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This problem set has you prove the compactness theorem model-theoretically, though not with the
full generality of the result in Button & Walsh. Let L be a first-order language that is countable.
That means that the non-logical vocabulary for L is either finite or can be enumerated using the
natural numbers. The import of this is the following, which you may use:
Fact: If L′ expands L by adding countably many constants, then
1. Say that a set Γ of sentences of L is finitely satisfiable if for every finite ∆ ⊆ Γ, there is a
model of ∆.
(a) We will first show that if Γ is finitely satisfiable, then there is a Γ∗ ⊇ Γ that is maximally
finitely satisfiable, in the sense that it is complete: for any sentences ϕ, either ϕ ∈ Γ∗
or ¬ϕ ∈ Γ∗ . To do this, first, by the Fact, enumerate the sentences of L. Define the
following sequence:
Γ0 = Γ
(
Γn ∪ {ϕn } if Γn ∪ {ϕn } is finitely satisfiable
Γn+1 =
Γn ∪ {¬ϕn } otherwise
∞
[
∗
Γ = Γi = Γ0 ∪ Γ1 ∪ Γ2 ∪ . . .
i=0
ii. For the inductive step, we assume Γn is finitely satisfiable and show that Γn+1 is
finitely satisfiable. To this end, suppose Γn+1 is not finitely satisfiable; so there is a
finite ∆ ⊆ Γn+1 that is not satisfiable. Clearly ∆ ̸⊆ Γn ; thus there is a ∆′ such that
∆ = ∆′ ∪ {ϕn } or ∆ = ∆′ ∪ {¬ϕn }, where ∆′ has the following properties:
• How big is ∆′ ? m [6pts]
Solution. Cardinality of ∆′ ?
∆′ is finite because it is a subset of ∆ and ∆ is established to be finite.
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
iii. By the answers to the preceding question, ∆′ has a model A since Γn is finitely
satisfiable. Now either A |= ϕn or A |= ¬ϕn . In the former case, what can we
conclude about Γn+1 ? [4pts]
Solution. Case: A |= ϕn
Then A |= ∆′ ∧ ϕn so A |= ∆ = ∆′ ∪ ϕn . Thus ∆, an arbitrary finite subset of Γn+1
has a model and therefore Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable.
The remainder of this Lindenbaum-ish argument is: We can thus conclude that Γ∗ is
finitely satisfiable. To show that it is maximal, we need to show that every sentence
of L, or its negation, is in Γ∗ . Suppose φ is any such sentence; by the previous
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
/ Γ∗ . By the
use of the Fact we know that φ is φn for some n. Suppose that φn ∈
∗
construction of Γ , this means that ¬φn ∈ Γn+1 .
(b) Now we show that if Γ is finitely satisfiable, we can extend it to Γ′ with the witness
property. Since L is countable, we add countably many constants c0 , c1 , c2 , . . . to L to
get the language L′ . By the Fact, we can enumerate the formulas of L′ . Now for each
formula φn (x) with one free variable, we define Γ′ as follows:
Γ0 =? [4pts]
Γ0 = Γ
Γn+1 = Γn ∪ {∃xϕn (x) → ϕ(ck )}
∞
[
Γ′ = Γi
i=0
iii. Suppose Γn is finitely satisfiable, and suppose that Γn+1 is not. Thus, there is a
∆ ⊆ Γn+1 such that... [complete the argument that Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable].
Solution. Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable
Let ∆ = ∆′ ∪ {∃xϕn (x) → ϕ(ck )}. Since ∆′ ⊆ Γn and Γn finitely satisfiable we know
that A |= ∆′ . If A ̸|= ∃xϕ(x) then ck can be anything and A |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(ck )
vacuously, so suppose A |= ∃xϕ(x). Well this implies ∃a ∈ A such that A |= ϕ[a].
Then by letting cA k = a we get that A |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(ck ). Thus there exists a model
A for ∆, an arbitrary finite subset of Γn+1 , so Γn+1 is finitely satisfiable.
iv. Now Γ′ is finitely satisfiable: if not, there is a finite ∆ ⊆ Γ′ that has no model. But
by an argument similar to the one given above, there is a Γn ⊇ ∆. Thus, ... [4pts]
Solution. Γ′ is finitely satisfiable.
There must exist a model for ∆ because Γn is finitely satisfiable. Therefore Γ′n is
finitely satisfiable.
(c) So, we now have that if Γ is finitely satsifiable, we can pass to Γ′ which is finitely
satsifiable and has the witness property, and then to (Γ′ )∗ which is finitely satisfiable
and complete (maximal). Show that (Γ′ )∗ has the witness property. [5pts]
Solution. Proof
Since (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable, let M |= (Γ′ )∗ . Let ϕ(x) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ be an L−formula.
Then by the construction of Γ′ ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c) ∈ Γ′ for some c ∈ L′ . Since Γ′ ⊆ (Γ′ )∗
we have that ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Since M |= (Γ′ )∗ , M |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c). Thus, for
any formula ϕ(x) there is a constant c such that M |= ∃xϕ(x) → ϕ(c). Therefore (Γ′ )∗
has the witness property.
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
2. So we have (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable, has the witness property, and is complete (maximal).
To build a model out of it, define the relation on constants of L′ : c1 ∼ c2 if and only if
c1 = c2 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .
Solution. Proof
Let c1 , c2 , andc3 ∈ L′ such that c1 ∼ c2 and c2 ∼ c3 . Then c1 = c2 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and
c2 = c3 ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Thus c1 = c3 and therefore c1 ∼ c3 . Therefore ∼ is transitive.
(b) Let [c]∼ = {s ∈ L′ | c ∼ s}. (Note that we have only defined ∼ on constants, so every
s here is a constant.) We are going to let M , the first-orer domain, be the set of all of
thee. So how would we write this? [5pts]
Solution. Proof
M = {[c]∼ | c ∈ L′ }
Solution. Proof
Let c1 , ..., cn , d1 , .., dn such that [ci ] = [di ] for all i = 1, ..., n. Then ci = di ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for
all i. Now let ec and ed such that f ([c1 , ..., [cn ]) = [ec ] and f ([d1 , ..., [dn ]) = [ed ]. Then
f (c1 , ..., cn ) = ec ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and f (d1 , ..., dn ) = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Note that either ec = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗
or ec ̸= ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ since (Γ′ )∗ is maximal. Assume for contradiction that ec ̸= ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .
Now consider ∆ ⊆ (Γ′ )∗ such that for all i ≤ n, ci = di ∈ ∆, f (c1 , ..., cn ) = ec ∈ ∆,
f (d1 , ..., dn ) = ed ∈ ∆, and ec ̸= ed ∈ ∆. Since (Γ′ )∗ is finitely satisfiable and ∆ is a finite
subset there exists a model N |= ∆. Then N |= ec = f ([c1 ], ..., [cn ]) = f ([d1 ], ...[dn ]) =
ed . But this means N |= ec = ed , a contradiction. Therefore ec = ed ∈ (Γ′ )∗ .
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
Solution. Proof
Let ϕ = t1 = t2 for some t1 , t2 ∈ L′ and suppose M |= t1 = t2 . Then [t1 ]∼ =
tM M
1 = t2 = [t2 ]∼ . But then [t1 ]∼ = [t2 ]∼ implies t1 ∼ t2 , and thus t1 = t2 ∈
(Γ′ )∗ .
if M |= Rt1 , ..., tn .
Induction Steps Suppose ψ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if M |= ψ, and likewise for θ.
• If ϕ is ¬θ, then we have ϕ = ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if
M ̸|= θ if and only if M |= ¬θ. Justify each ”if and only if”. [5pts]
Solution. Proof
Suppose ϕ = ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then we can conclude that θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ because if
θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ then there would be a model A |= ∆ = {θ, ¬θ} which is impossible.
By the induction hypothesis θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ implies M ̸|= θ. Since (Γ′ )∗ is complete
either θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ or ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Since θ ̸∈ (Γ′ )∗ we have that ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ , so by
the induction hypothesis M |= ¬θ. Finall M |= ¬θ implies that ¬θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ by
the induction hypothesis.
• If ϕ = (θ ∧ ψ), then we have ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if ... complete the argument
[4pts]
Solution. ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if M |= ψ and M |= θ.
Let ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then ψ ∧θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then by the induction hypothesis M |= ψ ∧θ.
Thus M |= ψ and M |= θ and by the induction hypothesis again, ψ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ and
θ ∈ (Γ′ )∗
• Let phi = ∀vθ(v) and suppose ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Observe that for every constant
c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ : for otherwise, we would have ¬θ(x) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Why? And
what follows from this? [4pts]
Solution. Proof
Since (Γ′ )∗ is maximal either θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ or ¬θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for all c. Assume for
contradiction that ¬θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ for some c. Then for ∆ = {ϕ, ¬θ(c)} ⊂ (Γ′ )∗
because ϕ ∈ (Γ′ )∗ we know there exists a model such that A |= ∆ because (Γ′ )∗
is finitely satisfiable. But then A |= ∀cθ(c) ∧ ¬θ(c) which is impossible. Thus for
every constant c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . It follows that M |= θ(c) for every constant
c ∈ L′
• Conversely, suppose for every constant c, θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Use the witness property
to show that ∀vθ(v). [4pts]
Solution. Proof
Suppose for every constant c, θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Let v ∈ L′ . Then v = c′ for some
c′ ∈ L′ . Since θ(c) for every constant c that includes c′ . Thus θ(v) because
v = c′ and θ(c′ ). Therefore ∀vθ(v).
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
• Thus we have that ∀vθ(v) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ if and only if for all c ∈ L′ , θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . This
holds if and only if, for all members of M , M |= θ[m]. Why? [4pts]
Solution. Proof
∀vθ(v) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Then θ(c) ∈ (Γ′ )∗ . Thus M |= θ(c) by the induction hypothesis,
and this is true for all c. Then for all m ∈ M , M |= θ[m], therefore M |= ∀vθ(v).
3. We showed that M |= ϕ, for every sentence ϕ from L′ that is in (Γ′ )∗ . So of course, every
sentence ϕ from L is modeled by M. But where in the above bullet points did we need to
use L′ ? And where did we use the witness property? [4pts]
Solution. Proof
We used L′ anytime we use the witness property such as in the 6th bullet point. As the 7t h
bullet point follows from the 6t h, this conclusion also relies on L′ and the witness property.
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Philosophy 350: Logic Homework 3 Ian Cramer
Collaborators
1. Maddy Roffey