I �ltl1
Or� r Medicine 39
... -., I.. ..... .�*. •"' ....-.. . . -- .. . '-.-�<
. .•
Ill. , 1 .. i s'
205 . Purpura can be seen in:
A. Von Willebrand's disease
B. Patients on corticosteroid treatment
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
206. Which of the following is not a recurrent aphthous

stomatitis:
A. Major aphthous ulcer
B. Minor aphthous ulcer
C. Herpetic ulcer
D . Herpetiform ulcer
207 . The gastrointestinal diseases that can cause oral

ulcerations do not include:
A. Celiac disease
B. Crohn's disease
C . Ulcerative colitis
D . Peptic ulcer
208. Herpes simplex. yirus can cause the following lesions

except: .
A. P rimary herpetic girigivostomatitis
B. Secondary herpes simplex infection
C . Chronic herpes simplex infecti9n
D . Herpetiform ulcers
209. Characteristic features of pain associated with pulp

disease are the following except:
A. Is very well localized
B. Is very severe
C . Outlast the irritation
D . Disturbs sleep at night
1 .1
210. Characteristic feature of herpes z6ster is f

A . Usually unilateral in nature
B. Always bilateral in nature
"
C . Usually unilateral and in 25%of cases bilateral

D . Has no definite patt(2rn
2 1 1 . Presence of snail-track ulcers is characteristic of:

A. Congenital syphilis
B. Primary stage of syphilis
C. Secondary stage of syphilis
D. Tertiary stage of syphilis
2 1 2. Which of the following statements is false regarding

cherubism:
A. Is inherited as a simple dominant
B. Presents with bilateral symmetrical swellings of the jaws
C. May regress after puberty
D . Is histologically distinguishable from giant cell granuloma
E. Resembles multilocular cysts in radiographs
2 1 3 . Conditions/lesions which are more common in
children do not include:
A. African Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Cherubism
C. Hand-foot-mouth disease
D. Multiple myeloma
�-
2 14. X- linked diseases do not include:

A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. � Chronic granulomatous disease
D. von Willebrand's disease
215. Untreated Ludwig ' s angina can h ave serious

complications because:
A. It is difficult to control resulting in wide spread infection
B. The cellulites may involve the facial spaces of the neck
leading to suffocation and death �
' C. The microorganism present in the cellulites is not very . .

responsive to antibiotic therapy . � :!!
D. This condition is very disfiguring
2 16. Human papilloma virus is a:

A. DNA virus B. RNA virus
C. Retrovirus D. Coxsackie virus
.-
Oral. M edicine 41
.�'''' '' PI
217. Human papilloma virus can cause the following

except:
. A� Squamous cell papilloma
B. Condyloma accuminatum
C. Verruca vulgaris
D. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
E Condyloma latum
218. The common sites for metastasis to occur in the jaw

is the:
A. Angle of the mandible
B. Angle and body of the mandible
C. Anterior region of the mandible
D . Maxillary posterior region
E. Maxillary anterior and posterior region
2 19. Clinically tapering incisors do not occur in:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Rickets
C. Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
. D. Supernumeraty teeth
220. Conditions which can impair tooth eruption do not
include:
A. Acromegaly
B. Cleidocranial dysplasia
C. Child hood radiotherapy
D . Congenital hypothyroidism
221. Delayed eruption of teeth is not associated with:

A. Rickets
B. Cherubism
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D . Cretinism
E Dentigerous cyst
222. Features of amelogenesis imperfecta do not.. include:

A . Hypocalcified enamel
B. Scanty, irregular but well calcified, enamel
C. Different effect in male and female siblings
D . Rampant caries and condylar hypoplasia
223. Identify the true statement. Osteogenesis imperfecfa:

A. Is an X-linked disorder of bones that develops in cases
where the development of the skull vault is normal
B. Manifests with blue sclera which is pathognomonic of
the disease
C. May be associated with deafness
D . Has association with amelogenesis imperfecta.
224. Which of the following is false regarding vitamin 0:

'c" ' h '·" ;�-�A��Defia�h�1i'rC.ril<:If'err-�,�rrickT�� : "l'\>"!","i"",*"", ..,;.,,,;'4�,
B. Is metabolized in the liver to the active 1,25- dihyroxy
cholecalciferol (1 ,25-DHCC)
C. Levels are low in green vegetables
D . Resistance is found in renal rickets because the kidney
fails to metabolize it to 1 ,25- DHCC
225. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is:

A. Caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type I or type II
B. Followed by herpes labialis in 30% of cases
C. Increasingly common in children
D . Characterized by balloonlng degeneration of epithelial
cells and giant cells
E. All of the above
226. Which of the following is false regarding hemophilia

A:
A. Is about 1 0 times as common as hemophilia B or ':
Christmas disease
B. A and B are X- linked with recessive traits
C. Is found only where there is positive family history
p. Results in prolonged coagulation time
227. 'Identify the false statement. In children with leukemia: .'

A . 5 years survival with treatment is now over 70% ' :;'�
B. Gingival bleeding is common "
C. Platelet infusions should not be given before dental .
surgical procedures
D. Infections with herpes virus is common
E. Cytotoxic agents may produce oral ulcerations
0 - lt;.
. . ..y - ,WI Irs' ' 'III ' .aldU .WIi f •• ' ''' o tt · •. 11 .0 '1 , iiS
Oral Medicine 43
I! 441 g _ JIt n.f liu... ,. _,
228. Which of the following is incorrect regarding acute

leukemia in children:
A. Characteristically causes gross gingival swelling
B. May be manifested by mucosal pallor
C. Can cause obvious purpura
D . Is usually lymphoblastic
229. Identify the incorrect statement. C l eft of the

secondary palate:
A. May bEtaSsoti�t� 'With ' n�art-{defects*""�
B. Often causes defective speech
C. Can be associated with cleft lip
D. Are common in males
E. Can involve both hard and soft palate
230. Which of the following herpes viruses can cause oral

ulcerations:
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. All of the above
231. Which of the following viruses can cause herpetic
whitlow:
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Coxsackie' s virus
D. HIV virus
E. ; Varicella zoster vi�s
232. Cnaracteristics of odontogenic cyst do not include:

.; A:�: Mean age of discovery is 30 years
- B; Mandible favored
C:. Majority found in 3rd molar ramus region
D. Often associated with impacted tooth
E. Typically symptomatic
t:r . ', ,'} .... . ..
.· ;��_t...
" ,j••,......
_ J_ n ' .� ...
·. .
. . ' . 1. , ","
-, ···- ",se; 4 )..... � �. _- _ ' •• :
. ,::w
l___
233. An immediate life-threatening lesion associated with

basal cell nevus syndrome is:
A . Basal cell carcinoma
B. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Calcified falx cerebri
E Bifid rib
234. Lesions, less likely to cause tooth resorption is:

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Ossifying fibroma
C. Cherubism
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
E. Central giant cell granuloma
235. Which of the following is characteristic of adeno
.
matoid odontogenic tuinor:
A. Typical age of occurrence is 50 years
B. 75% of tumors located in posterior mandible
C. 75% of tumors associated with unerupted tooth
D . All the above
236. A swelling or growth with a narrow stalk is referred

to as a:
A. Papillomatous lesion B. Pleomorphic lesion
C. Pedunculated lesion D. Sessile lesion
-
237. Normal blood pressure for a 30 years old man is:

A . 80/40 mm Hg B. 130/80 mm Hg
C� 150/100 rpm Hg D: 180/100 mm Hg
238. Normal hem()globin level in an adult male is:
A. 4.5 to 6:grn/dl B. 8 to10 gm/dl
C. )4 to : 1 $ gm/dl D. 25 to 32 gm/dl
.� -:
239. Drugs which should be avoided in pregnancy do not

include:
A. Aspirin
.
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
J••••• •'. ,a. • t r ]1 . I_Ii"?:,., til .• It - Jill ...
Oral Medicine 45
C. Tetracycline
D. Metronidazole
E. Penicillin
240. Which of the fol1owing is false regarding trigeminal
neuralgia:
A. Affects elderly patients
B. Can spread to the opposite side
C . Responds to anticonvulsants better than analgesics
D . Can be precipitated by mastication
241. Identify the false statement. Congenital syphilis:

A. Is due to infection in utero in the ,1st half of the
pregnancy
B. Is due to infection in utero in the 2nd half of pregnancy
C . Leads to destruction of the nasal bridge
D. May produce blindness and deafness
242 . Regarding herpes simplex virus which of the following

is false:
A. Can cause painful whitlows
B. Can cause serious eye infections
C . Infections can be fatal in immunocompromised patients
i>. Is a common cause of sexually transmitted disease
-E. Is transmitted through contaminated water
243 . I n case of pulpitis of a deciduous molar in a child

wi�h congenital heart disease which of the following
. .
is false:
.; 1\: Subsequent inter-radicular periodontitis can damage
" the successor
B. Extraction is usually the most appropriate treatment
C. Pulpotomy is justified
D . Antibiotics should be given
244. Dehiyeoeruption of at least part of the dentition is

not a recognized featUre of:
A. Cherub ism
B. Cleidocranial dysplasia
C. Conge�ital hyPerthyroidism
'.
D. Anhydrotic ectodennal dysplasia
245. Important causes of hypodontia do not include:

A. Cleft palate
B. Down's syndrome
C. Epidennolysis bullosa
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia
E Anhydrotic ectodennal dysplasia
246. Chromosomal abnonnalities are seen in the following

except:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Hemophilia A
C. Most cases of chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Eagle's syndrome
247. Which of the following is true regarding Barr bodies:

A. Is a female sex chromatin
B. Is a male sex chromatin
C . Is a residue of a degenerating cells
D. Is an ind�cator of neoplastic cells
248. Typical features of Downs syndrome do not include:

-
A. Multiple immunodeficiencies
B. Severe Caries but minimal periodontal disease
C. Susceptibility to infections
D . Multiple miSsing teeth and malocclusions
E Uable t� be hepatitis carriers in institutionalized patients'
2 49. Cell� sim�lai::to Reed-Sternberg cells may be seen in

the followi nS conditions except:
A. Infecti0us mononucleosis
B. Burkitt's :lymphoma
"'C :� ' Chronic lymphocYtic leukemia � '
D: Myxoma
·- --.........--.��,--....
---.-
.. _ns:
_ .- ', l1li
• •. ",,
:
.
t_ ...
_
• l1li
.'-1
.
'_
-IIIiIi!i
' .• ..
..
· 1111
•..
" " ,.
II
.
,,
_-'Si
_ ,.,.
n.. '....
"_ .
...
. "'!;
P"....
)..
...
IIIIk
...
..
..·'_
_
. r'
Oral Medicine 47
250. The treatment of xerostomia do not include:

A. Chlorhexidine mouthwash
B. Antisialagogue
C. Sodium fluoride· gel
D. Artificial saliva
251. The cause of halitosis do not include:

A� Hairy or coated tongue B. Cirrhosis of the liver
C. Diabetes D. Geographic tongue
252. Clinical examination of a patient with a history of

pipe smoking revealed multiple white nodular
elevations with central redness. The most probable
diagnosis is:
A . Nicotine stomatitis
B. Focal keratosis
C. Papillary hyperplasia
D . Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
253 . Which of the following is true regarding syphilis:

A . T he spirochetes disseminate rapidly through the body
within 24 hours after contact
B. Only lesions of the primary stages are contagious
C . Oral lesions occur in less than 1 % of the cases
D . Atrophic glossitis represents the primary stage of the
syphilis
254. An ulcer of the tongue of three weeks duration should

be:
A. Biopsied
. B. Watched to monitor progress
C. Treated with antibiotics
D. Treated with chlorhexidine mouthwash
255. Metastasis to the jaw commonly occurs from the

following except:
A . . Breast - . ",'� B. Lung
C. Prostrate D . Pancreas
256 . . Regarding recurrent herpes labialis, identify the true

statement. It:
A. Is a droplet infection with herpes simplex virus
B. Causes rise in temperature
C. Is a reactivation of the latent virus
257. The most common type of oral sarcoma in an adult

is:
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Liposarcoma
258. Chronic irritation or trauma of the gingiva do not

cause:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
C. Central giant cell granuloma
D. Frictional keratosis
259. Ocular lesions are not seen in the following except:

A. Albright's syndrome
B. Grin's pan syndrome
C. Sweet's syndrome
D . Rieger's syndrome
260. Clinically, which one of the following lesions appears

as blood filled bulla:
A. Recurrent intraoral herpes
B. Herpes labialis
D. Impetigo
E Pemphigoid
261. B i l ateral parotid gland enl arge ment is seen

predominantly in children with:
A. HIV B. · Herpes simplex
C. EB virus D. HHV 8
E HHV 6
__A
_ ·..
.•-_.
..
... 1
....
'.
. ....
,""'---,
....
-'''''
-..' . ""
... """'
.....
.
. . ..
..·'.
..
.1...
.;
'....
•.
nt •_....
• iI
.
. . ...
,
. J
· w,
··.
'...
· ......
IIIIiII....
II.....
... ..
.
......
. _ "'
. ""
..
_ r._1l �" ""_�� . ....
_ _
, __
1IIt
. Oral Medicine 49
. 262. Which of the following statements is false regarding

mucous membrane pemphigoid:
A. Is an autoimmune disease .
B. Occurs mainly in the oral cavity
C. Occurs mainly in the skin
D . Is characterized histologically by sub-epithelial bulla
E. Is treated by steroids
263. One of the common developmental lesions seen in

the tongue of an adult is:
A. Median rhomboid glossitis
B. Fissured and geographic tongue
C. White hairy tongue
D. Black hairy tongue
264. Nikolski sign may be seen in:

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Darier disease
D . Psoriasis
265. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in

pregnancy:
A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine
C. Co-trimoxazole D. Corticosteroids
E. Barbiturates
E All of the above
266. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible in a

child is likely to be:
. A. Acromegaly B. Paget's disease
C. Cherubism D. 'Primordial cysts
E. Multiple dental cysts
267. Metastasis commonly do not occur in:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. . Basal cell carcinoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Malignant melanomas
E. Primary intra-bony carcinoma
268. The most common cause of oral and perioral pain is:
A. TMJ dysfunction syndrome
B. Neuralgias affecting the region
C. Caries and periodontal disease
D. Migraine
269. Supernumerary teeth are commonly:

A. Associated with hypodontia
B. Associated with cleft palate
C. Seen in about 0.05% of the population
D. Seen preceding the deciduous dentition
270. A tooth is said to be transpositioned. when it is:
A. Surgically repositioned
B. An inverted supemumerary
C. Bearing teratoma
D. Erupted in an exchanged position
E. Rotated through more than 90%
27 1 . An incisor is said to be dilacerated when it:

A. Has a small crown
B. Is misplaced and unerupted
C. Has a small root
D. Has a sharply bent root
272. Which of the following statements is true? Chronic

overdosage of fluoride from drinking water with high
natural level of fluoride:
A. Is most reliably indicated by mottling oithe permanent
teeth
B. Does not cause mottling of the deciduous teeth
C. Leads to increased radiodensity of the skeleton
D. Can lead to paraplegia
E. All of the above
Oral Medicine 51
273 . Which of the=lollowing statement is false regarding · �·,--. .' ,

dental fluorosis:
A. Can res1.}.lt from use of fluoride tablets
B. Is associated with increased resistance to caries
C. In severe pitting form, increases resistance to caries
D. In severe pitting form, decreases resistance to caries .
274. I dentify the incorrect statement. Tetracycline

pigmentation of permanent teeth:
A. Causes brownish gray discoloration
B. Develops between birth and 8 years
C. Can be bleached out
D. Is associated with staining of bone
E. Can be recognized by yellow fluorescence under UV
light
275. Hairy tongue is due to:

A. Enlargement of . the fungiform papillae
B. Proliferation of filiform papillae
C. Atrophy of the epithelium surrounding the papillae
D . Decreased keratin desquamation
276. Geographic tongue appears as:

A. Irregularly outlined area of hyperkeratosis on the dorsal
surface of the tongue
B. Multiple areas . of irregularly outlined depapillation of
filiform papillcre
C . Irregularly outlined erythematous areas of hypertrophic
fungiform papillae
D . Multiple areas of membranous patches on the dorsum
of the tongue
277 . Median Fhombo\d glossitis is an area typically

: 1 .; '
demonstrating: :: ,:
A . Atrophic filiform papillae of the tongue
B. Atrophic fungiform papillae of the tongue
C. InflqrnmatiOn ofthe tongue
D . Failure of tuberculum impar to :oblite rate during
development /chronic candidiasis '
.
".,
_ ...
..
-....
.....
"'
.. ,
. ..
_ ---....
.
_' - �, .....- ....,
'
52 MCQs i n Oral Medicin� a nd Oral Radiology
278. Hutchinson's triad consists of:

A. Chancre, mucous patches and gumma
'
B. Chancre, paresis , tabes dorsalis . _...._
...,. .....",. " "
C. Rhagades, screw-driver incisors, mulberry molars
D . Hypoplasia of incisor and first molar teeth, interstitial
keratitis and deafness
279. Which of the following statement is false regarding

carcinoma in situ:
A. Is a form of severe dysplasia
B. Is characterized by only few epithelial cells that invade
into the connective tissue
C. Clinically appears as a leukoplakia or erythroplakia
D. Is usually treated by surgical excision
280. Chronic atrophic candidiasis is treated mainly by:

A. Topical antifungal agents
B. A combination of topical antifungal and topical steroid
C. A combination of topical antifungal and systemic
antifungal
: D. Systemic antifungal and 'systemic steroid
2 8 1 . The technique of clinical examination is based on:

A. Inspection
B. Recording the patient's .history and visual assessment
C. Inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation
D . AU of the above
2 82. Which of the following statements is false? Pain in

trigeminal neuralgia is: .
A. Indistinguishable from' po�therpetic neuralgia
B. Indistinguishable fro� pain in young multiple sclerosis
patients . '
C . Lightening-like .stabs of :P.ain of short duration

D . Shock-like pain of long duration
283. Which one of the foll �wing features is seen in

congenital syphilis:
A. Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry ,molars :
B. Saddle nose
• • L,:
.... , .
Oral Medicine 53
c. Interstitialkeratitis
D . Deafness
E All of the above
284. Tuberculosis is a disease which affects:

A. The young adult
B. Infants only
C . Only the old individuals
D . Any age group
285. Which of the following is false regarding herpes

simplex:
A. Is a DNA virus
B. Is responsible for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis and
cold sore
C. Causes verruca vulgaris
D . Can cause herpetic whitlow
286. Cherubism is inherited as:

A. An autosomal dominant
B. An autosomal recessive
C. X-linked
D . A congenital anomaly
287 . Which of the following statements is true regarding

cherubism:
A. Inherited as X-linked
B. Histologically i nd istinguishable fro m giant cell
granuloma
C. Congenital in n,ature
D . Radiographically appears as unilocular lesion
288. Which of the �fol;lowing lesions iS ' more common in

children than :inadults:
6
A. Fibr us dysp ffu;ia
B. Cherub ism
C . Dental cyst
D . Dentigerous cyst
. .
.." ,.
...,.� .• _
I\'!I .. ..
.... .""
I ,l
. · ....
_ __
�....
•
QF . rlili
.• i_ .. . .
r.. .'
i_ ,i 111 ...
!1... .. "'·. -
.... '-_....""' .' -
_.
.. . - _: ., -� _
....,
_
.
�:
....
.... . . 1
.. ... .1__...
. ... .....
... ,• ..
54 MCQs in Oral Medicine �ind Oral Radiology
____ 289.-Wbich of the following,lesions is common in children: " .. ,'

A. Malignant osteopetrosis
, " � �,., ._,,,.,. ,. , B. Pagefs disease ,
C. Acromegaly
D. Pindborg tUmor
290. Which of the following lesions is not common in

adults:
A. Dentigerous cyst B. Dental cyst
C. Keratocyst D. Eruption cyst ..
29 1 . The following conditions are common in children

except:
B. Leukemia
C. Hand-foot-mouth disease
D. Pigmented neuroectodermal tumor
E. Herpes zoster
292. The following conditions are aU X-linked except:
.�. Hereditary anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Haemophilia A
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
293. The following conditions have an autosomal dominant

trait except:
A. Achondroplasia
B. Von Willie Brand's diseaSe
C. Hemophilia A
D. Thalassemia
294. Identify the false statement. ,Osteogenesis imperfecta:

A. Has an autosomal domin t trait �h
:;:
B. Can cause deafn�
C. Is associated with amelbg(mesis imperfecta
I). . ls associated,with dentenogenesis imperfecta
E. Have fragile bone
Oral Medicine 55
. --
' - 295 . · · 0ri.I'and perioral manifestation of leukemia include:
A. Lymph node enlargement
B. Bleeding from the gums
C. Funga1/viral infections
.,....._. . ..
--.
. ... D�' 'Gingival swelling '.·..

�w "
E. All of the above
296. In Sjogrens syndrome, serologic finding include:

A. Positive rheumatoid arthritis factor
B. Antinuclear antibodies
C. SS-A antibodies
D. SS-B antibodies
. E. All of the above
297. Identify the false statement. Pain in trigeminal

neuralgia:
A. Is associated with flushing and nasal congestion of the
affected side
B. Is precipitated by mUd stimulation of trigger zones
C. Has a short duration
D . Is usually bilateral in nature
E. Usually occurs i n elderly females
298. Melanin is produced by:

A. Melanoblast B. Melanocytes
C. Keratinocytes D. Melanosomes
299. The process of melanin pigment production is

. not '
affected by:
A. Sunlight
B. Hormone
C. Genetic predisposipon
D. Gender
300. The phagocytic cells are:

A. Plasma cells
B. T-lymphocytes . .: .... .
C. Macrophages and platelets
, ,'
D . Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and macrophages
E. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and platelets
30 1 . Components of Reye's syndrome do not include:

A. Fatty degeneration in liver
B. Cerebral edema
C. Retinopathy
D. Encephalopathy
302. Contra indications for the use of aspirin do not

include:
A. Asthma patients
B. P regnancy
C. Liver disease
D. Renal disease
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
303. Alkaline phosphatase is derived from the following
organs except:
A. Lungs B. Intestine
C. Bone D. liver
. 304. Components of Grin's pan syndrome do not include:

A. Lichen planus
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hypertension
D. Skeletal abnormality
305. Which of the following is a false statement regarding

fixation of incisional hiopsied tissue:
A. Is done in 10% formalin
B. Normally requires 24-48 hrs
C. Is done to stop cellular metabolism and to prevent
_
autolysis and putrefaction

D. Normally requires 12-24 hrs
306. Which of the following statements is false:

A. Hematoxylin stains nuclei pink
B. Eosin stains cytoplasm pink
C. PAS (periodic acid schiff) stains glycoproteins
D. Perls' stain stains iron
Oral Medicine 57
307. Macroglossia is not seen in:

A. Lymphangioma B. Cretinism
C. Myxoma D. Amyloidosis
E. Acromegaly ___...\--:-"
... . �"' .. , " 0'" i •• ...' .......... - ." ....�,..�-�- . ... ...."'�, . -�,.;-.•�
"'
" "". .
l
, .I�
� , _
''
)."'
_"""" "
308. The following conditions can produce osteoporosis
except:
A. Ageing
B. Nutritional deficiency
C. Hormonal imbalance
D . Paget's disease
E. Cortisone therapy
309. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level can

be seen in:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
3 10. Hypercalcemia is the keystone in the diagnosis of:
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism '
E. Diabetes mellitus
3 1 1 . Clinical features of diabetes mellitus do not include:

A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Low resistance to infection
C. Xerostomia
D. Polyphagia
E. Hypertension
312. Clinical signs of mid face fracture do not include:
A. Diplopia
B. ' Anterior open bite
C. Sublingual hematoma
D . Epitaxis
E. Periorbital edema
3 13. I�ossible sequelae of odontogenic inf�c�!ln inc,ludes: ,

A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
--'_'_'00- ",: _. _� � .
B. Cellulites �' " """" ""
" ..
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Septicemia
\
E. All of the above \
3 14. Hot or cold substances coming into contact with the

tooth do not normally cause pain. If painful , it
indicates:
A. Apical periodontitis
B. Acute pulpitis
C. Periapical granuloma
315. C�ndida albicans is a strongly gram:

A. Positive fungi
B. Negative fungi
C. Positive bacteria
D. Negative bacteria
316. Alkaline phosphatase is secreted by:

A. Osteoclasts
, B. Osteoblasts
C . Odontoblasts
D. Odontoclasts
317. Alkaline phosphatase is increased in the following

except:
A. Bone foiming tumors '
B. Destructive lesions of the bone
C. Growing children
D. Pregnancy
318. Identify the false statement. Basal cell nevus

syndrome:
A. Is a hereditary condition '
U. ' Is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait
, C. Is transmitted as X-linked
D. Is associated with calcification of falx cerebri
. . . •• ,d" pi" 'ftc '1 it
Oral Medicine 59
- 3 19:- ldentify the"false statement �garding pulp polyp:

A. May bleed easily
B. Is tender on palpation
C. Is associated with vital tooth
D. Is firm in consistency
320. Clinical features of basal cell nevus syndrome do not

include:
A. Multiple squamous cell carcinomas
B. Dermal calcinosis
C. Palmar-plantar pits
D. Spina bifida
321. Features of basal cell nevus syndrome do not include:

A. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts
B. Epidennoid cysts
C. Bifid ribs
D. Multiple radicular cysts
322. What is the one Scientifically proven mechanism of

sprea4 of Hepatitis C :
A . Viral particles spread through coughing
B. Indirect skin contact, such as sitting on a public toilet
seat
C. Parenteral spread, e .g. from IVDA or needle sticks
D. Eating infected shellfish
323. Salivuy duct injury can cause: -

A. Mucocele
B. Ranulas
C. Sialocele
D. . All of the above
324. Which of the following is true ��garding plunging

_
ranula? It is seen: : :; .: .
A. Between the omohyoid and stylohyoid muscles

B. Above the mylohyoid muscle
C. Below the mylohyoid)n the sub mental triangle
D. Below the mylohYOId in the posterior triangle
60 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral . Radiology
325. A lesion that demonstrates "emptylits" on palpation

is most likely:·: �... .
.. .
_ _ � ._¥.Ml,!c.9E.sJet�mic?J:l cyst _ _. . . __
. .. _
.__-
B. Hemangioma
C. Hematoma
D. Lymphangioma
326. I dentification of Reed-Sternberg cell assists i n

diagnosing:
A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. All of the above
327. Intrinsic discoloration of the teeth is caused by the

following except:
A. Endemic fluorosis
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
D . Dentine dysplasia <
- 328. Which of the lollowing is a malignant �or:

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenolymphoma
C. Lymphangioma
D. Multiple myeloma
329. Which of the following is a malignant tUmor:

A. Chondroma
B. Melanoma
C. Squamous cell papilloma
D. OncocYtoma
330. Which of the following is a false �ate �e�t? Angular

chelitis is a: /:
.>
A. Bacterial infection
B. Fungal infection .
C. Combination of bacterial and fungal infection
D. Result of decreased vertical diinension
E. Result of increased vertical dimension
Oral Medicine 61
3 3 1 . Which of the following is a trU'e statement? Fibrous

......-. bands iii oral submucous fibrosis is:
-
.....�__ A._Vertical in nature .
__ "".._ . ...
B. Horizontal in nature
C. Oblique in nature
D. Any of the above
332. Antioxidants do not include:

A. Betacarotene
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
333. Carcinoma of the oral cavity does not appear as:

A. A solitary chronic ulcer
B. A red or white lesions
C. An indurated lump
D. A fissured ulcer
E. An undermined ulcer
334. Main cells which comprise the pyogenic granuloma
are :
A. Lymphocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Proliferating endothelial cells
D. Neutrophils
E. All of the above
335. The presence of epithelium within'a lymph node could

be:
A. A part of the developmental abno�ality
B. Epithelium may have spread in the form of metastatic
tumor ::
C . Epithelium may have spread iT;'l:: the form of deep
.
infection
D. Epithelium may have spread i� the form of metastatic
tumor and deep infection
E. A part of the developmkntal abnormality lor epithelium
may have spread in the form of metastatic tumor
· . .�,..
�...,�",:I!�";- 336. The mode of spread in a case of �al malignancy

includes:
,",� . ."",...".�.� ........ .._ ":"'
."" A. .D.ir_eg...Spread .. ........,..�.v....
� _ : .... ' -"" "':��""_"" . '"
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Lymphatic spread
D. Perineural invasion
E. All of the above
337. The targets of human immunodeficiency virus include

A. T4 helper Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Erythrocytes
D. Monocytes
338. When interferon is administered to HCV patients, the

complications include the follOwing except:
A. Xerostomia
B. Sialorrhea
C. Metallic taste
D. Myelodepre�sion
339. Normal CD4 CQUDt is:

A. 600 cells Imm3
B. > 1500 I mm3
C. < 250 I mm3
D. < 100 I -mm3
340. Hutchinson's triad does not include:

A. Interstitial keratitis
•
"
B. Eighth nerve involvement .. , �
C. Deformed central incisors & mulberry molare

D. Interstitial glossitis ,;
:;
341. The following are the drugs of choic� for the .

treatment of oral candidiasis exc�pt: . ..: :
A. Nystatin suspension
B. Clotrimazole .
C. Fluconazole
D. Metronidazole
"-- - . ,_. Olt . 111 1.. .
Oral Medicine 63
342. Drugs which can cause neutropenia do not include:

A. Cyclophosphamide B. . Azidothymidine (AZT)
C. Phenothiazines D. Phenytoin
E Penicillins
343. Major causes of eosinophilia are the following

except:
;: A. Parasitic infections
B. Allergic diseases
C. Skin diseases
::.
D. Chromic myelogenous leukemia
E Acute leukemia
344. Thrombocytopenia can occur as a result of the

following except:
A. Sulfonamide therapy B. HIV infection
C. HSV infection D. Leukemia
345. Thrombocytopenia can be associated with the

following except:
A. Autoimmune disorders such as systemic lupus erythe-
matosus
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C . Osteoarthritis
D . Chemotherapy
346. Major causes of lymphocytosis includes the following

except:
A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Infective hepatitis
C. Cytomegalovirus infection D . Thyrotoxicosis
E- Hypothyroidism
347 . Epstein-Barr Virus is also associated with all of the

'
•
following except one. Which one is the exception:
A . Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
C . Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D . Aphthous ulcers
E. Some gastric carcinomas
64 MCQs In Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
�, . ' .
_'.� .--. .,.
.-.�e · · " � . --, .
" --�-....-.' .. �.
348. A 41-year-old HIV' ,positive patient arrives to your

practice complaining of bad breath and pain in his
gUms. On oral examination he has localized areas of
. bone loss with associated gingival necrosis, edema
and bleeding. The most likely diagnosis of this
condition is which of the following:
A. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B. Oral hairy leukoplakia
C. Linear gingival erythema
D. Chronic periodontitis
E. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
349. Exfoliative cytology is mainly used in the definitive

diagnosis of:
A. Viral infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Vesiculobullous diseases
D . Oral cancer
350; Immunofluorescent techtiiques are not of great value

. . in the diagnosis of:
A. Pemphigus
C. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D. Dermatitis herptiformis .
351. The dlugs which can affect the taste or smell are the
following except:
A. Metronidazole , B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline .' D . Codeine
:.
E. Aspirin
352. Ghost cell kerati tiriD:Js not a feature of: �
A. Calcifying odotogeni� cyst
B. Odontome
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D . Apical cyst .
Oral Medicine 65
353. Ghost cells are not seen in the following except:

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C. Arneloblastic fibroodontome
D . Fibroma
354. A 32-year-old male patient presents with bilateral

lesions of his tongue. The lesions appear as vertical
white keratotic streaks. that don't rub off. on the
lateral borders of the tongue. What is the most likely
:.
clinical diagnosis:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
. B. Kaposi sarcoma
C . Squamous papilloma
355. A widespread white patch in an infant that is not

scrapable and appears soft and spongy with a velvety
opalescent hue is:
A. Leukoplakia
B. White sponge nevus
C. Lukedema
D. Oral thrush
_
356� Differential diagnosis of painless soft enlargement

of parotid gland include the following except:
A. Sialosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. SjOgren's syndrome
.D . . Benign lymphoepithelial lesion
E. Mumps
357 . ' Multiple. recurrent, scarring, sinuses discharging
'sulphur' granules are associated with:
A. Tuberculous osteomyelitis
B. Syphilitic osteomyelitis
C. Actinomycosis
, D. Streptococcal osteomyelitis
.� . _._ . ." .. , ._,.,,�,�_
.__�__ _
....
_ .,r,�_. .
358. White lesions appear white due to:

A. Hyperp lasia and keratinization
B. Spongiosis
C. Acanthosis
D. Fibrosis
E. Any of the above
359. Denture sore mouth Is:

A. Acute atrophic candidiasis
B. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
C. Acute pseudomembraneous candidiasis
D. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
360. Sialosis is associated with the following except:

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Cirrhosis of the liver
C. Anemia
D. Chronic obesity
E. Alcoholism
361 . Major oral complications In patients with Sjogren's

syndrome does not include:
A. Xerostomia
B. Rampant caries
C. Predisposition to infection
D. Difficulties with eating or swallowing
E. Mucosal atrophy
362. PrimarY SjOgren's syndrome consists of the following
except:
A. Dry mouth
B. Dry eyes
C. Parotid gland enlargement, '
D. Enlargement of the minor I alivary glands �
:
363. Secondary Sjogren's syn.W:�me does �ot include:
' t'
A. Xerostomia
B. Xerothalmia
C. Rheumatoid arthritisisystemic lupus erythematosis
D. Osteoarthritis
Oral Medicine 67
364. The lesion with hight;:'St premalignant potential is:

A. Homogenous Leukoplakia
B. Nodular leukoplakia
C. ErythroplAkia
D. Snuff dipper's lesion
365. Autoimmune diseases associated with secondary

Sjogren's syndrome does not include:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosis
C. Discoid lupus erythematosus
D . Primary biliary cirrhosis
366. Which of the following lesions have a high rate of

conversion to ameloblastoma or malignancy:
A. Radicular cyst
B. Botryoid odontogenic cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Dentigerous cyst
--
367-. Facial paralysis is associated with:

A. Warthin's tumor
B. Malignant pleomorphic ad,?noma
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D . Mumps
368. Causes of severe xerostomia does not include:

A. Atropine administration
C. Irradiation of the facial siructures
D . Excision of the parojid
;
¥land
369. Common cause :of chro�c swellings of the jaw is:
A. Acute alveolat abscess:: .
-
B. Odontogenic cyst
C. Chronic osteomyelitis
D . Chronic alv·eolar abscess
370. Advantage of an incisional parotid gland biopsy over

labial biopsy in Sjogren's syndrome is:
A. Parotid is more yielding
B. Major salivary glands are .affected
.' earlier th.an minor
. '. ,
salivaiy glands
C. Major salivary glands are affected more severely than
minor glands
D. Presence or absence of lymphoma can be confirmed
E. All of the above
37 1 . Regarding odontomes identify the true statement. It

is a:
. A . True neoplasm of odontogenic epithelium
B. True n eoplasm of odontoge n ic epithelium and
mesenchyme
. C. Hamarthomas of odontogenic epithelium
D. Ham arth omas of odontoge nic e p ithelium a n d
mesenchyme
372. Ulcer with undennined margin is usually seen in a:

.
A. Traumatic ulcer B. Syphilitic ulc�r

C Tuberculous ulcer
. D . Malignant ulcer
373. Most characteristic feature of trigeminal neuralgia

is:
A. It responds to ana:tgesics
B. Attacks of pain disappears after extraction of teeth
C. Patients are totally free of pain in between attacks
D. Attacks of pain are associated with blurring of vision
374. Fordyce's granules are:

A. Sebaceous glands B. Minor salivary glands
C. Sweat glands ; D . Deposits of fats
375. All of the following statements are true of anhydrotic

ectodennal dysplasia except:
A. Hypodontia
B. Hypotrichosis
C. Usually a X-linked recessive trait
D. Hypotonia
-�
··· .. __
· I...
....
'...
._ ...
....- ·""
:*o:""
" ·....
" ,
. .. '___.·.
··p__..�.....
..
.. . .....-._��.�
.... .,�.� "".
Oral Medicine 69
. .
376. Causes of delayed erup60n of"teeth does not include:

A. Rickets
B. Myxedema
C. Cleidocranial dysplasia
D. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
377. Local causes for failure of eruption of teeth does not

�
include:
A. Loss of space in the arch & overcrowding
B. Abnormal position of the crypt
C. Presence of supernumerary and supplemental teeth
D . Displacement in an apical cyst
E. Retention of a deciduous predecessor
378. Complications resulting from buried tooth includes
A. Hypercementosis B. Root resorption -
C. Dentigerous cyst D. Dental cyst
379. The patterns of inheritance in hereditary enamel

_: hypoplasia may be:
A. Autosomal dominant
. . B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. All of the above
380. Dentinogenesis impedecta is transmitted as:

A. Autosomal dominant tr'ait
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked recessive
D. X-linked dominant
381 . Clinical and radiograpbic, features of dentin,ogenesis

imperfecta does Rot
. include:
.
I�
A. Obliteration of pulp chamber
B. Normal roots
, C. Normal enamel
D. Bulbous cro�ns
••" . .
' g.. ..'( '.'.-n ' " . . I,
d .n ... I 1 1 .. « a tt 'l I '" G. "iii"
70 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Ora l Radiology
382. Characteristic features of dentinal dysplasia does not

include:
A. Short conical roots
B. Obliterated pulP. chamber
C. Abnormal enamel
D. Malformed dentine
383 . Characteristic features of ghost teeth are the
following except:
A. Malformed and poorly calcified teeth
B. Large pulp chambers
C. Mandibular teeth more affected
D. Maxillary teeth more affected
384. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is characterized by the
.
following except:
A. Hyper mobile joints and hyper extensible skin
B. Early periodontitis and multiple pulp stones
C. Normal dentition
D. Fragile oral mucosa
. -
385. Features of Gardner's syndrome does not include:

A. Multiple osteomas
B. Intestinal polyposis
C. Fibromas of skin
D. Macroglossia
386. Under ultraviolet light, the band of tetracycline stained
bone or tooth substance fluoresces as:
A. Bright orange
B. Bright yellow
C. Dark pink .
D. Dark violet:
381 . White sponge nevus is inherited as:

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
Oral M edicine 71
388. T h e possible complications of chronic api cal

periodontitis does not include the formation of:
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Radicular cyst
C. Suppuration and sinus tract formation
D. Malignancy
389. The causes of eosinophilia does not include:

A. Chronic myelogenic leukemia
B. Radiation therapy
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Anemia
390. Which of the following statements is false regarding

Burkitt's lymphoma:
A. Is linked to Epstein-Barr-virus
B. Is a malignancy of B lymphocytes
C. Is a malignancy of T lymphocytes
D. Paresthesia may be the presenting symptom
39 1 . Acid phosphatase is increased in:

A. Bone forming tumors ·
B. Destructive lesions of the bone
C. Growing children
D. In pregnancy
392. Important c auses of macroglossia i nc l ude the

following except:
A. Congenital hemangioma
B. Down' s syndrome
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Median rhomboid glossitis
E. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
393. The most common oral manifestation seen in AIDS/

HIV is:
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Recurrent herpetic ulcers
D. Linear gingival erythema
E. Oral hairy leukoplakia
-
72 MCQs Tn Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology

� -
3 94. Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by

the following features except:
A. Scanty hair
B. Hypodontia or anodontia
C. Dry skin
D. Blistering and scarring of the epithelial surface
395. The important predisposing or precipitating factors

in erythema multiforme are:
A. Herpes infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Drugs like sulphonamides & barbiturates
396. Identify the false statement. Congenital cardiac

disease:
A. May produce central cyanosis
B. May cause finger clubbing
C. May predispose to infective endocarditis
D . Cardiac surgery does not predispose to infe ctive
endocarditis
397 . The investigations needed to confirm the diagnosis

of pemphigus does not include:
A. Cytological smear
B. BiopsY
C. Direct immunofluorescence
D . Indirect immunofluorescence
E Aspiration
398. Followipg .factors are considered for the burning

mouth
.
syq
.
r;
drome except:
A� Vitamin B deficiency
B. Vitamih A deficiency
C . Anemias
l>. Xerostomia
E Candidal infection
i "P II. • .1 r.t si 71 .r " 1111 n' .1
. .
Oral Medicine 73
""",�'''14T
399. Components of grin's pan syndrome does not include:
A. Hypertension
C. Lichen planus
D . Corneal ulceration
400. Aphthous ulcers may be associated with the following

systemic conditions except:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Folate · or vitamin B12 deficiency
C. HIV infection
D . HSV infection
40 1 . Components of Reiter·s syndrome does not include:

A. Arthritis
B. Myalgia
C. Nongonococcal urethritis
D . Conjunctivitis
E Oral ulcers
402. Lesions associated with the Epstein-Barr virus does

not include:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C. Burkitt's lymphoma
D . Hairy leukoplakia
E. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
403 . Neoplasms that may arise in a dentigerous cyst
A . Ameloblastoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
404. The causes of diffuse swellings of the lips are the

following · except:
A. Lymphangioma B. Hemangioma
C. Angioneurotic edema D. Adenoma
----",
- �_____...
. - ,' . · --<____...
AI
.,..
4I'
...
'_
. ....
....
, _ . �_.
...
_...
. ...
.....
: ....
_ ...
f,�
...
_-.·' .
.,.
: , ....
..(
_ ...
.....
S
- ...
�. ;,.;
_,..·· , ' ,,",
. ...
:
a_JLU
405 . Which 'of the following lesions may not be associated

with infection by human papilloma virus:
A. Squamous cell papilloma
B. Heck's disease (focal epithelial hyperplasia)
C. Verruca vulgaris
D. Some squamous cell and verrucous carcinomas
E. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
406. Systemic conditions that may be associated with

aphthous ulcers are the following except:
A. Inflammatory bowl disease
B. Behcet's disease
C. Reiter's syndrome
D. Reye's syndrome
407. The minimal acceptable platelet count for an oral

surgical procedure is:
A. 50,000 and above B. 25, 000
C. 30 ,000 D. 40,000
408. The symptoms of hypoglycemia does not include:

A. Palpitations & tacchycardia
B. Sweating & hunger
C. Nausea & vomiting
D. Blurring of vision
E. Bradycardia

Albright's- syndrome? It consists of:
A. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
B. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
. C. Sexual precocity
D. Skin pigmentation
410. I dentify.
. .
t h e true statement in the fol l owing.
, '-
Tetracycline:
A. Should pe taken between meals
B. Should .'be taken immediately after food
C. Antacids should be given along with tetracycline
. D. Calcium and iron preparations help to potentiate the
effect of tetracycline
Oral Medicine 75
4 1 1 . w hich of th e fo ll owing s tate m e n ts i s fal s e ?

Tetracycline:
A. Has a bacteriostatic effect
B. Inhibits the protein synthesis at the ribosome
C. Do not cross the placenta
D . Can inhibit fetal protein synthesis
412. Identify the false statement. Hepatitis A is mainly

transmitted by:
A . Fecal-oral route
B. Consumption of contaminated water or food
C . Close person to person contact
D . Needle stick injury
4 1 3 . Which of the following statements is false? An attack

of hepatitis A virus infection:
A. Confers a long lasting immunity
B. Progresses to chronic liver disease
C. Normally no treatment is required
D . Preventive vaccine is available
E. Active immunity can be acquired naturally
4 1 4. Drugs which are contraindicated in liver damage do

. not include:
A . Phenytoin
B. Methyl dopa
C. Erythromycin stearate
D . Erythromycin estolate
4 1 5 . Which oQ.e of the following statements is true

regarding ,incubation period of hepatitis B infection:
A. 2-6 weeks B. 2-10 weeks
C.
- 2-6
. m onths
I .�
D . 6-8 months
:
4 16. Possibl� causes of ieukemia does not include:
A. Chemicals and drugs
B. Ionizing radiation .
C. Genetic predisposition
D . Coxsackie virus infection '
..
4 1 7 . Recurrent aphthous ulcers does not include:

A. Minor aphthous ulcers
B. Major aphthous ulcers
C. Herpetiform ulcers
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
418. Important causes of sialadenosis are the following
except: �.
A. Alcoholism
C. Chronic infection
D. Sympathomimetic drugs
E. Idiopathic
419. Causes for eosinophilia does not include:

A. Parasitic infections B. Allergic diseases
. C. Drug reactions D. Skin diseases
E. Mycotic infections
420. Intrinsic staining of teeth may be due to the following
except: __
A. Tetracycline
B. Minocycline
C� Congenital porphyria
. D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
42 1 . Identify the true statement regarding the following
investigations:
A. EUSA test is for screening of HIV only
B. Western blot is for confirmation of HIV
C. Polym erase chain reaction is for identification of viral -
genome
D. All of the above are true
422. Eagle's syndrome consists of the following except: :;,}
A. Elongation of the styloid process
B. Dysphagia
C. Dysphonia
D. Vague orofacial pain
E. Sore throat
Oral Medicine 77
423. Components of Homer's syndrome does not include:

A. Miosis
B. Ptosis
C. Absence of facial sweating
D . Exophthalmoses
E. Enophthalmoses
424. Major vesiculobullous diseases which mainly affect

the oral cavity are the following except:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
D . Erosive and bullous lichen planus
E. Bullous pemphigoid
425. I n viral hepatitis B infection, following enzymes are

raised except:
A. Aspartate transaminase (AST)
B. Alanine transaminase (ALT)
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D . Acid phosphatase
E. Alpha-fetoprotein
426. Identify the false state�ent. Hepatitis Be antigen

(HbeAg) :
A. Is a soluble protein
B. Is indicative of active disease
C. Is indicative of low infectivity
D . If persists beyond four weeks of the onset of symptoms,
the patient probably will remain infectious and develop
chronic liver disease
427 . Drugs which are relatively safe during pregnancy does

.
; not indi..de: .
A. Paracetamol
B. Carbamazepine
C. Erythromycin
D . Cephalosporins
E. Penicillin
78 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology ·
428. Triggers of autoimmune reactions are:

A. Certain groups of drugs and food substances
B. Infectious agents
.
c . Loss of regulatory cell
.
.
D. Environmental factors
E. All of the above
429. Specific tests for syphilis do not include:

A. Fluorescent treponemal antibody ( absorbed) (FTA-
Abs) test
B. Treponemal hemagglutination (TPHA) test
C. Treponemal immobilization (TPI) test
D. VORL test
430. In Paget"s disease serum levels of the following is

normal except:
A. Calcium B. Phosphorus
C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Acid phosphatase
43 1. Which of the following drugs does not cause

thrombocytopenia: .-
A. Sulphonamide B. Phenylbutazone
C. Indomethacin D . Quinine
E. Ampicillin
432. Drugs which should be avoided in liver diseases does '

not include:
A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C. Tetracycline
D . Ketoconazole
: E. Erythromycin stearate .:
433 . Viral hepatitis which Is relevant to dentistry does not .I�

include: .:-
A. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection
. B. Hepatitis E virus infection
C. Hepatitis D virus (HOV) infection
D. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection
Oral Medi�ine 79
434. Acquired clotting disorders can be the result-of the

following except:
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Anticoagulant drugs
c. Lung disease
D . Liver disease
435 . Hepatitis B can be transmitted through:

A. Blood transfusions
B. Needle sharing
C . Homosexuals with multiple partners and drug abusers
D . Hemodialysis
E. All of the above
436 . The following body fluids of patient's who are infected

with hepatitis B can be infectious except:
A. Tears B. Saliva
C. Semen D. Blood
437. The �urpose of palpation of a lesion is to detect:

A. Pain or tenderness --
B. Consistency of the lesion
C. Feel and measure the pulse
D. All of the above
438. The most common extra-oral cause of halitosis is:
A. Hypertension
B. Chronic sinusitis with postnasal drip
C. Kidney dysfunction
D. Antibiotic therapy
439. Identify the false statement. Von Willebrand's disease

is characterized by: ,;
A. Prolonged bleeding time
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
C. Inheritance as autosomal dominant trait
D. Affliction of males only
E. Affliction of males and females
80 MCQs In Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
'- 440. Clubbing of fingers is not a feature of:

A. Liver diseases including cirrhosis of the liver
B. Lyme disease
C. Congestive heart disease
D. Fallot's tetralogy
44 1 . The following drugs are contraindicated in liver

disease except:
A. Diazepam B. Aspirin
C. Carbamazepine D . Erythromycin stearate
E. Erythromycin estolate
442. The following conditions can cause purpura except:

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
B. Discoid lupus erythematosus
C. HIV infection
D. Acute leukemias
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
443. Hepatitis D virus infection is commonly seen in:

A. Intravenous drug abusers
B. AIDS patients
C. Patients with a history of blood transfusion
�
D. Immune s ppressed patients
E. All of the above
444. Which of the following is deficient in Hemophilia B

(Chrisbnas disease) :
A. Factor X
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor XI
Complications of hepatitis B virus infection does not
include:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Lung cancer
D. Liver cancer
_ "1 ' . , \ ' - . 8.'1" .. "•. (tlI(1 . '1' ....r •. ;. ,
Oral M edicine 81
446. Hepatitis B vaccination confers protection for heaIthy

adults for at least:
A. One year B. Three years
C. Five years D. Ten years
E. Life long
447 . In dentistry, management of patients with liver

diseases are related to:
A. Impaired drug detoxification
B. Bleeding tendencies
C. Transmission of viral hepatitis
D. All of the above
448. Alkaline phosphatase is not found in:

A. Biliary canaliculi
B. Osteoclasts
C. Intestinal mucosa
D. Placenta
E. Osteoblasts
449. Sialorrhea is not a feature of:
A. Foreign bodies in the oral cavity
B. Rabies
C. Clozapine therapy
D. Aphthous ulcers
450. The following drugs should be prescribed in low�r
doses than normal doses in patients with liver disea�e
except:
A. Clindamycin B. Metronidazole
C. Paracetamol D. Desflurane
E. Amoxycillin
.,
45 1 . Side effects of interferon does not include: : 1 ,1
.. ..
.� "
A. Fatigue and malaise

B. Fever and chills
C. Mood elevation
D. WBC and platelet count drop
E. Hair loss
452. Clinical hall mark of alcoholic hepatitis includes the

following except:
A. Fever and abdominal pain
B; Jaundice
C. Nausea and vomiting
D . Leucopenia
453. Which of the following is false regarding hemophilia

A:
A . Is inherited as X-linked recessive trait
B. Affects males
C. Is due to defective factor VIII
D. Has prolonged bleeding time
_
E. Has normal bleeding time
454. Which of the following statements is false in reversible

pulpitis:
A. Pain is of very short duration and do not linger after
the stimulus has been removed
B. Tooth is tender to percussion
C. Pain may be difficult to localize
D . Affected tooth may give an exaggerated response to
vitality test
E. Radiograph have a normal appearance with n o
apparent widening of the periodontal ligament
-
455. Regarding hepatitis A virus infection, identify the true
statement:
A. Mortality rate is extremely high
B. Always progresses to chronic liver disease
C . V�ccine for hepatitis is available
D . Nosocomial hazard is a major health problem
-,
I .f
:;: 456 . Which of these drugs is not contraindicated in liver
diseases:
A. Prednisone B. Prednisolone
C. Diuretics D. Oral contraceptives -
E. Anticoagulants and anticonvulsants
� ... Oral M edicine 83 "
457. Regarding hepatitis G, following factors are all true

except:
A. These patients have concomitant HCV infection
B. More prevalent among intravenous drug abusers
C. Responds well to interferon alpha
D. Clinical features tends to be much more severe than
hepatitis C
458. Identify the false statement. Hemophilia is associated
with:
A. Normal bleeding time
B. Normal prothrombin time
. C. Increased partial thromboplastin time
D. Prolonged clotting time
E Decreased platelet count
459. Syndromes associated with facial paralysis does not

include:
A. Gardner's syndrome
B. Melkerson-Rosenthal syndrome
C. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
D . Heerfordt' s syndrome
460. Heerfordt's syndrome consists of the following

except:
A. Uveitis
B. Facial palsy
C. Submandibular gland swelling
D. Parotid gland swelling
:. 46 1 .. Facial paralysis is not seen in:

A. Lyme disease
B. Bell's palsy
C. Malignant parotid tI.lmor
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. War-thin's tumor
84 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and O ral Radiology
462. Common signs of acute fluoride toxicity include the

following except:
A. Nausea & vomiting
B. Hyposalivation
C. Abdominal pain and diarrhea
D. Hypersalivation
463. Causes of sialorrhea include the following except:
A. Fluoride toxicity
B. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
C. Mercury poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
E. Bismuth poisoning
464. Identify the true statement. In hemophilia:

A. Coagulation time is prolonged
B. Coagulation time is normal
C. Bleeding time is prolonged
D. Both coagulation and bleeding time is prolonged
465. Von Williebrand's disease is characterized by the

following except:
A. Tendency for excessive bleeding
B. Normal platelet count
C. Normal clotting time
D. Normal bleeding time
E. Normal serum fibrinogen and normal prothrombin
time
466. Regarding hepatitis C, identify the false statement:

A. Virus has been found in saliva "
B. Can be transmitted by human �ite
C. Can be transmitted by needle stid{ injuries
D. Preventive vaccine is available . :;':'
467. Cyanosis of the lips is not a connrion finding in:
A. Cardiac congestion B. Congenital heart disease
C. Aplastic anemia D. Polycythemia
!til J� , '" .,.:' . " I ..b"'� iii d_ ril {r"t"
Oral Medicine 85
468. Thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by:

A. Normal bleeding time
-- �_,-, " -." , ,--�,.;.B ,•.l?,rolonged�bleeding time --
..
•
C. Prolonged coagulation time

D. Prolonged bleeding and prolonged coagulation time
469. Potential complications of herpes zoster include the
following except:
A. Postherpetic neuralgia B. Facial paralysis
C. Corneal scarring D. Osteomyelitis
E. Osteosclerosis
470. Prolonged antibiotic therapy can result in:

A. Black hairy tongue
B. White hairy tongue
C. Geographic tongue
D. Yellowish green hairy tongue
47 1 . Early eruption of teeth is associated with:

C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hyperthyroidism
472. Which of the following is true regarding incubation
period of hepatitis A virus infection:
A. 15-50 days
B. 15-70 days
C. 30-40 days
D. 40-90 days
473. Identify the true statement regarding ranula:
A. Is a form of mucocele
B. Can be a result of mucous extravasation
:;::
C. Can occur as a result of mucous retention
D. All of the above
474. Transmission of hepatitis A infection is through:
.
A. Sexual contact B. -Through saliva
C. Fecal oral route D. None of the above
86 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral .Radiology
47 5�" Differential diagnosis of primary herpetic gingivo

stomatitis include the following except:
A. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
. B. Pemphigus
C. Streptococcal pharyngitis-mucositis
D. Herpangina
476. A young male pati�nt complains of a gingival mass in
the mandibular premolar region. On palpation the
mass was soft . to firm in consistency and had a
tendency for bleeding. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
C. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
D. Any of the above
47 7. Components of Frey syndrome does not constitute:

A. Facial gustatory sweating
B. Facial gustatory flushing
C. Facial paralysis
D. Sense of warm or pain on .the. face ·
478. Prognathism is not a feature of:

A. Acromegaly
B. Pituitary gigantism
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Pierre Robin syndrome
479. Retrognathism is seen in the following conditions

except:
A. Ankylosis of TMJ
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Cockayne's syndrome
D. Mandibular hypoplasi� )�
<:-
480. Micrognathia is not a featUre of�
A. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Noonans syndrome
D. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
Oral Medicine 87
48 1 . Rolled out margins are not seen in:

A. Chancre of primary syphilis
B. Tuberculous ulcer
C. Silometaplasia
D. Chronic traumatic ulcer
E. Malignant ulcer
482 . Differential diagnosis of mucus patches does not

include:
A. Diffuse candidiasis B. Lichen planus
C. Erythema multiforme D. Chemical burn
E. White · sponge nevus
. 483. Differential diagnosis of a destructive lesion in the

palate does not include:
A. Midline iethal granuloma (peripheral T cell lymphoma)
B. Mucormycosis
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the palate
E. Actinomycosis
484. Identify the false statement. Black; hairy tongue:
A. Is an infection by chromogenic bacteria
B. Is a primary infection by candida albicans
C. Patient may complain of pain or burning sensation
D. Filiform papillae is elongated
485. Predisposing factors for black hairy tongue include
A. Systemic steroid therapy
B. Overuse of antibacterial mouth washes
C. Systemic antibiotic or antifungal therapy
D. Immunosuppression
E. Phenytoin therapy
486. Predisposing factors for candida infection include the .
following except:
A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperadrenalism
E. Malnutrition/malabsorption
1It_ > f6l", -,
b _ fd . _�
.
487. Local factors which can predispose to oral candi

diasis does not include:
A. Ill-fitting dentures ,, _
B. Reduced vertical dimension
C. Overuse of antibiotic or Ctrl!i?�ptic mouth washes
.
D . Chronic trauma
488. The following conditions can predispose to candi
diasis except:
'
A. Systemic antibiotiZ therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy
C . Hypertension
D. Chemotherapy
E. Diabetes
489. Differential diagnosis of hyperplastic candidiasis
A. Lichen planus B. Verrucous carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Basal cell carcinoma
490 . Treatment of choice for an uncomplica�ed case of

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is th-e following
except:
A. Hydration and proper nutrition
B. Complete bed rest
C . Antipyretics
D . Antibiotics and antipyretics
49 1 . The progression of HIV infection to AIDS is defined
by the CD4 count of:
A. 2 00/mm3 B. 350/mm3
C. 400/mm3 D. 600/mm3
'
492. Nikolsky sign can be eli�ited in the following lesions
except:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Pemphigus vegetans
C . Mucous membrane pemphigoid
D . Epidermolysis bullosa
�-.-.--
Oral Medicine 89
493 . Lipschutz bodies are not seen in:

.

B. Chicken pox .
C. Candidal infection
D. Infectious mononucleosis
494. Factors to be considered while clinically diagnosing
an ulcer are:
A. Site and size B. Shape and duration
C. Single or multiple D. Recurrent or persistent
E. All of the above
" r ""_
495. Oral hairy' leukoplakia is caused by:

A. HIV virus B. Herpes simplex
E. HHV 6
496. Regarding ectodermal dysplasia, the following are all
true except:
A. Hypodontia
B. Hypotrichosis
C. Hypohydrosis
D. More common in women
497. Which of the following clinical signs and symptoms
suggests that the lesion is malignant:
A. Displaced teeth
B. Rapid loosening of teeth
C. Foul smell and ulceration
D. Presence of an indurated and rolled out margin
E. All of the above
498. CUnkal signs of malignancy do not include:

A. Exposure of underlying bone
B. Sensory or motor deficit
C. Lymphadenopathy
D . Weight gain
E. Dysgeusia
·
90 MCQs in Oral4,Medicine and Oral Radiology
499. Which of the following features assists in diagnosing

a lesion clinically:
A. Dysphagia and dysphonia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Lack of normal healing
D. Rapid swelling with no demonstrable cause
E. All of the above
500. Typical signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction
does not include:
A. Severe crushing retrostemal pain
B. Rapid breathing
C. Vom iting
D. Weak or irregular pulse
50 1 . Complications of diabetes include the following

except:
A. Nephropathy B. Neuropathy
C. Retinopathy D. Myopathy
E Hypertension
.-
502. All these factors are associated with transmission of

AIDS/HIV except one. Which is the exception: .
A. IV drug abuse with needle sharing
B. Blood transfusions in early 80s
C. Sexual contact
D. Sharing ·utensils or towels
E. Vertical transmission
503. The molecule needed for HIV viral entry into a T cell
is/are:
A. CD4 molecule B. CCR5
C. CXCR4 D. All of the above
504. Which of the following cells are "gatekeepers" of HIV

infection:
A. CD4 T lymphocytes B. B cells
C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells
E Langerhans cells
Oral Medicine 91
505. Acute phase o! HIV infection is characterized by all

these features except one. Which is the exception :
A. Sore throat B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Myalgia D. Fever
506. Kaposi sarcoma are caused by:
A. HIV virus B. Herpes simplex
E. HHV 6
TRUE OR FALSE
Write True or False to the following statements:
1 . Minor aphthous ulcerations are commonly seen on the
heavily keratinized mucosa. T/F
2 . Recurrent intraoral herpes lesions are usually found on the
less heavily keratinized mucosa. T/F
3 . Chancre is the most common syphilitic lesion seen in the
oral cavity. T/F
4. The typical distribution of discrete small ulcers in the anterior
part of the oral cavity helps in diagnosing herpangina T/F
5 . Leukedema is a common keratotic lesion that can be easily
scraped off. T/F
6 . The treatment of choice for herpetiform ulcers are local
application of steroids. T/F
7 . The treatment of choice for herpes infection is steroids.
T/F
8 . Mucous patches in s0=>hilis are usually painless. T/F
9 . Chancres in syphilis can appear as indurated ulcer. T/F
1 0 . Tuberculo�s ulce!s 91- lesions are usually painless. T/F
1 1 . The most commoryl cause of xerostomia is aplasia of the
gland. . . T/F
1 2 . Salivary calculus is commonly seen in stenson's duct. TIF
1 3 . Fungi are gram negative organisms. T/F
14. The most common siteJor metastasis is the angle and body
of the mandible . T/F
,. -
92 MCQs i n Oral Medicine. and Oral Radiology
1 5 . All metastatic tumors ar�tradiolucent in nature. T/F

16. Metastatic tumors can produce radiolucency as well as radio-
opaque lesions. T/F
. 1 7 . Metastasis from breast, prostate and thyroid can produce
osteoblastic activity. T/F
18. A person with a primary HSV infection can cause primary
infection to a non immune contact. T/F
1 9 . A person with a primary HSV infection can cause primary
infection to an immune contact. T/F
20. A person with a primary HSV infection can cause recurrel1t
herpes in a non-immune person. T/F
21 . A patient with a primary HSV infection can cause recurrent
herpes in an immune patient. T/F
22 . A patient with secondary HSV infection can cause primary
infection in a non-immune person. T/F
23 . A patient with secondary infection can cause recurrent
infection in an immune person. T/F
24. Herpes virus is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesion
or infected saliva. T/F
:
25. Herpes simplex can cause oral ulceration. T/F
26. Varicella zoster virus can cause oral ulceration. T/F
2 7 . Epstein Barr virus can cause oral ulceration. T/F
28 . Cytomegalovirus can cause oral . ulceration. T/F
29 . Treatment of choice in PHGS is systemic use of
corticosteroids. T/F
30 . Treatment of choice in erythema multiforme is either
systemic or local use of corticosteroids T/F
3 1 . Acyclovir is most effect ive ,against herpes �implex
,
virus. .T/F
32 . Acyclovir is most effective a.gainst VZ virus. T/F
�
33 . Acyclovir is most effe<;:tive in i tnunocompromised patients .
.' .:- . T/F
34. Oral ulceration are common features of acute lympho-
nodular pharyngitis. ' T/F
35. Condyloma latum. is a baCterial infection. T/F
'
36. Condyloma latum is seen in the tertiary stage of ,
syphilis. T/F
Oral Medicine 93
3 7 . Snail track ulcers are characteristic features of primary

.
syphilis. T/F
38. Condyloma accuminatum is a viral infection . T/F
39. Condyloma accuminatum is caused by herpes
viruses. T/F
40. Primary and secondary stages of syphilis are
highly infectious. T/F
4 1 . The characteristic features of tertiary stage is
gumma. T/F
42 . Gummas are usually very painful. T/F
43 . Clinically and radiographically syphilitic osteomyelitis can
mimic pyogenic osteomyelitis T/F
44. Interstitial glOSSitis typically occurs in the secondary stage of
syphilis. T/F
45 . Minor aphthous ulcers occur commonly in the gingiva palate
or dorsum of the tongue. T/F
46 . Bullous pemphigoid involves the skin mainly. T/F
47. In bullous pemphigoid, oral lesions are present
relatively in a less percentage of patients than
.-
BMM pemphigoid. . T/F

48 . Bullous pemphigoid heals without scarring. T/F
49 . Benign mucus membrane pemphigoid heal with
scarring. T/F
50. In pemphigus, the' extent of cell separation is directly
proportional to the.: titre of circulating antibodies. T/F
5 1 . Differential diagnosis of facial pain includes psychogenic
pain. ' T/F
5 2 . Spontaneous pain always occurs with provocation . T/F
53 . In induced pain some,'provocative factor can be identified.
T/F
54. Intractable pain si nifies that the sympto�s do not respond
g
to therapy. ; . . :;'/ ..
' T/F
55 . Throbbing pain manifests as a more or less continuous type
of pain. T/F
56. Malignal1t melanoma is a tumor of melanoblasts. T/F
5 7 . Major aphthous ulcers are more painful .than minor ulcers.
T/F
.....•. ,,#Ii. •
94 MCQs in Oral Medicine arid Oral Radiology
58. Ulcers or lesions in herPes zoster are characteristically

unilateral in nature. T/F
59 . Except hairy leukoplakia all leukoplakias ultimately may
develop into malignancy. T/F
60. Enamel hypoplasia is mainly the result of a failure of
ameloblasts to produce a normal volume of enamel matrix.
T/F
- 61 . Germination is the union between the dentine and or the
enamel of two or more separate developing teeth. T/F
62 . Erosion is the loss of tooth substance by friction with a
foreign body. T/F
63 . Odontogenic keratocyst, dentigerous cyst and eruption cysts
are all developing ooontogenic cysts. T/F
64. Developmental, and lateral periodontal cyst is always
associated with a non vital tooth. T/F
65. Gingival fibromatosis is considered as a hereditary condition.
T/F
66 . Major aphthous ulcers are less painful than minor ulcers.
T/F
67. K"eratosis is a term used to describe increased thickness of
keratin layer or abnormal presence of keratin. T/F
68. Tobacco in any form is the most common etiological fador
in patients with leukoplakia. T/F
69. Leukoplakia occurring in a patient without history of
smoking has a particularly . higher risk of malignant
-
transformation. T/F
70. Invasion of the connective tissue with the epithelial cells is
the histological difference between mild and severe epithelial
dysplasia. .1 • T/F
7 1 . Behcet's syndrome is a triad . of recurrent oral and genital
ulcers and xerostomia. . � :; T/F
72. Histologically pemphig1)s vlligan$ shows a characteristic sub
epithelial vesicle or bulla. T/F
73. The parotid salivary gland is the most commonly involved
with salivary calculi <;>r stone; T/F
74. Osteoma is a benigr{ bone tumor. T/F
75. Osteosarcoma is malignant tumor of bone. T/F
Oral Medicine 95
76. Kaposi sarcoma is a malignant tumor of endothelial cells .

T/F
77. Complex odontome consists of a collectio n of enamel
dentine and cementum forming tooth like structure. T/F
78. Histologically herpes labialis, herpes zoster and mucous
membrane pemphigoid all show intra epithelial bullae or
vesicle. T/F
79. Angular cheilitis may be a mixed infection with the candida
albicans and staphylococcus aureus. T/F
80. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia is more common than the
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. T/F
8 1 . The initial lesion in gingivitis is essentially an acute
inflammatory response to plaque accumulation. T/F
82 . White sponge nevus is a mucocutaneous disease of
developmental origin. T/F
83 . The most common cause of xerostomia is salivary calculus.
T/F
84. Anaplastic tumors are highly malignant. T/F
85. Detection of tumor associated proteins can b e of valu� in
early cancer diagnosis. T/F
86. The degree of malignancy and the degree of differentiation
is directly proportional. T/F
8 7 . Well differentiated tumors have a better prognosis than
poorly differentiated tumors. T/F
88. Leukoplakias occurring in smokers and nonsmokers have
an equal chance of malignant change . T/F
89 . All leukoplakic lesions ultimately undergo m alignant
transformation . T/F
90. Site and size of a lesion is a definite indicator of the degree
of dysplasia. , T/F
9 1 . Chronic carriers of hepatitis A virus infection is seen after
an attack of hepatitis A virus infection T/F
92 . Cleft palate is more common in males than in females.
T/F
93 . In Down's syndrome the patient has severe caries. but
minimal periodontal disease. T/F
94 . Barr-bodies are male sex chromatins. T/F
-
95. Treatment of choice for sialorrhea is the use of drugs to

suppress the salivary flow. T/F
96. Gener;:llized lymphadenopathy which is seen in secondary
syphilis is very painful. T/F
97. Basal cells o f the skin are pluripotential i n nature and may
develop in several directions. T/F
98. Lymphangiomas are more common than haemangiomas. ..,
T/F
99 . Most common site for lyphangiomas in the mouth is tongue.
-
.
T/F
1 00. Melanin pigmentation is demonstrated with silver stains.
T/F
1 0 l . Pigment producing cells are melanoblasts. T/F
1 02 . Squamous cell papillomas are caused by human papilloma
virus. T/F
1 03 . Squamous papillomas are considered a s premalignant
lesions. T/F
1 04. Neisseria gonorrhea is gram positive diplococci T/F
1 05. Low density lipoproteins are known as good ·cholesterol. .-
T/F
106. The most effective blood test to screen diabetes mellitus is
fasting blood sugar. T/F
1 07 . The technique of choice for diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion
in the mouth is biopsy. T/F
1 08. The most frequent causes o f intraoral swelling are infections
and tumors. T/F
1 09 . The most appropriate technique for lymph node diagnosis
is bi�psy or needle aspiration. T/F
1 10. C T and MRI are often helpful in evaluating suspected
parotid tumors. T/F
1 1 l . Ghost cell keratinization, is the characteristic microscopic
featUre of calcifying odontogenic cyst. TIf
1 12 . Administration of thyroxine can cause increased uptake of
oxygen in the body. T/F
1 13 ; Thyroid hormone is essential for
A. pifferentiation T/F
B . . Growth T/F
Oral Medicine 97
C. Maturation T/F
D. Water Balance T/F
E. Electrolytic balance T/F
F. Protein storage T/F
G . Carbohydrate metabolism T/F
H. Lipid metabolism T/F
1 14. Colonic polyps have high rate of malignant change . T/F
1 15 . Congenital syphilis or prenatal syphilis can affect the
deciduous as well as permanent tooth. T/F
1 16. Since candida albicans is strongly gram positive , the
treatment of choice is broad-spectrum antibiotics. T/F
1 1 7. Benzyl penicillin is unsuitable for oral administration because
it is destroyed by the gastrointestinal enzyme . T/F
1 1 8. Phenytoin is too irritant for intramuscular injection. T/F
1 19. Cysts are more common in the jaws than in any other bone
because most begin in the numerous rests of odontogenic
epithelium that remains after tooth formation. T/F
120. Tissue curetted from periapical lesions suspected of being a
radicular cyst should always be referred for histopathological
examinations. T/F
121 . To diagnose the primary Sjogren's syndrome schirmer's test
should be positive and biopsy shows lymphocytic infiltration.
T/F
1 22 . When pulp necrosis occurs before root completion calcium
hydroxide may permit root development and help to close
the open apex. T/F
123. Overdose of aspirin may cause tinnitus and metabolic
acidosis. T/F
124. Lesions that contain internal calcification, in the form of
calcified flecks, septa or patterned compartments are usually
benign because tumor caJcifications results from original
bio-chemical processes that occur in benign lesions and
not malignant lesions. T/F
125. Basal nevus syndrome is a hereditary condition T/F
126. Primary teeth may be stained by tetracycline T/F
1 2 7 . Globulomaxillary cyst is a fissural cyst T/F
' 128. Down's syndrome is usually a hereditary condition T/F
.. . � - ---
129. In hemophilia bleeding time is normal T/F

130. In purpura bleeding time is prolonged T/F
1 3 1 . In purpura the coagulation time is normal T/F
132. The most common cause of xerostomia is Sjogrens'
syndrome T/F
133. White sponge nevus is hereditary mucosal lesion T/F
134. Hepatitis B is a RNA virus T/F
135. Hepatitis D virus (HDV) is 'a DNA virus T/F
1 36. Hepatitis B is an occupational hazard for all health care
personnel T/F
137. Hepatitis C virus is a RNA virus T/F
1 38. Hepatitis E virus is a RNA virus. T/F
139. Characteristic of infectious mononucleosis is an excess of
atypical lymphocytes in the blood T/F
140. Monospot and Paul-Bunnell test is employed for the
diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis T/F
141 . In purpura bleeding time is prolonged but clotting time is
normal T/F
142. Von Willie brand's disease there is associated deficiency of
clotting factors T/F
143. Alkaline phosphatase is decreased in hepatitis B virus
.
infection T/F
144. Varicella zoster is a DNA virus T/F
145. Coxsackie virus is a DNA virus T/F
146 . The pulps of the individual teeth are precisely represented
. in the brain cortex T/F
147. Human papilloma virus is a DNA virus T/F
1 48. Measles virus is a DNA virus T/F
149. Cephalexin can be given to lactating mother since it is not
secreted through the milk . T/F
1 50 . Fluoride can pass in to the breast milk T/F
d-
- 1 51 . VacCines are currently available for hepatitis B and hepatitis
C, but not for hepatitis A T/F
1 52 . The primary means of transmission of hepatitis A and
. hepatitis B is parental (blood-bome) whereas for hepatitis
C it is fecal-oral. T/F
..
-�,-,.
Oral Medicine 99
153. About 1-5% of patients with hepatitis B for hepatitis C

develop hepato-cellular carcinoma. T/F
154. Hepatitis A, B and C are all caused by the same DNA virus
of the h�padnavirus group. T/F
155 . CD4 ·+ T cells, macrophages and Langerhans cells are the
major sites of HIV infection and persistence. T/F
Write the etiological factor or causative agents for:

1. Burkitt's lymphoma
2. Condyloma latum
3. Kaposi's sarcoma
4. Chicken pox
5. Herpes zoster
6. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
7. Mucus membrane pemphigoid ·
8. Aphthous ulcers
9. Syphilis
10. Tuberculosis
11. Denture stomatitis
12. Hand, fbot and mouth disease
13 . Herpangina
14. Hairy leukoplakia
15. Thrush
16. Verruca vulgaris
17. Condyloma accuminatum
18. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
19. Naso pharyngeal carcinoma
20. Squamous cell papilloma
21. Pemphigus
22. Lichen planus �
23. Primary herpetic gingivo stomatitis �PHGS)

24. Herpes labialis . .'?
25. White sponge nevus
26. Acute dento-alveolar abscess
27. Candidal leukoplakia
28. AIDS
29. ANUG
. ....�.. . ... ___...
.- ,_...
_
- -.
..
....
I J .If ' .. . . ill .. ' ... , J
. J . .. .. ___i
1 00 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
30. Herpetiform ulcers --.
31. SjOgrens syndrome

32 . Herpetic whitlow
33. Cyclic neutropenia . .
34. Hairy tongUe

35. Erythema multiforme
36. Measles
37. Desquamative gingivitis
38. Bullous pemphigoid
39. Dermatitis herpetiformis
40. Epidermolysis bullosa .
41. Gonorrhea
42. Leprosy
43. Actinomycosis
44. Noma
45. Behcet's syndrome
46. Reiter's syndrome
47. Lupus erythematous
48. Wegner's granulomatosis
49. Midline granuloma
50. Chronic granulomatosis
51. Leukoedema
52. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
53. Follicular keratosis
54. Frictional keratosis
55. Solar cheilitis
56. Geographic tongue
57. Fissured tongue
58. Fordyce's granules
59. Parulis
�
"
60. Lipoma
61. Pyogenic granuloma }}
.....
62. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

63. Scarlet fever
64. Neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
65. Exostosis
66. Palatal papillary hyperplasia
Ii " · ••. •• 11(· • I &•
' •1' , t- it. .n"
' a.- .AI' " 1 - ' ,
Oral Medicine 1 01
67. Lymphoepithelial cyst

68. Ranula
69. Branchial cyst
70. Epidermal cyst
71. Lymphangioma
72 . Dermoid cyst
73. Scleroderma
74. Hereditary anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
75. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
76. Dentin dysplasia
77. Achondroplasia
78. Dermatitis herpetiformis
79. Bifid rib-basal cell nevus syndrome
80. Fibrous dysplasia
81. Cherubism
.�.'" " " ,. """,.' ...... . .. ..... .' . . - � -,.-�. " r_·
-" . " .,.�
1 02 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiolog y
ANSWEBS
,
1 B 2 B 3 D 4 A 5 B 6 D
7 A 8 A 9 A 10 A 11 A 12 D
13 C 14 C 15 A 16 B 17 D 1 8 E·
19 D 20 C 21 D 22 D 23 A 24 A
25 E 26 D 27 A 28 E 29 B 30 D
31 C 32 E 33 D 34 B 35 E 36 E
E 38 D 39 A 40 E 41 C 42 D
.- .
37
43 D 44 A 45 A 46 C 47 A 48 A
49 D 50 D 51 D 52 E 53 B 54 E
55 D 56 C 57 D 58 A 59 B 60 B
D 62 A 63 D 64 E 65 C 66 B
61 :
67 B 68 B 69 B 70 B 71 C 72 E
73 E 74 C 75 B 76 E n c 78 D
79 A 80 E 81 D 82 D 83 B 84 E
85 B 86 B 87 B 88 D 89 C 90 D
91 D 92 A 93 D 94 B 95 D 96 D
97 E 98 A 99 A 1 00 C 1 01 B 1 02 B
1 03 C 1 04 B 1 05 C 1 06 B 1 07 A 1 08 0
1 09 0 110 C 111 B 112 0 113 C 114 A
1 15 C 116 A 117 A 118 B 119 A 1 20 C
1 21 E 1 22 A 1 23 C 1 24 0 1 25 D 1 26 A
1 27 0 128 B 1 29 D 1 30 E 1 31 A 1 32 B
1 33 C 1 34 E 1 35 C 1 36 B 1 37 A 1 38 C
1 39 A 1 40 0 141 0 1 42 C 143 C 1 44 A
1 45 C 1 46 0 1 47 A 1 48 B 1 49 E 1 50 0
1 51 C 1 52 E 1 53 D 1 54 A 1 55 D 1 56 0
1 57 C 158 0 1 59 B 1 60 0 161 A 1 62 C
1 63 A 1 64 B 1 65 A 1 66 B 1 67 C 1 68 B
1 69 D 1 70 0 1 71 E 1 72 A 1 73 D 1 74 B
1 76 D In c 1 78 E 1 79 D 1 80 A
1 75 D
1 81 B 1 82 C 1 83 C 1 84 E 1 85 0 1 86 E
1 87 C 1 88 D 1 89 D 1 90 C 1 91 E . 1 92 D
1 93 B 1 94 C 1 95 D · 1 96 A 1 97 C 1 98 C
1 99 C 200 E 201 B 202 D 203 D 204 C
205 D 206 C 207 D 208 D 209 A 21 0 A
21 1 C 212 D 213 D 214 D 215 B 21 6 A
217 E 21 8 B 219 B 220 A 221 C 222 D
223 C 224 B 225 E 226 C 227 C 228 A
231 B 232 A 233 C :. �34 0
229 D 230 E
235 C 236 C 237 B 238 C 239 E 240 B
242 E 243 C 244 C 245 C . '246 0
241 A
247 A 248 B 249 0 250 B 251 0 -:252 A
,
253 A 254 A 255 D 256 C 257 C '258 C

259 0 260 C 261 A 262 C 263 B . 264 B
266 C 267 B 268 C 269 B 270 0
265 F
271 0 272 E 273 C 274 C :275 D 276 B
278 0 279 B 2 80 A 281 D 282 0
2n D
283 E 284 0 285 C 286 A 287 B 288 B
a. L ! · ..rt_ . •• 'i. I • U; .. -J .. Jt . •
, 1]15.1."· 1 ... ,lit . - .
-
Oral Medicine 1 03
289 A 290 0 291 E 292 0 293 C 294 C

295 E 296 E 297 0 298 B 299 D 300 0
301 C 302 E 303 A 304 0 305 B 306 A
307 C 308 0 309 A 31 0 A 31 1 E 31 2 C
313 E 314 B 315 A 316 B 31 7 B 318 C
319 B 320 A 321 0 322 C 323 D 324 C
325 B 326 B 327 0 328 0 329 B 330 E
331 A 332 B 333 E 334 E 335 E 336 E
337 C 338 B 339 A 340 0 341 D 342 E
343 E 344 C 345 C 346 E 347 D 348 E
349 E 350 C 351 E 352 0 353 D 354 A
355 B 356 E 357 C 358 E 359 B 360 C
361 E 362 D 363 0 364 C 365 C 366 0
367 B 368 0 369 B 370 E 371 0 372 C
373 C 374 A 375 0 376 B 377 D 378 0
379 0 380 A 381 B 382 C 383 C 384 C
385 0 386 B 387 A 388 0 0
389 390 C
391 B 392 0 393 A 394 0 395 0 396 0
397 E 398 B 399 0 400 0 401 B 402 E
403 C 404 0 405 E 406 ·0 407 A 408 E
409 A 41 0 A 41 1 C 412 0 41 3 B 41 4 C
415 C 416 D 41 7 0 418 C 41 9 E 420 B
421 0 422 C 423 0 424 E 425 0 426 C
427 B 428 E 429 0 430 C 431 E 432 E
433 B 434 C 435 E 436 A 437 D 438 B
439 0 440 B 441 0 442 B 443 E 444 B
445 C 446 E 447 0 448 B 449 0 450 E
451 C 452 0 453 0 454 B 455 C 456 B
457 0 458 E 459 A 460 C 461 E 462 B
463 E 464 A 465 0 466 0 467 C 468 B
469 E 470 A 471 0 472 A 473 0 474 C
475 0 476 0 477 C 478 0 · 479 C 480 0
481 B 482 E 483 E 484 B 485 E 486 C
487 0 488 C 489 0 490 0 491 A 492 B
493 C 494 E 495 C 496 0 497 E 498 0
499 E 500 B 501 0 502 0 503 0 504 C
505 B 506 0
;.
. '
)�
.� .'
.- --�- .f. ,J
.
.
"s J• •• , rtto
�f
ANSWER� OF IRUe OR FAL�E
F 2 F .3 F 4 F 5 F 6 T
7 F 8 T 9 T 10 T 11 F 12 F
13 F 14 T 15 F 16 T 17 T 18 T
19 F 20 F 21 F 22 T 23 F 24 T
25 T 26 T 27 T 28 T 29 F 30 T
31 T 32 F 33 T 34 F 35 T 36 F
37 F 38 T 39 F 40 T 41 T 42 F
..
43 T 44 F 45 F 46 T 47 T 48 T
49 T 50 T 51 T 52 F 53 T 54 T
55 F 56 F 57 F 58 T 59 T 60 T
61 T 62 F 63 T 64 F 65 T 66 T
67 T 68 T 69 T 70 F 71 F 72 F
73 F 74 T 75 T 76 T 77 F 78 F
79 T 80 T 81 T 82 F 83 F 84 T
85 T 86 F 87 T 88 F 89 F 90 F
91 F 92 F 93 F 94 F 95 F 96 F
97 T 98 F 99 T 1 00 T 1 01 F 1 02 T
1 03 F 1 04 F 1 05 F 1 06 T 1 07 T 1 08 T
1 09 T 110 T 111 T 1 12 T 1 1 3A T 1 1 38 T
1 1 3C T 1 1 30 T 1 1 3E T 1 13F T 1 1 3G T 1 1 3H T
114 T 115 T 116 F 1 17 T 118 T 1 19 T
1 20 T 1 21 T 1 22 T 1 23 T 1 24 T 1 25 T
1 26 T 1 27 F 1 28 T 1 29 T 1 30 T 1 31 T
1 32 F. 1 33 T 1 34 F 1 35 F 1 36 T 1 37 T
1 38 T 1 39 T 1 40 T 1 41 T 142 T 1 43 F
144 T 1 45 F 1 46 F 1 47 T 1 48 F 1 49 T
1 50 T 1 51 F 1 52 F 1 53 T 1 54 F 1 55 T
.� .'
, . ..._,..... ..:'... .
Oral M edicine 1 05
ANSWERS OF ETIOLOGICAL FACTORS/CAUSATIVE AGENTS
1 . Linked to Epstein-Barr virus

2 . Treponema pallidum
3 . Linked to human herpes virus 8
4 . Varicella-Zoster virus
5 . Reactivation of Varicella-Zoster virus
6. Coxsackie virus A 10
7. Auto immune
8. Unknown, probably an immune defect mediated by T cells
9. Treponema pallidum
10. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
I I . Candida albicans
12. Coxsackie virus
13. Coxsackie virus
14. Epstein-Barr virus
15. Candida albicans
16. Human papilloma virus
19. Linked to EBV
21. Auto immune
22. Unknown; may be precipitated by stress; possibly hyperimmune
condition mediated by T cells
23. Herpes simplex virus type I (occasionally type II)
24. Reactivation of herpes simplex virus
25. Hereditary; autosomal dominant
26 . Mainly streptococci, staphylococci and anerobic organisms
-
. .' 27. Candida albicans
28. Human immunodeficiency virus, mainly type I and type II
0, I �
.-- 29. Mainly fusobacterium nucleatum, borrelia vincenti
30. Idiopathic
31. Autoimmune
32. Herpes simplex virus
33. Unknown
34. Unknown; may follow antibiotic or steroid therapy
10 • , ] , 11m • . ... ,It rPI . " - ..
-. . ' ---
35 . : Unknown may follow drug ingestion or an infection such as herpes

labialis
36. Paramyxovirus
37. Autoimmune
38. Autoimmune
39. Unknown; possibly associated with gluten sensitivity
40. Hereditary; autosomaVrecessive
41 . Neisseria gonorrheae
42. Mycobacterium leprae
43. Actinomyces israelii
44. Fusiform bacilli and Vincent's spirochetes
45. Probably an immune defect
46. Unknown
47. Immune defect
48. Unknown; immune defect?/infection
49. Unknown; immune defect?
50. Genetic disease (X-linked)
51. Unknown
52. Hereditary, autosomal dominant
53. Genetic, autosomal
54. Chronic irritation
55. UV light
56. Unknown
57. Unkriown
58. Dev.elopmental
59. Periodontitis or apical abscess
60. Unknown
61. Traumq or chronic irritation, •
. 62. Trauma or chronic irritation

63. Gr.oup' A streptococci
64. Unknpwn
65 . Unkrl6wn
.
66. 56ft ;tissue reaction to ill fitting denture and probably fungal
overgrowth
67. Developmental
68. Blockage of salivary duct or traumatic severance of duct
69. Developmental
.... .. �...
Oral Medici ne 1 07
70. Epithelial rest proliferation

71. Developmental
72. Unknown
73. Unknown
74. X-linked recessive
75. Autosomal dominant
77. Hereditary, autosomal dominant
78. Unknown
80. Unknown
81. Hereditary autosomal dominant
· 1. ·1J,.·•.sili·:ta·) !ll·�b it ,;r 1 .• . f I (f I ....tb 1• • ..1.•.;
.,
1. Examples of electromagnetic radiation cue' "lIte

, -.., , '
following except: -- " � , - - -- �
... . .
A. X-rays B. Gamma rays

C. Infrared radiation D. Microwaves
E. Alpha particles
2. Which of the folioWing is not an example of electro
magnetic radiation:
A. Cosmic rays
B. Cathode rays
!k,
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet rays

X-rays:
A. Travel at the speed of light
B. Have negative charge
C. Can be focused to a point
D. Are not ionizing radiations
4. Which of the' foilowing is

I'
not an examaple of
electromagnetic radiation:
A. Radio waves
B. Radar waves
C. Beta particles
D. Cosmic rays
5. Which of the following is . ... ot an example of

particulate rac:Iiation:
A� Alpha particles
�. beta particles .'
C. X-rays "
D. Cathode rays
.; "
6. Identify the false statement regarding free radicals: : )
A. Is an uncharged molecule
B. Is a charged molecule
C. Is highly reactive
D. Is unstable
Oral Radiology 111
1-� Which of the following is a component of an X-ray

tube in the X-ray machine:
A. Power supply B. Anode
C. Control panel O. Exposure button
8 . Which one of the following is a component of an X

ray tube in the X-ray machine:
�. �
A. Cathode
B. Step-up transformer
C . Step-down transformer
::;, O. Autotransformer
9 . Component parts of a tube head do not include:

A. Insulating oil
B. Extension arm
C . Metal housing
O. Tube head seal
E. X-ray tube
10. Which of the following is not a component part of

the X-ray tube head:
A. Aluminum disk B. Collimator
C . Spacer cone O. Indicator light
E. Transformers
1 1 . Which of the following statements is false regarding

the X-ray tube being a complete vacuum:
A.. Prevents collision of the moving electrons with gas
molecules
B. Prevents the reduction of the speed of the electrons
C. Maintains the speed of the electrons
.0 Serves no useful purpose
.
.
12. �� purpose of an X�ray tube being nearly vacuum is
! ,-
tQ�
I A� Prevent oxidation and burn out of the filament
B. Reduce impact on the target by electrons
. C. Increase the speed of the electron stream
o. None of the above
112 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology-
13. I Majority of the X-ray photons are ptoduced by

Bremsstrahlung radiation
II. Energy of Bremsstrahlung radiation is a function
of outer orbital electJ;on levels:
A. I is true II is true B. I is false II is false
C. I is true II is false D . I is false II is true
14. Which of the following statements is false:

A. An increase in kilovoltage results in low subject contrast
B. Intensity of an X-ray beam at a given point depends
on the distance from the focal spot
C. Decreasing exposure time increases overall density
D. Increasing exposure time increases overall density
15. Identify the false statement regarding image formation:

A. The process of latent image formation begins by trapping
the electrons generated when the emulsion is radiated
B. The developer converts silver halide into metallic silver
grains that can be visualized
C. The primary function of the fixing solution is to remove
the undeveloped silver halide crystals from the
emulsions
D. Extremely high developer temperature may result in
very light images
16. The operator can regulate the kV, rnA arid time
settings through the use of:
A. Control panel B. Extension arm
C. Tube head D. Low ovoltage circuit
17. The following are the advantages of fast screen

,
system except: . °
A. It requires less exposure resulting in ra�iatio� r�uction

to patients ; o;'! .,.
O
B. Kilovoltage can be decreased resulting in highe�,tontrast
• 0'
images
C. Chances of motion artifact is decreased
D. Developing is faster
Oral Radiology 113
·····---> fs, The basic· effect of X-radiation on living tissue is:

A. Cauterization B. Precipitation
C . Ionization D. Agglutination
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
X-rays? It:
A. Travels with a wave- like motion
B. Travels at 186,000 miles per second
C . Causes ionization ·
D . Produces fluorescence in certain materials
E Has a m?-ss equal to its density
20. An X-ray photon is:

A. A small particle which is capable of penetrating the
matter
B. A bundle of pure energy with wave-like and particle
like properties
C . A large particle which is capable of penetrating the
matter
D . An electrical current that has been stepped up to a
higher voltage
2 1 . The term "thermionic emission" refers to:

A. Emission of electrons at very high temperature
B. Excessive prodl,lction of heat that occurs during X-ray
production
C . Ability of the X-rays to emit from the X-ray tube
': D. None of the above
22. Subject contrast is determined m a inly by the
following parameters except:
A ; Density B. Thickness
_ C. Composition D. Volume
. : .
23. I.:n order to increase the number of electrons

::produced at the cathode, the operator should:
A. Increase both milliampere and kilovoltage
. B. Increase milliampere
C . Increase kilovoltage
D. Decrease kilovoltage
114 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and O ral Radiology-
24. The anode is made of:

A. Molybdenum B. Aluminum
C. Tungsten D. Copper
2 5 . Which . of the following is not a component of X-ray
tube in the X-ray machine:
A. On off switch B. Leaded glass housing
C. Target D. Focusing device
26. To obtain an ideal image, the focal spot size:
A. Should be as small as possible
B. Should be as large as possible
C. Is not important
D . None of the above is relevant
27. Improper horizontal angulation results in:
A. Shortening of the image
B. Elongation of the image
C. Overlapping of the image
D. Distortion of the image
28� Indicate the false statement. Light radiographs may

result from:
A. Underexposure
B. Overexposure
C. Developer inactivity
D. Short developing time
E. Reversed film exposure .
29. Indicate the false statement. Underexposure can

result from insufficient:
A. Milliampere · B. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure time D . Developing :: •
30. Indicate the false statement. Dark ra�iograp�s may

.' ..
result from:
A. Low temperature of the developer solution'
B. High developer temperature
C� Excessive developer concentration '
D. Improper safe lighting
Oral R.ad i ology 1 1 5.
.' .
3 1 . Dark radiographs can result from an inct"ea�e of the

following factors except:
A. Kilovoltage B. Fixing time
C. Milliampere D . Exposure time
E. Developing time
32. Insufficient or inadequate contrast may result from

A. Underdevelopment of the film
B. Over development of the film
C. Underexposure
D . Overexposure
E. Low temperature of the fixer
33. I.-,adequate contrast may be due to the following

except:
A. High kilovoltage
B. Decreasing milliampere
C. Low kilovoltage
. D . Film fog
34. Film fog can be caused by the following except:

A . Light leakage in the dark room
B. Storage of films in a warm environment
C . Low room temperature
D . Improper safe lighting
E. Use of expired films
35. In an X-ray equipment, milliamperage controls the:

A. Energy of the radiation
B. Speed of the electrons
C. Temperature of the filament
D . Penetrability of radiation produced .
I �:
3 6 . Wavelength of X-ray photons is detc:�rminedby the:
A. Kilovoltag�
B. Milliamper�
C. Time of exposure
D . Quantity of electrons in the cathode stream
1 1 6 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
37. Sharpness of the radiographic image is increased by:

A. Decreasing filtration
B. Increasing focal spot-object distance
C. Decreasing the milliamperage
D. Increasing the object film distance
38. Identify the false statement. Improper safe lighting

can result from:
A. Having the wrong filter
B. Safe light bulb being higher than 15 watts
C. Being located too close to the working area �
D. Being located 4 ft from the working area
39. Film fog can result from the fol1owing except:

A. Over development of the film
B. Over exposure of the film
C. Contaminated solution
D. Defective safe light filter
E. Use of exhausted chemicals
40. Identify the wrong statement. Brown/yel1ow stains on --
the film can be caused by:

A. Inadequate washing B. Contaminated solutions
C. Exhausted developer D. Prolonged fixing time
E. Exhausted fixer
4 1 . Identify the correct statement. Dark spots can be

caused if:
A. Drops of developer falls on the film before developing
B. Film touches the developing tank
C. Contact with another film during fixing '"
D. The film is over developed

::
42. Identify the wrong statement. Light spots can occur
t ��
when:
A. Fixer contaminates the film before processing
B. Film touches the tank during developing
· C. There is light leakage during development
D. Film touches another film during development
E. Air bubbles are trapped during development
Oral Rad i ology 117
- ' ,-
43. The causes of a clear film after proceSsing do not

include:
A. Wrong processing sequence
B. Inactive chemicals
C. No exposure
D . · Less developing time
44. Greenish appearance of a film after processing may

be due to:
A. Short processing time
B. Weak fixer solution
C. Longer developing time
D. Short processing time and weak fixer solution
45. Films may appear wet after processing due to:

A. Defective fan in the dryer B. Wrong chemistry
C. Weak fixer D . Weak developer
46. Direct radiation injury occurs when:

A. X-ray photons hit critical targets within a cell
B. X-rays pass through a volume of tissue
C. X-rays are scattered and form toxins
D. Free radicals combine to form toxins
47 . Regarding ghost image, identify the true statement:

A. Is smaller than the actual object
B. Is on the opposite side to the actual image .
C. Is at the same level oHhe actual image
D. Is a primary image of an actual object
48. Blurred radiographs can result from:

A. Movement of the patient
B. Movement of the film
C. Double exposure
D. All of the above
49. Increasing the kilovoltage in an X-ray ma�hit.e results

. in:
A. Shorter wavelength B. Longer wavelength
C. More number of X-rays D . Less number of X-rays
-
50. An elongated radiographic image is due to:

A. Improper horizontal angulation
B. Improper vertical angulation
C. Bending of the film
D. Improper centering of the cone
5 1 . In paralleling technique. increased target film

distance is required to: "
A. Magnify the image
B. Avoid image magnification
C. Avoid image elongation
D . Avoid distortion
52. The use of a long target film distance in the paralleling

technique results in:
A. Increased definition
B. Image magnification
C . Decreased definition
D. Reduced scatter radiation
53. In paralleling technique which of the following

describes the relationship of the central ray to the
81m:
A. . Plus 30 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
B. Plus 80 degrees to the long axis of th.e tooth
C . Minus 15 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
o
D. 90 degrees to the film and long axis of the tooth
54. Which of the following is appropriate regarding the

film placement in paralleling technique:
1 . Anterior films are placed vertically
2. Anterior films are placed horizontally
3. Posterior films are placed horizontally
4. Posterior films are placed vertically
A. 1 ,2,4
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 3
.
D. 1 and 2
Oral Rad iology 119
55. Ideally, the identification dot on the film should be ' - ,-, --..---�--- .
towards the:
A. Occlusal aspect of the teeth
B. Apical aspect of the teeth
C. Distal aspect of the segment
D . Any of the above
�-
56. Which of the following is correct concerning the
exposure sequence for periapical films :
A. Anterior films are always exposed before posterior films
B. Posterior films are always exposed before the anterior
films
C. Premolar films are exposed before the canines
D . Either way can b e exposed
57. Which of the following is correct concerning the lack

of parallelism between the film and the long axis of
the teeth? If:
A. Greater than 40 degrees, the film is generally acceptable
B. Greater than 60 degrees the film is generally acceptable
C. Less than 20 degrees the film is generally acceptable . -
D. Less than 40 degrees the film is generally acceptable
58. Which of the folloWing is a disadvantage in paralleling

technique:
A. Film placement
B. Positioning of the cone
C. Positioning of the patient
D . Accurate angulation of the cone
59. Indir�ct radiation injury results when X-rays:

A. Hit critical targets within a cell
B. Pass through the RNA of a cell
'.
C. Are absorbed and form toxins
D. Hit the DNA of a cell
60 . The factors which contribute to radiation injury are:

A. Dose rate B Cell sensitivity
. .
C. Total dose D. Age

E All of the above
1 20 MCQs i n Oral Medicine afld Oral Radi ology
6 1 . Which of the following i$� an advantage of paralleling

technique:
A. Easy film placement
.. B. Comfortable for. patient
C. Dimensional accuracy
D. Can be easily done in adult and child patient
62. During a full mouth series, the premolars are exposed
before molars because of the follOwing except:
A. Easy placement of film
B. Better tolerance for the patient
C. Less exposure.time
D . Less chance of Gag reflex
63. When the object film distance is increased. the
resultant radiographic image:
A. Is magnified with loss of definition
B. Becomes more sharper
C. Is not affected
D. Is shortened
64. Effective means of reducing radiation dose include

. the following except:
A. Optimum filtration
B. Improper safe lighting
C. Use of fast films
D. Optimum kilovoltage
E. Collimation
65. In intraoral radiography. the diameter of X-ray beam

measured at the patient's skia:a be no more than: �
A. 2.75 inches B� 3.75 inches

C. 2.5 inches �
D. 2.25 inches
(� ,:;
66. In paralleling technique the=central ray of the X-ray

beam is perpendicular to' the long axis of the:
A. Teeth :B. Film
C. Teeth and the film D. Segment of the jaw
Oral Rad i ology 1 21
67. Which of the following statements i s incorrect

concerning protective clothing:
A. Must be worn by all dental professionals
B. Must be changed once a week
C. Prevents contact with infectious materials
D . Must be removed before leaving the clinic
68. Identify the correct statement concerning gloves:

A. Must be worn by all dental professionals
B. Need to be changed only at the end of the day
C. Can be washed and reused
D . Must be washed before use
69 . Which of the following is most susceptible to ionizing

radiation:
A. Mature bone
B. Small lymphocytes
C . Nerve cells
D . Osteocytes
E. Epithelial cells
. -
70. Sensitivity of tissues to radiation is determined by

A Mitotic activity
. . B. Cell differentiation
C Nutritional status
. . D. Cell metabolism
7 1 . Identify the false statement. Hands must be washed:

A. Before gloving
B. After gloving
C. Before and after each patient
D . After touching contaminated surfaces
E. With plain soap for routine dental procedures
72. A radiograph contains:

A. More information than a written record
B. Less information than a written record
C. The same amount of information as a written record
D. Negligible amount of information
.
-·�-73. , ·A · fresh · film that ha��een properly stored and
protected after processing will appear:
._ A . Totally white B. Totally black
C. Clear with a blue tint D. Clouded with a blue tint
74. A critical factor for quality control that requires daily

monitoring does not include:
A. Adequate ventilation
B. Examination of the dark room for light tightness
C. Processing of films
D . Temperature of the room
75. Rare earth intensifying screens are recommended in

panoramic radiography because:
A. Rare earth screens emit a blue light
B. Rare earth screens emit a green light
C. Rare earth screens require less exposure
D . Rare earth screens provide a more diagnostic image
E. The images convert faster in an automatic processor
76. The coin test is used to check:
A. Film density
B� Age of the processing solution
C. Proper safe lighting
D . Output of the X-ray machine
77. Which of the following i�traoral view is best for

visualizing the greater pahitine foramen:
A. Intraoral periapical
B. Standard occlusal view
C. True occlusal view
78. The purpose of rinsing the flIrt.

• .
I;
during processing does
.
not include: :�.7
A. Removal of the undevelop;ed crystals
B. Removal of the developer from the film
C. Stopping of the� development process
D. Removal of the excess alkali from the film
Oral Rad iology 1 23
.. --79. Which of the following " statement i s incorrect

regarding rinsing of an X-ray film:
A. Prolongs the life of the fixing solution
B. Prevents over development of the film
C. Dilutes and remove the developer from the film
D. Removes all the impurities from the film
80. Film emulsion is hardened during:

A. Development
B. Rinsing
C. Fixing
D. Washing
E Drying
8 1 . The size of the dark room is determined by the

following factors except:
A. The number of radiographs being processed
B. The type and number of processing equipment used
C. The number of persons using the room
D. Temperature of the room
82. Identify the false statement. Leakage of light into the

dark room will result in film:
A. Overexposure
B. Over development
C. Reticulation
D. Fogging
83. Ideally in the dark room, the safe light must be placed
from film and working area at a distance of:
A. 2 feet B, 4 feet
.
C. 6 feet ; D. 8 feet
84. In manual processing opti�al temperature for the

developer solution _j"s : .: ..
A. 50° F B. 55°F
C. 60°F . D. 68°F
E. 75°F
85. Proper devel opment time at 68° F in manual

processing is: .
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 6 minutes
86. Identify the factor which does not affect the life of
the processing solution:
A. Number of films processed
B. Proper care and maintenance of the solution
C. Type of safe light filter used
D . Age of solutions
87. A · replenisher solution is added to the processing
solutions to compensate for the following except:
A. Loss of volume of solutions
B. Loss of detail
C. Oxidation of solutions that occurs
D . Loss of solution strength'
88. Ideally the processing tank should be c1ean�d:
A . Once a month
B. Once in six months
C. Whenever solutions are changed
D . Once in a year
89. Processing tanks should be kept covered mainly to
prevent:
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Evaporation of the solution
D . Particles falling into the tank
90. The least susceptible cells of the body to radiation
is:
A. Lymphoblast
B. Lymphocytes
C. Mature bone
D . Erythroblasts
Oral Radiology 125
9 1 . Collimation is achieved{)y the following except:

". .----- - -'. ' .. -.- -'
�-
A. Metal cylinder inside the position indicating device

--- -'-"-
- · B.·· Lead lined position indicating device
C. Aluminum filter
D. Lead washer just outside the aluminum filter
92. Inherent filtration in an X-ray machine is achieved by

A. Window of the glass tube
B. Oil surrounding the X-ray tube
C. Tube head seal
D . Aluminum disk
93. The following exposure factors can be varied in an

intra oral radiography except:
A. Milliampere
B. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure time
D. Object film distance
.-
E. Target film distance
94. The purpose of adding an aluminum disk in the primary

beam is to:
A. Reduce exposure time
B. Reduce long wave length radiation
C. Reduce the developing tIme
D . Reduce the diameter of the primary beam
E. Increase the density of the �ilm
95. Which of the following statements does not apply to

.:
ghost image: ."
A. Appears larger than th� attual object
B. Is at a higher leJel than the actual image
, ,
C. Appears very distinct

D . Can appear a� blurred in both horizontal and vertical
"
direction
96. The purpose of panc;namic radiography do not

include:
A. Evaluation of impacted teeth ..
B. Eva luation of eruption p a t tern s , growth - a n d
_
development
c. Detection and examination of extent of lesions in the
jaw
D. Evaluation of trauma to the jaws
E. Detection of caries
97. Collimator used in the panoramic X-ray tube head is

a lead plate with:
A. A small round opening
B. A small rectangular opening
C. An opening in the shape of a narrow vertical slit
D. An opening in the shape of a narrow horizontal slit
98. The process of breakdown of chemicals in the

processing solutions resulting from exposure to air
is termed:
A. Reduction --
B . Oxidation
C. Conversion
99. The concentrated form of solution that is added to

the processing solution is called:
A. Acidifier B. Replenisher
C. Hardener D. None of the above
100. The following objects that can result-in ghost images

should b e- removed before the exposure of a
panoramic film eXcept:
A. Eye glasses and hair pins
B. Ear rings, necklaces and hearing aids
C. Removable partial and complete denture
D. Orthodontic appliances and napkin chain
E. All of the above
Oral Radiology 1 27
1 0 1 . Indicate the true statement. To prevent the finger print

artifacts:
A. Wash and dry hands thoroughly before processing film __ .
B. Work in a clean area to avoid contaminating the hands

C. Handle th� film by edges only
D . Open film packet slowly
102 . Underdeveloped film or light film result from the

following except:
A. Inadequate development
B. Inaccurate timer and thermometer
C . High developer temperature
D . Depleted or contaminated developer solution
103. The dark appearance of i;he developed film may be

due to the following eXcept:
A. Over development
B. Inaccurate timer
C. Inaccurate thermometer
D. Too concentrated developer solution
E. Depleted developer solution
104. Which of the following exposure fa.ctors cannot be

changed in a panoramic machine:
A. Kilovoltage and milliampere
B. Exposure time
C. Milliampere and exposure time
D . Kilovoltage and exposure time
105. The type of intensifying screen that is used i n

panoramic radiography is:
A. Calcium tungstate screen
B. Calcium phosphate screen
C . Rare earth screen
1 28 MCQs in- Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
1 06. The apPearance of a straight white border on a film

is due to a low level of:
A. Developer solution
B. Fixer solution
C. Rinsing water
107. The straight black border appearing on a film indicates

a low level of:
A. Developer solution
B. Fixer solution
..il _ ,il... ..!., " 'i. 111111. ... ' -" , , )i ,
�...,* . G_Rinsing.water. .
Iur �"i...... I ",'_ •
D. Running water in the tank
108. The density of a radiogJ'aph cannot be increased by:

A. Increasing exposure time
B. Increasing milliamperage
C. Increasing kilovoltage
D. Increasing target film distance
E. Decreasing target film distance
109. Overlapped film during processing:

A. Appears as white areas
B. Appears as black areas
•
C. Appears as black or white areas
, 1 10. Overlapped portion of the film during processing

represents :'
A. Undeveloped portion of the film
B. Unfixed 'portion of the film �
C. Undeveloped or unfixed portion of the film

D . Overde�el�ped portion of the ' film
E. Uhderd�v,�loped portion of the film
1 1 1 . Developing $olutions do not contain:

A. Phenidone B. Preservative
C. ,Restrainer D. Acidifier
Oral Radiology 1 29
1 12 . Fixing solution do not contain:

A. Aluminum chloride
B. Preservative
C. An accelerator
D. Acidifying agent
1 13 . A black spot in the processed film is due to:
A. Contamination with developing solution
B. Contamination with fixiI1g solution
C. Contamination with other impurities
D. All of the above
... . " ,-_ '. . I tn "f " {.b.'., - . ., \ :..� ...... _.,�_ . .
1 1 4. White spots in the processed film is due to:
A . Contamination with developing solution
B. Contamination with fixing solutions
C. Trapping of air bubbles
D. Contamination with fixer and air bubbles
1 1 5 . The area that appears dark in a processed radiograph
is known as:
A. Radiolucent
B. Radiopaque
C. Translucent
D . Transparent
1 1 6. The portion of a processed radiograph that appears

white is regarded as:
A. Radiolucent
B. Radiopaque
.
C. Translucent
D. Transparent
1 1 1 . Which of the following appears most radiolucent in a

dental radiograph:
A. Enamel
B. Bone
C. Cyst
D. Air space
E. Cementum
1 18. The follOwing structures appear radiopaque except:

A. Bone
B. Enamel and enamel pearl
C. Cartilage
D. Cementum
1 19. The intensity of radiation at any given distance from

the source of radiation varies:
A. Inversely with the square of the distance
B. Directly with the square of the distance
C. Inversely with the square of the kilovoltage
D. Directly with the square of the kilovoltage
1 20. In relation to the X-ray source, embossed dot on the

film envelope should be placed:
A. Away from the source
B. Towards the source
C. Away from the source in the mandible and towards
the source in the maxilla
D. Either way
1 2 1 . The latent image on a radiograph is:

A. An unseen image produced by silver halide crystals
B. An image seen on the film after removal of unexposed
silver halide crystals
C. An image seen on the film after removal of exposeq
silver halide crystals
D. All of the above
1 22. Appearance of a clear radiograph after routine

exposure and �anual processi!lg is due to:
A. Inadequate ; solution
B. Too colp a .solution
C. Double. e*posure
•
1 .
�
D . Wrong developing sequence '
1 23. Film speeC:l i� determined by:

A The size bf the film packet .
. .
B. ; Amount of radiation received from the X-ray machine

C. Exposure time
D. Size of the silver halide crystcils
Oral Radiology 1 31
1 24. Autom��-ic processing is much faster than manual

processing because automatic processors:
A. Have lower developing temperature
B. Have higher developing temperature
C. Skip the rinse cycle
D. Rollers have a "squeegee" action
1 25 . An increase in milliampere will result i n :

A. A decrease in density and the film appears darker
B. An increase in density and the film appears darker
C. A decrease in density and the film appears lighter
D. _An increase in density and the film appears lighter
126. Lowering the kilovoltage will cause:

A. An increase in density and the film appears darker
B. A decrease in density and the film appears lighter
C. An increase in density and the film appears lighter
D . A decrease in density and the film appears darker
127. To i n c r e a s e o n l y the penetrati o n qual i t y o f

X-radiation, the operator should increase the:
_
A. Exposure time
B. Kilovoltage
C . Milliampere
D . Collimation
E. Anode to film distance
128. A decrease in the exposure time will cause:

A. An increase in density and the film appears darker
B. A decrease in density and the film appears darker
C. An increase in density and the film appears lighter
D . A decrease in density and the film appears lighter
129. To compens�te
.
for an increase in subject thickness
d .
one :may: .. :
A. Increase .the exposure time
B. Increase .'the milliamperage
C, Increase the kilovoltage
�.-; .
1 30. The difference in degree of darkening in a radiograp'Jl

is termed:
A. Contrast B. Density
C. Sharpness D. Quality
1 3 1 . A radiograph that shows many shades of gray is said

. c. . . -... .- _._.
to have:
A H gh
. �
.. . �?_�t;��i I I 1
C. Hlgh qUIDlty ·
J::2:�.2?!!t;��!. ,
. '» _....J
.
. ·��
D. Low qualIty
...
" ' .. " . �" ..
132. The one exposure factor that has a direct influence

on the contrast in a radiograph is:
A. Subject thickness B. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure time D. Milliarnperage
133. The type of contrast that is preferred in a dental

radiograph is:
A. Low contrast B. Short scale contrast
C. High contrast D. Any of the above
1 34. Which of the following factors cannot be changed to

adjust the density of radiograph:
A. Milliamperage B. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure time D. Subject thickness
1 35. Indicate the factors that have a bearing on the density

of radiograph:
A. Milliampere B. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure time D. Subject thickness
E All of the above
1 36. A step wedge can be used to demonstrate:

A. Short scale contrast pattern
B. Long scale contrast pattern
:.
C. Short and long scale patterns
D. Tree like patterns
1 37. A radiograph that exhibits mainly black and white '

areas is said to have:
A. Short scale contrast B. Long scale contrpst
.
C. High density D. Low density
Oral Radiology 1 33
138. The �nction of a step-up transformer in an X-ray

machine is to increase:
A. Heat to the filament
B. Wave length of the X-rays
C. Voltage to the tube's filament circuit
D. Voltage to the anode-cathode circuit
E. Milliamperage to the machine
139. Which of the following basic principles of shadow

casting is fulfilled in paralleling technique:
A. Source of radiation should be as small as possible
B. Distance from the source of radiation to the object
should be as far as possible
C. Distance from the object to the film should be as short
as possible
1 40 . A radiograph that exhibits mainly many shades of gray

is said to have:
A. A short scale contrast
B. Long scale contrast
C . Low density
D . High density
1 4 1 . The fol lowing factors has an influence o n the

sharpness of a film except:
A. Size of the focal spot
B. Composition of the film
C . Movement of the patient and/or film
D . Processing
'
1 42 . Regarding , the sharpness of the image, as the focal
spot size: .=
:
�
A. Increas s, sharpness increases
B. Decreases, sharpness increases
C. Decreases, sharpness decreases
D . Has no bearing on the image sharpness
1 34 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
143. The kilovoltage applied in X-ray machine does n'.ot

control:
A. Quality of the beam
B. Quantity of the beam
C. Current flow to the cathode ·
D . Current flow to the anode
1 44. Identify the true statement regarding lead foil:

A. Absorbs primary radiation
B. Absorbs scattered radiation
C . Is placed in front and back side of the film
D. Is at least 5 mm thick
145. Intensifying screens are always:

A. Kept on the exposure side of the cassette
B. Kept . on the backside of the cassette
,C. Used in pairs
D . Used singly
146. Identification of right or left side of a patient on a

radiograph depends on the:
A. Lamina dura -
B. Position and anatomy of the teeth
C. Appearance of bone trabeculae
D . Dot on the film
147. Which of these statements is correct:

A. An increase in target film distance reduces
magnification
B. An increase in target film distance increases
magnification
C . A decrease in target film distance decreases ·
magnification .
D . A decrease in target film distance has no effect on the
image
1 . When the object and film are parallel, distortion is
reduced
2. When the object and film are parallel, distortion is
increased
Oral Radiology 1 35
3. When the X-ray beam is perpendicular to the object

and film the distortion is reduced
4. When the X-ray beam is perpendicular to the object
and film the distortion is increased
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2,3,4
D. 1 ,3 ,4
1 49. The identification dot on the intraoral film is significant

because:
A. Dot helps to identify the patient's right or left side
B. Dot helps to determine film orientation
C. Dot is important in film mounting
150. An advantage of a double emulsion film is that:

A. It requires less radiation exposure to form an image
B. The image produced is less magnified
C. The film has less sensitivity to rqdiation . .
. D . The processing solutions are absorbed more easily :
1 5 1 . Methods of obtaining digital image include:

A. Direct digital imaging
B. Indirect digital imaging
.
C. Reusable storage phosphor imaging

152. A charge-coupled device is primarily made of: ·

A. Silicon
B. Silastic
C. Methicon
D. Calcium tungstate
1 53 . A lower kilovoltage range results in:

A. Short scale contrast
B. Long scale contrast
C. Low contrast
154. Regarding the double emuls.ion film. identify the we

statement:
A. Patient and staff receives less radiation
B. Patient and staff receives more radiation
C. T here is no effect on the total exposure to the patient
or staff
155. Identify the false statement. The lead foil in the film
packet:
A. Gives certain amount of rigidity to the film
B. Protects the film from back scattered radiation
C. Prevents primary radiation reaching the film
D. Prevents fogging of the fUm
E. Prevents unwanted radiation to the tissues beyond the
film
1 56. The intensifying screens in a radiographic technique:

A. Improves detail and definition
B. Decreases the radiation dose
C. Protects the film from scattered radiation
D. Increases the quantity of radiation
157. A lead foil in the film packet:

A . Helps in identifying the error if placed incorrectly
B. Helps to reduce the exposure time
C. Has no useful function
158. The function of the X-ray collimator is to:
A. Restrict the size of the beam
B. Restrict the shape of the beam
C. Increase the power of the beam
D. Restrict the size and shape of the �eam
1 59. The collimator in intraoral radiography has a lead
. plate with:
A. Round opening
B. Rectangular opening
C. Slit like opening
D . Either round or rectangular opening .,
Oral Radiology 1 37
160. Air has no MR signal (magnetic resonance signal)

since it has:
A. Poor proton density B. High proton density
C . High electron density D . Poor electron density
, , _ 16 1 . The reduction in image sharpness in OPT�compared,,"'
to intraoral radiography is due to:
.. " . . ,. A. Intensifying screens . ,-"...."". ,;".,.,,_
B. Less exposure
C. Increased kV
D . Increased source film distance
162. The intensity of an X-ray beam is affected by:

A. Kilovoltage B. Milliampere
C. Exposure time D. Distance
E All of the above
163.' Which of the following is incorrect? Increase in:

A. Kilovoltage increases the intensity of the X-ray beam
B. Milliampere increases the intensity of the X-ray beam
C. Time of exposure increases the intensity of the X-ray
beam
D. Distance increases the intensity of the X-ray beam
1 64. Identify the false statement. An aluminum filter placed

-
in the path of X-ray beam:

A. Reduces the intensity of the beam
B. Removes high energy beam
C . Removes the low energy X-ray from the beam
D. Increases the mean energy of the X-ray beam
E Reduce the patient's exposure
165. Identify the true statement regarding intensifying

screens:
A. Are used with films for all extraoral radiography
B. Are not used in any of the intraoral radiography
C. Containing gadolineum oxysulphide (terbium activated)
produce blue emission
D . As the size of the phosphor crystals increases, the image
sharpness increases
1 38 MCQs i n O ral Medicine and Oral Radiology
166. The use of long target film distance in the paralleling

technique results in:
A. Less image magnification and increased definition
B. Less image magnification and decreased definition
C. Increased image magnification and increased definition
D . Increased image magnification and decreased definition
167. The overall degree of c;Iarkening of a radiograph is

termed:
A. Density B. Contrast
C. Detail D . Sharpness
1 68. In bisecting technique proper direction of the central

ray is at right angle to:
A. Long axis of the tooth
B. Long axis of the film and long axis of the tooth
C . Film plane
D . Imaginary bisecting plane
1 69. Bitewing radiographs are used in the examination of:

A. Apical areas of the teeth
B. Inter proximal areas oithe teeth
C . Pulp chamber and apical areas of the teeth
D . Apical and interproximal areas of the teeth
1 70. The term "pixe'''stands for:

A. Picture excellence
B. Picture eliminator
C. Picture element
D . Picture illuminator
1 7 1 . During a panoramic radiography, if a patient was

p o s i tioned with chin too high, the resultant
radiograph will show:
A. Unusually narrow teeth
B. Unusually wide anterior teeth
C. More magnification of premolars and molars on one
..
side than the other side
'-Oral Radiology 1 39
1 72 . A panoramic radiograph shows mimdibular teeth are

___ ,!ery: sl�..!lder and out of focus because:
A. Patient was positioned too far forward in the machine
B. Patient was positioned too far back in the machine
C. Patient's chin was too high
D . Patient's chin was too low
173. Which of the following i s the correct vertical

angulation used for the bitewing technique:
A. Zero degree B. Minus 10 degree
C. Plus 8 to 10 degree D. Plus 1 5 degree
1 74. Fixer solution mainly contains the following except:

A. Fixing agent B. Preservative
C. Restrainer D. Hardening agent
E. Acidifier
1 75 . Which of the following is incorrect regarding X-rays:

A. Travel at the speed of light
B. Have no charge
C. Energy_ cannot be attenuated
D . Causes ionization
1 76 . Which of the following is used to increase the voltage

in the high voltage circuit:
A. Step-up transformer
B. Step-down transformer
C. Auto-transformer
177. The terminal where thermionic emis�ion occurs is

the:
A. Focal spot B. Anode
C. Cathode I). None i>f the above
I,
1 78. The location where X..rays ate prodi},ced i s the:

'
A. Target
B. Focal spot
C. Cathode
1 40 MCQs in Oral. Medicine and Oral Radiology·-
179. Increase in milliampere results in:

A. Decrease in filament temperature
B. Decrease in mean energy of the beam
C. An increase in the m-l-mber of X-rays produced
D. Decrease in the number of X-rays produced
180. Developing solution contains the following except:
A. Developing agent
B. Hardener
C.· Accelerator
D. Restrainer
E. . Preservative
181. The purpose of black paper in front and back of the
film packet is to:
A. Protect the film from saliva
B. Protect the film from scattered radiation
C. Assist in identifying the correct side
182, The standard size of the film is:

-
A. Size 1
B. Size 2
C. Size 3
D. Size 4
183. Regarding the speed of the film, which of the following
statements is incorrect: .
A. The larger the crystals, the faster the film speed
B. Larger the crystals, slower the film speed
C. The smaller the crYstals, slower the film speed
184. The device that converts X-ray energy illto visib'� light
is termed: : :>
A. Cassettes
B. Intensifying screen
C� Magnifying screen
D . Converter
,-
. Oral Radiology 1 41
185. The purpose of an intensifying screen is to:

A. Reduce the exposure time �-· -
B. Increase the exposure time
C. Reduce the kilovoltage
D . Reduce the milliampere
186. The technique of imaging a TM joint with radiopaque

dye is called:
A. Tomography
B. Arthrography
C . Cephalometry
D. Transcranial radiography
1 8 7 . Which of the following view will reveal the medial and

lateral aspects of the condyle:
A. Transorbital view
B. Transcranial view
C. Transpharyngeal view
D. Towne's view
188. Which of-:the following radiograph appears similar:

A. Submentovertex and water's view _
B. Transcranial and transorbital

C. Transcranial and transpharyngeal view
D . Transpharyngeal and submentovertex
1 89. One disadvantage of using intensify!ng screens is that

the image:
A. Is magnified
B. Is distorted
C . Becomes less sharp
D . Becomes fogged
190. Which of the following intensifyina /screen must be

used with a green-sensitive film:
A. Calcium tungstate screen
B. Terbium-activated gadolinium oxysulphide screen
C. Thulium-activated lanthanum oxybromide screen
D . Tungstate screen
1 42 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology _
191. The intensifying screen that emits blue light-and must

be used with blue-sensitive monochromatic film is:
�--�-- ..,--- -�A� C I
a Cimn·tuiiYstate·screen"Bi""Rare·earth-screen . ,,* �
C. Phosphor screen D . Tungsten screen
192. The device holding the extraoral film and intensifying

screen is called:
A. Film holder
B. Cassette holder
C. Screen holder
193. The target element used for magnetic resonance

imaging is:
A. Proton B. Neutron
C. Electron D . Positron
194. Identify the incorrect statement. Radiographic

investigation:
A. Is only for diagnosis
B. May be used intraoperatively
C. May be done digitally
D . Of follow-up radiographs are of great importance
195. Identify the wrong statement in the following. CT scan:

A . Is expensive and not always available
B. Radiation dosage is same as for plain radiographs
C. Obscures part of the image because radiopaque
restorations can cause artifaciual shadows
D . Has less information on soft tissue lesions than MRI
1 96. Which of the following imaging techniques do not use

X-radiation: -
1 . Ultrasound
2. Magnetic resonance imaging
3 . Computerized tomography
4. Technetium scan
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 ,3 , 4 ,
C. 3 and 4 D . 1 ,2 , 4
Oral Radiology 1 43
197. Tree-like radiolucent lines present on a developed

film is due to:
A. _ Developer stain
B. Increased milliampere
C. Raised temperature of the developing solution
D . Static electricity
198. All X-rays produced at the focal spot are referred to

as:
A. Primary beam
B. Remnant rays
C. Central ray
D . Useful rays
199. When struck by X-rays, some materials emit visible

light. If the light is delayed or continues after the X
ray exposure, the process is called:
A. Fluorescence
B. Phosphorescence
C. Luminisescence
D . Thermoluminescence
200. The purpose of the developer solution is to:

A. - Reduce silver bromide in the emulsion to metallic silver
which appear as black areas on the radiograph
B. Reduce silver bromide in the emulsion producing clear
areas on the radiograph
C. Oxidize the silver bromide in the emulsion producing
the black areas on the radiograph
D . Reduce silver from the silver bromide in the emulsions
producing clear areas on the radiograph
.;
·20 1 . Which geometric factor of shadow casting will
decrease the penumbra of the image:
A. An increased focal object distance
-
B. Decreased source film distance

C. A large focal spot
D . An increased object film distance
144 '-MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
-
202.' �The loss of contact with intensifying screen and film
may result in:
A. Screen damage
B. Film damage
C. Loss of image sharpness
D. Cassette holder damage
203. Rare earth group of elements includes the following

except:
A. Lanthanum B. Calcium tungstate
"
C. Gadolinium D. Terbium
E. Thulium
204. Fluorescent materials used in intensifying screens

include:
A. Calcium tungstate
B. Rare earth phosphorous
C. Yttrium
D. All of the above
205. Identify the incorrect statement. Use of intensifying

screens:
A. Transforms X�ray energy into visible light
B. Reduces the amount of radiation to expose a screen
film
C. 'Results in less radiation exposure to the patient
D . .: Improves the sharpness of the image
206. Identify the false statement. Rare earth screens:

A . Emit blue and green light
B., Ate abundantly available
C. Are more efficient than calcium tungstate screens
�. .
l)equire more X-ray ' exposure
(i
207. Th�:device used to restrict the size of the X-ray beam

is the:
A. Film holder B. Collimating device
C. Beam alignment <:ievice D. None of the above
Oral Radiology 1 45
208. A device that is used to help position the PID in

relation to tooth and film is:
A. Film holder B. Collimating device
C. Beam alignment device D . None of the above
209. In an orthopantomogram, the following objects can

produce artifact image except:
A. Necklaces B. E'.ar rings
C. Eye glasses D. Partial denture
210. Which of the midline structures can be imaged twice

on the orthopantomogram:
A. Nasal septum
B. Inferior turbinate
C. Falx cerebri
D. Spinal cord and hyoid bone
2 1 1 . All of the following structures may be seen in a

panoramic radiograph except:
A. E'.ar lobes
B. Superior turbinate
C. Inferior turbinate
D. External auditory meatus
E. Cervical ·vertebrae
2 1 2 . The following soft tissues are seen as radiopaque in

a radiograph except:
A. Nose
B. Ear
C. Soft palate
D. Eye
- � 13 . Which of the following is a true stateme.-t regarding
. .
/ X-rays:
A. Are a form of electromagnetic radiation unlike visible
light
B. Have more energy than visible light
C. Have a longer wavelength than visible light
D . Travel slowly than visible light
•••
.. 2 1 4. ,�yroid·collar and lead apron should be used in: ·' U" · - --
A. Intraoral radiography
B. Extraoral . radiography
C. Both extraoral and intraoral radiography
D. Only during cervical radiography
2 1 5 . Limiting size of the X-ray beam to the required size is

achieved by:
A. Collimation B. Rltration
. C. Absorption D . Grids
2 1 6. The longer the X-ray wavelength:

A. The greater the penetrating power
B. Less the penetrating power
C. Less effect on absorption
2 1 7. Which of the following will minimize secondary or

scattered radiation:
A. Lead backing in film packets
B. Collimation
C. Use of grids
2 1 8. Electrons that interact directly with the nucleus of

the target material results in X rays of relatively:
A. Low energy
B. Long wave lengths
C. High energy
D . Homogenous nature '
.
2 19. BrJ)wD stain, which .may appear on film after

prqc �ssing, is due to:
A. Over development
B. , Exposure to white light
C. Expired film
D. Incomplete washing
Oral Radiology- 1 47
220. The best radiographi� vfe� ior detection of alve�lar

fracture is:
A. Periapical B. Lateral oblique
-
C. Orthopantomogram D. True occlusal

E. Topographic
221 . A vertical root fracture may present with the following
features except:
A. Dull persistent pain
B. No radiographic sign
C. Thickening of the periodontal ligament
D. A diffuse radiopaque lesion
222. As the surface area of the focal spot increases, image

shatpness:
A. Decreases and heat damage increases
B. Decreases and heat damage decreases
C. Increases and heat damage increases
D . Increases and heat damage decreases
223. If all other factors remain the same, a decrease in

radiographic density may be due to:
A. 10 rnA rather than 15 rnA
B. gooF of developer rather than 80°F
C. E-speed ftlrn rather than D-speed
D. 90-kV rather than 65-kV
224. The film speed range for reducing radiation exposure

to patient is:
A. Speed C B. Speed E
�
.
C. Speed D D. Speed B
225� An X-ray beam has heterogeneous energy distribution ::

because of the following except: ,;
A. The electrons are accelerated at different spe�ds
'
B. The electron loose their energy in a random fashion
C. The electrons have same kinetic energies
D. Both characteristic and Bremsstralung photons are
generated
226. The following chemicals are found in the developer

except:
A. Sodium sulphite
B. Ammonium thiosulphate
C. Hydroquinone
D. Elon or metol
227. The component of the X- ray beam that penetrates

an object and carries diagnostic information is:
A. Leakage radiation
B. Primary radiation
C. Scattered radiation
D . Remnant radiation
228. A processed radiograph which is too light may have:

1 . Been processed i n the developer too long
2. Been processed under 30 watt safe light
3. Had too short a n exposure time
4. Been processed in a cold developer
A. 1 , 2
B. 2 ,3 , 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 3 and 4
229. If the milliamperage is increased from 5 to lO rnA,

the intensity of the X-ray beam would:
A. Double B. Increase by four times
C. Remain the same D. Decrease by half
230. If a processed radiograph shows long scale contrast.

it was produced by using a:
A. Lower milliampere B. Higher milliampere
C. Higher kilovoltage D. Lower kil'ovoltage
2 3 1 . The sum of the effects of the equivalent dose to each :

tissue or organ multiplied by a tissue weighing factor
is the:
A. Effective dose B. Cumulative dose
C. Exposure D . Radiation absorbed dose
Oral Rad iology 149
232. The dominant attenuati on mechan i s m in the

diagnostic range is:
A. Simple scatter
B. Pair production
C. Compton interaction
D. Photoelectric effect
233. Dental digital images require less radiation exposure

than film-based images because digital images do not
require chemical processing:
A. The statement is true but the reason is false
B. The statement is false but the reason is true
C. Both statements and reasons are false
D . Both statement and reasons are true but not related
E Both statement and reasons are true and related
234. As an X-ray photon interacts with the patient there

is movement of an electron from One ene�gy level of
an atom to a higher energy level within the same
atom. This process is known as:
A. Free radical formation
B. Simple scatter
C. Excitation
D. Ionization
235. If the object-film distance is decreased from 1f2" to .
1f4" all other factors remaining the same, the resultant__

,
image will be:

A. Smaller
B. Larger
C. The same
D . Unaffected
236. An increase in radiographic film density may b� found . '

with:
A. Increased rinsing time
B. Decreased film speed
C. Decreased processor water bath temperature
D. Dark room white light leakage
237. The image produced on an intra-oral·film is the result _ .. .-:..

of the action on the emulsion by:
A. Some visible light but mostly X-rays
B. Mostly visible light and some X-rays
C. Only visible light
D. Only X-rays
238. Advanced imaging modalities include the following:

1. . Occipitomental (Water's) view
2. Dental panoramic radiograph
3. MRI
4. CT Scan
5. Transcranial view of the TMJ
A. 1 ,2 , 3
B. 2,3
C . 3 , 4 ,5
D. 3,5
E. 3 ,4
239. As Kilovoltage increases, the subject fog from scatter

radiation:
A. Is increased
B. Is not dependent on kilovoltage
C. Remains the same
D . Is d�creased
240. An o perator uses XCP aligning instruments to

position a maxillary molar periapical film: The film is
placed such that the plane is not parallel to the palatal
tarigent of the teeth. This alignment is likely to
produce:
A. Elongation of the image
B. A brurred image
C. Fore-shortening of the image
D . Overlap of the proximal contacts
241 . A dose of 10 msv (milli sievert) is equal to:

A. 10 rem B. 0 . 1 rem
C�l' rem D. 1m rem
Ora. Rad iology 1 51
242. In the dark room, the recommended distance of the

safelight to the working surface and maximum
wattage for the bulb is:
A. 2 feet and 1 5W B. 2 feet and 6 W
c. 4 feet and 15W D . 4 feet and 6W
243. The function of the step down transformer in a dental

X-ray system is to:
A. Rotate the anode
B. Dissipate heat
C. Heat the filament
D. Apply potential difference
244. Changing the added filtration from 0.2 mm equivalent

to 0.5 mm equivalents will:
A. Have no effect on film density
B. Increase the film density
C. Decrease the film density
245. Photons that are in the same energy range as X-rays,

but originate in the nucleus of radioactive atoms are:
A. Gamma rays
B. Cathode rays
C. Alpha particles
D . Beta rays
246. Kilovoltane applied in an X-ray machine mainly

controls: '
A. The quality of X-ray beam
. B. The quantity of X-ray beam ·
C. The current flow to anode
D . NonEi of:the above
247. Miiliamperk second control in the X-ray machine is

mainly concerned with the:
A. Quality of the X-ray beam
�. Quantity of the X-ray . beam
C. Wavelength of the X-ray beam
D. Penetrating power of the X�ray beam
152 MCQs i n Or.al Medicine and Oral Radiology
-
- .--- -·. · �· · 248.- As the kilovoltage increases:

A. The wavelength becomes shorter
B. The wavelength becomes longer
c. The penetrating power decreases
. D . Neither the wavelength nor the penetrating power is
affected
;
249. Tungsten is used as the target material because it
has:
A. High vapor pressure
-
B. Low thennal conductivity
C. Low atomic number
D . High melting point
250. Increase in the filament current results in increased:

A. Number of photons
B. Number of electrons
C. Speed of electrons
D. Number of waves
-- 251. Function of oil around the X-ray tube is to:

A. Dissipate the heat produced
B. Acts as an inherent filter
C. Act as an inherent filter and to dissipate the heat
252. Tungsten wire in.: the form of a coil is used in the

cathode to:
A. Increase the strength of the coil
B. Produce large nUl11ber of electrons
�
C. Protect the filament from deterioration
D. None of the a..bo�e
�
253. Characteri�tic ra4�tion is produced by:

A. High kiiovoltage::-
'
B. High rnA
C. Low atomic number
D. Low atomic mass
Oral Rad iology 1 53
254. Breaking radiation is produced when fast moving

electrons interact:
A. With the atomic nuclei in the target of an X-ray tube
B. With the outer orbital electrons
C. With the tissues of the body
D. At any orbital level
255. Which of the following does not affect the beam

quality:
A. Kilovoltage & milliampere B. Tube filtration
C. ' Target material D . Time of exposure
E Distance from the source
256. Characteristic radiation:

A. Occurs as a result of electron transfer from one energy
level to another energy level
B. Is the main source of radiation from an X-ray tube
C. From k shell occurs with a tungsten target at 50 kilo
voltage
D. Is produced when the incident electron ejects an
electron from the outer most shell
257. Identify the true statement regarding X-rays:

A. Have wavelengths longer than visible light
B. Beams are made up of photons of same energy
C. Do not require medium for propagation
D. The shorter wavelength X-rays are referred to as soft
rays
258. Which of t�e following statements is incorrect

'.
regarding X-rays :
A. DentaJ X-ray
. equipment operates betwee n 50 and 90
.kV
:
B. :Removal of low energy photon is known as filtration
C. The maximum photon energy possible is directly related
to mA .'
Q. Intensity of the beam · is inversely proportional to the
square of the distance
.-
259. The main features of an X-ray tube consists of:

A. Cathode filament of tungsten
B. Cathode is connected to a high voltage circuit
C. Target made of copper
D. Row of current from anode to cathode
260. In a dental X-ray machine of 90 kV, the thickness of

aluminium required for total filtration is:
A. 3.5 mm B. 2.5. mm
C. 1 .5 mm D . 4 mm .
261. Identify the correct statement. :

1. Front and back screen absorbs similar energy X-ray
photons
2. Front screen absorbs low energy X-ray photons
3. Back screen absorbs high energy X-ray photons
4. Back screen absorbs low energy X-ray photons
5. Front screen absorbs high energy X-ray photons
A. 1 ,2 ,3
.- B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D . 4 and 5
E. 3,4,5
262. The most effective method of reducing patients

exposure to radiaiion is:
A. Use of fast films,
B. Reducing the time of exposure
C. -Reducing the n;tA ; ...
D . Use o f lead apron and thyroid collars .
263. Static elecmcity may result from the following except: :
A. Openin g a film . p�cket quickly

B. Occurs most frequently during periods of low humidity
C. Opening a film packet with gloved hand
D . OpeniJlg a film packet before touching other objects
Oral Radiology 1 55
264. The purpose of placing tongue in contact with palate

during exposure of a panoramic film is to prevent a
dark shadow that obscures the apices of:
A. Maxillary anterior teeth
B. maxillary posterior teeth
C. Maxillary anterior and posterior teeth
D. Mandibular anterior and posterior teeth
265. Advantages of panoramic radiography do not include

the following:
A. Larger area for visualization
B. Relatively simple procedure
C. Excellent patient cooperation
D . Minimal expOsure
E. Excenent image quality
266. The thyroid collar is not recommended in panoramic

radiography because:
A. It blocks the X-ray beam and obscures information
B. The thyroid gland is, exposed to small amount of
radiation -
C. It is impossible to sterilize the collar
D. All of the above
267. A radiograph that shows very dark areas and very

light areas is said to have:
A. High contrast
B. Low contrast
C. High density
",
D. Low density
268. Identify the true statement in the following:

A. An i n crease in obj e ct film dista n ce r e su lts i n
magnification
B. An increase in object film distance reduces magnification
C. A decrease in object film distance increases magnification
D. An increase or decrease in object film distance does
not affect the magnification.
269. The function of intensifying screen in a cassette is to:- ·

A. Increase the X-ray exposure to the film
B. Convert the X-ray energy to light energy
C. Reduce development time
D. Increase image resolution
270. Which of the following statements concel'Ding

protection of personnel is correct:
A. The operator may stay in the room with a patient when
making an exposure as long as a lead apron is worn.
B. In difficult situations, the operator may hold the film
for the patient Ichild
C. Either the operator or the patient may stabilize an
unstable tube head during exposure
271. Commonly used intraoral techniques does not include:

A. Periapicats of the maxilla and mandible
B. True occlusal view of the mandible
C. Bitewing of maxilla and mandible
D. True occlusal of the maxilla
E. Standard occlusal view of mandible
272. During X-ray production most of the kinetic energy

is transferred in the form of:
A. X-ray photons
.
B. Heat
C. Gamma radiation
D. Radioactive decay
273. Commonly found exposure technique errors do not

include:
A. Improper film positioning
B. Bending of the film
C. Cone cutting
D. Wrong processing .
Oral Radiology 1 57
274. Which of the following projections will provide the

most useful information for the diagnosis of displace
ment of mandibular fracture in the anterior region:
A. PA view of mandible B. Lateral oblique view
C. True occlusal view D. Water's view
E. PA skull view
•
275. To detect subcondylar fracture , the fol l o w i n g
projections are useful except:
A.. Transorbital B. Transpharyngeal
C. Reverse townes D . Transcranial view
276. The advantage of MRI over plain film includes:

A. Dimct multiplanar imaging
B. Sperialized personals are not required
C. Bony lesions are clearly imaged
D. None of the above is true
E All of the above are true
277. Disadvantages of panoramic radiography does not

include:
A. Certain amount of distortion
B. Costly equipment
C. Focal trough limitations
D. Reduced patient exposure
278. The cOlDmon skUll radiographic views used in

dentistry does not include:
A. Lateral cephalometric projection
B. Posteroanterior projection
C. Waters . projection
a· D. Submentovertex projection
E. Lateral oblique projection
279. Which of the following projections is most suitable
for examination of condylar neck fractures :
A . Submentovertex
B. Water's view
C. Lateral cephalometric view
D. Towne's view
E. Reverse Towne's view
280. Which of the following projections provides the most

useful information for diagnosis of anterior and
posterior displacement of mandibular fractures:
A. PA view of the mandible
B. Lateral oblique view of the mandible
C. Water's view
D. PA view of the skull
281. Water's projection is used to demonstrate the:

A. Anterior displacement of the fractures of the jaw
B. Hard palate
C. Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses
D. Maxillary sinus
282. Which of these extraoral projections is most suitable

for demonstrating a fracture located below the
condyle:
A. Water's view B. Caldwell view
C. Reverse Towne's view D. Lateral skuR view
283. Advantages of sonography does Dot iDdude:

A. Easy availability B. Relatively painless
C. Easy to perform D. Noninvasive
E. Relatively expensive
284. Disadvantages of intraoral periapical radiography

includes the following except: ·
A. Limitation of imaging area
B. Buccolingual dimension not visible
C. Accurate reproducibility
D. Image foreshortening and elongation
285. Advantages of periapi� radiography iDcludes the

following except:
A. High image resolution
B. Poor image resolution
C. Minimal distortion
D. Minimal radiation exposure
E. Readily available
Oral Radiology 1 59
286. The following radiographic features has the potential

for revealing the most information regarding -the
pathologic nature of the lesion except:
A. Border and density of the lesion
B. Location of the lesion
C. Size and shape of the lesion
D . Internal architecture
.� ---
E Effect of the lesion on adjacent structures
287. Which of the following radiographic or clinical signs

will assist in determining whether a lesion is benign
or malignant:
A. Effect of the lesion on teeth and supporting bone
B. Density of the lesion
C. Location and distribution of the lesion
D. Size and shape of the lesion
E. Age of the patient
288. I. If a lesion has mixed density, it is most likely benign

II. If a lesion resorbs roots it is most likely malignant:
A. I is true, II is false
B. I is false, II is true
C. I and II are false
D. I and II are true
289. I . If a lesion causes expansion of the bone it is most

likely benign
II. If a lesion causes displacement of teeth it is most
likely malignant:
A. I is true, II is false B. I is false , II is true
C . I and II are true D . I and II are false
290 . Carious imitators do not include:

A. Cervical burn out
B. Radiolucent filling material I .�
C . Erosion
D. Attrition
E Fractured crown
291 . Differential diagnosis of caries include the following

except:
A. Abrasion
B. Cervical bum out
C. External and internal resorption
D. Pulp polyp
E. Erosion
292. Identify the false statement. Calcium hydroxide is best

for the intracanal dressing because:
A . It permits hard tissue formation
B. It does not permit hard tissue formation
C. Inhibits microbes
D. Detoxifies residual lipopolysaccharide .
293. Metastasis to the jawbones commonly cuises from

A. Breast B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid D. Prostate
294. Which of these organs usually produce metastatic

osteoblastic activity: .
A. Kidney and thyroid
B. Thyroid and lung
C. Breast and colon ,
D. Breast and prostate
E. Prostate and colon
295. A well-defined radiolucency occurring at the apex of

a vital tooth is most likely to be:
A . Radicular cyst
B. Lateral peri0dontal cyst -,:: ...
C. Residual cyst
:. D. Unicystic ameloblastoma
2.�6 . . The tissues most readily resorbed are:

A . Enamel
B. Dentine
C. Cementum
D. Enamel and dentine
< Oral Radiology 161
297. The most resistant tissue to resorption is:

A. Enamel
B. Dentine
C. Cementum
D. Enamel and cementum
. 298. The most common cause of jaw swelling is:

A. Cysts ofthe jaws
.� -
B. Epithelial tumors
C . Acute infections
299. Protein levels of less than 4 g/dL suggests the

presence of a:
A. Primordial cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Periodontal cyst
D . Apical cyst
300. The most common cysts that occur in the jaws are:
A. Dentigerous cysts B. Residual cysts
C. Radicular cysts D. Keratocysts
301 . Differential diagnosis of well-defined periapical

radiolucency does not include:
A. Apical scar
B. Surgical bone defect
C. Stafne's bone cyst
D . Radicular cyst
E Unicystic ameloblastoma
302. Differential diagnosis of a dentigerous cyst does not

include:
A . An enlarged follicular space
B. Odontogenic fibroma
D . Adenamatoid odontogenic tumor
E Cystic ameloblastoma
1.,;:..
6..:;,
....:., 2.;-
. ..:;,
M C..:;,
--.,;.. Q,;...
s__ i "....:.....:.
O _
. ra I M
.- _ __
_. e_i c_
d_ i_e_
"_· a_
"_d_O
_ _
ra I_R
__
ad_i_
o_lo
-:g . . --...,.�
: __-'----.;.
:!:y
� ....,. _ .
303 Pericoronal lesions associated with an impacted

tooth does not include:
A. Dentigerous cyst
c. Ameloblastic fibroma
D. Early stage of complex odontome
E. Aneurysmal bone cyst
304. Which of the following lesions is not associated with � l
an impacted tooth:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
c. Early stage of compound odontome
D . Cystic ameloblastoma
E. Nasopalatine cyst
305. The following are the inflammatory cyst except:
A. Residual cyst
B. Buccal bifurcation cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
D . Periapical cyst
30 6. Non-inflammatorY cysts do not include:

A. Odontogenic keratocyst . B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Buccal bifurcation cyst D . Traumatic bone cyst
307. The cyst that has greater potential for recurrence is:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Apical cyst
D . Nasopalatine cyst ':
- +
308. The most co�mon location for an odontogenic tumor

:.
" to develop is the:
..r � A. Posterior body of the mandible
< ..
B. Anterior body of the mandible
C. Posterior body of the maxilla
D . Anterior body of the maxilla
Oral Radiology 1 63
309. Differential diagnosis of odontogenic keratocyst does

not include:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Odontogenic myxoma
D. Central giant cell lesion
E. Peripheral giant cell tumor
basal cell nevus syndrome:
A. Nevoid basal cell carcinomas
8. Skeletal abnormalities and eye abnormalities
C. Central nervous system abnormalities
D. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts
E. Intestinal polyposis
311. In Basal cell nevus syndrome, skeletal abnormalities

A. Vertebral fusion and bifid rib
B. Polydactyly
C. Temporal and temporoparietal bossing
D. Hypotelorism
E. Shortening of the metacarpals
3 12. Differential diagnosis of a lateral periodontal cyst

does not include:
A. Early stage of odontogenic keratocyst
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Mental foramen
D . Small neurofibroma
E. A radicular cyst at the foramen of a lateral pulp canal
313. The following are the examples of an odontogenic

cyst except: ·
A. Radicular cyst
B. Residual cyst
C . Lateral periodontal cyst
D . Odontogenic keratocyst
E. Incisive foramen cyst
1 64 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Ractiology
3 14. Examples oi odontog4mic cysts aoes not include:

�
A. Buccal bifurcation cyst
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst
D . Static bone cyst
3 1 5. Differential diagnosis of calcifying odontogenic cyst

does not include:
A. Ameloblastic fibroodontome
B. Fibroma
C. Adenematoid odontogenic: tumor ·
D . Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
E. Ameloblastoma
3 1 6. Examples of nonodontogenic cysts do not include:

A. Nasopalatine duct cyst
B. Nasolabial cyst
C . Dermoid cyst
D . Residual cyst
3 1 7. The following are the examples of cyst-like lesions

except:
A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Simple bone cyst
D . Buccal bifurcation cyst
3 18. Which of the following lesions is unlikely to cause

root resorption:
A. Ameloblastoma ·
B. Ossifying fibroma
C. Central giant cell granulomas
D . Fibrous dysplasia
3 1 9. Differential diagnosis of enostosis dbes not include:

A . Periapical cemental dysplasia .: - ;l
:
B. Hypercementosis
C. Cementoblastoma
D . Ch ondrosarcoma
E. Osteoid osteoma
Oral Radiology 1 65
320. Cysts arising from the cell rests are the following
except:
A . Lateral periodontal cyst
B. Gingival cyst of the new born
C. Eruption cyst
D . Odontogenic keratocyst
32 1 . Which of tlie following conditions is unlikely to

predispose to osteomyelitis of the jaw:
A. AIDS B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Anemia
322 . Cleidocranial dysostosis is inherited as:

A . An autosomal dominant
B. An autosomal recessive
C. A X- linked dominant
A . A X-liked recessive
323. Characteristic features of cleidocranial dysostosis

do not include:
A. Hyperplasia of the maxilla
B. Hypertelorism
C. Frontal and parietal bossing
D . Brachycephaly
E. Partial or complete absence of the clavicles
324. I dentify the true statement in c l e i d o cranial

dysostosis:
A. Maxilla is normally developed
B. Mandible is normally developed
C. Maxilla a_nd mandible are underdeveloped
D. Maxilla is n o rmally developed a n d m a n d i b l e
undeveloped
I�
E. Maxilla and paranasal sinus are normally developed
. 325. Cleidocranial dysostosis is a developmental anomaly

which does not primarily affect:
A . Skull B. Long bones
C. Clavicles D. Dentitio n
326. Radiographically characteristic skull findings in

cleid�cranial dysostosis do not i.,dude:
A. Brachycephaly
B. Delayed or failed closure of the fontanels
C. Multiple wormier bones
D. Closed skull sutures
327 . Radiographically. in cleidocranial dysostosis. the

features do not include:
A. Under development ofthe maxilla and paranasal sinuses
B. Maxillary micrognathia
C. Mandibular micrognathia
D. Multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth
328. Which of the following developmental anomalies are

not transmitted as an autosomal dominant:
A. Cleidocranial dysplasia
B. Craniofacial dysplasia
C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
D. Hemi- maxillofacial dysplasia
329. Characteristic clinical features of craniofacial

dysostosiS-do not include:
A. Frontal bossing
B. Hypertelorism
C. Exophthalmos
D. Maxillary hypoplasia
330. In craniofacial dysostosis:

A. Maxilla is underdeveloped
B. Mandible is underdeveloped
C. Maxilla is normally developed ,
D. MaXilla and mandible ate underdeveloPed
33 1 . Clinical features of mandibulofacia1 dysostosis does

not include: . . 1�
A. Under-development of the ;zygomatic' bones
B. Under-development of the mandible'
C. Malformation of the external ears
D. Presence of the external. auditory canal
Oral - Radiology 1 67
332. Disorders that can result in mandibular hypoplasia

does not include:
A. Romberg's syndrome
B. Hallermann-Streiff syndrome
C . Mandibulofacial dysostosis
D. Condylar agenesis
333. Differential diagnosis of hemi-facial hypertrophy do
not include:
A. Arteriovenous aneurysms
B. Hemangioma
;' C. Congenital lymphedema
D . Condylar hyperplasia
334. The best view for detecting a salivary stone in the

anterior portion of the Wharton's duct is:
A. Panoramic view
B. True occlusal view of the mandible
C . Standard occlusal view of the mandible
D . Lateral oblique view of the mandible
335. The densest D(�rmal structure in the body is:

A . Bone
B. Enamel
C. Dentine
D . Cartilage
336. The level of alveolar bone crest in young adult is

considered normal when it is:
A. 1 mm from the cementoenamel junction of adjacent
� teeth
B. 1 .5 mm from the cementoenamel jun'Ction of adjacent
teeth -
c. 2 mm from the cementoenamel
. "
-ju ction of adjacent
teeth
: : .
D . 2.5 mm from the cementoenamel junction of adjacent
teeth
1 68 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology .. . '
337 . Radiographic signs of trauma do not include:

A. Occlusal plane discontinuity
B. Radiolucent line between fractured fragments
C. Radiopaque areas where fractured fragments overlap
D . Bony expansion .
.
E Step like deformity
338. All of the following lesions may have similar

radiographic findings except: . ...
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Central giant cell lesion
C . Peripheral giant cell lesion
D . Eosinophilic granuloma
339. Radiographically bilateral multilocular lesion in the

mandible is characteristic of:
A. Cherubism B. Giant cell lesions
. C. Brown tumors D. Ameloblastoma
340. Clinical and radiographic features of cleidocranial

dysplasia do not include:
A. Malformation or absence of clavicles
B. Multiple osteomas
C. Multiple supernumerary teeth
D. Retention of primary teeth
E Underdeveloped maxilla and paranasal sinuses
341. Radiographically "hair on end" appearance is seen

in:
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Thalassemia
342. Radiographically poorly defined margin is not seen

in:
A. Osteosarcoma B. Chronic osteomyelitis
C. Garrie's osteomyelitis D. Secondarily infected cyst
, �, Oral Radiology._1 69. """ . ,,-
343. Radiographically a geminated tooth appears with:

A. A single pulp chamber and �lrigle root canal
B. A single pulp chamber and two root canals
C . A single root canal and two pulp chambers
D . Two pulp chambers and two root canals
344. Radiographically a radiopaque mass surrounded by

a radiolucent rim is seen in:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Complex odontome
D . Sialolithiasis
345. C h aracter i s t i c r a d i o grap h i c ap p e ara n c e o f

taurodontism is:
A. Abnormal shape of crown with normal pulp chamber
B. Abnormal shape of crown with shortened pulp chamber
C . Normal shape of crown with normal root canal
D . Normal shape of crown with elongated pulp chamber
346. Union of roots of adjacent teeth by cementum is

known as:
A. Taurodontism B. Gemination
C. Concrescence D. Fusion
347. A traumatic cyst is:

A. Seen between the inferior portion of the alveolar
process and the inferior dental canal
B. Seen between the inferior dental-canal and the lower
border of mandible
C. Always associated with trauma
D . Always associated with a non-vital tooth
348. Stafne's cyst is:

A. A true developmental cyst
B. A true odontogenic cyst
C . Located in the anterior region 0f mandible
D . Located between the inferior dental canal and the lower
border of the mandible,
349 . Cherub ism appears radiographically as:

A. Unilateral multilocular radiolucency
B. Bilateral mixed radiolucency
C. Bilateral multilocular radiolucency
D. Bilateral unilocular radiolucency
350. An extraoral film is least suitable for:

A. Detection of interproximal caries
B. Locating impacted teeth
C. Viewing paranasal sinuses
D. Determining the extent of fracture of jaws
35 1 . Which of the following is not visible on bitewing

radiographs:
A. Insipient caries
B. Recurrent caries
C. Apical abscess
D. Alveolar crest resorption
352. The characteristic radiographic appearance of
osteogenic sarcoma is:
A. Subperiosteal erosion
B. Sunburst appearance
C. Tennis racket appearance
D . Cotion wool appearance
353. Aden omatoid odontogenic tumor is seen most

commonly in the:
A. Anterior region of the mandible
B. Anterior region of the maxilla
C. Posterior region of the mandible
D . Posterior region of maxilla
354. Brown tumor develops as result of:
B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D . Hypoparathyroidism
Oral Radiology 1 71
355. Periapical cementoma is seen radiographically as a :

A. Radiolucent lesion B. Radiopaque mass
C. A mixed lesion D. All of the above
356. The submentovertex radiograph:

A. Demonstrates the · zygomatic arches
B. Is indicated in cervical spine injury
'
C. Requires higher exposure than paranasal sinus view
D. Demonstrates fractures of the mandible
357 . The commonest site for metastasis in the mandibular
region is the:
A. Ramus of the mandible
B. Condylar region
C. Anterior region of the mandible
D. Body of the mandible
358. Which of the following statements is most approp. riate

regarding gemination:
A. Fusion of the two tooth buds
B. Fusion of the two teeth by cementum only
C. Incomplete or attempted division of a tooth bud
D. A bend occurring along the crown or root of a tooth
359 . The defect in dens-in-dente (dense invaginatus) is due
to:
A. Fusion of two adjacent normally developing tooth germs
B. Invagination of inner enamel epithelium into the crown
of the developing tooth
C . Sclerosis of the dentinal layer adjacent to the pulp
D . Evagination of the outer enamel epith el ium into the
crown of a developing tooth
360. The best radiographic view for detecting a zygomatic

arch fracture is the:
."
A. PA view of the maxilla

B. Lateral view of the maxilla
C. AP view of the maxilla
D . Submentovertex
-� 1 72 MCQs i n Oral Medicine and·Oral, Radiology ... . �,_c=_" .• , .. _ .... ,_"
....
� . __.. .
36 1 . Radiographically_ a ragged and poorly defined margin

is seen in:
A. Garde's osteomyelitis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma involving the bone
C. An uninfected cyst
362. Which of the following lesion does not have a "hanging

tooth" appearance:
A. Severe periodontal abscess
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
D. Osteolytic sarcoma
E. Osteoblastic sarcoma
363. A well-defined radiolucency between the roots of vital

maxillary central incisors is probably a:
A. Lateral periodontal cyst B. Residual cyst
C. Incisive foramen cyst D. Nasolabial cyst
364. Transposition of a tooth means:

A. Tooth erupted in an exchanged position
B. Tooth rotated through more than 90 degrees
C. Surgical repositioning of a tooth
365. Radiographic evidence of metastasis to the mandi

ble is:
A. Swelling of the mandible
B. Deviation of the jaw
C. Pain in the affected area
D. Widening of the inferior dental canal -
366. Malignancy of the �axillary antral floor typically

causes the following::except:
A. Mobility of the teeth
B. Root resorption'
C. Malocclusion
D. Displacement of the teeth
367 . Identify the true statement. Cervical burn out:
A. Can be distinguished from root caries I recurrent caries
B. Is rectangular in shape
C. Usually will appeari n only one tooth
D. Different penetration of related tissues by radiation is
not a factor
368. Which of the following differentiates a cyst from a

granuloma on a radiograph:
A. Cysts have a well defined and sclerotic margin
B. Cysts are usually smaller than granulomas because of
.
ongoing resorption
C. Both have foci of calcification
D. Granulomas may have well-defined margins and can
cause buccolingual expansion
369. Which of these structures are not usually recognized

in an intraoral periapical radiograph:
A. Mental foramen B. Nutrient canals
C. Coronoid process D. Infraorbital foramen
E. Hamular process
-
370. Following anatomical structures can be visualized in

an intraoral periapical radiograph except:
A . Internal oblique ridge B. Submandibular fossa
C. Mandibular foramen D. Incisive foramen
37 1 . Multiple areas of radiolucency are common in the

following lesions except: \
A. Multiple myeloma B. Hyperparathyroidism
.
C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteoporosis
E. Metastatic tumors of bone
372. A radiograph of a young person shows that all

permanent teeth have thin roots and obliterated pulp
chambers. This is indicative of:
A . Achondroplasia
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
D . Osteogenesis imperfecta
1 74 . MCQs i n Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
373. Radiographically, tooth vitality is determined by:

A. Abnormal appearance of tooth
B. Presence of secondary dentine
C. Proximity of caries to the pulp
D. Apical involvement
E None of the above
374 . Sun burst or sun ray" appearance is characteristic

••
of:
A. Osteolytic osteosarcoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Multiple myeloma
375. Bilateral, asymptomatic, symmetrical swelling of the
mandible in a young child is likely to be:
A. An ameloblastoma
B. A primordial cyst
C. A dentigerous cyst
D. Cherub ism
_376. Cushing's syndrome may not present with which of
the following f�tures:
A. Kyphosis of thoracic spine
B. Hypotension
C. Generalized osteoporosis
D. Weakness
'
377. Which of these statem ents about periapi cal
granuloma is incorrect:
A. Is the most common lesion found at the apex of a non-
vital tooth �
B. May develop from an acute periapical abscess

C. Radiographically' is:associated with loss· of lamina dura
at the apex .;' ;-
D. Can m isdiagn�se as an early stage of periapical
cementoma
Oral Radiology 1 75
3 7 8 . Identify the most appropriate feature in the diagnosis

of a periapic�j -granuloma. :
A. Tooth must have restoration
B. Tooth must be vital
C. Tooth must be non vital
D . Radiolucency must be well-defined
379. Which of these statements is incorrect concerning
osteomyelitis:
A. Is an inflammation of bone and bone marrow
B. Occurs more in mandible
C. Occurs in mandible and maxilla in the same frequency
D . Radiographically can mimic malignancy
380. Pyramidal fractures, also known a s Le Forte I I
fracture involve:
A. Nasal bones
B. Sphenoid sinus
C . Palatal and maxillary sinus
3 8 1 . Initial radiographic evidence of api cal pathology

following acute pulpitis is:
A. Rarefaction of alveolar bone
B. Inflammation of periodontal tissues
C . Condensing osteitis
. D . Widening of the periodontal space
382. A middle aged person, who complained of pain in
the mandible rev�al�d several small r.egular distinct
radiolucent lesions. Bence-Jones protein test i s
positive. The m�t .probable diagnosis i s :
A. Eosinophilic gtaIitdoma
B. Malignaht melar'ioma
C. Multiple myeloma
D . Metastatic carcirioma
383. Radiographically acute alveolar abscess may appear

as a:
A. Well-defined radiolucency at the apex of the tooth
B. Poorly defined radiolucency at the apex of a vital tooth
C. widening of the periodontal space and rarefaction of
the lamina dura
384. Radiographically ameloblastoma can have the
following appearances except:
A. Orange peel appearance
B. Unilocular cystic appearance
C. Multilocular cystic appearance
D. Honey comb appearance
385. Radiographically "hanging tooth" appearance is
typically seen in:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the buccal mucosa
D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the gingiva
386. An increase in Pericoronal radiolucency associated
with an erupted canine is diagnostic of:
B. Complex odontome
C. Compound odontQme
387. A periapical cementoma commonly occurs in the:
A. Upper anterior region
B. Lower anterior region
C. Upper canine region
.
D. Lower: molar region

388. Periapical cemental dysplasia:
A. Occurs at the apical areas of the nonvital central incisors
B. Occurs at the apical areas of the vital central incisors
C. Tend to enlarge symmetrically
D. Always surrounded by a well corticated margin
Oral Radiology 1 77
389. Radiographic differential diagnosis of adenomatoid

odontogenic -tumor include the following except:
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Eruption cyst
D. Pindborg tumor
390. Which of the following is not a feature of Godin's

syndrome:
A. Multiple keratocysts
B. Multiple squamous cell carcinomas
C. Bifid ribs
D. Calcification of the cerebral falx
39 1 . The best radiographic view for detecting a fracture

of the lower anterior region is the:
A. Periapical view
B. PA view of the mandible
C . Topographic view of the mandible
D. Orthopantomogram
392. Which radiograp h i c view best d i s p l ays the

buccolingual displacement of a mandibular fracture:
A . Topographic view of the mandible ,
B. Periapical view of the mandible
C . True occlusal view of the mandible
D . PA view of the mandible
393 . Which of the following statements is incorrect

regarding fractures:'
A . Are seen as a ,radiolucent line between the fragments
B. Are see� as a�radiopaque area in overriding fractures
C . Inferior dental aWai is continuous in all types of fractures
in the mandible ,.
D . Are seen as a step-like deformity of the mandible
394. A dental cyst in the maxillary antrum appears as:

A. Completely radiolucent lesion in the antrum
B. An opacity of the affected antrum
C. Radiolucent area with areas of calcification
D. Dense radiopaque area . of the. affected antrum
395. The main radiographic feature of hyperparathyroidism
is do not include:
A. Subperiosteal erosion
B. Generalized opacification of the bone
C. Loss of lamina dura
D. Formation of Brown tumor
396. "Step ladder" appearance in a radiograph i s
characteristic of:
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
397. Evidence of bone infarction is seen in:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Thalassemia
398. Which of the following statements is not applicable
to acromegaly :
A. Thickening of the bones of the skull vault .
B. Enlargement and distortion of the pituitary fossa
C. Enlargement maxilla
D. Enlargement of the mandible .
399. Which �f the following statements is not applicable
to acromegaly:
A. Thickening and enlargement of the alveolar bone
B. Enlargement of the inferior dental canal
c. Premature eruption of teeth
D. Normally results in an open bite
Oral Radiology 1 79
400. Mucous retention cyst of the maxillary sinus appears

as:
A. A well-defined round dome shaped opacity
B. An ill-defined dome shaped opacity
C. Always as a bilateral lesion
D. A thickening of the remainder of the epithelium
40 1 . The best radiographic view for detecting the level of
alveolar crest is:
A. PA view of the mandible
B. Bitewing radiograph
C. Periapical view
D . Orthopantomogram
402 . The most common epithelial odontogenic tumor is:
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Ameloblastic fibroma
C. Ameloblastic fibroodontome
D . Compound odontome
403 . The term dilacerations refers to:
A. An acute bend along the course Of the root
B. Normal curvature of the root
C. Abnormal root length
404. An additional tooth that erupts on the buccal aspect
of the upper molars is termed:
A. Distomolars
B. Paramolars
C . Mesiodent
:.
405. A snpe,rnumerary tooth can be a:
A. Mesiodent
B. Paramolar
C. Supplemental tooth
4-06: Characteristically, phleboliths are seen in:

,j\. Myxomas
B. Hemangiomas
C. Fibroma
D. Lymphangiomas
407 A well-defined radiolucency with corticated margin

at the apex of a nonvital tooth is:
A. A cementoma
B. A chronic abscess
C. An apical cyst
D. A residual cyst
408. A well-defined radiolucency with corticated margin

at the apex of vital molar is a:
A. Radicular cyst
B. Maxillary antrum shadow
C. Surgical bone defect
D . Residual cyst
409. The lingual foramen is seen in the:

A. M�illary molar region
B. Mandibular premolar region
C. Mandibular anterior region
D. Maxillary anterior r�gion
4 1 0. The external oblique ridge is seen along the cervical
po�ion of the:
A. Mandibular molars
B. Maxillary molars
C . Mandibular premolars and molars
D .- M�xillary premolars and molars
4 1 1 . The best way of detecting recurrent caries is by:
A : ,Glinical examination
B. lntraoral periapical radiograph
C. Bitewing radiograph
D . Occlusal radiograph
o.ral Radiology 1 81
4 1 2 . The most common cause of chronic jaw swelling is:

A. Radicular cyst B. Primordial cyst
C. Keratocyst D. Residual cyst
4 1 3 . Basal cell nevus syndrome may present with the
following features except:
A. Multilocular radiolucency of the mandible
B. Calcification of falx cerebri
C. Vertebral fusion
D. Multiple impacted teeth
414. Which of these statements do not ap p l y to
odontogenic cysts? They are:
A. Always dentigerous
B. Usually radiolucent
C. Radiologically similar to odontogenic tumors
D. Occasionally multilocular in radiographs
4 1 5 . Which of these is not a radiographic presentation of
ameloblastoma:
A. A cystic lesion
B. Buccal and lingual expansion of bone
C. A dentigerous type of lesion -
D . A dense radiopaque lesion
416. Which of these is not a radiographic presentation of
an ossifying fibroma:
A. A radiolucent lesion
B. A mixed lesion
C. Always radiolucent
D . Early lesion can mimic unicystic ameloblastoma
4 1 7 . The following statements are all true about florid
cemento-osseous dysplasia except:
A. May present on the panorex as a four quadrant lesion
B. Is always a two quadrant lesion "
C. Was previously called gigantiform cementoma

D. Four quadrant lesions may signify a hereditary origin
E. Occasionally a definitive diagnosis is made only by
radiographic findings
1 82 . MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
4 1 8. Imaging modalities for pathology of the salivary gland

. :. include:
A. Plain radiograph without contrast
B. Plain radiograph with contrast
C. MRI and CT scan
D. Nuclear imaging modality
E. All of the above
4 1 9. Which of these statements is false regarding the

appearance of a salivary gland stone:
A. A radiopaque mass
B. Always radiopaque mass
C. Easily diagnosed by occlusal radiOgraph
D. More common in the submandibular salivary gland
420. Which of these statements about the radiology of the

. impacted 3rd molar is incorrect:
A. Tramlines are of significance
B. Nipping of the tramline may be a finding
C. Amber line is not necessary in �e assessment of difficult
surgery
D� Relationship to the ascending ramus / or second molar
is of importance
E. Redline of 5 means surgical removal under anesthesia
42 1 . Which of these statements is not applicable to the

radiology of implants:
}\. Dental panoramic radiograph is very important
Q. Aid in the predicting the length of the implant to be
used
C. pcclusal radiograp� assist in selecting the diameter of
the implant
j). It is important to rule out undetected pathology
E.. : A CT-scan should always be done
',
I ,; .
422.
.
R�garding fracture of the middle 3rd of the face, the
following statements are all true except:
. A. Present as a, discontinuity of the infraorbital rim
B. Always present as radiopacity of the maxillary antrum
Oral Radiology 1 83
c. May present as a V�shaped depression ofthe zygomatic

arch
D . Opacification of the maxillary sinus may be seen in
association with discontnuity of the lateral wall
�. O�cipitomental view assists in making a diagnosis
423 . M ultiple buried supernumerary teeth m a y be
associated with:
A. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
B. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
D . Cleidocranial dysostosis
424. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the space
between the dorsum of the tongue and hard palate.
It:
A. Is radiolucent on the pantomogram
B. Is · radiopaque in the pantomogram
C . Is also known as palatoglossal space
D . Can be obscured by surgical emphysema
425.: Radiographic changes in the bones of the skull in
sickle cell anemia have a:
. A. Honey comb appearance
B. Generalized widening of the periodontal spaces
C . ··hair on end" appearance
D . Laminated appearance
E Sunburst appearance .:.
426. Generalized widening of the periodontal space is

associated with the following conditions except:
'
A. Scleroderma , B. Leukemia
C. Osteoporosis D. Osteopetrosis .
427 . Which of these :lesioD!;W is not visualized radio-
graphically:
A. Nasolabial cyst B. Incisive canal cyst
C. Static bone cyst D. Traumatic bone cyst
.-
428. The anatomic structure commonly superimposed

over the apices of the mandibulil:r premolars is:
A. Ungual foramen
B. Mental foramen
C. Mandibular foramen
D. Submandibular fossa
E. Inferior dental canal
429 . M agnetic resonance imaging depends on the

following parameters except:
A. Proton density B. Neutron density
C. T1 relaxation time D. T2 relaxation time
430. Odontogenic cyst with a high rate of recurrence is:

A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Periapical cyst
D . Residual cyst
431 . Multiloculated "soap bubble " like radiolucency is

associated with:
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Myxoma
E. Any of the above
432. Sialographic appearance of the parotid gland in
Sjogren's syndrome is described as "cherry blossom"
like because of:
A. Punctate cavitatary defects in the ducts
B. The presence of epirnyoepithelial islands
C . Lymphocytic infiltrate in glandular 1?ssue
•
D Preservation of lobular tissue

.
1-;
433. Among the odontogenic cysts the most common is:
A. Radicular cyst B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Keratocyst D. Residual cyst
Oral Rad iology 185
434. Which of the following projection is best suitable for

examination of the so� tissue profile of the face:
A. Towne's projection
B. Transorbital
C. Anteroposterior projection
D. Lateral cephalometric projection
435 . Which of the fol lowing projection i s ideal for
examination of the condyle and articular eminence:
A. Posteroanterior projection
B. Anteroposterior projection
C. Transpharyngeal projection
D. Transcranial projection
E. Submentovertex
436. Advantages of MRI for the TMJ are the following

except:
A. No ionizing radiation
B. Enhanced range of soft tissue contrast
C. Two dimensionai representation of the articular disc
D. Enhanced range of soft tissue as well as hard tissue
contrast
437 . Disadvantages of MRI does not include:

A . Osseous alterations are shown better i n CT
B. Very short time commitment of the patient
C . Not indicated in patients with claustrophobia
D . Not advisable in patient�.with cardiac pacemakers
E. Not indicated in patients with ferromagnetic implants
438. Systemic conditions associated with thin trabecu
lation and rarified bone ·patterns of the jaw are the
following except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism - : :
B. Early stages of Paget' s dis�ase
· .'
..
C. Osteoporosis
D. Leukemia
E. Hypoparathyroidism
�•. lit- .. ¥4.!f..:. . ' .. US -'!it-
1 86 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Ra�iology
439. Hypercementosis can be a result of the following

. except: :..
.
A. Paget's disease B. Acromegaly
C. Physiologic i>. Idiopathic
E. Acute apical infections
440. Premature eruption of teeth are not seen in:

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Gigantism
D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Adjacent benign vascular lesions
441 . Malignancies that can result in early loss of teeth are
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Leukemia
C. Lymphoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
E. Neuroblastoma
. 442. Generalized loss of lamina dura is not seen in:

A. Leukemia
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteomalasia
D . Multiple myeloma
443. Increased width of the periodontal membrane is seen
in he following conditions except:
A. Scleroderma B. Myxoq1a
C. Traumatic occlusion D . Periodontosis
E. Diabetes
444. Increased pericoronal radiolucency is ' seen in the

following conditions except: � ..
A . Normal variation of the follicv.1ar spac�

.:.
B. Dentigerous cyst
D. Submerged tooth
E. Adenomatoid odontogenic ;tumor
Oral Radiology 1 87
445 . Increased pericoronal radiolucency is not seen in:

B. Amelobalstic fibroma
C. Early stage of calcifying odontogenic cyst
D . Odontomes
446. Widening of the mandibular canal is seen in the
following conditions except:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Neurofibroma
C. Vascular tumors D . Metastatic malignancy
447 . The fol l owing conditions are ass o c i ated with
radiolucency below the mandibular canal except:
·
A. Submandibular fossa
B. Stafne's bone cyst
C . Traumatic bone cyst
D . Benign tumor of the salivary gland
E Subperiosteal neurofibroma
448. Onion peel or laminated appearance is not a

characteristic feature of:
A. Garre' s osteomyelitis
B. Ossification of subperiosteal hematoma
C. Chronic osteomyelitis
D � Ewing's sarcoma
E" Periostitis of the mandible
449. Which of the following do not h ave " Sunray"

appearance:
A. Osteogenic sarcoma B. Neuroblastoma
C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteolytic sarcoma
450. Frontal bossing is seen in the following conditions
except :
A. Achondroplasia
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Basal cell nevus syndrome
D ;- Osteopetrosis
E. Fanconi syndrome
45 1 . Radiographic appearance of hemangioma does not

include:
A. Sunb';lrst appearance
B. Multilocular appearance
C. Tennis racket appearance
D . Honey comb appearance
E. Spoke of a wheel
452. Differential diagnosis of calcifying odontognic cyst

includes the following except:
B. Ameloblastic fibroma
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Buccal bifurcation cyst
453. "Hair on end" appearance in seen in the following

conditions except:
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Ewing's sarcoma
454. Hypertelorism is not seen in:

A. Apert syn4rome
B. Mandibular facial dysostosis
C. Craniofacial dysostosis
D . Gardner's syndrome
455. Pathological fractures may be seen in all of the

A. Metastatic carcinoma
B. Osteogenic' sarcoma
C. Osteoradionecrosis
D. Alveolar atrophy
E. Primary intraosseous carcinoma
Oral Radiology 1 89
456. Antral opacity with breached cortical walls are seen

in the following conditions except:
A. Oro-antral fistula
B. Carcinoma of the antrum
c. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
D. Salivary gland carcinoma
E. Pleomorphic adenoma
457. Differential diagnosis of an impacted tooth with

pericoronal radiolucency with radiopaque areas
includes the following except:
B. Ameloblastic fibroodontome
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D . Compound odontome
458. I dentify the false statement regarding the eruption

cyst:
A. It is a form of dentigerous cyst
B. Radiographically appears as a mixed radiolucent area
C. Common in the upper anterior region
D . Clinically soft tissue thickness can be seen·
459. Differential diagnosis of lateral periodontal cyst

A. Botryoid odontogenic cyst
.
C. Early ameloblastoma
D. Odontogenic myxoma
E Cementoblastoma
·
460. C l i ni c a l a n d rad iographic features of l ateral
periodontal cyst will include the following except:
A. Round or tear drop shaped unilocular radiolucency
B. presence of root divergence
C . Associated with vital teeth
D . Associated with a non mobile tooth
E Presence of a soft tissue swelling
,_ 1 90 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
461 . Regarding residual cyst. identify the correct answer.

It is:
A. A type of inflammatory cyst
B. A type of recurrent cyst
C. Always associated with bony expansion
D. Recurrence is quite common
462. Regarding the eruption cyst identify the false

.,.,
statement:
A. It is a type of dentigerous cyst
B. Radiographically appears as a well-defined radiolucency
C . Occasionally eruption sequestrum can be seen in the
radiograph
D. Can lead to the formation of eruption hematoma
463. Identify the false statement regarding lateral
periodontal cyst:
A. Is a primordial cyst
B. Is more common in males
C. Is commonly seen in adults
D. Associated teeth are nonvital and non mobile
E. Has no root resorption
464. Differential diagnosis of cementoblastoma include
the following lesions except:
A. Condensing osteitis
B. Hypercementosis
C. Metastatic carcinoma
D. Osteoblastoma
E. Ossifying fibroma
465r Clinical and radiographic features of cementobJas

toma do not include:
A. Obliteration by a radiopaque mass at the apical half of
the root
B. A radiolucent rim or margin around the opaque mass
C. Nonvital tooth
D . Vital tooth
Oral Radiology 1 91
466. Characteristic features of odontogenic myxoma

A. Tendency for local invasion
B. Tendency for distant metastasis
C. Asymptomatic jaw expansion
D. Multilocular or honey comb appearance
467 . Examples of hamartomas do not include:
A. Odontoma
B. Ameloblastic fibroodontome
C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
D. Choristomas
468. Which of these lesions do not have a tendency for
local invasion:
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Odontogenic myxoma
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Odontoameloblastoma
E Centrai hemangioma
469: Lesions that ca!l have a honey comb appearance

A. Ameloblastoma B. Central hemangioma
C. Odontogenic myxoma D. Ameloblastic fibroma
470. Benign tumors that are likely to resorb the roots do
not include:
A. Ameloblastoma B. Fibrous dysplasia
C . Ossifying fibroma D. Central giant cell tumor
47 1 . Advantages of CT scan in a case of amel.obl�stoma
·
are the following except:
A. Confirms the diagnosis � "
;. B. Accurate demonstration of the lesion I i.
C. Detection of the perforation of the : outer cdrtex

D. Inability to detect invasion into the surrounding tissues
E Useful for post-surgical assessment
1 92 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology _
_
472. Differential diagnosis of ameloblastoma include the

following except:
A. Odontogenic keratocyst B. Central giant cell tumor
C. Odontogenic myxoma D . Ossifying fibroma
E. Eosinophilic granuloma
473. Differential diagnosis of calcifying epithelial

odontogenic tumor do not include:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Botryoid odontogenic cyst
C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
D. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
E. Ameloblastic fibroodontome
474. Complications of post radiation therapy do not

include:
A. Radiation caries
B. Osteoradionecrosis
C. Pathological fracture
D. Proliferative osteomyelitis
475. Rote of radiographs in a p«?st
-
irradiated case do not
include the detection of:
A. Tumor recurrence - B. Metastasis
C. Osteoradionecrosis D . Traumatic fracture
476. D ifferential diagnosis of c hro n i c sclerosing _
osteomyelitis include the following except:
A. Paget's disease
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Infantile cortical hyperosteosis
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Chondrosarcoma
,;
'
477. Generalized osteoporosis can be seen in the lot,owing I'�' :
conditions except: :; ':

A. Cushing's syndrome B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Hyperparathyroidism D . ' Leukemia
E. Old age
Oral Radiology 1 93
478 . Differential diagnosis of odontogenic myxoma do not

include:
A. Peripheral giant cell tumor
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Central giant cell tumor
D . Central hemangioma
479. The lesions commonly seen in the mandibular molar/

premolar region are following except:
A. Cementoblastoma
B. Odontogenic myxoma
C. Central giant cell tumor
D. Periapical cemental dysplasia
E. Ameloblastic fibroma
480. Differential diagnosis of cementoblastoma do not

include:
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
Myxofibroma
B. ·
C. Enostosis
D. Hypercementosis
E. Periapical sclerosing osteitis
48 1 . Widening of the inferior dental canal is seen in the
A. Neurofibroma
B. Neurilemoma
C. Neurofibromatosis
D . Vanishing bone disease
E. Central hemangioma
482. In vascular lesions, Magnetic Resonance.' Angio-

graphy is helpful in identifying:
A. Size of the lesion
B. Extent of the lesion
C. Vessels involved
D. All of the above
,-
483 . Radiographically generalized widening of the

periodontal membrane is seen in the followiR1J
conditions except:
A. Tooth mobility
B. Orthodontic tooth movement
C. Intermaxillary fixation of the jaw
D. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
E. Systemic sclerosis
484. Radiographic evidence of osteosarcoma may include

A. An area of ill-defined radiolucency
B. Onion peel appearance
C. Sun ray appearance
D . Presence of codman's triangle
485. Radiographic evidence of osteosarcoma does not
include:
A. Presence of soft tissue mass
B. Narrowing of the periodontal membrane space
C. Loss of lamina dura
D. Widening of the inferior delltal canal
486. Differential diagnosis of osteosarcoma include:
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. All of the above
487. Radiographic features of paget's disease does not

include:
A. Oesteolytic areas
B. Soap bubble appearance
C. Ground glass appearance �
D� Cotton wool appearance

488. Differential diagnosis of osteosarcoma does not
include:
A. Osteochondroma B. Ewing's sarcoma
C. Osteomyelitis D. Solitary plasmacYtoma
Oral Radiology 1 95
489. Differential diagnosis of chondrosarcoma does not

. include:
__
A. Oesteosarcoma B. Fibrous dysplasia

C. Eosinophilic granuloma D. Florid osseous dysplasia
490. Differential diagnosis of hypercementosis does not
include:
A. Dilaceration B. Enostosis
Co Cementoblastoma D. Osteoid osteoma
491. Multiple areas of radiolucency in bones are common

to each of the following except:
� A. Multiple myeloma
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteopetrosis
Do Malignant melanoma
E. Metastatic tumors of bone
492. All of the following lesions may h ave similar

radiographic findings except:
A. Ameloblastoma B. Giant cell lesions
C. Complex odontome D. Eosinophilic granuloma
493. Multiple discrete apical radiolucencies associated
with an asymptomatic vital anterior teeth are
indicative of:
A. Periapical granulomas
B. Early stage of periapical cementomas
(;. Apical scars
D. Periapical cysts
494. Mandibular peri o steitis and ostem yelitis are

co�monly associated with:
A . . . Mercury poisoning Bo Phosphorous poisoning
�C.:: arsenic poisoning D. Bismuth poisoning '
� I; .
495. &ternal root resorption is most often associated

' with:
A. Periapical granuloma B. Periapical cyst
C. Eosinophilic' granuloma D . Odontogenic fibroma
1 96 MCQs i n Oral Medicinecand ...Oral J�adiology
49 6. A macrodontic double- crowned maxillary central

incisor .�ith a single root and canal is:
A. Fusion B. Taurodontism
C. Gemination D. Dens invagination
497. Presence of talon cusp in a tooth can be mistaken
for:
A. Dilaceration B. Supernumerary tooth
C. Fusion D. Gemination
498. Mental foramen may be mistaken for the following
lesions except:
A. Primary malignant lesion B. Metastasis
C. Periapical pathosis D. Condensing osteitis
499 . Cervical burn out is a significant factor in the
diagnosis of:
A . Early interproximal caries
B. Presence of a retained root
C. Carious exposure of the pulp
D. Apical abscess
5()O. Radiographic evidence of traumatic bone cyst does
not include: ,J
A. Location below the inferior dental canal

B. Location above the inferior �ental canal
C. Complete radiolucency
D. Intact lamina dura
-
5 0 1 . Identify th� false statement. The typical magnifica-

tions of radiographs used in dentistry are:
A. Periapica1 4% B. Bitewings 8%
C. Cephalom�tric film 10% D . -Panoramic film 20-25%
502. The follO\\ring cysts are associated with a vital tooth
except: ,)
A. Lateral periodontal cyst B. Stafne's bone cyst
C . TraumatiC bone cyst D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
E. Apical cyst
Oral Radiology 1 97
mUE OR FALSE
Write True or False to the following statements:
1 . Long target-film distance in the paralleling technique results
in less image magnifi�tion and increased definition . T/F
2 . Dental X- rays should be taken only when the benefit
outweigh the risk of radiation. T/F
.
3 . Dental radiographs are the property of the dentist and
patients can have access or have a copy of the radiograph.
T/F
4. Panoramic radiographs clearly reveal changes in teeth, like
caries or the details of the supporting bone. T/F
5 . Localization of foreign objects is one of the important uses
of dental radiographs. T/F
6. Localization of an impacted tooth is the most important
use of dental radiographs. T/F
7 . The benefit of disease detection does outweigh the risk of
small doses of radiation. T/F
8 . Ideally, . for quality control purpose , each new box of
unopened fIlm should be tested for film freshness and fog
before it is exposed. T/F
9. Ideally, a view box should emit a uniform light. T/F
1 0 . Elan in the developer brings out the contrast in the
radiograph. T/F
1 1 . Hydroquinone in the developer brings out the details in
$e radiograph . T/F
1 2 . 1hin black branching lines appearing on the film is due to
static electricity. T/F
1 3 . Overlapping of film during . processing can appear as dark
.
or v,;hite. T/F
1 4 .films that overlap in the developer have white areas . T/F
.
1 5 . :Fi��s that overlap in the fixer have black areas. .T/F

1 6 . The fuzzy, unclear area that surrounds a radiographic image
. is termed penumbra. T/F
1 7 . A screen film is more sensitive to the light emitted . by the
intensifying screen than to direct exposure to X-rays. T/F
J 9�-1lIICQ s in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
18 . Screen fitm and non-screen film, are both sensitive to direct

. exposure �? X-rays. T/F __
1 9 . Non-screen film is more sensitive to the direct exposure to

X-rays. T/F
2 0 . In extra-oral radiography, non-screen films are usually used.
T/F
2 l . Intensifying screens are always used in pairs. T/F
2 2 . A 1 6-inch PID is more effective in reducing radiation
exposure to the patient than an 8-inch PID. T/F
2 3 . Pointed cones should not be used because of increased
scattered radiation. T/F
24. In any circumstance, the dentist should not hold a film in
a patient's mouth during exposure. T/F
2 5 . For an uncooperative child, the operator may hold the
film during exposure . T/F
2 6 . Thyroid collar must be worn for all intra-oral and extra
oral films. T/F
2 7 . The advantages of the paralleling technique outweigh the
disadvantages. T/F
28. T2 images are called water images because water has the
. -
longest T2 relaxation times and so appear bright in the
image. T/F
29. Dens evaginatus is an almost exclusive occurrence in patients
with Down's syndrome. T/F
30. An important feature of dentinogenesis imperfecta is
taurodontism. T/F
3 1 . Following trauma, all teeth negative to pulp vitality test
should be diagnosed as non-vital. T/F
32 . In acute periapical abscess, the tooth is not sensitive to hot,
cold, sweet or sour foods. T/F
U
3 3 . Green stick fract res are common in children. T/F
34. A root fractUre: will always be seen on a radiograph as a
.
sharp :radiolucent line between the fragments, regardless
·
i
of the orientai bn of the X-ray beam. T/F
3 5 . In order to evaluated a condylar fracture , Water's view is
the recommended choice. T/F
Oral Radiology 1 99 -
3 6 . An important clinical manifestation o f osteoporosis is

fracture, usually of the spine or the hip. T/F
3 7 . The most demonstrable radiographic change in osteoporosis
is thickening of the cortical plates. T/F
38. Osteomalacia is a result of nutritional deficiency of Vitamin
D. T/F
39. The main difference between osteomalacia and rickets is
the age at which the disorder is first noted. T/F
�
40. The radiographic presentation of renal osteodystrophy and
hyperparathyroidism are completely different. T/F
41 . Patients with renal osteodystrophy have a defect in the
hydroxylation of · 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1 , 2 5 ,
di-hydroxycholecalciferol. T/F
42. PUnched out radiolucency is a term used to describe diffuse
radiolucencies seen in inflammatory process. T/F
43. The primary response in diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis is
tissue death with pus formation. T/F
44. Osteoradionecrosis develops from an infected oral wound
where the bone has undergone irradiation. TiF
45 . Irradiated bone is susceptible to infection because of a loss
.-
of vascularity. . T/F
46 . The trabeculae in sickle cell anemia become especially coarse
in relation to the rest of the bone and form an accentuated
stepladder pattem. T/F
47 . Hair-on-end appearance is a feature sometimes seen in
patients with sickle cell anemia. T/F
48 . Adult hyperthyroidism which is known as acromegaly, is
manifested as excessive growth of the mandible resulting
in a class III skeletal jaw relationship. T/F
, 49. Radiographically the main difference between a radicular
cyst and a para dental cyst is that the lamina dura is intact
;.
in para dental cyst. T/F ;;
.'
�. 50. In the dental X-ray tube a small focal spot is required fo�
sharp image. T/F
5 1 . Horizontal angUlation primarily affects the degree of
overlapping of the images of the crowns at the interproximal
spaces. T1F
I. i!JtllU .1tl . -'it . _
52 . In fibrous dysplasia, the maxilla is more frequently involved

than the mandible . T/F
53. In general, fibrous dysplasia occurs more commonly in the
jaw bone. T/F
54. Beta and cathode rays are high-speed electrons. T/F
5 5 . The sharpness of the radiographic image increases as the
size of the focal spot decreases. T/F
5 6 . Residual cyst is always associated with non-vital tooth . T/F
57. Adenoameloblastoma occurs at the coronal portion of the
erupted canine. T/F
58 . O steoma and odontome cannot be differentiated
radiographically. T/F
59. Most common site for a complex odontome is mandibular
molar region . T/F
60 . Most common site for a compound odontome is maxillary
anterior region. T/F
61. Radiographically malignancy and osteomyelitis may have
similar appearance. T/F
62 . Cementifying fibroma and ossifying fibroma can be
diagnosed radiographically. T/F
63 . Ameloblastoma occurring in maxilla is more aggressive in
nature than that occurs in the mandible. T/F
64. Osteomyelitis occurs more commonly in the mandible than
maxilla. T/F
65. Proton is the target element used for MR imaging. T/F
66. Radicular cysts are more common in the maxilla. T/F
67. In buccal bifurcation cyst the associated tooth is always vital.
T/F
68. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome is inherited as an autosomal
dominant trait. T/F
69. In basal cell nevus syndrome calcification of the falx cerebri
and other parts of the dura occur. T/f
70. Calcifying odontogenic cyst commonly occur anterior to
the first molar. T/F
71. Like true neoplasms, hamartomas can grow indefinitely.
T/F
Oral Radiology 201.
72 . Hamartomas are true neoplasms. T/F

73. The monostotic form of fibrous dysplasia most often affects
the jaw. T/F
74. Early lesions of fibrous dysplasia tend to be mixed lesions.
T/F
75 . In cleidocranial dysplasia, cellular cementum may be
completely absent in both primary a n d p ermanent
dentition. T/F
�
76. Absorption of X-ray photon energy is dependent on
photoelectric effect. T/F
77 . Probability of photoelectric absorption is proportional to
....
22. T/F
78. The probability of an X-ray beam undergoing attenuation
by absorption is much greater in bone than in soft tissue .
T/F
19. Ossifying/
ce mentifying fibromas are normally surrounded
by a radio lucent rim or zone. T/F
80 . C omplex odontomes are always surroun d e d by a
radiolucent rim . T/F
81 . Corticated borders . are only seen with infected or malignant
lesions. T/F
82 . Internal resorption occurs in a tooth with vital pulp. T/F
83. External resorption can affect both vital and non-vital teeth.
T/F
84. X-ray beams are always homogeneous but gamma-rays
heterogeneous in nature. T/F
85. All photons, irrespective of their energy travel at the same
speed. T/F
86. Photoelectric absorption - is dependent on the atomic
number of the absorbing medium. T/F
87. Compton scattering is relatively dependent on the atomic -
number of the scattering medium. T/F
88. Increasing kVp results in decrease of image contrast. T/F
89. Lowering the kVp increases image contrast. T/F
90. Lateral periodontal cyst may be associated with a vital tooth.
T/F
9 1 . Periapical cemental dysplasia is associated with non-vital

�� . �
92. Gamma-rays are always homogenous. T/F
93. X-ray beams are always heterogeneous. T/F
94. The flow of current through the cathode is higher compared
to the current flowing through the anode . T/F
9 5 . Large focal spot is required for adequate heat dissipation .
T/F
96. Intra-oral films are sensitive to X-radiation . T/F
9 7 . Extra oral films are sensitive to light produced by the
intensifying screens. T/F
98. The lamina dura is intact in the case of a paradental cyst.
T/F
99. Occasionally lesions of pulpal origin m ay be located
cervically. T/F
100. Pair production depends on atomic number. T/F
101. Fibrous dysplasia is an adult-onset lesion. T/F
102. Maxillary sinus obliteration is an unusual radiographic
feature of fibrous dysplasia. T/F
1 03 . Cherub ism develops in childhood as a bilateral enlargement
of the lower face. T/F
1 04. In cherubism early surgical intervention is important as the
lesion may become extensive and destructive. T/F
1 05 . A keratinizing cyst has a very low soluble protein content in
the cystic fluid. T/F
1 06 . Dental caries is an infectious disease. T/F
1 07 . A tooth with a pulp polyp remains vital. T/F
1 08 . The m ai n d ifference between dental X-ray tubes and
medical X-ray tubes stems in the design of their anode.
T/F
1 09 . MRI is a better imaging technique for soft tissue lesions
than CT scan. T/F _
1 10 . In MRI the patient is not exposed to ionizing radiation.

T/F
1 1 1 . MRI is the choice for demonstrating bony changes . T/F
1 1 2 . Basal cell nevus syndrome is a hereditary condition. T/F
"!." Oral Radiology 203
1 1 3 . Beta particles · are fast moving electrons emitted from the

nucleus of radiqactive atom. T/F
1 14. Electrons can be classified as beta particles or cathode rays
which differs in origin only. T/F
1 1 5 . Calcium tungstate screens emit green light. . T/F
1 1 6. Rare earth screens emit blue/green light. T/F
1 1 7. Condensing osteitis (chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis)
is at the apex of a nonvital tooth. T/F
1 18. Osteosclerosis or sclerotic bone is seen below the apex of .
nonvital tooth. T/F
...
1 1 9 . In CT scan signal depends on the X-ray beam. T/F
120. In MRI osseous alterations are seen properly. T/F
12 1 . Sunray appearance is seen in central hemangi�ma. T/F
122. Central hemangioma can cause root resorption. T/F
I'�
:� ::
- 204 MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology
ANSWERS
1 E 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 B
7 B 8 A 9 B 10 0 11 0 12 A
13 C 14 C 15 0 16 A 17 0 18 C
19 E 20 B 21 A 22 0 23 B 24 C
25 A 26 A 27 C 28 B 29 0 30 A
31 B 32 E 33 B 34 C 35 C 36 A
37 B 38 0 39 B 40 0 41 A 42 C
43 D 44 D 45 D 46 A 47 B 48 D
49 A 50 B 51 B 52 A 53 0 54 C
55 A 56 A 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 E
61 C 62 C 63 A 64 B 65 A 66 C
67 B 68 A 69 B 70 C 71 B 72 A
-
73 C 74 D 75 C 76 C n 0 78 A --
79 D 80 C 81 D 82 C 83 B 84 D
85 C 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 A 90 C
91 C 92 D 93 D 94 B 95 C 96 E
97 C 98 B 99 B 1 00 E 101 C 1 02 C
1 03 E 1 04 B 1 05 C 1 06 A 1 07 B 1 08 0
1 09 C 1 10 C 111 D 112 C 113 A 114 0
115 A 1 16 B 117 0 118 C 119 A 1 20 B
1 21 A 1 22 D 1 23 0 1 24 B 1 25 B 1 26 B
1 27 B 1 28 D 1 29 D 130 A 1 31 B 1 32 B
1 33 A 1 34 D 1 35 E 1 36 C 137 A 138 D
1 39 B 1 40 B 1 41 0 1 42 B 143 C 144 B
1 45 C 1 46 D 1 47 A 1 48 A 149 D 150 A
1 51 -0 1 52 A 1 53 A 154 A 155 C 156 B
1 57 A 1 58 D 1 59 0 1 60 A 1 61 A 1 62 E
1 63 0 1 64 B 1 65 A 1 66 A 1 67 A 1 68 D
1 69 B 1 70 C 1 71 B 1 72 A 1 73 C 1 74 C
1 75 C 1 76 A 1 77 C 1 78 B 1 79 C 1 80 B
1 81 A 1 82 B 1 83 B 1 84 B 1 85 A 0 1 86 B
1 87 A 1 88 C 1 89 C 1 90 B 1 91 A 1 92 B
1 93 A 1 94 A 1 95 B 1 96 A 1 97 0 1 98 A
1 99 B 200 A 201 A 202 C 203 B 204 D
205 0 206 0 207 B 208 C 209 C 21 0 D
21 1 B 212 0 213 B 214 E 215 A 216 B
21 7 0 218 C 219 0 220 A 221 0 222 B
223 A 224 B 225 C 2 26 , B 227 D �8 D '!-
229 A 230 C 231 A 232, C 233 0 234 C
235 A 236 D 237 D 238 E 239 A 240 0
241 C 242 C 243 C - 244 C 245 A 246 A
0"
247 B 248 A 249 : 0 o 2SiJ B 251 C 252 B
253 A 254 A 255 0 D 256 A 257 C 258 C
259 A 260 B 261 C 262 A 263 C 264 C
265 E 266 A 267 A 268 A 269 B 270 E
271 0 272 B 273 0 274 C 275 0 0 276 A
277 D 278 E 279 E 280 A 281 0 282 C
283 E 284 C 285 B 286 C 287 A 288 A
Oral Radiology 205
289 A 290 E 291 D 292 B 293 C 294 D
295 D 296 C - 297 A 298 A 299 A 300 C
301 C 302 B · :--303 E 304 E 305 C 306 C
307 C 308 A 309 E 310 E 31 1 D 312 B
31 3 E 314 D 315 B 31 6 D 31 7 D 318 D
319 E 320 C 321 C 322 A 323 A 324 B
325 B 326 D 327 C 328 D 329 A 330 A
331 D 332 A 333 E 334 B 335 B 336 B
337 D 338 C 339 A 340 B 341 D 342 C
343 C 344 C 345 D 346 C 347 A 348 D
349 C 350 A 351 C 352 B 353 B 354 A
355 D 356 A 357 D 358 C 359 B 360 D
361 B 362 E 363 C 364 A 365 D 366 B
367 A 368 A 369 D 370 C 371 C 372 C
373 E 374 C 375 D 376 B 377 E 378 C
379 C 380 D 381 D 382 C 383 C 384 A
385 B 386 D 387 B 388 B 389 C 390 B
391 C 392 C 393 C 394 B 395 B 396 B
397 A 398 C 399 C 400 A 401 B 402 A
403 A 404 B 405 D 406 B 407 C 408 B
409 C 41 0 A 41 1 C 41 2 A 41 3 D 41 4 A
41 5 D 41 6 C . 41 7 B 41 8 E 41 9 B 420 C
421 E 422 B 423 D 424 B 425 C 426 D
427 A 428 B 429 B 430 A 431 E 432 A
433 A 434 D 435 0 436 D 437 B 438 E
439 E 440 B 441 A 442 D 443 B 444 D
445 D 446 A 447 C 448 C 449 D 450 E
.- 451 C 452 D 453 C 454 D 455 B 456 E
457 C 458 B 459 E 460 E 461 A 462 B
463 D 464 C 465 C 466 B 467 D 468 E
469 D 470 B 471 D 472 D 473 B 474 D
475 D 476 C 477 B 478 A 479 D 480 B
481 D 482 D 483 D 484 B 485 B 486 D
487 B 488 A 489 D 490 D 491 C 492 C
493 B 494 B 495 D 496 C 497 B 498 D
499 A 500 A 501': B 502 E
! .�
;-e. :;,";'";·
206 MCQs i n Oral Me�icine am� Oral Radiolqgy
ANSWERS OF TRUE OR FALSE

. 1 T 2 T 3 T 4 F 5 T 6 F
7 T 8 T 9 T 10 F 11 F 12 T
13 T 14 T 15 T 16 T 17 T 18 F
19 T 20 F 21 T 22 T 23 T 24 T
25 F 26 F 27 T 28 T 29 F 30 F
31 F 32 T 33 T 34 F 35 F 36 T
37 F 38 T 39 T 40 F 41 T 42 F
43 F 44 T 45 T 46 T 47 T 48 F
49 T 50 T 51 T 52 T 53 F 54 T
55 T 56 F 57 F 58 F 59 T 60 T
61 T 62 F 63 T 64 T 65 T 66 T
67 T 68 T 69 T 70 T 71 F 72 F
73 T 74 F · 75 T 76 T 77 F 78 T
79 T 80 T 81 F 82 T 83 T 84 F
85 T 86 T 87 F 88 T 89 T 90 T
91 F 92 T 93 T 94 T 95 T 96 T
97 T 98 T 99 T 1 00 T 1 01 F 1 02 F
1 03 T 1 04 F 1 05 T 1 06 T 1 07 T 1 08 T
1 09 T 110 T 111 F 112 T 1 13 T 1 14 T
115 F 116 T 1 17 T 118 F · 119 T 1 20 F
1 21 F 1 22 F

MCQ Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQ Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

www.telegram.

Kamala G Pillai MDS

o 202 Batavia Chambers. 8 Kumara Krupa Road, Kumara Park East

o 4-2-1067/1-3, 1st Floor, Balaji Building, Ramkote Cross Road

o No. 41/3098, B & 81, Kuruvi Building. St. Vincent Road

o i-A Indian Mirror S treet, Wellington Square, Kolkata 700 013

o 106 Amit . Industrial Estate, 61 Dr S8 Rao Road, Near MGM Hospital

o "KAMALPUSHPA" 38, Reshimbag. Opp. Mohola Science College. Umred

MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology

© 2007, Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers

First Edition: 2007

This book is directed to both undergraduate and postgraduate

This book seeks to help the undergraduate and postgraduate

The author is indebted to Dr. Nagamani Narayana, Asst.Professor,

1. Which of the following has malignant�potetltia.l?

2. A white cauliflower-like protruding growth on the

4. White sponge nevus. is:

5. Lymphadenopathy is clinically manifested by:

6. A swelling or growth with a broad base is referre� to

7. The following lesions are considered to be ,prema­

8. A-reliable-clinical indication of malignancy is:

9. The most common fooo of biopsy in a dental office

10. Gingival swelling in leukemia is due to:

11. The treatment of angular cheilitis is by a combination

12. A marked increase in tongue coating is associated

14. Yellowish white spots which are usually present

1 6. Multiple white nodular elevations with a central red

1 8. Self:inflicted oral injuries:

1 9. LeU:kQedema can be differentiated clinically from

20. Leukoplakia is-a white lesion that:

2 1. Clinical appearance of leukoplakia is a true indicator

22. Histologically squamous cell carcinoma shows

.23. The homogeneous type of sublingual keratosis has

24. The most common cause of keratosis is:

25. Differential diagnosis of leukoedema includes the

26. J)�erential diagnosis of white sponge nevus include

27. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis:

28. Pachyonichia congenita is characterized by:

29. The following statements are all true, regarding snuff­

30. Whit"' plaque may be seen in the following congenital

31. White plaque may be seen in the following acqu�red

32. Predisposing factors for the develop ment of

33. Management of idiopathic leukoplakia consists of:

34. The following lesions have a very high risk for

35. Which of the following lesions is considere � to �e

36. Which of the following statements is true:

37. The following featUres are true regarding the nature

38. Which of the following statements is true about

39. Which of the following is true regarding sublingual

40. Erythroplakic lesions on histological examination

41. The clinical appearance of carcinoma in situ are the

42. Which of the follOwing statements is true regarding

43. Histologically, carcinoma in situ will show:

44. Histologically. carcinoma in situ may show:

45. Topical steroid is the drug of choice in the manage­

46. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised in the following

47. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is increased in all

48. Following conditions may be associated with iron

A. Chronic traumatic ulcer

50. All of the following lesions are indurated except:

51. Coxsackie virus causes all these conditions except:

52. Causes of neurological facial pain do not include:

53. Componenfs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include

54. The following investigations are needed for the

7. The following lesions are considered to be ,prema

29. The following statements are all true, regarding snuff

45. Topical steroid is the drug of choice in the manage