RENR MOCK

EXAMINATION 2 2018
February, 2018

100 MCQ ITEMS

KINDLY ANSWER ALL QUESTION BY CIRCLING THE ANSWER YOU DEEM
CORRECT

BEFORE YOU BEGIN WRITE DOWN THE MCQ TEST

TAKING TECHNIQUES

USE THE 4 PASS MECHANISM TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

– SCAN THROUGH THE QUESTIONS THEN PROGRESS FROM
SIMPLEST TO THE MOST DIFFICULT

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1. Clinical supervision can be a mechanism for mutual support and development of
healthcare professionals such as nurses. Which of the following LEAST exemplifies the
concept of clinical supervision in nursing?

A. An exchange between practicing professionals to enable the development of

professional skills
B. Assists nurses to develop reflective and analytical skills
C. Encourages nurses to examine their practice as well as identifying strengths and
weaknesses
D. It is a forum for disseminating good nursing practice, improving job satisfaction and
morale.

2. Nursing theory is central to the nursing profession as it serves as a guide in the

development of nurses. Nursing theory guides the professional nurse in making sound
clinical judgments based on evidence by _____________.

i. Determining which patient data are important

ii. Organizing, analyzing, and understanding connections in patient data
iii. Planning appropriate nursing interventions
iv. Evaluating outcomes of interventions

A. i ii
B. i ii iii
C. ii iii iv
D. i ii iii iv

3. Maintaining the professional boundary is an important tenet in the provision of quality

nursing care. Which of the following violates the principles of professional boundary

A. The nurse, not the patient, is responsible for delineating and maintaining boundaries.
B. Working within the “zone of helpfulness,” which is neither aloof nor too
intense/emotionally involved.
C. Examining any boundary crossing, be aware of its potential implications, and avoid
repeated crossings.
D. The nurse can engaging in business and personal relationships when the client is
discharged

4. The question of whether nursing is a profession has been debated for decades. Which of
the following does NOT embody the characteristics of the nursing profession?

A. There is a special body of knowledge that is continually enlarged through research.

B. The services involve intellectual activities; individual responsibility is a strong
feature.
C. Practitioners are educated in institutions of higher learning, are relatively independent
and control their own policies and activities.

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 D. Practitioners are motivated by their salary and consider their work an important
component of their lives especially when compensated.

5. Professionalism in nursing is a lifelong process that can be maintained by which of the

following factors?

i. Treating people with respect even those whom you may dislike or have difference
in opinion
ii. Standing up for personal and professional standards, despite what others may do
iii. Inviting ideas, opinions and feedback from patients and colleagues
iv. Learning to forgive others because everyone makes mistakes

A. i ii iii iv
B. ii iii iv
C. i iii iv
D. i ii iv

6. Nursing has made progress in the past few decades in developing its science and
improving its image. Which of the following factors may have had the GREATEST
impact on the development of nursing?

A. Stereo typing and marginalization

B. Implementation of safe and evidence-based practice
C. Baccalaureate, masters and doctoral degrees
D. The emergence of men and younger persons in the profession

7. If being a professional nurse is different from practicing the occupation of nursing, there
must be certain behaviors that differentiate the two. Of the following behaviours which
would not be considered professional?
A. Coming to work neatly dressed with hair well combed
B. Ensuring that personal values are aligned to professional values
C. Using creative and critical thinking in providing care
D. Imitating all the actions of senior nurses on the unit

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 PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

The profession of nursing, as represented by its members, is responsible for articulating nursing
values, for maintaining the integrity of the profession and its practice, and for shaping of social
policy.

8. Which of the following BEST exemplifies the statement above?

a) Nursing councils
b) Nursing associations
c) The Regional Nursing Body
d) Schools of nursing

9. The integrity of the profession is maintained PRIMARILY through the ___________.

a) Code of Ethics for Nurses

b) the standards of nursing practice,
c) educational requirements for practice
d) knowledge development

10. The nurse participates in the advancement of the profession through contributions to
practice, education, administration, and knowledge development. Which of the
following LEAST reflects this statement?

a) Mentoring a nurse on orientation

b) Providing service on shared governance committee
c) Leading out in a professional organization
d) Applying for weekly sessional/overtime

11. Which of the following statements LEAST reflects “The nurse collaborates with other
health professionals and the public in promoting community, national, and
international efforts to meet health needs?”

a) Participating in combating world hunger and environmental pollution

b) fighting for access to health care and improvement in human rights
c) Promoting racial separation and reduction in gender superiority
d) Spearheading social reform and stimulating change through politics

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12. The nurse owes the same duties to self as to others, including the responsibility to
preserve integrity and safety, to maintain competence, and to continue personal and
professional growth. This statement suggests that ________

i. nurses owe to themselves the same moral duties they owe others
ii. professional growth and maintenance of competence require some acquisition
of knowledge and skills relevant to a chosen specialty
iii. wholeness of character of the nurse addresses the integration of personal and
professional values
iv. the preservation of the nurses integrity and moral self-respect are integral to the
profession

a) i, ii, iii
b) ii, iii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iii, iv

13. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the statement, “The nurse, in all
professional relationships practices with compassion and respect for the inherent
dignity, worth, and uniqueness of every individual……?”

a) Every human being, merely by virtue of being human, merits my equal and full
respect
b) The more vulnerable people are because of illness, frailty, or other marginalizing
factors, the more they command my compassion
c) The more vulnerable people are because of illness, frailty, or other marginalizing
factors, the less they command my compassion
d) I agree that I need to be compassionate to those innocently affected by disease so
long as self-abusive behaviors did not cause the disease

DECISION MAKING

14. A nurse on the Critical Care Unit is evaluating arterial blood gas (ABG) values of several
clients. Which of the following client would require an immediate intervention by the
charge nurse? A client with ___________.
a) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has a pH 7.34, PaO2 70, PaCO2 55,
HCO3 24.
b) Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome who has a pH 7.35, PaO2 75, PaCO2 50, HCO3
26.
c) Reactive Airway disease with a pH 7.48, PaO2 80, PaCO2 30, HCO3 23.
d) a pneumothorax with a pH 7.41, PaO2 98, PaCO2 43, HCO3 25.

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15. The primary nurse in the critical care unit is very busy. Which nursing task should be the
nurse’s PRIORITY?

a) Assist the doctor with a sterile dressing change for a client with a left pneumonectomy.
b) Obtain a tracheostomy tray for a client who is exhibiting air hunger.
c) Transcribe orders for a client with Cystic Fibrosis who was transferred from the ER.
d) Assess the client diagnosed with Mesothelioma who is upset, angry, and crying

16. What should be the PRIORITY nursing diagnosis when developing a care plan for a
client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
a) Activity intolerance.
b) Ineffective coping.
c) Impaired gas exchange.
d) Self-care deficit.

17. The nurse assists with the insertion of a chest tube in a client diagnosed with a
Spontaneous Pneumothorax. Which of the following data indicates that the treatment has
been effective?
a) The chest x-ray indicates consolidation.
b) The client has bilateral breath sounds.
c) The suction chamber has vigorous bubbling.
d) The client has crepitus around the insertion site.

18. The healthcare provider ordered the loop diuretic, bumetanide (Bumex), to be
administered STAT to a client diagnosed with pulmonary edema. After 4 hours, which of
the following assessment data indicates the client may be experiencing a complication of
the medication? The client/’s ____________.

a) develops jugular vein distention.

b) has bilateral rales and rhonchi.
c) complains of painful leg cramps.
d) output is greater than the intake

19. Which of the following statement is an example of the ethical principle of non-
malfeasance?
a) “I will find out for you and let you know after surgery.”
b) “I am sorry but your child died at the scene of the accident.”
c) “You should concentrate on your surgery right now.”
d) “You are concerned about your child. Would you like to talk?”

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20. Which of the following action should the nurse implement FIRST for a client who died
in the Intensive Care Unit?
a) Stay with the significant other.
b) Gather the client’s belongings.
c) Advocate for perform post-mortem care.
d) Ask about organ donation.

21. Which of the following statement is an example of effective group process? The nurse
_________.

a) involves all committee members in the discussion.

b) makes sure all members of the group agree with the decisions.
c) asks two of the committee members to do the work.
d) does not allow deviation from the agenda to occur.

22. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.34, PaCO2 50, HCO3 24, PaO2 87.
Which intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?
a) Have the client turn, cough, and deep breathe.
b) Place the client on oxygen via nasal cannula.
c) Check the client’s pulse oximeter reading.
d) Notify the doctor of the ABG results.

23. A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with an apical pulse rate of 134,
respiration rate of 28, and BP of 92/56, and the skin is pale and clammy. Which of the
following actions should the nurse perform FIRST?
a) Type and crossmatch the client for PRBCs.
b) Start two IVs with large-bore catheters.
c) Obtain the client’s history and physical.
d) Check the client’s allergies to medications.

24. The Emergency Room nurse is preparing to assist the surgeon to insert chest tubes in a
client with a right Hemothorax. Which of the following position is appropriate for the
procedure?

a) Have the client sit upright and bend over the over bed table.
b) Place the client in the left lateral recumbent position.
c) Have the client sit on the side of the bed with the back arched like a Halloween cat.
d) Place the client lying on the back with the head of the bed up 45 degrees.

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 25. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with Pneumonia. Which of the following
doctor’s order should be implemented FIRST?

a) 1,000 mL normal saline at 125 mL/hour.

b) Obtain sputum for Gram stain and culture.
c) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1,000 mg IVI every 12 hours.
d) nebulization treatment every 6 hours.

EMERGENCY NURSING

26. A client with a temperature of 94˚F is being treated in the ED. Which intervention should
the nurse implement to directly elevate the client’s temperature?

a) Remove the client’s clothing.

b) Place a warm air blanket over the client.
c) Have the client change into a hospital gown.
d) Raise the head of the bed

SCENARIO ASTHMA/PNEUMONIA
A client with a history of Asthma is admitted to the intensive care unit with Pneumonia. Vital
signs and laboratory results on admission were: T38.6˚C, PR 118 b/min, RR 30 b/min and BP
148/90 mmHg. ABGs were: pH 7.35, Pa CO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 28mEq/L, BE 1 mEq/L, PaO2
80 mmHg and SaO2 89%.
Question below relate to this scenario

27. The client’s oxygen status is indicated by ____________constraints/parameters.

a) PaCO2 and pH
b) PaO2 and SaO2
c) PaO2, SaO2 and pH
d) PaO2 and Respiratory rate

28. The oxygen delivery system that would yield the MOST oxygen for the client would
be______.
a) Venturi mask
b) Simple face mask
c) Manual ventilation
d) Face mask with re-breather mask

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29. Two days later, the client became progressively more dyspnoeic with increase PR, BP
and respiratory rates. ABG at this time is; pH 7.32. PaCO2 56 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L,
BE 3.3 mEq/L and PaO2 49 mmHg. Given this, the correct interpretation of the ABG
would be respiratory acidosis_____________.

a) only
b) with no compensation
c) with partial compensation
d) with partial compensation and hypoxemia

30. The nurse has utilized her knowledge to assess the client’s condition. An appropriate
nursing diagnosis would be ____________.

a) Risk of infection
b) Impaired ventilation
c) Altered tissue perfusion
d) Impaired gaseous exchange
31. When evaluating the patient for therapeutic effects of Theophilline treatment, the nurse
would decide that ___________ is the MOST significant finding.

a) decrease in wheezing
b) an increase in blood pressure
c) decrease in mucus production
d) an increase in respiratory rate

32. The patient has been successfully intubated; the nurse’s PRIORITY responsibility
thereafter is to_____________.

a) Obtain a chest x ray

b) Assess patient’s chest expansion
c) Ensure the ventilator settings are correct
d) Perform ABG to ascertain acid base status

33. The charge nurse asks a third (3rd) year student nurse to explain the pathophysiology of
Myocardial Infarction (MI). The MOST appropriate response should be a/an
absence/insufficient___________.

a) of oxygen to the middle tissue of the heart

b) of blood flow to the inner tissue of the heart
c) oxygen supply to the inner tissue of the heart
d) blood supply to the middle tissue of the heart

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34. An MI is suspected because of ____indication

a) CK –MB and LDH

b) LDH and Troponin I
c) Troponin I and SGPT
d) CK-MB and Troponin I

35. Two hours after receiving a cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery, the client
begins to complain of pain and numbness in the right foot. The action the nurse should
apply FIRST should be to__________________.

a) administer analgesics
b) apply compression to the area
c) inform the doctor immediately
d) assist the patient in ambulating
36. The nurse requests the client to sign a surgical informed consent form for an emergency
Appendectomy. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed? I
will/can____________.

a) “be glad when this is over so I can go home today”

b) “not be able to eat or drink anything prior to my surgery”
c) “ practice relaxing by listening to my favorite music”
d) “need to get up and walk as soon as possible”

37. The nurse in the holding area of the surgery department is interviewing a client who
requests to keep his religious medal on during surgery. Which of the following
intervention should the nurse implement?

a) Notify the surgeon about the client’s request to wear the medal.
b) Tape the medal to the client and allow the client to wear the medal.
c) Request the family member take the medal prior to surgery.
d) Explain taking the medal to surgery is against the policy.

38. The nurse must obtain surgical consent forms for the scheduled surgery. Which client
would not be able to consent legally to surgery? A __________.
a) 65-year-old client who cannot read or write.
b) 30-year-old client who does not understand English.
c) 16-year-old client who has a fractured ankle.
d) 80-year-old client who is not oriented to the day.

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39. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse implement FIRST?
a) Check the permit for the spouse’s signature.
b) Take and document intake and output.
c) Administer the “on call” sedative.
d) Complete the preoperative checklist.

40. The nurse is assessing a client in the day surgery unit who states, “I am really afraid of
having this surgery. I’m afraid of what they will find.” Which of the following statements
would be the BEST therapeutic response by the nurse?
a) “Don’t worry about your surgery. It is safe.”
b) “Tell me why you’re worried about your surgery.”
c) “Tell me about your fears of having this surgery.”
d) “I understand how you feel. Surgery is frightening.”

41. An elderly client scheduled for intestinal surgery does not have clear fecal contents after
three (3) tap water enemas. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
implement FIRST?

a) Notify the surgeon of the client’s status.

b) Continue giving enemas until clear.
c) Increase the client’s IV fluid rate.
d) Obtain STAT serum electrolytes.

42. Which of the following activities are the circulating nurse’s responsibilities in the
operating room?
a) Monitor the position of the client, prepare the surgical site, and ensure the client’s
safety.
b) Give preoperative medication in the holding area
c) Prepare sutures; set up the sterile field; and count all needles, sponges, and
instruments.
d) Prepare the medications to be administered by the anesthesiologist and change the
tubing for the anesthesia machine

43. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis “risk for injury related to positioning” for the
client in the operating room. Which of the following nursing intervention should the
nurse implement?
a) Avoid using the cautery unit which does not have a biomedical tag on it.
b) Carefully pad the client’s elbows before covering the client with a blanket.
c) Apply a warming pad on the OT table before placing the client on the table.
d) Check the chart for any prescription or over-the-counter medication use.

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44. The RR nurse is receiving a client from the OT. Which of the following intervention
should the nurse implement FIRST?

a) Assess the client’s breath sounds

b) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
c) Take the client’s blood pressure
d) Monitor the pulse oximeter reading

45. The surgical client’s vital signs are T 98˚F, P 106, R 24, and BP 88/40. The client is
awake and oriented times three (3) and the skin is pale and damp. Which of the following
intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?

a) Call the surgeon and report the vital signs.

b) Start an IV of D5RL with 20 mEq KCl at 125 mL/hr.
c) Elevate the feet and lower the head.
d) Monitor the vital signs every 15 minutes.

LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT

46. Behavioural science in nursing management seeks to ___________ .

a) identify all variables in the patients’ lives that influence nursing care
b) consider nursing staff members’ needs above everything else
c) look at the connection between human behavior and their surroundings
d) treat the needs of the organization and stakeholders as the top priority

47. A nurse requests a schedule change due to a family issue. The nurse manager states,
“Let’s develop a system to be proactive for all the staff when things like this happens.”
The nurse manager is demonstrating what type of leadership style?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational

48. All nurses are leaders in patient health care PRIMARILY because they _______
a) Have the most education
b) Administrate hospitals
c) Know the patient the best
d) Are with the patient the longest

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49. An organizational structure’s purpose is MOST CORRECTLY reflected by which of the
following? To ________________.

a) provide staff and clients with lines of communication in the organization

b) educate workers and the public of the philosophy and goals of the organization
c) have a written plan of organization to share with governing bodies
d) provide job distribution among staff for the achievement of the goals/objectives of the
organization

50. Formal authority in an organizational chart is represented by a/an ___________ .

a) unbroken line
b) broken line
c) rectangle
d) circle

51. A nurse requests a schedule change due to a family issue. The nurse manager states,
“You cannot change the schedule without going through the staffing office.” The nurse
manager is demonstrating what type of leadership style?

a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational

52. The nurse who duty it is to make up the duty roster to facilitate patient care is empowered
by the organization with _________________.

a) power
b) authority
c) knowledge
d) managerial skill

53. Which of the following is TRUE of management activities?

a) Persuades people to accomplish assignments.

b) Inspiring the organizational vision.
c) Achievement of assigned functions.
d) Maintaining human relationships.

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54. The nurse manger is able to adequate supervise a certain number of staff members, this is
known as ______________ .

a) span of control
b) record keeping
c) hierarchy
d) authority

55. Two CRITICAL skills that every nurse manager needs to enhance in professional
practice are interpersonal communication and the ability to _____________ .

a) Criticize others
b) Solve problems
c) Supervise
d) Delegate

56. Which of the following is LEAST compatible with the nurse manager’s role?

a) Decision making
b) Group therapy
c) Controlling.
d) Staffing

57. Which of the following management functions drives effective management?

a) Controlling
b) Organizing
c) Directing
d) Planning

58. A nurse requests a schedule change due to a family issue. The nurse manager states, “If
you can’t come in, we will figure it out.” The nurse manager is demonstrating what type
of leadership style?

a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational

59. The INITIAL nursing action when the charge nurse overhears a subordinate making a
disrespectful comment about a co-worker would be to ___________.

a) encourage the offender to apologize to the colleague immediately

b) advise the offender that this type of behaviour is undesirable
c) ask the offender to give a reason for the comment
d) report the incident immediately to a supervisor

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60. Which of the following action is an example of a nurse working independently?

a) Limiting fluids when a patient has an order for 1000 mL fluid restriction
b) Assigning another nurse to administer medications
c) Irrigating a patient’s wound with normal saline
d) Applying a warm soak on an infiltrated IV site

61. A nurse requests a schedule change due to a family issue. The nurse manager stated,
“Find someone to switch with you.” The nurse manager is demonstrating what type of
leadership style?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational

62. A new nurse is given an assignment that is perceived as difficult. Using emotional
intelligence to solve the dilemma would BEST be demonstrated by ________.

a) Telling the charge nurse that she is not doing the assignment and why
b) Calling the supervisor to report the unsafe patient condition
c) Asking the other nurses what their assignments are
d) Asking the charge nurse to discuss the assignment with her

63. The nurse is called in to help with a natural disaster and assigns her unlicensed personnel
to identify all patients with armbands. This delivery system can best be described as:

a) Total patient care

b) Primary patient care
c) Functional care
d) Team nursing care

64. A nurse tells another staff member, “I do not know what time I am taking lunch because I
am so busy, so you will just have to wait until I get back!”
a) Assertive
b) Aggressive
c) Passive
d) Passive-aggressive

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65. A third staff member heard the previous interaction about taking a lunch break, shook the
head, but did not intervene. The third staff member was therefore using what style of
communication?
a) Assertive
b) Aggressive
c) Passive
d) Passive-aggressive

66. Nurse A is working with Nurse B. Nurse A overanalyzes situations and checks all the
details twice, while Nurse B is action oriented and likes to get things done. Nurses A and
B often get into conflicts related to __________.

a) Personality differences
b) Differences in personal needs
c) Continuously unresolved issues
d) Issues of workload

67. A conflict arises again between Nurse A and Nurse B over the holiday schedule and who
deserves a major holiday off this year. This type of conflict can BEST be classified as
_______
a) Personality differences
b) Differences in personal needs
c) Continuously unresolved issues
d) Issues of workload

68. Nurse B complains to the manager that this is the second day that she has been on first
admission assignment. This conflict is related to ___________.
69.
a) Personality differences
b) Differences in personal needs
c) Continuously unresolved issues
d) Issues of workload

70. Conflict resolution strategies have been ineffective with a nursing colleague. The nurse
should therefore ____________.

a) Avoid the colleague in the future

b) Ask to be reassigned to another unit
c) Address the colleague again
d) Report the interaction to the nurse manager

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 71. If a patient becomes agitated during a conversation, the nurse’s BEST INITIAL response
is to _________.

a) Call security
b) Confront the patient and ask the patient to calm down
c) Ask another nurse to witness the interaction
d) Move to a private area

72. Before calling the doctor about a patient’s condition, the nurse should always _________.
73.
a) Assess the patien
b) Ask the nurse on the previous shift what happened
c) Call the nursing supervisor
d) Document the condition

MEDICAL SURGICAL CONDITIONS

BREAST CANCER 

74. A patient is concerned about getting Breast Cancer. The nurse responds that __________
is/are the GREATEST risk factor for Breast Cancer
 
a) Having a family member with the disease
b) Being female and advancing age
c) Early menarche and nulliparity
d) Smoking and obesity

75. The nurse has admitted a client to the clinical nursing unit following a modified right
Radical Mastectomy for treatment of Breast Cancer. The nurse plans to place the right
arm in the___________ position.

a) Elevated on a pillow
b) Level with the heart
c) Above the right atrium
d) Elevated above the shoulder

76. A student nurse is teaching a client who has had a mastectomy of a single organ Breast
Self Examination (BSE). The APPROPRIATE Instruction regarding when the BSE
should be performed is____________.

a) At ovulation time
b) 7-10 days after menses
c) Just before menses beings
d) At a specific time of the month and that same day thereafter

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 77. The single STRONGEST correlative factor that influences the incidence of breast cancer
in women is ____________.

a) chemical agents
b) having the breast fondled at an early age
c) genetic predisposition
d) environmental factors

78. The risk of developing breast cancer is MOST likely to increase when a woman/’s
____________.

a) has her first child after 35 years of age

b) mother has breast cancer
c) is exposed to radio-active substances after puberty
d) has an increase in her menstrual cycles
 

Scenario
A 35 year old para 3/gravida 10,was admitted to ward 10 at UHWI, with a history of back pain,
dysmenorrhea, yellow blood tinged vaginal discharge and bleeding between periods. On
examination, her papsmear showed abnormal cervical tissues. A Colposcopy and biopsy was
done. Preliminary findings indicate Cancer of the Cervix.
Question below relates to this scenario

79. For the newly diagnosed patient with Cervical Cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing
Diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer. An expected
outcome of client____________ would be appropriate.

a) stops seeking information

b) doesn’t guess at prognosis
c) verbalizes feelings of anxiety
d) uses any effective method to reduce tension

80. The client is reviewed by the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician diagnosed
her with stage II Cervical Cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors of
this disease. From the findings the nurse infers that_______________ is a risk factor for
Cervical Cancer.
81.
a) spontaneous abortion at age 19
b) human papillomavirus infection at age 32
c) onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
d) pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27

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 82. Two days post admission, sister collected information from Mrs. Ingram’s chart: it reads
Esophageal Reflux Disease, medicate with Rocephin 12 mg/kg p.o. q 12 hours. Available
is Rocephin 1g/10 ml. She currently weighs 110 lbs, from this assessment you would give
_______ of the drug.

a) 6 mLs
b) 3 mLs
c) 6.6 mLs
d) 0.6 mLs

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

83. The nurse is caring for a client with a TURP. Which of the following expected outcome
indicates the client’s condition is improving? The client/’s __________

a) is using the maximum amount allowed by the PCA pump

b) bladder spasms are relieved by medication
c) scrotum is swollen and tender with movement
d) has passed a large, hard, brown stool this morning

84. The nurse observes red urine and several large clots in the tubing of the normal saline
continuous irrigation catheter for the client who is one (1) day postoperative TURP.
Which intervention should the nurse implement?

a) Remove the indwelling catheter.

b) Titrate the NS irrigation to run faster.
c) Administer protamine sulfate IVI.
d) Administer vitamin K slowly.

85. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is PRIORITY for the client who has undergone
a TURP? Risk for ___________.

a) sexual dysfunction
b) an altered body image
c) chronic infection
d) bleeding

86. The client with a TURP who has a continuous irrigation catheter complains of the need to
urinate. Which intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?

a) Call the surgeon to inform him of the client’s complaint.

b) Administer the client a narcotic medication for pain.
c) Explain to the client this sensation happens frequently.
d) Assess the continuous irrigation catheter for patency

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87. The FIRST PRIORITY of treatment for a patient with altered level of consciousness is
________.

a) assessment of pupillary light reflexes

b) determination of the cause
c) positioning to prevent complications
d) maintenance of a patent airway

88. The earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP
is___________.
a) a bounding pulse
b) bradycardia
c) hypertension
d) lethargy and stupor

89. A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and
extremities, rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking, is classified as
a______ seizure.

a) focal
b) generalized
c) Jacksonian
d) partial

90. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?

a) Community organizing
b) Nursing, process
c) Community diagnosis
d) Epidemiologic process

91. Primary health care facilities are?

a) usually government-run
b) provided on an out-patient basis
c) training facilities for health professionals
d) community health centers/hospitals

92. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care
delivery system?

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Intermediate
d) Tertiary

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93. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the public health nurse?

a) Referring cases or patients to the midwife

b) Providing technical guidance to the midwife
c) Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife
d) Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives
.
94. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit? It ________
a) allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people
b) provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation
c) allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems
d) develops the family’s initiative in providing for health needs of its members

95. The public health nurse conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high morality
rate due to heart diseases in the community where the clinic is located. Which branch of
epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?

a) Descriptive
b) Analytical
c) Therapeutic
d) Evaluation

96. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?

a) Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client

b) Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
c) Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client
with pneumonia
d) Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness

97. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic? 

a) Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases

b) Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease
c) Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic
d) Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease

98. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to __________.

a) Delineate the etiology of the epidemic

b) Encourage cooperation and support of the community
c) Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
d) Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community

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 COMMUNICATION

99. An older adult reminisces extensively and attempts to keep the nurse from leaving the
room. The nurse’s most therapeutic response would be to __________.

a) Encouraging the patient to focus on the present

b) Limiting the amount of time the patient talks about the past
c) Setting aside time to listen to the stories about the patient’s past
d) Suggesting that the patient reminisce with other patients of the same age

100. A patient who is incontinent of urine becomes upset. When changing the gown
and linens, the nurse’s best intervention would be to say ____________.

a) “I am a nurse. This is part of my job.”

b) “This doesn’t bother me. It often happens.”
c) “This occurs all the time. Try not to feel bad.”
d) “I am your nurse. I will change your gown and linens.”

101. A patient has difficulty communicating verbally (expressive aphasia) because of a

Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke). To increase the patient’s ability to communicate, the
nurse should ____________.

a) Encourage the patient to elaborate with gestures

b) Anticipate the patient’s needs to reduce frustration
c) Talk to the patient without expecting a verbal response
d) Ask the patient questions that require a yes or no response

102. Several times a day, every day, a patient who was experiencing short-term
memory loss asked when medication was to be given, despite receiving the medication at
the same time every day. The MOST therapeutic nursing action would be to
_______________.

a) Inform the patient when medication has to be taken.

b) Tell the patient to go to the nurse when it is time for medication
c) Encourage the patient to remember when it is time for medication
d) Make a sign for the patient’s room indicating the time for medication

103. Which of the following should a nurse do FIRST when a patient becomes upset
and rambles about an incident that occurred earlier in the week?

a) Ask the patient what is wrong

b) Identify the patient’s concerns
c) Recognize the patient is confused
d) Encourage the patient to focus on the present

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104. When working with patients who are coping with multiple stresses, the nurse
understands that defense mechanisms can be classified as _________________.

a) Relief behaviors
b) Conscious behaviors
c) Somatizing behaviors
d) Manipulative behaviors

105. A Nurse’s BEST response to a terminally ill patient who stated, “All my life I was
an ardent Christian, but I am still worried about what happens after death” would be
__________.

a) “The unknown is often very frightening.”

b) “Religious people know that God is forgiving.”
c) “People with near-death experiences say it is peaceful.”
d) “You must feel good about being religious all your life.”

106. A dying patient says to a nurse, “I was a much better Christian when I was
young.” The nurse’s BEST response to this would be?

a) “Do you still believe in God?”

b) “Do you want us to pray for you?”
c) “Would you like me to call a chaplain?”
d) “Are you concerned about life after death?”

107. A female patient becomes upset whenever anyone mentions her upcoming
birthday and does not want to talk about age. The nurse identified this behavior as:

a) Denial
b) Sorrow
c) Loneliness
d) Suppression

108. A patient who usually is verbal appears sad and withdrawn. The nurse should:

a) Describe the behavior to the patient

b) Continue to observe the patient’s behavior
c) Ensure that the patient has time to be alone
d) Attempt to engage the patient in cheerful conversation

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 109. A patient is confused and disoriented. The route of communication used by the
nurse that is MOST EFFECTIVE is ___________.

a) Touch
b) Writing
c) Talking
d) Pictures

110. A patient tells the nurse “The doctor just told me I have cancer” and then begins
to cry. What is the BEST response by the nurse?

a) “Sometimes it helps to talk about it.”

b) “I hope things will get better by tomorrow.”
c) “Deep breathing may help you regain control.”
d) “Crying is good because it gets it out of your system.”

111. Which one of the following statements would provide false reassurance and can
be considered non-therapeutic?

a) “This is minor surgery.”

b) “You’re smiling this morning.”
c) “A lot of people hate injections.”
d) “It is difficult to cope with pain.”

MEDICAL SURGICAL
112. When caring for dying patients, nurses must appreciate the fact that the sense that
is most important to a person who appears to be in a coma is _________.

a) Taste
b) Smell
c) Touch
d) Hearing

113. Nurses understand that psychosocial development is most influenced by ______.

a) Food
b) Society
c) Alcohol
d) Genetics

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