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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

PHIL 350: Problem Set 2


Spring 2023
Due May 11, 11:59pm.

This problem set has you prove the compactness theorem model-theoretically, though not with the
full generality of the result in Button & Walsh. Let L be a first-order language that is countable.
That means that the non-logical vocabulary for L is either finite or can be enumerated using the
natural numbers. The import of this is the following, which you may use:
Fact: If L′ expands L by adding countably many constants, then

• The constants of L′ − L can be enumerated: c0 , c1 , c2 , . . .


• The formulas of L′ can be enumerated: ϕ0 , ϕ1 , ϕ2 , . . .
• The sentences of L′ can be enumerated: ϕ0 , ϕ1 , ϕ2 , . . .

1. Say that a set Γ of sentences of L is finitely satisfiable if for every finite ∆ ⊆ Γ, there is a
model of ∆.
(a) We will first show that if Γ is finitely satisfiable, then there is a Γ∗ ⊇ Γ that is maximally
finitely satisfiable, in the sense that it is complete: for any sentences ϕ, either ϕ ∈ Γ∗
or ¬ϕ ∈ Γ∗ . To do this, first, by the Fact, enumerate the sentences of L. Define the
following sequence:
Γ0 = Γ
(
Γn ∪ {ϕn } if Γn ∪ {ϕn } is finitely satisfiable
Γn+1 =
Γn ∪ {¬ϕn } otherwise

[

Γ = Γi = Γ0 ∪ Γ1 ∪ Γ2 ∪ . . .
i=0

We first show by induction on n that each Γn is finitely satisfiable:


i. For the base case: [6pts]
Solution. Base Case
The base case is when n = 0. In this case Γ0 = Γ. As we have established that Γ is
finitely satisfiable we conclude Γ0 is finitely satisfiable, and the base case holds.

ii. For the inductive step, we assume Γn is finitely satisfiable and show that Γn+1 is
finitely satisfiable. To this end, suppose Γn+1 is not finitely satisfiable; so there is a
finite ∆ ⊆ Γn+1 that is not satisfiable. Clearly ∆ ̸⊆ Γn ; thus there is a ∆′ such that
∆ = ∆′ ∪ {ϕn } or ∆ = ∆′ ∪ {¬ϕn }, where ∆′ has the following properties:
• How big is ∆′ ? m [6pts]
Solution. Cardinality of ∆′ ?
∆′ is finite because it is a subset of ∆ and ∆ is established to be finite.

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

• Where do the elements of ∆′ come from? [6pts]


Solution. ∆′ ⊆ Γn

iii. By the answers to the preceding question, ∆′ has a model A since Γn is finitely
satisfiable. Now either A |= ϕn or A |= ¬ϕn . In the former case, what can we
conclude about Γn+1 ? [4pts]
Solution. Case: A |= ϕn
Then A |= ∆′ ∧ ϕn so A |= ∆ = ∆′ ∪ ϕn . Thus ∆, an arbitrary finite subset of Γn+1
has a model and therefore Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable.

iv. In the latter case, what happens? [4pts]


Solution. Case: A ̸|= ϕn
Then A ̸|= ϕn which means A |= ¬ϕn and we have that A |= ∆′ ∧ ¬ϕn . Thus
A |= ∆ = ∆′ ∪ ¬ϕn . Thus ∆, an arbitrary finite subset of Γn+1 has a model and
therefore Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable.

Thus, we have shown that Γ0 is finitely satisfiable, and if Γn is finitely satisfiable,


so is Γn+1 . So by induction on n, we have shown that Γn is finitely satisfiable for
all n.
v. Now we show that Γ∗ is finitely satisfiable. Let ∆ ⊆ Γ∗ be finite. Note that there is
a Γn such that ∆ ⊆ Γn : for if not, define the following sequence:
a0 is the least number such that Γa0 contains an element ψ0 of ∆ that is not in Γ0 .
an+1 is the least number such that Γan+1 contains an element ψn of ∆ that is not in
Γan .
Show that ψi ̸= ψj if i ̸= j. [4pts]
Solution. ∃Γn such that ∆ ⊆ Γn
First, Senumerate the finite elements of ∆: δ1 , ..., δm . Note that for any δi ∈ ∆ ⊂
Γ∗ = ∞ j=0 Γj so δi ∈ Γj for some j. Then we can enumerate Γa1 , ..., Γam such that
δi ∈ Γai for all i. Let ak such that ak ≥ ai for all i. Then Since Γj ⊃ Γi for all j > i,
we have that δi ∈ Γai ⊆ Γak for all i. Then with Γn = Γak , ∆ ⊆ Γn .

Thus, {ψ0 , ψ1 , . . .} is infinite, and moreover, it is a subset of ∆. Thus, ∆ is infinite—a


contradiction! Thus, we conclude that ∆ ⊆ Γn for some n.
vi. With this in hand, we know that ∆ has a model. Why? [5pts]
Solution. Proof
Since ∆ ⊆ Γn for some n. We have also shown that Γi is finitely satsifiable for all
i meaning that Γn is finitely satisfiable. So, by the definition, of finitely satisfiable,
there is a model A |= ∆.

The remainder of this Lindenbaum-ish argument is: We can thus conclude that Γ∗ is
finitely satisfiable. To show that it is maximal, we need to show that every sentence
of L, or its negation, is in Γ∗ . Suppose φ is any such sentence; by the previous

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

/ Γ∗ . By the
use of the Fact we know that φ is φn for some n. Suppose that φn ∈

construction of Γ , this means that ¬φn ∈ Γn+1 .
(b) Now we show that if Γ is finitely satisfiable, we can extend it to Γ′ with the witness
property. Since L is countable, we add countably many constants c0 , c1 , c2 , . . . to L to
get the language L′ . By the Fact, we can enumerate the formulas of L′ . Now for each
formula φn (x) with one free variable, we define Γ′ as follows:
Γ0 =? [4pts]
Γ0 = Γ
Γn+1 = Γn ∪ {∃xϕn (x) → ϕ(ck )}

[
Γ′ = Γi
i=0

i. Give the correct choice of ck . [4pts]


Solution. Proof
Let ck be the first constant in L′ not to appear in any of ϕ1 , ..., ϕn .

ii. We now show Γ′ is finitely satisfiable. Clearly Γ0 is finitely satisfiable because. . .


[5pts]
Solution. Γ0 is finitely satisfiable
Γ0 is finitely satisfiable because Γ0 = Γ and Γ is established to be finitely satisfiable.

iii. Suppose Γn is finitely satisfiable, and suppose that Γn+1 is not. Thus, there is a
∆ ⊆ Γn+1 such that... [complete the argument that Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable].
Solution. Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable
Let ∆ = ∆′ ∪ {∃xϕn (x) → ϕ(ck )}. Since ∆′ ⊆ Γn and Γn finitely satisfiable we know
that A |= ∆′ . If A ̸|= ∃xϕ(x) then ck can be anything and A |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(ck )
vacuously, so suppose A |= ∃xϕ(x). Well this implies ∃a ∈ A such that A |= ϕ[a].
Then by letting cA k = a we get that A |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(ck ). Thus there exists a model
A for ∆, an arbitrary finite subset of Γn+1 , so Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable.
iv. Now Γ′ is finitely satisfiable: if not, there is a finite ∆ ⊆ Γ′ that has no model. But
by an argument similar to the one given above, there is a Γn ⊇ ∆. Thus, ... [4pts]
Solution. Γ′ is finitely satisfiable.
There must exist a model for ∆ because Γn is finitely satisfiable. Therefore Γ′n is
finitely satisfiable.
(c) So, we now have that if Γ is finitely satsifiable, we can pass to Γ′ which is finitely
satsifiable and has the witness property, and then to (Γ′ )∗ which is finitely satisfiable
and complete (maximal). Show that (Γ′ )∗ has the witness property. [5pts]
Solution. Proof
Since (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable, let M |= (Γ′ )∗ . Let ϕ(x) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ be an L−formula.
Then by the construction of Γ′ ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c) ∈ Γ′ for some c ∈ L′ . Since Γ′ ⊆ (Γ′ )∗
we have that ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Since M |= (Γ′ )∗ , M |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c). Thus, for
any formula ϕ(x) there is a constant c such that M |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c). Therefore (Γ′ )∗
has the witness property.

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

2. So we have (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable, has the witness property, and is complete (maximal).
To build a model out of it, define the relation on constants of L′ : c1 ∼ c2 if and only if
c1 = c2 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .

(a) Show that ∼ is transitive.

Solution. Proof
Let c1 , c2 , andc3 ∈ L′ such that c1 ∼ c2 and c2 ∼ c3 . Then c1 = c2 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and
c2 = c3 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Thus c1 = c3 and therefore c1 ∼ c3 . Therefore ∼ is transitive.

(b) Let [c]∼ = {s ∈ L′ | c ∼ s}. (Note that we have only defined ∼ on constants, so every
s here is a constant.) We are going to let M , the first-orer domain, be the set of all of
thee. So how would we write this? [5pts]

Solution. Proof

M = {[c]∼ | c ∈ L′ }

(c) For each constant c ∈ L′ , let cM = [c]∼ .


For each function f ∈ L′ , define f M ([c1 ], ..., [cn ]) = [cn+1 ] if and only if f (c1 , ..., cn ) =
cn+1 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Show that f M is well defined: in other words, show that for any two
sequences of constants c1 , ..., cn and d1 , ..., dn , if [ci ] = [di ] for all i = 1, ..., n, then
f M ([c1 ], ..., [cn ]) = f M ([d1 ], ..., [dn ]). [4pts]

Solution. Proof
Let c1 , ..., cn , d1 , .., dn such that [ci ] = [di ] for all i = 1, ..., n. Then ci = di ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for
all i. Now let ec and ed such that f ([c1 , ..., [cn ]) = [ec ] and f ([d1 , ..., [dn ]) = [ed ]. Then
f (c1 , ..., cn ) = ec ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and f (d1 , ..., dn ) = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Note that either ec = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗
or ec ̸= ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ since (Γ′ )∗ is maximal. Assume for contradiction that ec ̸= ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .
Now consider ∆ ⊆ (Γ′ )∗ such that for all i ≤ n, ci = di ∈ ∆, f (c1 , ..., cn ) = ec ∈ ∆,
f (d1 , ..., dn ) = ed ∈ ∆, and ec ̸= ed ∈ ∆. Since (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable and ∆ is a finite
subset there exists a model N |= ∆. Then N |= ec = f ([c1 ], ..., [cn ]) = f ([d1 ], ...[dn ]) =
ed . But this means N |= ec = ed , a contradiction. Therefore ec = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .

(d) For each relation symbol R, define

RM = {⟨[c1 ], ..., [cn ]⟩ | Rc1 ...cn ∈ (Γ′ )∗ }

Now we use induction on complexity of sentences to show that M = (M, cM , f M , RM ) |=


(Γ′ )∗ .
Base We need to show if ϕ is an atomic formula of L′ then M |= ϕ if and only if ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .
The atomic fomulas of L′ are of the form:
• t1 = t2 .

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

Solution. Proof
Let ϕ = t1 = t2 for some t1 , t2 ∈ L′ and suppose M |= t1 = t2 . Then [t1 ]∼ =
tM M
1 = t2 = [t2 ]∼ . But then [t1 ]∼ = [t2 ]∼ implies t1 ∼ t2 , and thus t1 = t2 ∈
(Γ′ )∗ .

• Rt1 , ..., tn . This is by construction: By the way we defined RM , we have


Rt1 , ..., tn ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if ⟨t1 , ..., tn ⟩ = ⟨tM M
1 , ..., tn ⟩ ∈ R
M if and only

if M |= Rt1 , ..., tn .
Induction Steps Suppose ψ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if M |= ψ, and likewise for θ.
• If ϕ is ¬θ, then we have ϕ = ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if
M ̸|= θ if and only if M |= ¬θ. Justify each ”if and only if”. [5pts]
Solution. Proof
Suppose ϕ = ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then we can conclude that θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ because if
θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ then there would be a model A |= ∆ = {θ, ¬θ} which is impossible.
By the induction hypothesis θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ implies M ̸|= θ. Since (Γ′ )∗ is complete
either θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ or ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Since θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ we have that ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ , so by
the induction hypothesis M |= ¬θ. Finall M |= ¬θ implies that ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ by
the induction hypothesis.
• If ϕ = (θ ∧ ψ), then we have ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if ... complete the argument
[4pts]
Solution. ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if M |= ψ and M |= θ.
Let ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then ψ ∧θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then by the induction hypothesis M |= ψ ∧θ.
Thus M |= ψ and M |= θ and by the induction hypothesis again, ψ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and
θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗

• Let phi = ∀vθ(v) and suppose ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Observe that for every constant
c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ : for otherwise, we would have ¬θ(x) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Why? And
what follows from this? [4pts]
Solution. Proof
Since (Γ′ )∗ is maximal either θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ or ¬θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for all c. Assume for
contradiction that ¬θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for some c. Then for ∆ = {ϕ, ¬θ(c)} ⊂ (Γ′ )∗
because ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ we know there exists a model such that A |= ∆ because (Γ′ )∗
is finitely satisfiable. But then A |= ∀cθ(c) ∧ ¬θ(c) which is impossible. Thus for
every constant c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . It follows that M |= θ(c) for every constant
c ∈ L′

• Conversely, suppose for every constant c, θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Use the witness property
to show that ∀vθ(v). [4pts]
Solution. Proof
Suppose for every constant c, θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Let v ∈ L′ . Then v = c′ for some
c′ ∈ L′ . Since θ(c) for every constant c that includes c′ . Thus θ(v) because
v = c′ and θ(c′ ). Therefore ∀vθ(v).

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

• Thus we have that ∀vθ(v) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if for all c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . This
holds if and only if, for all members of M , M |= θ[m]. Why? [4pts]
Solution. Proof
∀vθ(v) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Thus M |= θ(c) by the induction hypothesis,
and this is true for all c. Then for all m ∈ M , M |= θ[m], therefore M |= ∀vθ(v).

You can conclude the if and only if for M |= ∀vθ(v)

3. We showed that M |= ϕ, for every sentence ϕ from L′ that is in (Γ′ )∗ . So of course, every
sentence ϕ from L is modeled by M. But where in the above bullet points did we need to
use L′ ? And where did we use the witness property? [4pts]

Solution. Proof
We used L′ anytime we use the witness property such as in the 6th bullet point. As the 7t h
bullet point follows from the 6t h, this conclusion also relies on L′ and the witness property.

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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer

Collaborators

I worked with the following other students on my homework:

1. Maddy Roffey

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