List of Important Questions for Chemistry

1. The pair of electron in the given carbanion, 7. Consider the following compounds
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − , is present in which orbitals?
a) 𝑠𝑝3 b) 𝑠𝑝2
c) 𝑠𝑝 d) 2𝑝

2. In which of the following molecules all atoms are

coplanar?
Hyperconjugation occurs in
a) b) a)I only b) II only
c) III only d) I and III

8. Which of the following is the most correct

electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction
c) d) to take place?

a)
3. In pyrrole
b)

c)
The electron density is maximum on
a) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4 d)
c) 2 and 4 d) 2 and 5
9. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below
4. Which among the given molecules can exhibit has
tautomerism?

a) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

a) III only b) Both I and III b) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
c) Both I and II d) Both II and III c) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
d) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
5. In an 𝑆𝑁 1 reaction on chiral centres there is
10. The total number of 𝜋-bond electrons in the
a) 100% racemisation
following structure is
b) inversion more than retention leading to
partial racemisation
c)100% retention
d) 100% inversion

6. Which of the following statements is not correct

a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
for a nucleophile?
a) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
11. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic
b) Ammonia is a nucleophile
addition reaction?
c) Nucleophiles attack low electrons density sites
d) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
 a) b) 16. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC
system
a) 𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2
1- bromo prop-2-ene

c) d) b)

4-bromo-2,4-dimethylhexane

12. The order of stability of the following tautomeric c)

compound is

2-methyl-3-phenylpentane

d)

5-oxohexanoic acid

17. The correct order of increasing bond length of

𝐶 − 𝐻, 𝐶 − 𝑂, 𝐶 − 𝐶 and 𝐶 = 𝐶
a) 𝐶 − 𝐶 < 𝐶 = 𝐶 < 𝐶 − 𝑂 < 𝐶 − 𝐻
b) 𝐶 − 𝑂 < 𝐶 − 𝐻 < 𝐶 − 𝐶 < 𝐶 = 𝐶

a) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 b) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 c) 𝐶 − 𝐻 < 𝐶 − 𝑂 < 𝐶 − 𝐶 < 𝐶 = 𝐶

c) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 d) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 d) 𝐶 − 𝐻 < 𝐶 = 𝐶 < 𝐶 − 𝑂 < 𝐶 − 𝐶

13. The radical 𝐶𝐻2 is aromatic because it

has 18. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
a) 6p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
b) 7p-2orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
c) 7p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
d) 6p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
a) 3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
14. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic b) 3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
compound is
a) c) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
d) 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene

b)
19. The stability of carbanions in the following
c) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − i) ii)

d)
iii) iv)

15. Which of the following acid does not exhibit is in the order of
optical isomerism? a) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣 b) 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖
a) Maleic acid c) 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 d) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣
b)𝛼- amino acid
c) Lactic acid 20. Base strength of
d) Tartaric acid i) ii) iii) 𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶
 is in the order of
a) 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 b) 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖
c) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 d) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖

21. Which one of the following is most reactive

towards electrophilic attack?
a)𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
a) b) b) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
c)𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼
d) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
c) d)
27. But-2-ene exhibits 𝑐𝑖𝑠-𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠-isomerism due to
a) rotation around 𝐶2 − 𝐶3 double bond
b) rotation around 𝐶3 − 𝐶4 sigma bond
22. The order of increasing reactivity towards an c) rotation around 𝐶1 − 𝐶2 bond
electrophilic reagent for the following d) restricted rotation around 𝐶 = 𝐶 bond
i) Benzene ii) Tolune
iii) Chlorobenzene iv) Phenol 28. Which of the following compounds will be most
a) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣 b) 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 easily attacked by an electrophile?
c) 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 d) 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖
a) b)
23. 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻3 has a chiral centre.
Which of the following represents its 𝑅-
configuration? c) d)
a) b)

29. Which of the following compounds is resistant to

nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions?
c) d) a) Methyl acetate b) Acetonitrile
c) Dimethyl ether d) Acetamide

30. Which one of the following order is correct

regarding the – 𝐼 −effect of the substituents?
24. If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a a) −𝑁𝑅2 < −𝑂𝑅 > −𝐹
b) −𝑁𝑅2 > −𝑂𝑅 > −𝐹
compound in a specific solvent, though to be
c) −𝑁𝑅2 < −𝑂𝑅 < −𝐹
chiral, it may mean that.
d) – 𝑁𝑅2 > −𝑂𝑅 < −𝐹
a) the compound is certainly a chiral
b) the compound is certainly meso
31. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
c) there is no compound in the solvent a) 𝐷𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙 b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝐷𝐶𝑙
d) the compound may be a racemic mixture c)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝐷𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙 d)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐷

25. Geometrical isomers differ in 32. Among the following compounds (𝐼-𝐼𝐼𝐼), the
a) Position of functional group correct order of reaction with electrophile is
b) Position of atoms
c) Spatial arrangement of atoms
d) Length of carbon chain

26. Among the following compounds the decreasing

order of reactivity towards Electrophilic
substitution is a) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 b) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼
c) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 d) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼
33. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
a) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 > 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 > 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ a) b)
𝐶𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻
b) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 >
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3
c) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 > 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > c) (a) and (d) d)
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3
d) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3 > 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 > 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 >
𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻
38. Which of the following compounds will not
undergoes Friedel-craft’s reaction easily?
34. In the reaction
𝑖) 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝐻2 /𝑙𝑖𝑞.𝑁𝐻3 a) Cumene b)Xylene
𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 → c) Nitrobenzene d) Toluene
𝑖𝑖)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
𝑖) 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝐻2 /𝑙𝑖𝑞.𝑁𝐻3
𝑋→ 𝑌 39. Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic
𝑖𝑖)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
substituents are given. Which one is most
𝑋 and Y are
deactivating?
a) 𝑋 =2-butyne; 𝑌 =3-hexyne
a) – 𝐶 ≡ 𝑁 b) – 𝑆𝑂3 𝐻
b) 𝑋 = 2-butyne ;𝑌 =2-hexyne
c)−𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 d)– 𝑁𝑂2
c) 𝑋 = 1-butyne ;𝑌 =2-hexyne
d) 𝑋 = 1-butyne ;𝑌 =3-hexyne
40. Which of the following reagents will be able to
distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?
35. In the given reaction a)𝑁𝑎𝑁𝐻2 b) 𝐻𝐶𝑙
c) 𝑂2 d) 𝐵𝑟2

41. In the following the most stable conformation of

The product p is n-butane is

a) b) a) b)

c) d)
c) d)

42. Benzene reacts with 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 in the presence of

anhy.Alc to form
36. 2, 3- dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by a) toluene b) chlorobenzene
heating which of the following compounds with a c) benzylchloride d) Xylene
strong acid?
a) 43. Products of the following reaction
𝑖) 𝑂3
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶. 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 → … are
𝑖𝑖)ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑙𝑦𝑠𝑖𝑠

b) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂

b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3
c) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝑂𝑂𝐶. 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
d) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝑂2

37. In the reaction with 𝐻𝐶𝑙, an alkene reacts in 44. Predict the product 𝐶 obtained in the following
accordance with the Markownikoff’s rule, to give reaction of butyne-1
a product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The 𝐻𝐼
possible alkane is 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝐵 → 𝐶
 a) 50. In the free radical chlorination of methane, the
chain initiating step involves the formation of
a) chlorine free radical
b) hydrogen chloride
b) c) methyl radical
d) chloromethyl radical

51. Which of the following compounds has the lowest

c) boiling point?
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2
d)
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3

52. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to

45. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives different carbon atoms in alkanes has the order?
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 and ? a) tertiary > primary > secondary
b) primary > secondary > tertiary
c) Both a and b
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 d) Tertiary > secondary > primary
b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻3 53. Which of the following is not aromatic?

a) b)

46. When acetylene is passed through 𝑑𝑖𝑙. 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 in

presence of 𝐻𝑔𝑆𝑂4 the compound formed is c) d)
a) ether b) ketone
c) acetic acid d) acetaldehyde

47. Which one of these, is not compatible with

arenes?
a) Greater stability
b) Delocalisation of 𝜋- electrons
c) Electrophilic additions
d) Resonance
48. The cylindrical shape of an alkyne is due to
a) three sigma𝐶 − 𝐶 bonds
b) three 𝜋𝐶 − 𝐶 bonds
c) two sigma𝐶 − 𝐶 and one 𝜋 𝐶 − 𝐶 bonds
d) one sigma 𝐶 − 𝐶 and two 𝜋𝐶 − 𝐶 bonds
54. Which of the following is incorrect for
electrophilic substitution?
a) −𝑁𝑂2 is deactivating and m-directing
b) −𝐶𝑙 is activating and 𝑂, p-directing
c) −𝑂𝐻 is activating and 𝑂, p-directing
d) – 𝐶𝐻3 is activating and 𝑂, p-directing
55. Which of the following is the reactive species in
the titration of benzene?
a) 𝑁𝑂2+ b) 𝑁𝑂2−
c) 𝑁𝑂3 d) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3

49. When 3, 3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with 56. The stability of 2, 3-dimethyl but -2-ene is more
conc.𝐻2 𝑆𝑂, the major product obtained is than 2-butene. This can be explained in terms of ?
a) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene a) Resonance
b) 3, 3-dimethyl-2-butene b) Hyperconjugation
c) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene c) Electromeric effect
d) 𝑐𝑖𝑠 and 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠-isomers of 2, 3-dimethyl-2- d) inductive effect
butene
57. (𝐶𝐻3 )4 𝑁 + is neither an electrophile, nor a
nucleophile because it;
 a) Does not have electron pair for donation as
well as cannot attract electron pair A) B)
b) Neither has electron pair available for
donation nor can accommodate electron
since all shells of 𝑁 are fully occupies. C) D)
c) Can act as Lewis acid and base
d) None of the above
a) 𝐶 > 𝐷 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 b) 𝐶 > 𝐴 > 𝐷 > 𝐵
58. The most unlikely representation of resonance c) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 d) 𝐷 > 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶
structure of p-nitrophenoxide ion is :
64. Compare the reactivity of the following
compounds with 1 mole of 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3

a) b)

A) B)

c) d)
C) D)

a) 𝐷 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐴 b) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷

c) 𝐵 > 𝐷 < 𝐴 < 𝐶 d) 𝐴 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝐷
59. Which of the following is an electrophile reagent?
a) 𝑅𝑂− b) 𝐵𝐹3 65. Compare the acidic strength
c) 𝑁𝐻3 d) 𝑅𝑂 … . . 𝐻

60. The −/− effect is shown by ? A) B)

a) −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 b) 𝐶𝐻3
c) −𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 d) – 𝐶𝐻𝑅2

61. Which of the following is singlet carbene: C) D)

a) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶 +
..
b) 𝐶2 𝐻5 − 𝐶𝐻 a) 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 > 𝐷 b) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 < 𝐷
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻3 c) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 d) 𝐴 > 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐵
d) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 + 𝐻2
66. Compare the basic strength of the following
62. The increasing order of +𝑣𝑒 /−effect shown by 𝑁𝐻3 , 𝐶𝐻3 𝑁𝐻2 , (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝑁𝐻, (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝑁
𝐻, 𝐶𝐻3 , 𝐶2 𝐻5 &𝐶3 𝐻7 is : A B C D
a) 𝐻 < 𝐶𝐻3 < 𝐶2 𝐻5 < 𝐶3 𝐻7 Factors which affect the basicity of amines?
b) 𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻3 < 𝐶2 𝐻5 > 𝐶3 𝐻7 (Aqueous phase)?
c) 𝐻 < 𝐶2 𝐻5 < 𝐶𝐻3 < 𝐶3 𝐻7 a) 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐷 > 𝐴 b) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 < 𝐷
d) None of the above c) 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 d) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐷 > 𝐶

63. Compare the acidic strength of the following 67. Compare the basicity of the following
compounds? compounds?
 .. c) gauche d) staggered-Anti
A) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝑁𝐻2
B) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑁𝐻2 73. Which one of the following is the stable structure
C) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑁𝐻2
of cyclohexatriene?
D) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑁𝐻2
a)chair form b) boat form
a) 𝐵 > 𝐶 < 𝐷 > 𝐴 b) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷
c) half chair form d)planar form
c) 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 d) 𝐴 > 𝐷 > 𝐵 > 𝐶
74. In butane, which of the following forms has the
68. Compare the basic strength of the following?
lowest energy?
a)gauche form b) eclipsed form
c) staggered form d) none of these
A) B) C) D)

75. Which one in the following is not resonating

a) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 b) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐷 > 𝐶
structure of 𝐶𝑂2 ?
c) 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 d) 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐴 > 𝐵
a) 𝑂 = 𝐶 = 𝑂 b) − 𝑂 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝑂+
c) 𝑂 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝑂
+ −
d) 𝑂 ≡ 𝐶 = 𝑂
69. Compare the basic strength of the following?
76. In which of the following molecules, the
substitutes does not exert its resonating effect
A) B) .. +

a)𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁𝐻2 b) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁𝐻3

c) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻 d) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝑙

77. Which of the following compound does not have

restricted rotation?
C) D)
a) b)

a) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 b) 𝐷 > 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 c) d)

c) 𝐷 > 𝐵 > 𝐴 > 𝐶 d) 𝐴 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 > 𝐵

70. The dihedral angle between two 𝐶 − 𝐻 in the

staggered conformation of ethane is 78. Which of the following will not show 𝑐𝑖𝑠-𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠
a) 60° b) 180° isomer?
c) 0° d) 120° a)

71. In the following , the most stable conformation of

𝑛-butane is b)

a) b)

c) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
d) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻3

79. The E isomer is :

c) d)

a) b)

72. The most stable configuratioin of 𝑛-butanewill be

a)skew boat b) eclipsed
 c) d) None of these a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

80. Identify the compound that exhibit tautomerism 87. Which of the following is a tautomer of phenol?
a) 2- butane b) lactic acid
c) 2-pentanone d) phenol
a) b)
81. The absolute configuration of
is

a)𝑅, 𝑅 b) 𝑅, 𝑆 c) d)
c) 𝑆, 𝑅 d)𝑆, 𝑆

82. Identify which of the following molecule does not

have ′𝑅′ configuration. 88. In keto-enol form presence of which type of
hydrogen is must?
a) alpha b) beta
a) b) c) gamma d) any hydrogen

89. Which of the following compound has least rate

of electrophilic aromatic substitution?
c) d)
83. Select 𝑐𝑖𝑠 isomer among the following
a) b)

a) b)

c) d)

c) d) None 90. Which of the following is an antiaromatic

compound?

84. Which will form geometrical isomer a) b)

a) b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝑁𝑂𝐻

c) d)

c) d) All
91. The relative stability order of carboanion

85. How many enolisable hydrogens are there in the a)

following compound?
b)

a) 4 b) 5 c)
c) 6 d) 7

86. How many tutomers can you draw for the d)

following ketone?
92. Which of the following is most stable a) 1,2- dinitrobenzene
carbocation? b) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene
c) 1, 4-dinitrobenzene
d) 1, 2, 4, trinitrobenzene
a) b)
98. Which of the following compounds will not
undergo Friedel-craft’s reactioneasiely
a) cumene b) Xylene
c) c) Nitrobenzene d) Toulene

d) 99. In the following reaction, what will e the major

product?
93. The correct stability order of the following
species is

I II III IV
a)

a) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 b) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉

c) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 d) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
b)
94. Which of the following is most stable
carbocation? c)

a) b)

d)

c) d) 100. Predict the correct intermediate and product in

the following reaction?
𝐻2 𝑂,𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
𝐻3 𝐶 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 → intermediate→Product
𝐻𝑔𝑆𝑂4
95. Identify the 𝑍 in the sequence of reaction
, 𝐻𝐵𝑟/𝐻2 𝑂2 a)
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 → 𝑌
𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝑁𝐴 → 𝑍
a) 𝐶𝐻3 − (𝐶𝐻2 )3 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
b) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
c) 𝐶𝐻3 (𝐶𝐻2 )4 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3 b)
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻(𝐶𝐻3 ) − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3

96. Which of the following organic compounds has

same hybridization as its combustion product c)
– (𝐶𝑂2 )?
a) ethane b) ethyne
c) ethene d) ethanol
d)
97. Nitrobenzene on reaction with concentration
𝐻𝑁𝑂3 /𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 at 80 − 100℃ forms which one of
the following products?
101. 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by C) D)
heating which of the following compound with a is in the order of
strong acid ? a) 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 b) 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐷 > 𝐴
a) c) 𝐷 > 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐴 d) 𝐴 > 𝐶 > 𝐵 > 𝐷

106. Identify the most stable carbocation

b) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2
c)(𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻3
d) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 a) b)

102. The oxidation of benzene by 𝑉2 𝑂5 in the

presence of air produces?
a) Benzoic anhydride
b) Maleic anhydride
c) Benzoic acid c) d)
d) Benzaldehyde

103. What products are formed when the compound

is treated with 𝐵𝑟2 in the presence of 𝐹𝑒𝐵𝑟?
107. The pair of structures given below represent

Compound

a) b) a) Enantiomers b) Diasteriomers
c) Structural isomers d) Identical

108. How many chain isomers could be obtained

from the alkane 𝐶6 𝐻14
a) 4 b) 5
c) d) c) 6 d) 7

109. Maximum number of isomers of an alkene with

molecular formula 𝐶4 𝐻8is
a) 2 b) 3
104. In the following carbocations, the most stable c) 4 d) 5
carbocation
110. Which are isomers?
a) a) ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
b) Acetone and acetaldehyde
c) Propionic and propanane
b) c) d) d) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether

111. The stability of compounds

105. The stability of carboanions in the following

A) B)
a) 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 b) 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣
c) 𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑣 d) 𝑖𝑣 > 𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖𝑖 > 𝑖𝑖
112. The number of stereoisomer’s for pent-3-en-2- 121. Which of the following is a sink for 𝐶𝑂?
ol is a) Haemoglobin
a) 2 b) 4 b) Micro-organisms present in the soil
c) 3 d) 5 c) Oceans
d) Plants
113. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
a) 𝑐𝑖𝑠-2-butene b) 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠-2-butene 122. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as ?
c) 1-butene d)2-methyl-1-propene a) analgesic b) antiseptic
c) antipyretic d) antibiotic
114. Which of the following hormones is produced
under the condition of stress which stimulates 123. Which of the following statements is not
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings? correct?
a) thyroxin b) Insulin a) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of
c) Adrenaline d) Estradiol a human body
b) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg
115. Which one of the following sets of white
monosaccharides forms sucrose? c) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
a) 𝛼-D-galactopyranose &𝛼-D-glucopyranose involved in blood clotting
b) 𝛼-D-glucopyranose & 𝛽-D-fructofuranose d) Denaturation makes the proteins more
c) 𝛽-D-glucopyranose &𝛼-D-fructofuranose active
d) 𝛼-D-glucopyranose& 𝛽-D-fructopyronose
124. In a protein molecule various amino acids are
116. Which one of the following vitamins is water- linked together by?
soluble? a) 𝛽-glycosidic bond
a) vitamin-B b) vitamin-E b) peptide bond
c) vitamin-K d) vitamin-A c) dative bond
d) 𝛼-glycosidic bond
117. Aspirin is an acetylation product of ?
a) o-hydroxybenzoic b) o-hydroxybenzene 125. Which of the following is an analgesic?
c) m-hydroxybenzoic d) p-dihydroxybenzene a) penicillin b) streptomycin
c) chloromycetin d) Novalgin
118. Which of the following can possibly be used as
analgesic without causing addiction and mood 126. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
modification a) Lactose b) Glucose
a) Morphine b) Diazepam c) Sucrose d) Maltose
c) Tetrahydrocational
d)N-acetyl-para-aminophenol 127. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an
addictive to function as ?
119. Commonly used antiseptic ‘’Dettol’’ is a mixture a) Softener b) Dryer
of ? c) buffering agent d) antispetic
a) o-chlorophenoxylenol + terpineol
b) o-cresol+terpineol 128. The number of isomers for the compound with
c) phenol+terpineol molecular formula 𝐶2 𝐵𝑟𝐶𝑙𝐹𝐼 is
d) chloroxylenol+terpineol a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
120. In refrence to biological role, 𝐶𝑎2+ ions are
important in :- 129. The most stable conformation of ethylene glycol
a) triggering the contraction of muscles is
b) generating the right electrode potential a) Anti b) Gauche
across cell membrane c) Partially eclipsed d)Fully eclipsed
c) hydrolysis of ATP
d) defence mechanism
130. A compound which is not isomeric with 137. Among the following the molecule with the
diethylether is lowest dipole moment is
a) 𝑛-propyl methyl ether a) 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3 b) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙2
b) 1-butanol c) 𝐶𝐶𝑙4 d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙
c) 2-methyl-2-propanol
d)butanane 138. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
131. Which of the following is not soluble in sodium order of acidity
bicarbonate?
a) Benzoic acid
b) Benzene sulphuric acid
c) o-nitro phenol
d) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol

132. The compound formed in the positive test of

nitrogen with the lassaigne solution of an a) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 b) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
organic compound is c) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4 d) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2
a) 𝐹𝑒[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3
b) 𝑁𝑎4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)5 𝑁𝑂𝑆] 139. Which of the following protein destroy the
c) 𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)3 antigen when it enters in body cell
d) 𝑁𝑎3 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ] a) Antibodies b) Insulin
c) Chromoprotein d) phospho-protein
133. The order of basicity of amines in gaseous state
is 140. The 𝛼-D-glucose &𝛽-D-glucose differ from each
a) 3° > 2° > 𝑁𝐻3 > 1° other due to difference in carbon atom with
respect to its
b) a) Conformation b) Configuration
c) Number of OH-groups
c) d) size of hemiacetal ring

d) 141. Chemically considering digestion is basically?

a) anabolism b) hydrogenation
134. Which one of the following conformation of c) hydrolysis d) dehydrogenation
cyclohexane is chiral
a) Twist boat b) Rigid 142. An example of biopolymer is?
c) Chair d) Boat a) teflon b) neoprene
c) Nylon-66 d) DNA
135. The incorrect order of acidity is
a) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3 > 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 143. Diazo coupling is useful to prepare some?
b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 < 𝐻2 𝑂 a) pesticides b) dyes
c) 𝐻2 𝑂 < c) proteins d) vitamins

c) < 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 144. The couplings between base units of DNA is
through?
136. The non-aromatic compound among the a) Hydrogen bond b)Electrostatic bonding
following is c) Covalent bond
d)Van-der- waal’s forces
a) b)
145. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get?
a) glucose b) fructose
c) both a & b d) sucrose
c) d)
146. Thermoplastics are?
a) Linear polymers
 b) Soften or melt on heating c) Positively charged
c) Molten polymer can be moulded in desired d) positively charged from inside & negatively
shape charged from outside
d) All of the above
156. Which of the following substances is not used as
147. −[𝑁𝐻(𝐶𝐻2 )6 𝑁𝐻𝐶𝑂(𝐶𝐻2 )4 𝐶𝑂] 𝑛is a?
−
sedative medicine?
a) Copolymer a) Oxalyl urea b) diazepam
b) Additional polymer c) veronal d) eszopiclone
c) thermo-setting polymer
d) homopolymer 157. Which of the following compounds is used in
the synthesis of a parent compound of
148. Which one is protein fibre? tranquillizers & sedative medicines by
a) Cotton b) Rayon condensation with urea?
c) Silk d) Polyster a) Barbituric acid b) Barbital
c) Malonic ester d) Parabanic acid
149. Bakelite is prepared by the reaction between?
a) urea & formaldehyde 158. Deficiency of vitamin 𝐵1 causes the disease?
b) Ethylene glycol a) Convulsions b) Beri-Beri
c) phenol & formaldehyde c) Cheilosis d) Sterility
d) tetramethylene glycol
159. Which of the following hormones contain
150. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene iodine?
glycol and ? a) Insulin b) Testosterone
a) benzoic acid b) phthalic acid c) Adrenaline d) Thyroxine
c) Saliccyclic acid d) terephthalic acid
160. The difference between amylose & Amylopectin
151. Which one of the following does not exhibit the is?
phenomena of mutarotation? a) Amylopectin has 1 → 4 𝛼 -linkage & 1-6 𝛼-
a) Sucrose b) Lactose linkage
c) Maltose d) Fructose b) Amylose has 1 → 4 𝛼 -linkage & 1-6 𝛽-
linkage
152. Which one of the following is present in a c) Amylopectin has 1 → 4 𝛼 -linkage & 1-6 𝛽-
shaving soap? Linkage
a) Sodium propionate+Gum+Glycerine d) Amylose is made up of glucose & galactose
b) Sodium palmitate+ Glycerine
c) Sodium potassium stearate +Gum + Glycerine 161. Which of the following compounds can form a
d) Sodium stearate + wax + Glycerine zwitterion?
a) Aniline b) Acetanilide
153. Which of the following catalysts is used in the c) Benzoic acid d) Glycine
modern method of preparation of soap by
hydrolysis of fat using steam? 162. The 𝑆𝑁 2 mechanism for 𝑅 − 𝑋 + 𝐾𝑂𝐻(𝑎𝑞) →
a) 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙 b) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐾𝑥 follows with
c) 𝑍𝑛𝑂 d) Conc.𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 a) 100% inversion b) 50% inversion
c) 40% inversion d) 30% inversion
154. Triacylglycerol cannot be associated with the
following class of compounds? 163. Which of the following is an example of the
a) Triglyceride b) Oil & fat elimination reaction?
c) Soap d) Ester a) Chlorination of methane
b) dehydration of ethanol
155. What is the type of particle formed after the c) nitration of benzene
contact of sodium stearate molecules with d) hydroxylation of ethylene
grease particles?
a) Neutral b) Negatively charged
164. The compound which reacts with 𝐻𝐵𝑟 obeying b) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻, 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻, 𝐶𝐻3 𝑙
Markownikoff’s rule is c) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻, neutral 𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙3
a) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 b) d) 𝐶6 𝐻5 − 𝐶𝐻3 , 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙, 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

171. Which one is the most acidic compound?

c) d)
a) b) c) d)

165. If X is halogen the correct order for 𝑆𝑁 2

reactivity is: 172. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with 𝐻𝐼
a) 𝑅2 𝐶𝐻𝑋 > 𝑅3 𝐶𝑋 > 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝑋 produces
b) 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝑋 > 𝑅3 𝐶𝑋 > 𝑅2 𝐶𝐻𝑋 a) ethyl chlorides b) lodobenzene
c) 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝑋 > 𝑅2 𝐶𝐻𝑋 > 𝑅3 𝑋 c) Phenol d) Benzene
d) 𝑅3 𝐶𝑋 > 𝑅2 𝐶𝐻𝑋 > 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝑋
173. The reaction 𝑀𝑒
166. Which one is the elimination reaction? can be classified as
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻3 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 a) Alcohol formation reaction
b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐾𝑂𝐻(𝑎𝑞) → 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐾𝐶𝑙 b) Dehydration reaction
c) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐵𝑟2 → 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 c) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
d) 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝐵𝑟 + 𝐾𝑂𝐻(𝑎𝑞) → 𝐶2 𝐻4 + 𝐾𝐵𝑟 + 𝐻2 𝑂 d) Williamson ether synthesis reaction

167. Which of the following reactions can be used for 174. In which of the following compounds, the
the preparation of alkyl halides? 𝐶 − 𝐶𝑙 bond ionization shall give most stable
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 →
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 carbonium ion?
b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 →
c) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → a) b)
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2
d) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 →
a) A, C & D b) A & B
c) Only D d) C & D c) d)

168. Which of the following is not the product of

dehydration of ?
175. The reaction of 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻3 with 𝐻𝐵𝑟
a) b) produces
a)

c) d) b)

169. Identify z in the sequence of reactions

𝐻𝐵𝑟/𝐻2 𝑂2
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 → 𝑌 c) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝑁𝑎 d) 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻3
→ 𝑍
a) 𝐶𝐻3 − (𝐶𝐻 )
2 3 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
b) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
176. Propan-1-𝑜𝑙 may be prepared by reaction of
c) 𝐶𝐻3 (𝐶𝐻2 )4 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3
propene with
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻(𝐶𝐻3 ) − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3

170. Among the following sets of reactants which

a)
one produces anisole?
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂, 𝑅𝑀𝑔𝑋
 b) 𝐻3 𝐵𝑂3 The product Z is
c) 𝐵2 𝐻6 /𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 − 𝐻2 𝑂2 a) toluene b) benzaldehyde
d) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 /𝐻2 𝑂 c) benzoic acid d) Benzene

177. Ethyl chloride is converted into diethyl ether by 184. In a 𝑆𝑁2 substitution reaction of the type
a) Wurtz synthesis 𝐷𝑀𝐹
𝑅 − 𝐵𝑟 + 𝐶𝑙 − → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐵𝑟 − , which one of
b) Grignard reaction the following has the highest relative rate?
c) Perkin’s reaction a) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
d) Williamson’s synthesis b)

178. What is formed when a primary alcohol

undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation?
a) Aldehyde b) Ketone c)
c) Alkene d) Acid

179. Lucas reagent is d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟

a) Conc. 𝐻𝐶𝑙 and anhy. 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2
b) Conc. 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 and anhy. 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 185. Which of the following compounds is most
c) Conc. 𝐻𝐶𝑙 and hydrous 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 acidic?
d) Conc. 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 and hydrous 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 a) 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 b)

180. in the above reaction

product ‘p’ is c) d)

a) b)
186. In the following sequence of reactions
𝐾𝐶𝑁 𝐻3 𝑂 + 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐵𝑟 → 𝐴→ 𝐵→ 𝐶 the end product
𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟
C is
c) d)
a) acetone b) methane
c) acetaldehyde d) ethyl alcohol
181. Reactivity order of halides for
187. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution
dehydrohalogenation is
reaction among the following?
a) 𝑅 − 𝐹 > 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 > 𝑅 − 𝐵𝑟 > 𝑅 − 𝐼
a)
b) 𝑅 − 𝐼 > 𝑅 − 𝐵𝑟 > 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 > 𝑅 − 𝐹
c) 𝑅 − 𝐼 > 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 > 𝑅 − 𝐵𝑟 > 𝑅 − 𝐹
d) 𝑅 − 𝐹 > 𝑅 − 𝐼 > 𝑅 − 𝐵𝑟 > 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙

182. The correct acidic order of the following is

b)
I II III
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂 + 𝐻𝐶𝑁 → 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶𝑁
a) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 b)𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼
d)
c) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 d) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼

183. Consider the following reaction

𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝑘𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒
Phenol →
𝑍𝑛−𝑑𝑢𝑠𝑡
𝑋 → 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
𝑦 → 𝑧 188. Which of the following reactions will not result
𝐴𝑛ℎ𝑦𝑑. 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?
a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
 b) Wurtz reaction 194. Given ,
c) Cannizaro reaction
d) Friedel-craft’s acylation

189. Consider the following reaction, Ethanol

𝑃𝐵𝑟3 𝐴𝑙𝑐.𝐾𝑂𝐻 𝑖)𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4, 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑚 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝.
→ 𝑥 → 𝑦→ 𝑧 the product z Which of the given compounds can exhibit
𝑖𝑖)𝐻2 𝑂, ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
is tautomerism?
a) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 a) I & II b) I & III
b)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 c) II & III d) I, II & III
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂 − 𝑆𝑂3 𝐻
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 195. Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be
prepared?
190. Of the following which is the product formed
when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol a) +𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 & 𝐶𝑆2 (followe by 𝐻3 𝑂+ )
condensation followed by heating?
b) 𝐻2 in presence of pd-𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4
a) b)

c) + 𝐶𝑂 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 in presence of anhy.𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

c) d)

d) +𝑍𝑛/𝐻𝑔 & 𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑐. 𝐻𝐶𝑙

191. The product formed by the reaction of an

aldehyde with a primary amine is? 196. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂 &𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 can be distinguished
a) Ketone b) Carboxylic acid chemically by?
c) Aromatic acid d) Schiff base a) Benedict test
b) Iodoform test
192. The correct structure of the product A formed c) Tollen’s reagent test
in the reaction d) Fehling solution test

𝐻2 (𝑔𝑎𝑠,1 𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 197. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried

→ 𝐴, is out in the presence of which of the following?
𝑃𝑑/𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛, 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑙 a) 𝑍𝑛 − 𝐻𝑔 with 𝐻𝐶𝑙
b) 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4
c) 𝐻2 & 𝑃𝑡 as catalyst
d) Glycol with 𝐾𝑂𝐻
a) b)
198. Acetophenone when reacted with a base,
𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝑁𝑎, yields a stable compound which has
c) d) the structure?

a)

193. Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl b)

lithium gives which of the following species?
c)

a) Cyclopentanonyl anion d)
b) Cyclopentanonyl cation
c) Cyclopentanonyl radical 199. The product formed in aldol condensation is?
d) Cyclopentanonyl biradical
 a) a beta-hydroxy acid
b) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy a)𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻𝑂 b)
ketone
c) an alpha -hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
d) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester C) d) d)

200. Which one of the following on treatment with

50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the 207. Arrange the reactivity of given carbonyl
corresponding alcohol & acid? compounds in decreasing order for addition
a) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 b) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻𝑂 reaction?
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 i) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 ii) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂
iii) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐼 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 iv) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂
a) 𝑖𝑣, 𝑖𝑖𝑖, 𝑖𝑖, 𝑖 b) 𝑖𝑖, 𝑖, 𝑖𝑖𝑖, 𝑖𝑣
d) c) 𝑖𝑖, 𝑖, 𝑖𝑣, 𝑖𝑖𝑖 d) 𝑖, 𝑖𝑖, 𝑖𝑖𝑖, 𝑖𝑣

201. Reduction of aldehydation & ketones into 208. Which compound will form Schift base with
hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam & Carbonyl compounds?
concentrated 𝐻𝐶𝑙 is called? a) 𝑝-amines b) 𝑠𝑒𝑐-amines
a) Clemmensen reaction c) bydroxylamine d) Hydrazine
b)Copereduction
c) Dow reduction 209. Which among the following compounds is used
d) Wolff-kishner reduction for protection of carbonyl groups?
a) 𝐻𝐶𝑁 b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻
202. (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 can be oxidized to c) d) 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
(𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 by?
a) chromic acid b) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐼
c) 𝐶𝑢 at 300℃ d) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 210. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be
written as?
203. Acetaldehyde reacts with? a) 𝐶 𝛿+ 𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂𝛿−
a) only electrophiles b) 𝐶 𝛿+ 𝐻2 𝐶 𝛿+ 𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂
b) only nucleophiles c) 𝐶 𝛿+ 𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝑂𝛿+
c) only free radicals d) 𝐶 𝛿− 𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 𝛿+ 𝐻 = 𝑂
d) both electrophiles & nucleophiles
211. Aldol condensation will not take place in?
204. In which of the following, the carbon atoms a) 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂 b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂
does not remain same when carboxylic is c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 d) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂
obtained by oxidation?
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 b) 𝐶𝐶𝑙3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 212. Iodoform test is not given by?
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻𝑂 a) 2-pentanone b) Ethanol
c) ethanal d) 3-pentanone
205. In which compound addition reaction will take
place according to anti-markov nikov’s rule? 213. Ketones where 𝑅 = 𝑅1 = alkyl
A) 𝐻2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝑁𝑂2
B) 𝐻2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 group, can be obtained in one step by
a) hydrolysis of esters
C) 𝐻2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝑁
b) Oxidation of primary Alcohol
D) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 c) Oxidation of tertiary alcohol
a) A, B, C b) A , B, D d) reaction of acid halide with alcohols
c) A, B d) A, C

206. Which compound is least reactive for 214. Acetone reacts with iodine (𝐼2 ) to form
nucleophilic addition reaction? iodoform in the presence of ?
a) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 b) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
 c) 𝐾𝑂𝐻 d) 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3

215. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic 219. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
acids? towards nucleophilic substitution are in the
order of?
a) acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester >
amide
a) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 b) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 b) ester > acyl chloride > amide > ester > acyl
c) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 d) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 chloride
c) acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl
216. Which one of the following esters gets chloride
hydrolysed most easily under alkaline d) acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride >
conditions? amide

220. Which of the following represents the correct

a) b) order of acidity in the given compounds?
a) 𝐹𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 >
𝐵𝑟𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
b) 𝐵𝑟2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 >
c) d) 𝐹𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
c) 𝐹𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 >
𝐵𝑟𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐵𝑟𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 >
217. In a set of reactions, ethyl-benzene yielded a 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 < 𝐹𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
product D?
221. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a
𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 𝐵𝑟2 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻 compound D.
→ 𝐵 → 𝐶→ 𝐷 𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 𝑁𝐻3 𝐾𝑂𝐻
𝐾𝑂𝐻 𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙3 𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 → 𝐵→ 𝐶→ 𝐷
𝐵𝑟2
D would be? The structure of D would be ;
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁𝐻2 b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2
a) b) b) c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁𝐻𝐶𝐻3 d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁𝐻2

222. In a set of reactions, acetic acid yielded a

product D.
𝐵𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒
𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 𝐻𝐶𝑁 𝐻𝑂𝐻
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 → 𝐴→ 𝐵→ 𝐶→ 𝐷
𝑎𝑛ℎ𝑦. 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
c) d) The structure of D would be

a) b)
218. Propionic acid with 𝐵𝑟2 − 𝑃 yeilds a dibromo
product. Its structure would be?
a) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 c) d)

b) 223. Which one of the following orders of acidic

strength is correct?
a) 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > 𝑅𝑂𝐻
c) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝑂𝐵𝑟 b) 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 > 𝐻𝑂𝐻 > 𝑅𝑂𝐻
c) 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝑅𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻
d) d) 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝑂𝐻 > 𝑅𝑂𝐻 > 𝐻𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻
224. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid a) oxallic acid & 𝐻2
yielded a product C b) Sodium oxalate and𝐻2
→
𝐶6 𝐻6 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑀𝑔𝐵𝑟 c) 𝐶𝑂2 & 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝑃𝐶𝑙5 → 𝐴 𝐵→ 𝐶 d) Sodium oxalate
𝑎𝑛ℎ𝑦. 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟
product C would be?
231. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated
with X & phenol gives benzene on being heated
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶6 𝐻5 b) with Y. Therefore, X & Y are respectively
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶2 𝐻5 d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶6 𝐻6 a) Sodalime & copper b) 𝑍𝑛 dust &𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
c) 𝑍𝑛 dust & sadalime
d) Sodalime & Zinc dust
225. In the following reaction product P is?
𝐻2 232. The compound formed when malonic acid is
→ 𝑃 heated with urea is;
𝑃𝑑 − 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4
a) Cinnamic acid b) butyric acid
c) barbituric acid d) Crotonic acid
a) 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 b) 𝑅𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
c) 𝑅𝐶𝐻𝑂 d) 𝑅𝐶𝐻3
233. Among the following the strongest acid is
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 b) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
226. Reduction by 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 of hydrolysed product of
c) 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
an ester gives?
a) two acids b) two aldehydes
234. The correct increasing order of basic strength
c) one molecule of alcohol & another of
for the following compounds is
carboxylic acid
d) two alcohols

227. Consider the following transformation

𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝐼2
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 → 𝐴→ 𝐵 → 𝐶. The molecular
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 a) 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 b) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼
formula of C is? c) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 d) 𝐼𝐼 < 𝐼 < 𝐼𝐼𝐼

a) 235. The following reaction

b) 𝐼𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻2
c) 𝐶𝐻𝐼3
d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 is known by the name?
a) Friedel-Crafts reaction
228. Schotten-Baumann reaction is a reaction of b) Perkin’s reaction
phenols with? c) Acetylation reaction
a) benzoyl chloride &𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 d) Schotten-Baumann reaction
b) acetyl chloride &𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
c) Sallicyclic acid & Conc. 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 236. Which of the following will be most stable
d) acetyl chloride & Conc. 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
Diazanium salt 𝑅𝑁2+
229. The preparation of ethyl acetoacetate involves? a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑁2+ b) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁2+
a) wittig reaction c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁2+ d) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁2+
b) Cannizaro’s reaction
c) Reformatsky reaction 237. In the following reaction, the product A is
d) Claisen condensation

230. Sodium formate on heating yields

 242. Which compound is least reactive for
a) nucleophilic addition reaction
a) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻𝑂
b) b)

c)

d)
c)

238. In a set of reactions, m-bromobenzoic acid gave

a product D, identify the product D. d)

𝑑𝑖𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
243. +𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂 (𝑒𝑥𝑐𝑒𝑠𝑠) → 𝑃
𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 𝑁𝐻3
→ 𝐵→ 𝐶→ 𝐷
𝐵𝑟2
a) b)

a) b)
c) d) None

244. Which of the following has maximum rate of

c) d) decarboxylatyion?

a) b)

239. Which of the following is more basic than

aniline.
a) Diphenylamine
b) Triphenylamine
c) P-nitroaniline c) d)
d) Benzylamine

240. In the reaction 245. Major product in the reaction is

𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝐵𝑜𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑁 + 2𝐻 → 𝑋→ 𝑌, the term Y is
𝑆𝑛𝐶𝑙2 𝐻2 𝑂
a) acetone b) ethanamine
c) acetaldehyde d) dimethyl amine

241. What is the major product of following a) b)

reaction?

𝐾𝑂𝐻,∆
→
c) d) None
𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑙

a) b) 246. Which of the following can be prepared by

Wurtz reaction

c) d) a)
 254. The pair of compounds having metals in their
highest oxidation state
c) d) a)[𝐹𝑒 (𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−and[𝐶𝑢(𝐶𝑁)4 ]2−
b)[𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 ]2−and[𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2−
247. Alkyl Iodides can be prepared by c) 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 and𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2
a) Wurtz reaction d) None of these
b) Cannizzaro’s reaction
c) Finklistein reaction
255. Out of the following , the transition element
d) Swartz reaction
with lowest value of enthalpy of atomization?
248. The reaction intermediate in the Reimer a) 𝐶𝑟 b) 𝐶𝑢
Tiemann reaction formed is c)𝑍𝑛 d) 𝑀𝑛
a) Carbocation b) enolate ion
c) dichloro carbene d) free radical 256. Which is not true for describing the catalytic
activity of transition metals?
249. Major product in the reaction is a) their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
a) (𝐶𝐻2 )4 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 states
b) increasing the concentration of reactants at
b) the catalyst surface
c) strengthening the bonds in the reacting
molecules
c) d) their ability to form bonds between reactant
molecule and atoms of the surface of catalysts.
d) 𝑂𝐻𝐶 − (𝐶𝐻2 )4 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂
257. The correct ascending order of oxidising
power of the following is
250. Consider the hydrated ions of 𝑇𝑖 2+ , 𝑉 2+ , 𝑇𝑖 3+ and
𝑆𝑐 3+ .The correct order of their spin-only a) 𝑉𝑂2+ < 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72− < 𝑀𝑛𝑂4−
magnetic moments is b) 𝑉𝑂2+ < 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− < 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72−
a) 𝑆𝑐 3+ < 𝑇𝑖 3+ < 𝑇𝑖 2+ < 𝑉 2+ c) 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72− < 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− < 𝑉𝑂2+
b) 𝑉 2+ < 𝑇𝑖 2+ < 𝑇𝑖 3+ < 𝑆𝑐 3+ d) 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72− < 𝑉𝑂2+ < 𝑀𝑛𝑂4−
c) 𝑆𝑐 3+ < 𝑇𝑖 3+ < 𝑉 2+ < 𝑇𝑖 2+
d) 𝑇𝑖 3+ < 𝑇𝑖 2+ < 𝑆𝑐 3+ < 𝑉 2+ 258. Transition metal ions show colour because
a)they exhibit 𝑑 − 𝑑 transition
251. The second ionisation energy of the following b) they are paramagnetic
elements follows the order c) they absorb light
a) 𝐶𝑑 > 𝐻𝑔 < 𝑍𝑛 b) 𝑍𝑛 > 𝐶𝑑 < 𝐻𝑔 d)they exist light
c) 𝑍𝑛 > 𝐶𝑑 > 𝐻𝑔 d) 𝑍𝑛 < 𝐶𝑑 < 𝐻𝑔
259. In the following reactions, 𝑍𝑛𝑂 is respectively
252. The elements 𝑅𝑒, 𝑂𝑠 and 𝐼𝑟 belong to acting as a/an
a) ist transition series. 𝑍𝑛𝑂 + 𝑁𝑎2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑍𝑛𝑂2
b) 2ndtransition series. 𝑍𝑛𝑂 + 𝐶𝑜2 → 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑜3
c) 3rd transition series a)acid & base b) base &acid
d) 4th transition series. c) acid& acid d) base & base

253. Which of the following ions does not liberate 260. The colour of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 is due to
hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute acids? a) 𝐿 → 𝑀 charge transfer transition
a) 𝐶𝑟 2+ b) 𝑀𝑛2+ b) 𝑑 → 𝑑transition
c) 𝑉 2+ d) 𝑇𝑖 2+ c) 𝑀 → 𝐿 charge transfer transition
d) 𝜎 → 𝜎 transition

261. 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 gets reduced to

 a) 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 in neutral medium d) both 𝑆𝑐 3+ and 𝑍𝑛2+ ions are colourless and
b) 𝑀𝑛2+ in alkaline medium form which componds
c) 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 in neutral medium
d) 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 in acidic medium 268. What is the magnetic moment for 𝑀𝑛2+ ion?
a) 5.92 B.M b) 2.80 B.M
262. When 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 is fused with 𝐾𝑂𝐻, a colured c) 8.95 B.M d) 9.55 B.M
compound is formed , the product and it colour
are 269. Which of the following metals does not show
a) 𝑀𝑛3 𝑂4 , black variablevalency in d- block?
b) 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 , dark green a)𝑉 b)𝑆𝑐
c)𝑀𝑛 d)𝐹𝑒
c) 𝑀𝑛2 𝑂3 ,brown
d) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ,purple 270. The actinides exhibit more number of
oxidation states in general than the lanthanides
263. The most common oxidation state of lanthanides because
is a) there is asimilarity between 4𝑓 and 5𝑓orbitals
a) +4 b) +2 in their angular part of the wave function
c) +3 d) +6
b) the actinides are more reactive than the
264. Which of the following will exhibit colour in lanthanides
aqueous solution? c) 5𝑓orbitals are more buried than the 4𝑓
a) 𝐿𝑢3+ (𝑍 = 71) orbitals
d) the 5𝑓 orbitals extend further from the
b) 𝐿𝑎3+ (𝑍 = 57)
nucleus than the 4𝑓 orbitals.
c) 𝑇𝑖 3+ (𝑍 = 22)
d) 𝑆𝑐 3+ (𝑍 = 21) 271. For the four successive transition elements
( 𝐶𝑟, 𝑀𝑛, 𝐹𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑜) ,the stability of +2
oxidation state will be there in which of the
265. The both oxides are amphoteric in
following order?
a) 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 &𝑉2 𝑂5 b) 𝐶𝑟𝑂3 &𝑉2 𝑂5
a)𝑀𝑛 > 𝐹𝑒 > 𝐶𝑟 > 𝐶𝑜
b) 𝐶𝑟𝑂 &𝑉2 𝑂3 d) 𝐶𝑟𝑂 &𝑉2 𝑂4
b)𝐹𝑒 > 𝑀𝑛 > 𝐶𝑜 > 𝐶𝑟
c)𝐶𝑜 > 𝑀𝑛 > 𝐹𝑒 > 𝐶𝑟
266. Identify the false statement among the
d)𝐶𝑟 > 𝑀𝑛 > 𝐶𝑜 > 𝐹𝑒
following
a) 4𝑓and5𝑓 – orbitals are equally shielded
272. Which of the following sets will have highest
b) 𝐿𝑎 and 𝐿𝑢 have partially filled d- orbitals and
hydration enthalpy and highest ionic radius?
no other partially filled orbitals
a)𝑁𝑎 & 𝐿𝑖 b)𝐶𝑠 & 𝑁𝑎
c) d- block elements show irregular and erratic
c)𝐾 & 𝑁𝑎 d)𝐿𝑖 & 𝑅𝑏
chemical properties among themselves
d) the chemistry of various lanthanides is very
273. Which of the following trend is incorrect for
similar
alkali metals?
a)density , 𝐿𝑖 < 𝑁𝑎 < 𝐾 < 𝑅𝑏
267. 𝑆𝑐 (𝑧 = 21) is transition but 𝑍𝑛(𝑧 = 30) is not
b)atomic size , 𝐿𝑖 < 𝑁𝑎 < 𝐾 < 𝑅𝑏
because
c)hydration energy, 𝐿𝑖 > 𝑁𝑎 > 𝐾 > 𝑅𝑏
a) in case of 𝑆𝑐, 3𝑑 orbitals are partially filled but
d)ionisation energy, 𝐿𝑖 > 𝑁𝑎 > 𝐾 > 𝑅𝑏
in 𝑍𝑛 these are filled
b) last electron is assumed to be added to 4𝑠
274. The strongest base of the following is
level in case of 𝑍𝑛
a) 𝐶𝑠𝑂𝐻 b) 𝐾𝑂𝐻
c) both 𝑆𝑐 and 𝑍𝑛 do not exhibit variables
c)𝐿𝑖𝑂𝐻 d)𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
oxidation states
275. The order of equivalent conductance at
infinite dilution for 𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 & 𝐾𝐶𝑙 are 282. Which of the following is incorrect?
a)𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙 < 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 < 𝐾𝐶𝑙 a) Chemisorption is caused by bond formation
b)𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 < 𝐾𝐶𝑙 < 𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙 b) Chemisorption is reversible process
c)𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙 < 𝐾𝐶𝑙 < 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 c) Chemisorption is specific in nature
d)𝐾𝐶𝑙 < 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 < 𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙 d) Chemisorption increases with increase in
temperature
276. The solubility of alkali metal hydroxide
follows the order 283. For Freundlich isotherm, a graph of log 𝑥/𝑚 is
a) 𝐿𝑖𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝑠𝑂𝐻 > 𝑅𝑏𝑂𝐻 > 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 > 𝐾𝑂𝐻 plotted against log𝑝. The slope of the line and its
b) 𝐿𝑖𝑂𝐻 > 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 > 𝐾𝑂𝐻 > 𝑅𝑏𝑂𝐻 > 𝐶𝑠𝑂𝐻 𝑦 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 intercept respectively corresponds to
1 1
c)𝐿𝑖𝑂𝐻 < 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 < 𝐾𝑂𝐻 < 𝑅𝑏𝑂𝐻 < 𝐶𝑠𝑂𝐻 a) ,𝐾 b)log 𝑛 , 𝐾
𝑛
d) None of these 1 1
b) 𝑛
, log 𝐾 d)log 𝑛 , log 𝐾
277. Both lithium and magnesium display several
similar properties due to the diagonal 284. During the absorption of a gas on the surface
relationship, however the one which is incorrect of a solid , which of the following is true
is a)∆𝐺 < 𝑂, ∆𝐻 > 𝑂, ∆𝑆 < 𝑂
a) both from nitrides b) ∆𝐺 < 𝑂, ∆𝐻 < 𝑂, ∆𝑆 < 𝑂
c) ∆𝐺 > 𝑂, ∆𝐻 < 𝑂, ∆𝑆 < 𝑂
b) nitrates of both 𝐿𝑖 and 𝑀𝑔 yield 𝑁𝑜2 and𝑂2 on
d) ∆𝐺 < 𝑂, ∆𝐻 < 𝑂, ∆𝑆 > 𝑂
heating
c) both from basic compounds 285. Which is correct about physical adsorption?
a) High temperature and high pressure favour
d) both from soluble bicarbonates
adsorption
b) High temperature and low pressure favour
278. The commercial name for calcium oxide is adsorption
a) limestone b) quick lime c) low temperature and high pressure favour
c) slaked lime d) milk of lime adsorption
d) temperature and pressure have no effect on
279. Which of the following on thermal adsorption
decomposition yields a basic as well as an acidic
oxide? 286. Zeolites are shape selective structures
a)𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 b)𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑜3 because
c)𝑁𝐻4 𝑁𝑂3 d)𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑜3 a) Honeycomb like structure
b) High adsorption capacity
280. Bleaching powder is obtained by the c) Three dimensional network of atoms
interaction of chlorine with d) Presence of aluminosilicates
a) Concentratated solution of calcium hydroxide
b) Dilute solution of calcium hydroxide 287. A homogenous catalytic process among the
c) Dry calcium oxide following is
d) Dry slaked lime a) Haber’s process of manufacturingAmmonia
b) contact process of manufacturing sulphuric
281. Under what condition, will 𝑥/𝑚 value be equal acid
to pressure of the gas on the surface of the c) Ostwald’s process of manufacturing nitric acid
absorbent?
a) at low pressure d) lead chamber process of manufacturing
b) at high pressure sulphuric acid
c) at low temperature
d) at high temperature 288. Reactions in Zeolite catalyst depend on
 a)Pores b) apertures protective powers of 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷 are in the
c)Size of cavity d) all of these order
a)𝐷 < 𝐶 < 𝐵 < 𝐴
289. Adsorption theory is applicable for b)𝐷 < 𝐶 < 𝐴 < 𝐵
a) homogenous catalysis c)𝐴 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝐷
b)autocatalysis d)𝐷 < 𝐵 < 𝐴 < 𝐶
c)heterogenous catalysis
d)induced catalysis 297. Coagulation is not done by
a)Persistent dialysis
290. Point out the false statement b) Boiling
a) Colloidals show tyndall statement c)Electrophoresis
b) Colloidal sols are homogenous d)Peptization
c) Colloids carry +𝑣𝑒 𝑜𝑟 − 𝑣𝑒 charges
d) The size range of colloidal particles is 298. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
10 − 1000𝐴° formation of negatively charged colloidal [𝐴𝑔𝐼]𝐼 −
sol?
291. The electrolyte having maximum flocculation a) 50 𝑚𝑙 of 0.1𝑀 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 + 50 𝑚𝑙of 0.1𝑀 𝐾𝐼
value for 𝐴𝑔𝐼/𝐴𝑔+ sol is b) 50 𝑚𝑙 of 1𝑀 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 + 50 𝑚𝑙 of 1.5𝑀 𝐾𝐼
a)𝑁𝑎2 𝑆 b)𝑁𝑎3 𝑃𝑂4 c) 50 𝑚𝑙 of 1𝑀 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 + 50 𝑚𝑙 of 2𝑀 𝐾𝐼
c)𝑁𝑎𝑐𝑙 d)𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 d) 50 𝑚𝑙 of 2𝑀 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 + 50 𝑚𝑙 of 1.5𝑀 𝐾𝐼

292. The dispersed phase and dispersion medium 299. The correct order of ascending order of
of fog repectively are adsorption of the following gases on the same
a)solid & liquid b)liquid & gas mass of charcoal at the same temperature &
c)liquid& liquid d)gas & liquid pressure is
a)𝐻2 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝑆𝑂2
293. Gold sol is not b)𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐻2 < 𝑆𝑂2
a) A macromolecular colloid c)𝐻2 < 𝑆𝑂2 < 𝐶𝐻4
b) A lyophobic colloid d)𝑆𝑂2 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐻2
c) A multimolecular colloid
d) Negatively charged colloid 300. If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 𝑠 and 75%
of the reaction occur in 200𝑠, the order of this
294. Which of the following cations will have reaction is
a) 1 b) 2 c) zero d) 3
minimum flocculation value for arsenic
sulphide sol?
301. The rate constant, the activation energy and
a)𝑁𝑎+ b)𝑀𝑔2+
the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction
c)𝐶𝑎2+ d)𝐴𝑙 3+
at 25°𝐶 are 3.0 × 10−4 /𝑠, 104.4𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 & 6.0 ×
1014 𝑠 −1 respectively. The value of the rate
295. The amount of electrolytes required to
constant at 𝑇 → ∞ is
coagulate agiven amount of 𝐴𝑔𝐼 colloidal
a) 2 × 1014 𝑠 −1 b) 6.0 × 1014 𝑠 −1
solution (−𝑣𝑒 charge) will be in the order
c) 3.6 × 10 30
d) infinity
a) 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 > 𝐵𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 > 𝐴𝑙((𝑁𝑂3 )2
b) 𝐴𝑙((𝑁𝑂3 )3 > 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 > 𝐵𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 302. Slope of the straight line obtained by plotting
c) 𝐴𝑙((𝑁𝑂3 )3 > 𝐵𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 > 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 log10 𝑘 against 1/𝑇 represents what term?
d) 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 > 𝐴𝑙((𝑁𝑂3 )3 > 𝐵𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 a) −𝐸𝑎 b) −2.303 𝐸𝑎 /𝑅
c) −𝐸𝑎 /2.303 𝑅 d) −𝐸/𝑅

296. The gold numbers of 𝐴 , 𝐵 , 𝐶 & 𝐷 are 303. For a chemical reaction, rate law is, rate
0.04, 0.0002, 10 and 25 respectively . The = 𝐾[𝐴]2 [𝐵]. If [𝐴]is doubled at constant [𝐵], The
rate of reaction
 a) increases by a factor of 8
b) increases by a factor of 4 310. The rate constant for the first order reaction is
c) increases by a factor of 3 7.0 × 10−4 𝑠 −1. If initial concentration of reactant
d) increases by a factor of 2 is 0.0804 𝑀, what is the half-life of reaction:
a) 990 𝑠 b) 72.2𝑠
304. Consider the following two first order c) 12375 𝑠 d) 10.10 × 10−4 𝑠
reactions occurring at 298K with same initial
concentration of A: 311. 50 % of a first order reaction is complete in 23
1) 𝐴 → 𝐵, rate constant, 𝐾 = 0.693/𝑚𝑖𝑛 min. calculate the time required to complete 90
2) 𝐴 → 𝐶,half-life , 𝑡1/2 = 0.693 𝑚𝑖𝑛 % of the reaction.
Choose the correct option a) 70.4 𝑚𝑖𝑛 b) 76.4 𝑚𝑖𝑛
a) Reaction 1) is faster than reaction 2) c) 38.7 𝑚𝑖𝑛 d) 35.2 𝑚𝑖𝑛
b) Reaction 1) is slower than reaction 2)
c) Both reactions proceed at the same rate 312. Which concentration plot is linear for a first
d) Since two different products are formed,
order reaction?
rates can’t be compared
a) [A] versus time
1 b) In[A] versus time
305. For a reaction 2 𝐴 → 2𝐵, rate of disappearance 1
c) log [A] versus 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
of A is related to rate of appearance of B by the
expression d) square root of [A] versus time
−𝑑[𝐴] 1 𝑑[𝐵] −𝑑[𝐴] 𝑑[𝐵]
a) = 4 𝑑𝑡 b) =4
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 313. The half-lives of two samples are 0.1s &0.8s
−𝑑[𝐴] 1 𝑑[𝐵] −𝑑[𝐴] 𝑑[𝐵]
c) 𝑑𝑡
= 2 𝑑𝑡 d) 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑑𝑡 and their respective concentrations are
400 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 and 50 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 . The order of the
306. In the reaction 3𝐴 → 2𝐵, rate of reaction reaction is
+
𝑑[𝐵]
is equal to a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4
𝑑𝑡
1 𝑑[𝐴] 2 𝑑[𝐴]
a) − 3 𝑑𝑡 b) − 3 𝑑𝑡 314. For the second order reaction, 𝐴 + 𝐵 →
2𝑑[𝐴] 3 𝑑[𝐴] 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑠. When ′𝑎′ moles of A reacts with ′𝑏′
c) + d) −
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡 moles of B, the rate equation is given by
307. In a chemical reaction 𝐴 + 2𝐵 →products, 1 𝑎−𝑥
𝑘2 𝑡 = 𝑙𝑛
when concentration of A is doubled, rate of the (𝑎 − 𝑏) 𝑎(𝑏 − 𝑥)
reaction increases 4 times and when When 𝑎 ≫ 𝑏, the rate expression becomes that of
concentration of B alone is doubled, rate a) 1st order
continues to be the same, the order of the b) zero order
reaction is c) unchanged, second order
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 d) zero order

308. For the reaction 𝑋 → 𝑌 the concentration of 315. For a first order reaction, (𝐴) → products, the
‘𝑋’ are 1.2𝑀, 0.6𝑀, 0.3𝑀 and 0.15𝑀 at 0, 1, 2, &3 concentration of A changes from 0.1M to 0.025
hours respectively. The order of the reaction is: in 40 minutes. The rate of reaction when the
a) zero b) half concentration of A is 0.01M is
c) one d) two a) 3.47 × 10−4 𝑀/𝑚𝑖𝑛 b) 3.47 × 10−5 𝑀/𝑚𝑖𝑛
c) 0.73 × 10−4 𝑀 /𝑚𝑖𝑛 d) 0.73 × 10−5 𝑀/𝑚𝑖𝑛
309. For the reaction given below
5(𝐵𝑟)− + 𝐵𝑟𝑂3− + 6𝐻 + → 3𝐵𝑟2 + 3𝐻2 𝑂 316. Match each coordination compound in list:1
The rate of formation of 𝐵𝑟2 is related to rate of with an appropriate pair of characteristics from
consumption of 𝐵𝑅 − by the following relation list: II and select the correct answer using the
𝑑[𝐵𝑟2 ] 5 𝑑[𝐵𝑟 − ] 𝑑[𝐵𝑟2 ] 𝑑[𝐵𝑟 − ] code given below the list
a) 𝑑𝑡
= − 3 𝑑𝑡
b) 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑑𝑡
𝑑[𝐵𝑟2 ] 5 𝑑[𝐵𝑟 − ] 𝑑[𝐵𝑟2 ] 3 𝑑[𝐵𝑟 − ] (𝑒𝑛 = 𝐻2 𝑁𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑁𝐻2 ; atomic numbers∶ 𝑇 = 22, 𝐶𝑟 =
c) = d) = − 24, 𝐶𝑜 = 27, 𝑃𝑡 = 78)
𝑑𝑡 3 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 5 𝑑𝑡
 List: I List-II [𝐴𝑡. 𝑛𝑜. 𝐶𝑟 = 24, 𝑀𝑛 = 25, 𝐹𝑒 = 26, 𝐶𝑜 = 27]
a) [𝐶𝑟(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ &[𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− `
P [𝐶𝑟(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙 1 Paramagnetic and exhibits
b) [𝐶𝑟(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ &[𝐹𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+
ionization isomerism
c) [𝑀𝑛(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ &[𝐶𝑟(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+
Q [𝑇𝑖(𝐻2 𝑂 )5 𝐶𝑙 ](𝑁𝑂3 )2 2 Diamagnetic and exhibits d) [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− &[𝐹𝑒 (𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+
cis-trans isomerism
321. The correct ascending order of ligand field
R [𝑃𝑡 (𝑒𝑛)(𝑁𝐻3 )𝐶𝑙]𝑁𝑂3 3 Paramagnetic and exhibits
cis-trans isomerism
strengths of the given ligand is
a) 𝐹 − < 𝐼 − < 𝐶𝑁 − < 𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐶𝑂 `
S [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 (𝑁𝑂3 )2 ]𝑁𝑂3 4 Diamagnetic and exhibits b) 𝐼 − < 𝐹 − < 𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐶𝑂 < 𝐶𝑁 −
ionization isomerism c) 𝐼 − < 𝐹 − < 𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐶𝑁 − < 𝐶𝑂
d) 𝐹 − < 𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐼 − < 𝐶𝑁 − < 𝐶𝑜
Codes:
e) 𝐹 − < 𝐼 − < 𝐶𝑂 < 𝐻2 𝑂 < 𝐶𝑁 −
P Q R S

a) 4 2 3 1 322. The time required for 100 % completion of a

zero order reaction is
b) 3 1 4 2 a) 𝑎𝑘 b)𝑎/2𝑘
c) 2 1 3 4 c) 𝑎/𝑘 d) 2𝑘/𝑎

d) 1 3 4 2 323. The plot between concentration versus time

for a zero order reaction is represented by
317. Which of the following pairs represents
linkage isomerism?
a) [𝐶𝑢(𝑁𝐻3 )4 ][𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙4 ]&[𝑃𝑡 (𝑁𝐻3 )4 ][𝐶𝑢𝐶𝑙4 ]
a) b)
b) [𝑃𝑑(𝑃ℎ3 )(𝑁𝐶𝑆)2 ]&[𝑃𝑑 (𝑃ℎ3 )2 (𝑆𝐶𝑁)2 ]
c) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 (𝑁𝑂3 )]𝑆𝑂4 &[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 (𝑆𝑂4 )]𝑁𝑂3
d) [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙2 (𝑁𝐻3 )4 ]𝐵𝑟2 &[𝑃𝑡𝐵𝑟(𝑁𝐻3 )4 ]𝐶𝑙2
c) d)
318. The spin only magnetic moment (𝜇𝑠 ) of
complex. [𝑀𝑛(𝐵𝑟4 )]2− is 5.9 BM. The geometry
of complex will be 324. For a zero order reaction 𝐴 →product with
a) tetrahedral b) square planar specific rate constant 𝐾0 . Linear plot was
c) square pyramidal d) tetragonal obtained for [𝐴] vs 𝑡. The slope of the line is
equal to
319. For complexes [𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 ]2− & [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ] which a) 𝐾0 b)−𝐾0
one of the following statements is true? c) 0.623/𝐾0 d) −𝐾0 /2.303
a) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙4 )]2− is diamagnetic while [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ] is
paramagnetic and both the complexes have 325. Inversion of cane-sugar in dilute acid is
square planar geometry. a) bi-molecular reaction
b) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙4 )]2− is paramagnetic while [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ] b) pseudo-molecular reaction
is diamagnetic and both the complexes have
c) uni-molecular reaction
square planar geometry.
c) tri-molecular reaction
c) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙4 )]2− is paramagnetic while [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ]
is diamagnetic and both the complexes have
tetrahedral geometry. 326. Which among the following equation
d) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙4 )]2− is diamagnetic while [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ] is represents Arrhenius equation?
𝐸 /𝑅𝑇 𝑅𝑇/𝐸𝑎
paramagnetic and both the complexes have a) 𝐾 = 𝐴𝑒𝑎 b)𝐾 = 𝐴𝑒
tetrahedral geometry. 𝐴
c) 𝐾 = 𝑒 𝐸𝑎/𝑅𝑇
𝐴
d) 𝐾 = 𝑒 𝑅𝑇/𝐸𝑎

320. The pair having the same magnetic moment is

327. The rate of reaction increases with rise in a) One 𝐶𝑜 − 𝐶𝑜 bond , four terminal 𝐶𝑂 and four
temperature because of bridging 𝐶𝑂
a) Increase in no. of activated molecules b) One 𝐶𝑜 − 𝐶𝑜 bond , six terminal 𝐶𝑂 and four
b) Increase in energy of activation bridging 𝐶𝑂
c) Decrease in energy of activation c) No 𝐶𝑜 − 𝐶𝑜 bond , four terminal 𝐶𝑂 and four
d) Increase in the no. of effective collisions bridging 𝐶𝑂
d) No 𝐶𝑜 − 𝐶𝑜 bond , six terminal 𝐶𝑂 and four
328. In endothermic reaction 𝐴 → 𝐵 has an bridging 𝐶𝑂
activation energy as 𝑥𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 . If the energy
change of reaction is 𝑌𝐾𝐽, the activation energy 334. If 𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑂)5 , the 𝐹𝑒 − 𝐶 bond pressures
of reverse reaction is a) ionic character
a) – 𝑥 b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 b) 𝜎 character only
c) 𝑥 + 𝑦 d) 𝑦 − 𝑥 c) 𝜋 character only
d) both 𝜎 & 𝜋 character
329. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for
every 10°𝐶 rise of temperature. If the 335. In metal carbonyl (organometallic) complexes,
temperature is raised by 50°𝐶, the rate of the 𝑀 − 𝐶 bond is
reaction increase by about a) ionic
a) 10 times b) 24 times b) covalent with ionic character
c) 32 times d) 64 times c) covalent
d) coordinate covalent
330. The correct expression for Arrhenius equation
showing the effect of temperature on the rate 336. Among the following metal carbonyls, the
constant is (𝑇2 > 𝑇1 ) 𝐶 − 𝑂 bond order is lowest in
a) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10
𝐾2
=
𝐸𝑎 𝑇𝑇
[ 21] a) [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑂)6 ]+ b) [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑂)5 ]
𝐾1 2.303𝑅 𝑇2 −𝑇1
c) [𝐶𝑟(𝐶𝑂)6 ] d) [𝑉(𝐶𝑂6 )]−
𝐾 𝑅 𝑇 −𝑇
b) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 𝐾 2 = [ 2 1]
2.303𝐸𝑎 𝑇1 𝑇2
1

𝐾2 𝐸𝑎 𝑇2 −𝑇1 337. Wilkinson’s catalyst is used for

c) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 = [ ]
𝐾1 𝑅 𝑇1 𝑇2 a) epoxidation b) hydrogenation
𝐾 𝐸 𝑇 −𝑇
d) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 𝐾 2 = 2.303𝑅
𝑎
[ 𝑇2 𝑇 1 ] c) polymerization d) substitution
1 2 1

331. If the activation energy for the forward 338. A catalyst is a substance which
reaction is 150𝐾𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 & that of the reverse a. increases the equilibrium constant of
reaction is 260𝐾𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1. What is the enthalpy reaction
change for the reaction? b. increases the equilibrium constant of
a) 410𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 b) −110𝐾𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 products
c) 110𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 d) −410 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 c. does not alter the reaction of mechanism
d. changes the activation energy of the reaction
332. For two gaseous reactions, following data is
given 339. The energies of activation for forward and
reverse reactions for 𝐴2 + 𝐵2 ⇄ 2𝐴𝐵 are
𝐴 → 𝐵; 𝐾1 = 1010 𝑒 −20000/𝑇
180𝐾𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 & 200𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 respectively. The
𝐶 → 𝐷; 𝐾2 = 1012 𝑒 −24606/𝑇
presence of a catalyst lowers the activation
The temperature at which𝐾1 becomes equal to
energy of both reactions by 100𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙. The
𝑘2 is
enthalpy change of the reaction (𝐴2 + 𝐵2 →
a) 400 𝐾 b) 1000 𝐾
2𝐴𝐵) in the presence of catalyst will be
c) 800 𝐾 d) 1500 𝐾
(𝑖𝑛 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙)
a) 20 b) 300
333. [𝐶𝑜2 (𝐶𝑂)8 ]displays
c) 120 d) 280
340. Pick the appropriate choice about the collision 346. The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of
theory of reaction rates 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 at 500°𝐶 is as follows:
I. it explains the effect of temperature on rate 2 4
𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 → 𝐴𝑙 + 𝑂2
of reaction 3 3
II. it assumes that the reactants must be in ∆𝑟 𝐺 = +960 𝐾𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
correct orientation to react
The potential difference needed for the electrolyte
III. It says rate depends upon the frequency at
reduction of aluminum oxide (𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 ) at 500°𝐶 is
which reactants collide
at least
IV. The collisions having energy higher than the
a) 4.5 𝑉 b) 3.0 𝑉
threshold value give successful reactions
c) 2.5 𝑉 d) 5.0 𝑉
a)𝐼, 𝐼𝐼𝐼, 𝐼𝑉 b) 𝐼𝐼, 𝐼𝑉
c) 𝐼, 𝐼𝑉 d) 𝐼, 𝐼𝐼, 𝐼𝐼𝐼, 𝐼𝑉
347. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell
will be negative if
341. Addition of excess of 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 to an aqueous
a)𝑃(𝐻2 ) = 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚 &[𝐻 + ] = 2.0𝑀
solution of 1 mole of 𝑃𝑑𝐶𝑙2 . 4𝑁𝐻3 gives 2 moles
of 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙. The conductivity of this solution b) 𝑃(𝐻2 ) = 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚 &[𝐻 + ] = 1.0𝑀
corresponds to c) 𝑃(𝐻2 ) = 2 𝑎𝑡𝑚 & [𝐻 + ] = 1.0𝑀
a)1 ∶ 1 electrolyte b) 1 ∶ 3 electrolyte d) 𝑃(𝐻2 ) = 2 𝑎𝑡𝑚 &[𝐻 + ] = 2.0𝑀
c) 1 ∶ 2 electrolyte d) 1 ∶ 4 electrolyte

342. Which of the following is reversible cell? 348. The standard emf of galvanic cell involving 3
a)dry cell b) mercury cell moles of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59V.
c) daniel cell d) All of these The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the
cell is
343. Given the reduction potential of a) 1025 b) 1020
𝑁𝑎 , 𝑀𝑔 , 𝐴𝑙 and 𝐴𝑔+ as
+ 2+ 3+
c) 1015 d) 1030
° + ° 2+
𝐸 𝑁𝑎 /𝑁𝑎 = −2.71 𝑉 𝐸 𝑀𝑔 /𝑀𝑔 = −2.37 𝑉
𝐸 ° 𝐴𝑙 2+ /𝐴𝑙 = −1.66 𝑉 𝐸 ° 𝐴𝑔+ /𝐴𝑔 = 349. The potential of hydrogen electrode at pH=10
0.80 𝑉 Is
The least stable oxide is a) 0.59 𝑉 b) 0.00 𝑉
a) 𝐴𝑔2 𝑂 b) 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 c) −0.59 𝑉 d) 0.059 𝑉
c) 𝑀𝑔𝑂 d) 𝑁𝑎3 𝑂
350. The specific conductance of 0.01 M solution of
344. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge acetic acid was found to be 0.0163𝑠𝑚−1 and
a) Does not participate chemically in the cell 25°𝐶. Molar conductance of acetic acid at infinite
reaction dilution is 390.7 × 10−4 𝑠𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 at 25°𝐶.
b) Stops the diffusion of ions from one What will be the degree of dissociation of
electrode to another 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻?
c) Both a and b a) 0.4072 b) 0.7402
d) Ensure mixing of two electrolyte solutions c) 0.2720 d) 0.0420

345. What is the standard reduction potential (𝐸°) 351. Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in
concentration
for 𝐹𝑒 3+ + 3𝑒 − → 𝐹𝑒?
a) for strong electrolytes
𝐹𝑒 2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝐹𝑒; 𝐸 ° 𝐹𝑒 2+ /𝐹𝑒 = −0.47𝑉 b) for weak electrolytes
𝐹𝑒 3+ + 𝑒 − → 𝐹𝑒 2+ ; 𝐸 ° 𝐹𝑒 3+ /𝐹𝑒 2+ = +0.77𝑉 c) for both strong and weak electrolytes
a) +0.057 𝑉 b) +0.30 𝑉 d) for non-electrolytes
c) −0.30 𝑉 d) −0.057 𝑉
352. The correct order of equivalent conductance c) 𝐴/𝑙 d) 1/(𝐴𝑙)
at infinite dilution in water at room temperature
for 𝐻 + , 𝐾 + , 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂− & 𝐻𝑂− ions is 358. How many Faradays are required to reduce 1
a) 𝐻𝑂− > 𝐻 + > 𝐾 + > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂− mol of 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72− to 𝐶𝑟 3+ in acidic medium?
b) 𝐻 + > 𝐻𝑂 − > 𝐾 + > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂− a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
c) 𝐻 + > 𝐾 + > 𝐻𝑂− > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂−
d) 𝐻 + > 𝐾 + > 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂− > 𝐻𝑂 − 359. The current strength of 9.65 amperes is
passed through excess fused 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 for 5 hrs.
353. The one which decreases with dilution is How many litres of chlorine will be liberated at
a) conductance STP? (F=96500 C)
b) specific conductance a) 2.016 b) 1.008
c) equivalent conductance c) 11.2 d) 20.16
d) molar conductance
360. Which among the following expressions is not
354. The equivalent conductance of two strong correct?
electrolytes at infinite dilution in 𝐻2 𝑂 (where a) 𝜇∞ = 𝛾+ 𝜆∞ ∞
+ + 𝛾− 𝜆−
ions move freely through a solution) at 25° 𝐶 are 1 1
b)𝜆∞ = 𝑛+ 𝜆∞ ∞
+ + 𝑛 − 𝜆−
given below
Λ°𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑁𝑎=91 𝑆𝑐𝑚2 /𝑒𝑞 c) 𝜆∞ ∞
𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = 𝜇𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 × 𝑓𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑎𝑦
Λ°𝐻𝐶𝑙=426.2 𝑆𝑐𝑚2 /𝑒𝑞 d) 𝜆∞ ∞
𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑜𝑛 = 𝜇𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑜𝑛 × 𝑓𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑎𝑦
What additional information/ quantity one needs
to calculate Λ° of an aqueous solution of acetic
361. A current of 12 ampere is passed through an
acid?
electrolytic cell containing aqueous 𝑁𝑖𝑆𝑂4
a) Λ°of chloroacetic acid (𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻)
solution. Both Ni &𝐻2 gas are formed at the
b) Λ° of 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
cathode. The current efficiency is 60 %. What is
c) Λ° of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐾
the mass of Nickel deposited on the cathode/hr?
d) the limiting equivalent conductances of
a) 7.883 𝑔 b) 3.941 𝑔
𝐻 + (Λ°𝐻+ )
c) 5.91 𝑔 d) 2.645 𝑔

355. The units of equivalent conductance are

362. In the lead-acid battery during charging, the
a) 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚2 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 −1
cathode reaction is
b) 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚2 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 a) formation of 𝑃𝑏𝑂2
c) 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1 𝑐𝑚2 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 −1 b) formation of 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4
d) 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡
2 −1
c) reduction of 𝑃𝑏 2+ 𝑡𝑜 𝑃𝑏
d) decomposition of 𝑃𝑏 at the anode
356. Molar conductivities of 𝐿𝑖 , 𝑁𝑎 , 𝐾 & 𝑅𝑏
+ + + +

ions in aqueous solutions are in the following 363. Identify the correct statement
order a) corrosion of iron can be minimized by
a) 𝐿𝑖 + > 𝑁𝑎+ = 𝐾 + < 𝑅𝑏 + forming a contact with another metal with a
b) 𝐿𝑖 + > 𝑁𝑎+ > 𝐾 + = 𝑅𝑏 + higher reduction potential
c) 𝑅𝑏 + > 𝐾 + > 𝑁𝑎+ > 𝐿𝑖 + b) iron corrodes in oxygen free water
c) corrosion of iron can be minimized by
d) 𝐿𝑖 + > 𝑅𝑏 + > 𝐾 + > 𝑁𝑎+
forming an impermeable barrier at its
surface
357. The cell constant of an electrical conductivity d) iron corrodes more rapidly in salt water
cell having two electrodes of area A at a distance because its electrochemical potential is
of 𝑙 is expressed by higher
a) 𝑙/𝐴 b) 𝑙 2 /𝐴
364. When a direct current is passed through an
aqueous conc. Solution of 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙, which statement 370. Which of the following acts as oxidizing agent
is true? in hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?
a) pH of the solution decreases a) 𝐻2 b) 𝑂2 c) 𝐾𝑂𝐻 d) 𝐶
b) chlorine gas will be liberated at the anode
c) metallic sodium will be deposited at the 371. For the reaction
cathode 1
𝑁2 𝑂5 → 2 𝑁𝑂2 + 𝑂2
d) both a) & b) are true 2
−𝑑[𝑁2 𝑜5 ] 𝑑[𝑁𝑂2 ] 𝑑[𝑂2 ]
= 𝐾1 [𝑁2 𝑂5 ], = 𝐾2 [𝑁2 𝑂5 ], = 𝐾3 [𝑁2 𝑂5 ]
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
365. An aqueous solution of 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 is subjected to The relation in between 𝐾1 , 𝐾2 , 𝐾3 is
electrolysis using inert electrodes. The pH of the a) 2𝐾1 = 𝐾2 = 4𝐾3 b) 𝐾1 = 𝐾2 = 𝐾3
solution will c) 2𝐾1 = 4𝐾2 = 𝐾3 d) 𝑁. 𝑂. 𝑇
a) increase
b) remains unchanged 372. Ammonium ion (𝑁𝐻4+ ) reacts with nitric ion
c) decrease (𝑁𝑂2− ) in aqueous solution according to the
d) increase or decrease depending on the equation:
strengths in the current 𝑁𝐻4+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑂2− (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 2𝐻2 𝑂(𝑙)
The following initial rates of reaction have been
366. Which one of the following graphs between measured for the given reactant concentrations
molar conductivity (∆𝑀 )versus√𝑐 is correct? Exp.No. [𝑵𝑯𝟒+ ], (𝑴) [𝑵𝑶𝟐− ], (𝑴) Rate (M/hr)

1. 0.010 0.020 0.020

a) b) 2. 0.015 0.020 0.030

3. 0.010 0.010 0.005

Which of the following is the rate of reaction?

a) Rate = 𝐾[𝑁𝐻4+ ][𝑁𝑂2− ]4
b) Rate = 𝐾[𝑁𝐻4+ ][𝑁𝑂2− ]
c) d)
c) Rate = 𝐾[𝑁𝐻4+ ][𝑁𝑂2− ]2
d) Rate = 𝐾[𝑁𝐻4+ ]2 [𝑁𝑂2− ]

373. Consider the reaction, 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻2 𝑆(𝑎𝑞) →

+
𝑆(𝑠)+ 2𝐻𝑎𝑞 + 2𝐶𝑙 − (𝑎𝑞)
367. The charge carried by 1 milimole of 𝑀𝑛+ ions
The rate of reaction for this reaction is,
is 193 coulombs. The value of 𝑛 is?
rate= 𝐾[𝐶𝑙2 ][𝐻2 𝑆]. Which of these mechanism(s)
a) 1 b)2
is/ are consistent with this rate equation?
c) 3 d) 4
A. 𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2 𝑆 → 𝐻 + + 𝐶𝑙 − + 𝐶𝑙 + + 𝐻𝑆 − (𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑤)
𝐶𝑙 + + 𝐻𝑆 − → 𝐻 + + 𝐶𝑙 − + 𝑆(𝑓𝑎𝑠𝑡)
368. Given 𝐸°𝐶𝑟 3+ /𝐶𝑟 = −0.72 𝑉, 𝜀°𝐹𝑒 2+ /𝐹𝑒 =
B. 𝐻2 𝑆 ⇌ 𝐻 + + 𝐻𝑆 − (𝑓𝑎𝑠𝑡)
−0.42 𝑉
𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻𝑆 − → 2𝐶𝑙 − + 𝐻 + + 𝑆 (𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑤)
The potential for the cell
a) A only b) B only
3+
𝐶𝑟/𝐶𝑟 (0.1𝑀)||𝐹𝑒 2+ (0.01𝑀)|𝐹𝑒
is
c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B
a)−0.26 𝑉 b) 0.26 𝑉
c) 0.339 𝑉 d) −0.339 𝑉
374. Which among the following will be named as
dibromido-bis (ethylenediamine) chromium
369. The equilibrium constant of the reaction
(III) bromide?
𝐶𝑢(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) → 𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐴𝑔 (𝑠)
a)[𝐶𝑟(𝑒𝑛)2 , 𝐵𝑟2 ]𝐵𝑟 b)[𝐶𝑟(𝑒𝑛), 𝐵𝑟4 ]−
[Given:𝐸° = 0.46 𝑉] will be
c) [𝐶𝑟(𝑒𝑛), 𝐵𝑟2 ]𝐵𝑟 d) [𝐶𝑟(𝑒𝑛)3 ]𝐵𝑟3
a) 4 × 1015 b) 4 × 1014
c) 14 × 1014 d) 15.6 × 105
375. Square planar complex of the type 𝑀𝐴𝑋𝐵𝐿 b)[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝑆𝑜4 ]𝐶𝑙
(where 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝑋 & 𝐿 are unidentate ligands)shows c) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]
following set of isomers d) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝑁𝑂3 ]𝑁𝑂3
a) 2 cis and 1 trans
b) 2 trans and 1 cis 382. The no. of ions formed when
c) 2 cis and 2 trans hexaminecopper(II) sulphate is dissolved in
d) 3 cis and 1 trans water is
a) 1 b) 2
376. Which among the following complexes can c) 4 d) 6
also represent facial (fac) and meridional (mer)
isomers? 383. The correct structure of ethylenediamine
a)[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )3 𝑁𝑂𝐶𝑙] tetraacetic acid(EDTA) is:
b)[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )2 (𝑁𝑂2 )2 𝐶𝑙2 ]
c) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝑁𝑂2 )2 𝐶𝑙]
d) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝑁𝑂2 )3 ] a)

377. Which among the following complexes show

optical isomerism? b)
a)[𝐶𝑂(𝑁𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑙3 ]
b) 𝐶𝑖𝑠 − [𝐶𝑜(𝑒𝑛)2 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙
c) 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 − [𝐶𝑜(𝑒𝑛)2 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙 c)
d) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙
(𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑦𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑒)

378. The no. of geometric isomers that can exist for

square planar [𝑃𝑡(𝐶𝑙)(𝑃𝑦)(𝑁𝐻3 )(𝑁𝐻2 𝑂𝐻)]+ , is d)
(𝑃𝑦 = 𝑃𝑦𝑟𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑒)
a) 4 b) 6
c) 2 d) 3

379. The no. unpaired electrons in

[𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 ]2− , [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ]&[𝐶𝑢 (𝑁𝐻3 )4 ]2+ 384. At STP, the volume of 11g of a gas is 5.6L. The
respectively are gas is
a)𝑁𝑂 b) 𝑁2 𝑂
a) 2, 2, 1 b) 2, 0, 1
c)𝐶𝑂 d) 𝐶𝑂2
c) 0, 2, 1 d) 2, 2, 0
385. The mass of 𝐶𝑜2 produced from 445g of
380. The correct order of electrical conductivity of 𝐶57 𝐻110 𝑂6 is
given complexes is: 𝐶57 𝐻110 𝑂6 + 163𝑂2 → 114𝐶𝑂2 + 110𝐻2 𝑂
a) [𝑁𝑖(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ] < 𝐾2 [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙6 ] < 𝐾4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ] < a) 495𝑔 b) 1254𝑔 c)2508𝑔 d)990𝑔
[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙
b) 𝐾2 [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙6 ] < 𝐾4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ] < [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙 < 386. 3𝑔 of 𝑀𝑔 are burnt with3𝑔 of 𝑂2 in a closed
[𝑁𝑖(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ] vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
c) 𝐾4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ] < [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝐶𝑙 < much
[𝑁𝑖(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ] < 𝐾2 [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙6 ] a)0.5𝑔 𝑂2 b) 1𝑔 𝑂2
d) [𝑁𝑖(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ] < [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ] < 𝐾2 [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙6 ] < c) 1𝑔 𝑀𝑔 d) 0.5𝑔 𝑀𝑔
𝐾4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]

381. Which of the following complexes would give 387. The mass of 𝐶𝑙2 gas which occupies 11.2𝐿 at
white precipitate with excess of 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 sol? 𝑆𝑇𝑃 would be
a)[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝑙2 ]𝑁𝑂3 a) the gram atomic mass of chlorine
b) One- fourth of the gram atomic mass of
 chlorine oxide is 𝑀𝑂2 , then the formula od 2nd oxide will
c) double the 𝐺𝐴𝑀 of chlorine be,
d) Half of the 𝐺𝐴𝑀 of chlorine a) 𝑀𝑂2 b) 𝑀𝑂3
c)𝑀2 𝑂 d) 𝑀2 𝑂5
388. The equivalent mass of 𝐾2 Cr2 O7 in acidic
medium is 396. An organic compound containing 𝐶 , 𝐻 & 𝑁
a)𝑀/3 b)𝑀/7 contains 20% nitrogen. Its molecular weight is
c) 𝑀 d) 𝑀/6 a) 70 b) 140 c) 100d) 65

389. Given the abundances of isotopes 397. 53𝑔 of 𝑀2 𝐶𝑂3 on treatment with excess 𝐻𝐶𝑙
36
𝐴𝑟, 38 𝐴𝑟 & 40 𝐴𝑟 are produces 0.5 moles of 𝐶𝑂2 .the mol.mass of
0.337%, 0.063% 𝑎𝑛𝑑 99.6% respectively, the 𝑀2 𝐶𝑂3 in 𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 is
atomic mass of ′𝐴𝑟′ is. a) 53 b) 44
a) 39.985 b) 38.895 c)38.75 d) 39 c)106 d) 88

390. Arrange the following in the order of

increasing mass ( At. mass 𝑁 = 14, 𝐶𝑢 = 63, 𝑂 = 398. The molality of 1.18𝑀 solution of urea having
16) density 1.25𝑔𝑐𝑚−3 is
(I) oneatom of nitrogen a)1𝑚 b) 1.5𝑚
(II) one atom of carbon c) 1.75𝑚 d) 0.95𝑚
(III) 10−3mole of nitrogen
(IV) 10−3mole of copper 399. The concentration of the solution by mixing
75𝑚𝑙 of 0.5𝑚 𝐻𝐶𝑙 with 25𝑚𝑙 of 2𝑀 𝐻𝐶𝑙 will be
a)𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 a) 0.875𝑀 b) 1𝑀
b)𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 c) 1.75𝑀 d) 0.95M
c)𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
d)𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 400. Two solutions of 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , I&II have
concentrations of 0.5𝑁 and 0.1𝑀 respectively
391. Number of molecules in 14𝑔 of 𝑁2 gas is .The volume of solutions I&II required to make 2
(𝑁𝑎 = 6 × 1023 ) litres of 0.2𝑁 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 are
a) 3 × 1023
b)6 × 1023 a) 0.5𝐿 of 𝐼 + 1.5𝐿 of 𝐼𝐼
c) 1.5 × 1023 d) 4.5 × 1023 b) 1.5𝐿 of 𝐼 + 0.5𝐿 of 𝐼𝐼
c) 1.0𝐿 of 𝐼 + 1.0𝐿 of 𝐼𝐼
392. The compound 𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁𝑆)3 . 𝑥𝐻2 𝑂 contains
d)0.75𝐿 of 𝐼 + 1.25𝐿 of 𝐼𝐼
19% 𝐻2 𝑂 by mass. The value of 𝑥 is
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
401. 0.32𝑔 of a metal give 56𝑚𝑙 of 𝑂2 (𝑔) at 𝑆𝑇𝑃 on
treatment with a dilute acid .The equivalent
393. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives 0.72𝑔 of 𝐻2 𝑂
weight of the metal is
and 3.08𝑔 of 𝐶𝑂2 . The empirical formula of the
a) 58 b) 32
hydrocarbon is
c) 11.2 d) 24
a) 𝐶7 𝐻8 b)𝐶2 𝐻4 c)𝐶3 𝐻4 d)𝐶6 𝐻5
402. The percentage yield of the reaction if 6.3
394. 0.6𝐺 of an organic compound containing
moles of 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 are obtained by taking 2.5
𝐶, 𝐻 & ′ 𝑂′ on combustion yields 0.88𝑔 of 𝐶𝑂2
moles of 𝐹𝑒(𝑁𝑂3 )3 and 3.6 moles of 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 is
and 0.36𝑔 of 𝐻2 𝑂. If one mole of the compound
2𝐹𝑒(𝑁𝑂3 )3 + 3𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐹𝑒2 (𝐶𝑂3 )3 + 6𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3
weighs 60𝑔, then the molecular formula of the
a) 50 b) 84
compound is
c)87.5 d)100
a) 𝐶3 𝐻8 𝑂 b) 𝐶2 𝐻4 𝑂2
c) 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 d) 𝐶4 𝐻6 𝑂
403. The mass of 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 required to produce 2.4
395. Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40% moles of oxygen will be
metal ′𝑀′ respectively. If the formula of first 2𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 (𝑠) → 2𝐾𝐶𝑙(𝑠) + 3𝑂2 (𝑔)[𝑀𝑜𝑙. 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3
= 122.5
 a) 19.6𝑔 b) 196𝑔
c) 122.5𝑔 d) 245𝑔 412. Among the following molecules, point-out the
one which exhibits paramagnetic character?
404. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding exists in a) 𝑁2 b) 𝑆2 c) 𝑂2 d) 𝐶2
a) 𝑂-chlorophenol b) water
c) Ammonia chloride d) 𝑂-nitro phenol 413. Choose the correct order of stability?
a) 𝑂2+ > 𝑂2 > 𝑂2− > 𝑂22−
405. The formal charge on the central oxygen atom b)𝑂2+ > 𝑂2 < 𝑂2− > 𝑂22−
in an Ozone molecule is: c) 𝑂2 > 𝑂2+ > 𝑂22− > 𝑂2−
a) 𝑂 b)−1 d)𝑂22− > 𝑂2− > 𝑂2 > 𝑂2+
c) +2 d)+1
414. 𝑁𝑂 molecule does not show the following
406. Identify the proper set of molecules, where in property, choose the one
all the molecules possesses permanent dipole a) Diamagnetic in character in gaseous state
moment at room temperature b) Bond order is 2.5
a) 𝑁𝑂2 , 𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝐻3 c) Neutral oxide
b) 𝑂3 , 𝑆𝐹6 , 𝐵𝐹3 , 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 d) Combines with oxygen to form
c) 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐶𝑜2 , 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3 nitrogendioxide
d) None of these
415. Which of the following is not-paramagnetic?
407. The respective geometry of Ammonia and a)𝑂2 b)𝑁𝑂
water molecules as per VSEPR theory will be c) 𝐵2 d)𝐶𝑂
a) Tetrahedral and pyramidal
b) Pyramidal and bent 416. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
c) Bent and pyramidal a) 𝑂22− b)𝑁𝑂+
d) Pyramidal and tetrahedral c)𝐵2 d)𝐶𝑂

408. In ammonia, the 𝐻 − 𝑁 − 𝐻 angle is 107.6°, 417. What is the correct order of bond strength for
while in phosphine, the 𝐻 − 𝑃 − 𝐻 angle is 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁𝑂− , 𝑁𝑂+
93.5°.Relative to phosphine, the 𝑃-character of a)𝑁𝑂+ > 𝑁𝑂 > 𝑁𝑂 −
the lone pair on ammonia is expected to be b)𝑁𝑂 > 𝑁𝑂+ > 𝑁𝑂−
a) more b) same c)𝑁𝑂− > 𝑁𝑂 > 𝑁𝑂+
c)less d)cannot be determined d) 𝑁𝑂 + > 𝑁𝑂− > 𝑁𝑂

409. Consider the hydrogen bonds in 𝐻𝐹, 𝐻2 𝑂, 𝐻𝐹2− 418. For 𝐵2 and 𝐶2 molecules, the ground state
and 𝑁𝐻3 , the relative order of energies of magnetic property will be:
hydrogen bonds is: a) 𝐵2 diamagnetic and 𝐶2 paramagnetic
a) 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐻3 𝑁 > 𝐻𝐹2− b) 𝐵2 paramagnetic and 𝐶2 diamagnetic
c) Both diamagnetic
b)𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻𝐹2− > 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝑁𝐻3
d) Both paramagnetic
c) 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐻𝐹2− > 𝐻𝐹 > 𝑁𝐻3
d)𝐻𝐹2− > 𝐻𝐹 > 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝑁𝐻3 419. 𝑆𝑝3 𝑑2 hybridization is not shown by
a)𝑃𝐹5 b)𝑆𝐹6
c)[𝐶𝑟𝐹6 ]3− d)𝐵𝑟𝐹5
410. Find out the ionization process given below, in
which bond-order has increased and the 420. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of
magnetic behaviour has changed nitrogen in 𝑁𝑂2+ , 𝑁𝑂3− , 𝑁𝐻4+ are
a) 𝐶2 → 𝐶2+ b) 𝑁𝑂 → 𝑁𝑂+ a) 𝑆𝑝2 , 𝑠𝑝3 , 𝑠𝑝 b)𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝2 , 𝑠𝑝3
c) 𝑁2 → 𝑁2 +
d) 𝑂2 → 𝑂2+ c) 𝑠𝑝2 , 𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝3 d)𝑠𝑝2 𝑑, 𝑠𝑝3 , 𝑠𝑝
411. In which of the following, hydrogen bonding is
421. The group having triangular planar structure
not present :
is :
a) hydrogen sulphide b) hydrogen fluoride
a)𝐶𝑜32− , 𝑁𝑂3− , 𝑆𝑂3 b)𝑁𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 , 𝑆𝑂3
c) Water d) glycerine
 c)𝐵𝐹3 , 𝑁𝐹3 , 𝐶𝑜32− d)𝑁𝐻3 , 𝑆𝑂3 , 𝐶𝑂32− 430. Which has maximum covalent nature?
a)𝑃𝐶𝑙3 b)𝑃𝐹5
422. Wrong matching among the following is
c)𝑃𝐶𝑙5 d)𝑃𝐹3
i)Linear-𝐻2 𝑂, 𝑆𝑂2
ii)𝑉-𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑝𝑒𝑑-𝐶𝐻2 , 𝑆𝑛𝐶𝑙2
431. Structures of anions of acids𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 and
iii) see-saw – 𝑆𝐹4 , 𝑇𝑒𝐶𝑙4
𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 are respectively:
iv)𝑇-shaped – 𝐼𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐶𝑙𝐹3
a) tetrahedral, tetrahedral and angular
a) Both i and ii b) both iii and iv
b) tetrahedral, tetrahedral, and triangular
c) Only iii d) only i
bypyramidal
c) angular , tetrahedral and trigonal
423. Which of the following represents the correct
bypyramidal
order of bond-angles:
d) planar, tetrahedral and tetrahedral
a)𝑁𝐻3 > 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3
b) 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 > 𝑁𝐻3 > 𝑃𝐶𝑙3
432. For the reaction CO (g) + ½ O2
c)𝑃𝐶𝑙3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 > 𝑁𝐻3
d)𝐵𝐶𝑙3 > 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 > 𝑁𝐻3 (g)………CO2(g).
a) H =  E b) H > E
424. The correct order of 𝐶 − 𝑂 bond length among c) H < E d) H -  E = 0
𝐶𝑜, 𝐶𝑜32− , 𝐶𝑜2 is
a)𝐶𝑜2 < 𝐶𝑜32− < 𝐶𝑜 b)𝐶𝑜 < 𝐶𝑜2 < 𝐶𝑜32− 433. 1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally
c)𝐶𝑜 < 𝐶𝑜3 < 𝐶𝑜2
2−
d)𝐶𝑜32− < 𝐶𝑜2 < 𝐶𝑜 and reversibly from a pressure 7 atm to 1 atm at
25C. What will be the total work done by the
425. The increasing order of 𝑂 − 𝑁 − 𝑂 bond system.
length angle in the species 𝑁𝑂2 , 𝑁𝑂2+ , 𝑁𝑂2− is a) -4882 J b) 4822 J
a)𝑁𝑂2+ < 𝑁𝑂2 < 𝑁𝑂2− c) 3915 J d) -3915 J
b)𝑁𝑂2 < 𝑁𝑂2− < 𝑁𝑂2+
c)𝑁𝑂2+ < 𝑁𝑂2− < 𝑁𝑂2 434. The Standard enthalpy of formation of CO (g),
d) None of these CO2 (g) N2O (g) and N2O4 (g) is -110 , -393, + 811
and 10 kJ/mole respectively. For the reaction
426. For𝐵𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 , 𝐺𝑎𝐶𝑙3 , the increasing order of N2O4(g) + 3CO (g) …….N2O (g) + 3CO2 (g), Hr
ionic-character is: (kJ/mole ) is
a) 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐺𝑎𝐶𝑙3 a) -212 b) +212
b) 𝐺𝑎𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 c) +48 d) -48
c) 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐺𝑎𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
d) 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐺𝑎𝐶𝑙3 435. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1, H for the
427. Which of the following molecules doesn’t have formation of XY is -200 kJ/mole. The bond
net dipole moment dissociation of X2 will be (kJ/mole)
a)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙2 b)𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐵𝑟 a) 200 b) 100
c)𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 d)𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 c) 800 d) 400

428. Identify the molecule which has zero dipole 436. In which of the following pair the enthalpy of
moment neutralisation is less than the standard value?
a)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 b)𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3 a) HNO3 + NaOH b) HCl + NaOH
c)𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙2 d)𝐶𝐶𝑙4 c) HCN + NaOH d) H2SO4 + NaOH

429. Dipole moment of is 1.5 𝐷, the dipole- 437. In a spontaneous irreversible process the total
moment of is
entropy of the system and surroundings
a) Remain constant b) Increases
c) decreases d) zero
a)1.5 𝐷 b)2.25 𝐷
c)1 𝐷 d)3 𝐷
438. In which of the following case entropy N2 + H 2 2NH3 K1
decreases
a) solid changing to liquid N2 + O 2 2NO K2
b) expansion of gas
H2 + 1/2O2 H2O K3
c) crystal dissolves
d) polymerisation The equilibrium constant of the reaction
NH3 + 5/2H2 2NO + 3H2O K
439. The spontaneous nature of reaction is
K1 K 2 K 1 K 32
impossible if
(a) H= +ive &S = +ive (a)
K3 (b)
K2
(b) H= -ive &S = -ive K 2 K 32
(c) H= -ive &S = +ive K1
(d) H= +ive &S = -ive (c) (d) K1K2K3

446. If the concentration of OH- ion in the reaction

440. Which of the following is extensive property? Fe(OH)3 (s) Fe3+(aq) + 3 OH- (aq)
(a) Collision frequency Is decreased up to ¼ times then equilibrium
(b) Concentration concentration of Fe3+ will increase upto
(c) Density (a) 16 times (b) 64 times
(d) Pressure (c) 4 times (d) 8 times

441. Which one is a state function? 447. Which of the following is a lewis acid
(a) heat supplied at constant volume (a) BF4 (b) OH-
(b) heat supplied at constant pressure (c) AlCl3 (d) RNH2
(c) entropy
(d) all of the above 448. When 50 ml of 0.1 M NH3 is mixed with 10 ml
of 0.1M HCl then what is the pH of resultant
442. An equilibrium system is given as solution (pKb = 4.75)
P + Cl3………………PCl3 (a) 9.25 (b) 10
If the concentration of the reactants at 25C is (c) 9.85 (d) 4.15
increased the value of Kc will
(a) remain same 449. The solubility of mercurous chloride in water
(b) decreases is given as
(c) increases (a) S = Ksp (b) S =Ksp/4
(d) none of the above (c) S= (Ksp/4)1/2 (d) S= (Ksp/4)1/3

443. Favourable conditions for the manufacture of 450. Which of the following is an acid salt
ammonia by the reaction (a) Na2S (b) Na2SO3
N2+ H2………….2NH3 +heat (c) NaHSO3 (d) Na2SO4
(a) low temperature, low pressure and catalyst
(b) low temperature, high pressure and catalyst 451. Which can act as a buffer
(c) high temperature, low pressure and catalyst (a) KOH + NH4OH
(d) high temperature, high pressure and catalyst (b) HCOOH + CH3COONa
(c) 40 ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20 ml of 0.1M HCl
444. 4 moles of N2O4 (g) at 300K is kept in a closed (d) None of the above
container under 1 atm. It is heated upto 600 K
when 20% of mass of N2O4 decomposes to 452. When does a real gas show behaviour same as
NO2(g). The resultant pressure is ideal gas
(a) 1.2 atm (b) 2.4 atm (a) low temperature and low pressure
(c) 2 atm (d) 1 atm (b) high temperature and high pressure
(c) low temperature and high pressure
445. The following equilibrium are given (d) high temperature and low pressure
 (a)  90; abc
453. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas, (b) ===90; a=bc
the constant b is a measure of (c) === 90; a=b=c
(a) intermolecular repulsion (d) ==90, 90; abc
(b) intermolecular attraction
(c) volume occupied by the molecules 464. In fcc structure the contribution of corner and
(d) intermolecular collisions per unit volume face is
(a) ¼, 1/8 (b) 1/8, ¼
454. If Z is the compressibility factor, van der Waal (c) 1, 1 (d) 1/8, ½
equation at low pressure can be written as
(a) Z = 1 – Pb/RT (b) Z = 1+ Pb/RT 465. A form hcp lattice and B are occupying 1/3 rd
(c) Z = 1 + RT/Pb (d) Z = 1 – a/VRT of tetrahedral voids than the formula of the
compound is
455. A certain gas takes three times as long to (a) AB (b) A3B2
effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be (c) A2B3 (d) AB4
(a) 64 (b) 9 (c) 27 (d) 36
466. The composition of a simple wustite is
456. Which gas be easily liquefied? Given a for NH3, Fe0.93O1.00. What percentage of iron is present in
CO2, SO2, Cl2 are 4.17, 3.59, 6.71, 6.49. the form of Fe(III) ?5
(a) NH3 (b) CO2 (c) SO2 (d) Cl2 (a) 16.05 (b) 15.05
(c) 18.05 (d) 17.05
457. At what temperature, the rms velocity of gas
shown at 50 C will be doubled. 467. 36.In A+B- ionic compound, radii of A+ and B-
(a) 626 K (b) 1019 K ions are 180 pm and 187 pm respectively, the
(c) 200 C (d) 1019 C type of crystal system is
(a) NaCl (b) CsCl
458. A 4: 1 mixture of helium and methane is (d) ZnS (d) diamond
contained in a vessel at 10 bar pressure. Due to a
hole in the vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. The 468. Due to Frankel defect the density of ionic solid
composition of the mixture effusing out initially (a) Increases
is (d) decreases
(a) 8:1 (b) 8:3 (c) 4:1 (d) 1:1 (c) constant
(d) cannot be predicted
459. Which of the following gases have the highest
value of rms velocity at 298 K? 469. When electrons are trapped into the crystal in
(a) CH4 (b) CO anionic vacancy, the defect is known as
(c) Cl2 (d) CO2 (a) Schotky defect
(b) Frankel defect
460. Which of the following has lower critical (c) F centres
temperature (d) Stoichiometric defect
(a) CO2 (b) NH3 (c) H2 (d) NH3
470. Solid CO2 is an example of
461. The compressibility factor for a real gas can be (a) Ionic crystal
(a) 1 (b) >1 (b) Covalent crystal
(c) <1 (d) all of the above (c) Metallic crystal
(d) Molecular crystals
462. if an atom crystallizes in bcc lattice with r = 4
Å then the edge length will be 471. An element (At. Mass 100 g/mole) having bcc
(a) 2 Å (b) 8 Å structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. The density
(c) 2.39 Å (d) 9.23 Å of the element is
(a) 2.144 g/cm3 (b) 5.2 g/cm3
463. Monoclinic crystal has dimension (c) 7.28 g/cm3 (d) 10.32 g /cm3
 (c) 75% (d) 60%
472. Conc. H2SO4 has density of 1.9 g ml-1 and is
99% by weight. Calculate the molarity? 481. The vant Hoff factor (i) for a dilute solution of
(a) 2.4M (b) 24.2 K3[Fe(CN)6] is
(c) 19.1 (d) 9.8 M (a) 10 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 0.25
473. The molarity of Cl- ion in a mixture of 0.2
moles of HCl and 0.1 moles of CaCl2 in water to 482. In P4O6 and P4O10, the number of oxygen
have 500 ml solution is atoms bonded to each phosphorus atoms are
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 respectively –
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.6 (a) 3 and 3 (b) 4 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 3
474. What volume of 0.2M K2Cr2O7 is required to
oxidise 50ml of 0.3M oxalic acid in acidic 483. Hypophosphorus acid H3PO2 is –
medium? (a) Tribasic acid (b) Dibasic acid
(a) 25ml (b) 50ml (c) Monobasic acid (d) Not acidic at all
(c) 75ml (d) 100 ml
484. Which of the following is the strongest
475. Each pair form ideal solution except oxidant?
(a) C2H5Br & C2H5Cl (b) C6H5Cl & C6H5Br (a) F2 (b) Cl2
(c) C6H6& C6H5 CH3 (d) C2H5I & C2H5OH (c) Br2 (d) I2

476. Which one of the following is incorrect for 485. Consider the following perhalate ion in acidic
ideal solution medium ClO4 – (I), BrO4 – (II), lO4 – (III) .Arrange
(a) P = Pobs - PRaoults = 0 (b) Gmix = 0 these in the decreasing order of oxidizing power.
(c) Hmix = 0 (d) Umix = 0 (a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II
(c) II > I > III (d) II > III > I
477. The azeotropic mixture of water (BP = 100.15
C) and HCl (BP = -85 C) boils at 108.5 C. when 486. The ease of liquefaction of noble gases
this mixture is distilled it is possible to obtain increases in the order –
(a) pure HCl (a) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe
(b) pure water (b) Xe < Kr < Ne < Ar < He
(c) pure water as well as HCl (c) Kr < Xe < He < Ne < Ar
(d) Neither HCl nor H2O in their pure state (d) Ar < Kr < Xe < Ne < He

478. Which of the solutions will have highest 487. Match the following columns : Column-I
boiling point? Column-II
(a) 1% glucose in water (P) Aqua regia (1) H2S2O8
(b) 1% sucrose in water (Q) Caro's acid (2) 3HCl + HNO3
(c) 1% NaCl in water (R) Marshall's acid (3) H2SO5
(d) 1% urea in water (S) Caliche (4) Impure chile saltpetre
(a) P→2, Q→1, R→3, S→4
479. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous (b)P→2, Q→3,R→1, S→4
solution will be highest for (c) P→1, Q→2, R→3, S→4
(a) C6H5NH3Cl (b) Ca(NO3)2 (d) P→4, Q→3, R→1, S→2
(c) La(NO3)3 (d) C6H12O6
488. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond
480. The value of observed and calculated angle of the following hydrides is - :
molecular weight of calcium nitrate are (a) NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3
respectively 65.6 and 164. The degree of (b) NH3> AsH3> PH3> SbH3
dissociation of calcium nitrate will be (c) SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
(d) PH3> NH3> AsH3> SbH3
(a) 25% (b) 50%
 (c) bleaching agent (d) All of the above
489. Bismuth does not form stable pentahalide
because of 498. Which one of the following halogen librates
(a) Its higher electronegativity oxygen on reacting with H2O.
(b) Its smaller size (a) I2 (b) Cl2
(c) Inert pair effect (c) Br2 (d) F2
(d) Non availability of d-orbitals
499. The compound that cannot be formed by
490. The solid PCl5 exists as – Xenon
(a) PCl5 molecules (b) P2Cl10 (a) XeO4 (b) XeF6
(c) [PCl4 ] [PCl6 ]¯
+ (d) None of these (c) XeCl4 (d) XeO2F2

491. The acidic character of dioxides of members of 500. Which one of the molecular hydride can act as
oxygen family decreases in the order lewis acid?
(a) SeO2> SO2> TeO2> PoO2 (a) CH4 (b) NH3
(b) SO2> SeO2>Te O2 > PoO2 (c) H2O (d) B2H6
(c) PoO2> TeO2> SeO2> SO2
(d) TeO2> PoO2> SeO2> SO2 501. Which of the following is amphoteric?
(a) CO2 (b) SnO2
492. Hybridisation involved in the structure of XeF2 (c) CaO (d) SiO2
(a) sp3d2 (b) dsp2
(c) sp3d (d) sp3 502. Which gas is responsible for green house
effect?
493. Which of the following has the greatest (a) CO2 (b) SO2
reducing power – (c) CO (d) SO3
(a) HBr (b) HI
(c) HCl (d) HF 503. Which one of the following convert alchol
directly into gasoline
494. ‘Vortex rings’ is the – (a) Ziegler Natta catalyst (b) ZSM-5
(a) White smoke of P2O5 formed on combustion of (c) Gutta Percha (d) ethylene glycol
phosphine in air
(b) White smoke formed on burning of P in air 504. Which one of the following does not exist?
(c) White fumes formed due to hydrolysis of PCl3 (a) SiF62- (b) Si(OH)4
(d) None of the above (c) SiCl62- (d) SiCl4

495. Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorus do not 505. Among the substituted silanes, the one which
forms P2 , but it exists as P4 the reason for this is will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
(a) Triple bond is present between phosphorus hydrolysis is
atoms (a) R3SiCl (b) R4Si
(b) p - p bonding is weak (c) RSiCl3 (d) R2SiCl2
(c) p - p bonding is strong
506. In diborane, each boran atom uses
(d) Multiple bond is formed easily
(a) sp2 hybrid orbitals for bonding
(b) p orbitals for bonding
496. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) sp3 hybrid orbitals for bonding
(a) O2 is weaker oxidant than O3
(d) dsp2 hybrid orbitals for bonding
(b) O2 has small bond length than O3
(c) Both O2 and O3 are paramagnetic
507. Water gas is
(d) O2 is linear and O3 is angular in shape
(a) H2O (g) (b) CO + H2O
(c) CO + H2 (d) CO + N2
497. SO2 can act as
(a) reducing agent (b) oxidising agent
508. The method to remove hardness of water is
 (a) Synthesis resin method (a) C (b) N (c) Si (d) P
(b) calogen’s method
(c) Clark’s method 519. Ionisation potential does not depend upon
(d) ion-exchange method (a) atomic size
(b) type of electron
509. Permanent hardness of water is due to the
presence of (c) nuclear charge
(a) bicarbonates of sodium and potassium (d) type of bonding in crystal
(b) chlorides of sodium and potassium
(c) bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
520. Ionization potential is lowest for
(d) phosphates of sodium and potassium
(a) halogens
(b) inert gas
510. In what type of hydrides, hydrogen can be
(c)alkaline earth metal
stored
(d) alkali metals
(a) ionic hydride
(b) Molecular hydride
521. What is the correct order of oxidizing
(c) covalent hydride
property?
(d) Interstitial hydride
(a) F > Cl> O >S (b) F> O >Cl> S
(c) Cl > F >O >S (d) O >F>S >Cl
511. Hydrogen peroxide can act as
(a) oxidizing in acidic medium
522. The metal extracted by leaching with a
(b) oxidizing agent in basic medium
cyanide is
(c) reducing agent in basic medium
(d) all of the above (a) Mg (b)Cu (c) Ag (d) Na

512. Arrange the following atoms in order of 523. The froth floatation process is based on
increasing first ionization energy (a) specific gravity of ore particles
(a) Cs, Rb, K, Ca (b) Rb, Cs, K, Ca (b) preferential wetting of ore particles by oil
(c) Cs, Rb, Ca, K (d) Rb, Cs, Ca, K (c) preferential wetting of guange particles by oil
(d) magnetic properties of guange
513. The correct order of ionization energy is
(a) F<N<C<O (b) C<N<O<F
(c)C<O<N<F (d) F<O<N<C 524. When the impurity is silica, which of the
following can be used as flux?
514. Which of the following is largest in size (a) CaO (b) MgCO3
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) CaCO3 (d) all of these
(c) Rb (d) K
525. Ellingham diagrams can be drawn for
515. Which of the following is acidic in nature? (a) oxides (b) sulphides
(a) MgO (b) BeO (c) halides (d) all of the above
(c) BaO (d) CaO
526. Extraction of Au involves leaching with CN-
516. The correct order of radii is ion. Au is latter recovered by
(a) N<Be<B (b) F-< O2-<N3- (a) distillation
(c) N<Li<K (d) Fe3+< Fe2+<Fe4+ (b) Zone refining
(c) displacement with Zn
517. Covalent oxide is (d) liquification
(a) CaO (b) SrO
(c) MgO (d) BeO 527. Which method is used for purification of
semiconductors,
518. Which of the following has highest electron (a) Distillation
affinity? (b) Electrolytic refining
 (c) vapor phase refining a) +2 b) +4
(d) Zone refining c) +1 d) −1

528. Identify the oxidant in the following reaction. 537. Which combination is odd, with respect to
𝐼2 (𝑔) + 𝐻2 𝑆(𝑔) → 2𝐻𝐼(𝑔) + 𝑆(𝑠) oxidation number?
a)𝐼2 b)𝐻2 𝑆c)𝐻𝐼 d)𝑆 a) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂5 , 𝐻2 𝑆2 𝑂8 , 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 , 𝑆𝐹6
b)𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 , 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟𝑂4 , 𝐶𝑟𝑂5 , 𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2
529. Which of the given below reactions is a redox c) 𝑁𝐻3 , 𝑁𝐻4+ , 𝑁3 𝐻, 𝑁𝑂2−
reaction. d)𝐶𝑎𝐻2 , 𝐵𝑎𝐻2 , 𝐵𝑒𝐻2 , 𝑀𝑔𝐻2
a) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑋𝑒𝑂𝐹4 + 2𝐻𝐹
b) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑋𝑒𝑂2 𝐹2 + 4𝐻𝐹 538. Determine the oxidation state of 𝐶𝑟 in 𝐶𝑟𝑂5
c) 𝑋𝑒𝐹4 + 𝑂2 𝐹2 → 𝑋𝑒𝐹6 + 𝑂2 a) −6 b) +12
d) 𝑋𝑒𝐹2 + 𝑃𝐹5 → [𝑋𝑒𝐹]+ 𝑃𝐹6− c) +6 d)+14

530. In which of the following reactions,hydrogen 539. 1 mole of 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 (atomic weight 𝐹𝑒 =
peroxide is an oxidizing agent. 55.84𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ) is oxidised to 𝐹𝑒2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 .
a) 𝐼2 + 𝐻2 𝑂2 + 𝑂𝐻 − → 2𝐼 − + 2 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑂2 Calculate the equivalent weight of ferrous ion
b) 𝑃𝑏𝑆 + 4𝐻2 𝑂2 → 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 + 4𝐻2 𝑂 a)55.84 b)27.92
c) 2𝑀𝑛𝑂4− + 3𝐻2 𝑂2 → 2𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 3𝑂2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 + c)18.61 d)111.68
2𝑂𝐻 −
d) 𝐻𝑂𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂2 → 𝐻3 𝑂+ + 𝐶𝑙 − + 𝑂2 540. For the redox reaction
𝑋 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− + 𝑌𝐻2 𝐶2 𝑂4 + 𝑧𝐻 + → 𝑚𝑀𝑛2+ + 𝑛𝐶𝑂2
531. 3𝐶𝑙𝑂 − (𝑎𝑞) → 𝐶𝑙𝑂 − + 2𝐶𝑙 − is an example of +𝑃𝐻2 𝑂
a) Oxidation reaction The values of 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑚 and 𝑛 are
b) Reduction reaction a) 10,2,5,2 b)2,5,2,10
c) Disproportionation reaction c) 6,4,2,4 d)3,5,2,10
d) Decomposition reaction
541. The number of moles of electron required to
532. If 𝐶𝑙2 is passed through hot aqueous 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻, reduce 0.2 mole of𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7−2 to 𝐶𝑟 +3
the products formed have 𝐶𝑙 in different a)1.2 b)6
oxidation states. These are indicated as, c)12 d) 0.6
a) −1and +1 b) −1 and +5
c)+1 and +5 d)-1 and +3 542. An example of disproportianation reaction is
a) 2𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 → 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 + 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝑂2
533. Oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin is b) 2𝑁𝑎𝐵𝑟 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐵𝑟2
a) 0 b)+2 c) -2 d)+3 c) 2𝐶𝑢𝐵𝑟 → 𝐶𝑢𝐵𝑟2 + 𝐶𝑢
d) 2𝑀𝑛𝑂4− + 10𝐼 − + 16𝐻 + → 2𝑀𝑛2+ +
534. Equivalent weight of potassium permaganate 5𝐼2 +
in alkaline solution is equal to. 8𝐻2 𝑂
1
a) 5
𝑡ℎ of molar mass of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
1 543. Consider the following reduction processes:
b) 𝑡ℎof molar mass of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
6
1
𝑍𝑛2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝑍𝑛(𝑠) ; 𝐸° = −0.76𝑉
c) 3
𝑟𝑑 of molar mass of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 𝐶𝑎2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝐶𝑎(𝑠) ; 𝐸° = −2.87𝑉
1
d) 𝑡ℎ of molar mass of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 𝑀𝑔2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝑀𝑔(𝑠) ; 𝐸° = −2.36𝑉
10
𝑁𝑖 2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) ; 𝐸° = −0.25V
535. When 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 reacts with 𝐾𝐵𝑟in alkaline The reducing power of metal in increasing order
medium it gives bromate ion. The oxidation state is:
of 𝑀𝑛 changes from +7 to a) 𝑍𝑛 < 𝑀𝑔 < 𝑁𝑖 < 𝐶𝑎
a) +6 b) +4 b) 𝐶𝑎 < 𝑍𝑛 < 𝑀𝑔 < 𝑁𝑖
c) +3 d) +2 c) 𝐶𝑎 < 𝑀𝑔 < 𝑍𝑛 < 𝑁𝑖
d) 𝑁𝑖 < 𝑍𝑛 < 𝑀𝑔 < 𝐶𝑎
536. In the molecule 𝐾𝑂2 , what is the oxidation
state of potassium.
544. Which order of compounds represents b) uncertainty principle
decreasing order of oxidation state of nitrogen? c) Pauli’s exclusion principle
a) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁2
b) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁2 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 d) Aufban principle
c) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁2
d) 𝑁𝑂, 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁2 551. From the following configurations, arrange
them in order of increasing energy;
545. If the light of wavelength is 4000 Å generates i) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1 ii) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1
photoelectrons of velocity 6 × 105 𝑚/𝑠 ,calculate iii) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0 iv)𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2
the work function of the metal?(mass of electron The correct order will be
𝑚 a)(𝑖𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖𝑣) < (𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖)
9 × 10−31 𝐾𝑔, velocity of light 3 × 108 𝑠 , plank’s
b)(𝑖𝑣) < (𝑖𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖) < (𝑖𝑖)
constant 6.626 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠, charge of electron c) (𝑖) < (𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖𝑣) < (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
1.6 × 10−19 𝐽𝑒𝑣 −1). d)(𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖𝑖𝑖) < (𝑖𝑣) < (𝑖)
a) 2.1 𝑒𝑉 b) 3.1 𝑒𝑉
c) 4.0 𝑒𝑉 d) 0.9 𝑒𝑉 552. Which among the following sets of quantum
numbers, represents the non-permissible
546. If ⇈ is shown as electronic configuration of arrangement of electrons in an atom.
𝐻𝑒, in its ground state, it is wrong, because it n l m s
violates a) 4 0 0 -1/2
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle b) 3 2 -3 +1/2
b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle c) 3 2 -2 -1/2
c) Hund’s rule d) 5 3 0 +1/2
d) Bohr’s quantization theory of angular
moments 553. Determine the certaintywith which the
position of electron can be located, given that,
547. Which of the following orbitals will have zero speed of moving electron is 600𝑚/𝑠 with
probability of finding the electron in the 𝑦𝑧- accuracy of 0.005%.
plane? (ℎ = 6.6 × 10−34 𝑘𝑔𝑚2 /𝑠, mass of electron
a) 𝑃𝑥 b) 𝑃𝑦 c)𝑃𝑧 d)𝑑𝑦𝑧 𝑒𝑚 = 9.1 × 10−31 𝐾𝑔)

548. Orbital shape in an energy level is determined a) 1.52 × 10−4 𝑚 b) 5.10 × 10−3 𝑚
by: c)1.92 × 10−3 𝑚 d)3.84 × 10−3 𝑚
a) principal quantum number
b) magnetic quantum number 554. Which of the following expression gives the
c) Azimuthal quantum number de-Broglie relationship?
d) spin quantum number ℎ
a) 𝑝 = 𝑚𝑣 b)𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣
ℎ

ℎ 𝑣
549. Given the set of quantum numbers, which of c)𝜆 = 𝑚𝑝 d)𝜆𝑚 = 𝑝
the following represents the highest energy level
in an atom? 555. Which of the following statements is false?
1
a) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +2 a) photon has momentum as wellas

b) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 =
1
+2 wavelength

c) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = + 2
1 b) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is
1 called stark effect.
d) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + 2
c) Frequency of emitted radiations from a
550. No two electrons in an atom can have same black body goes from a lower wavelength
set of all the four quantum number; this is called
a) Hund’s rule
 to higher wavelength as the temperature 563. If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of
increases. hydrogen atom is A, then longest wavelength in
Paschen series of 𝐻𝑒 + is:
d) Rydberg constant has unit of energy. 5𝐴 36𝐴
a) 9
b) 5
36𝐴 9𝐴
556. The de-Broglie’s wavelength of an electron c) 7 d) 5
present in first Bohr orbit of ‘𝐻’ atom is
a)
0.529
Å d)0.529 Å 564. A stream of electrons from a heated filament
2𝜋
was passed between two charged plates kept at
d) 2𝜋 × 0.529 Å d)4 × 0.529 Å
a potential difference 𝑉 esu. If 𝑙 and 𝑚 are
charge and mass of an electron respectively ,
557. Television picture tubes are
then the value of ℎ/𝜆 is given by
a) cathoderay tubes b)X-ray tubes
a) 𝑚𝑒𝑉 b) 2𝑚𝑒𝑉
c) 𝛼-particle tubes d)𝛾-ray tubes
c)√𝑚𝑒𝑉 d)√ 2𝑚𝑒𝑉
558. For the paschen series the values of 𝑛1 and 𝑛2
1 1 565. The Balmer series in atomic hydrogen is
is the expression ,∆𝐸 = 𝑅ℎ𝑐(𝑛2 − 𝑛2 ) observed in following spectral region
1 2
a) 𝑛1 =1 , 𝑛2 = 2,3,4, … … a)infrared b)ultraviolet
b) 𝑛1 =2 , 𝑛2 = 3,4,5, … … c)visible d)far IR
c) 𝑛1 =3 , 𝑛2 = 4,5,6, … …
d) 𝑛1 =4 , 𝑛2 = 5,6,7, … … 566. A 250𝑊 electric bulb of 80% efficency emits a
height of 6626 Å wavelength .The number of
559. The energy required to excite the electron in photons emitted per second by the lamp
the atom from 𝑛 = 1 to 𝑛 = 2 is; is: (ℎ = 6.626 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠 −1 )
(Ionisation enthalpy of 𝐻-atom=1.312 × a)1.42 × 1017 b)2.18 × 1016
10 𝑗𝑚𝑜𝑙 )
6 −1
c) 6.66 × 1020 d) 4.25 × 1016
a)9.84 × 105 𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
b)8.51 × 105 𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 567. The energy required to break one mole of
c)7.56 × 105 𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝑙 bonds in 𝐶𝑙2 is 242 𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1. The longest
d)6.56 × 105 𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 wavelength of light capable of breaking a single
𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝑙 bond is
560. Uncertainty principle is valid for (𝐶 = 3 × 108 𝑚/𝑠; 𝑁𝑎 = 6.02 × 1023 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
a)Methane a)494nm b)594nm
b) proton c)640nm d) 700 nm
c)both a and b
d)1mm sized plantium particle 568. The number of photons emitted per second by
a 60 watt source of monochromatic light of
561. Which of the following does not represent wavelength 663 nm is:
Heisenberg- uncertainty principle? a)4 × 10−20 b)1.5 × 1020
a) ∆𝑥. ∆𝑝 ≥ 4𝜋
ℎ ℎ
b) ∆𝑥. ∆𝑣 ≥ 4𝜋𝑚 c)3 × 10−29 d)2 × 1020
ℎ ℎ
c) ∆𝐸. ∆𝑡 ≥ 4𝜋 d) ∆𝐸. ∆𝑥 ≥ 4𝜋
569. 1 mole of photon, each of frequency 2500𝑠 −1,
would have approximately a total energy of
562. The d-Broglie wavelength of a ball of mass 10g a)1 𝑒𝑟𝑔 b)1 𝑓𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒
moving with velocity of 10𝑚𝑠 −1 is : c)1 𝑒𝑉 d)10 𝑒𝑟𝑔
[ℎ = 6.626 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠]
a) 6.626 × 10−33 𝑚 b) 6.626 × 10−29 𝑚 570. The value of Rydberg constant is
c) 6.626 × 10 𝑚
−31
d) 6.626 × 10−34 𝑚 a)109678 𝑐𝑚−1 b)109876 𝑐𝑚−1
c)108769 𝑐𝑚−1 d)108976 𝑐𝑚−1
571. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr angles to the direction of light beam, it appears
orbit of H-atom is −13.6 𝑒𝑉. The possible value perfectly dark. This is known as
of energy of the excited state for electrons in a) Brownian effect
Bohr orbits of hydrogen is: b)Hardy-schulze effect
a)−3.4 𝑒𝑉 b)−4.2 𝑒𝑉 c)Einstein effect
c)−6.8 𝑒𝑉 d)+6.8 𝑒𝑉 d)Tyndall effect

577. Under what condition will 𝑥/𝑚 value be equal

to pressure of the gas on the surface of the
572. Energy of an electron is given by 𝐸 =
absorb
𝑍2
−2.178 × 10−18 𝐽 (𝑛2 ). Wave length of light a) At low pressure
required to excite an electron in an hydrogen b) At high pressure
atom from level 𝑛 = 1 to 𝑛 = 2 will be, c) At low temperature
(ℎ = 6.62 × 10−34 𝑗𝑠 −1 , 𝐶 = 3 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1 ) d) At high temperature
a)8.5 × 10−7 𝑚 b)1.214× 10−7 𝑚
578. List I contains the type of colloid while list II
c)2.816 × 10 𝑚 d)6.5 × 10−7 𝑚
−7
contains examples
List I List II
573. Which group among the following represents a) Sol (i) dust
isoelectronic species? b) Aerosol (ii) cheese
a) 𝑁2 , 𝑂2− , 𝑁𝑂+ , 𝐶𝑂 b)𝐶22− , 𝑂2− , 𝐶𝑂, 𝑁𝑂 c) gel (iii) soap lather
c) 𝑁𝑂 + , 𝐶22− , 𝐶𝑁 − , 𝑁2 d) 𝐶𝑁 − , 𝑁2 , 𝑂22− , 𝐶22− d) Foam (iv) plant’s cell fluids

574. Tyndall effect is observed only when following Choose the correct match
conditions are satisfied a) a – iv , b – iii , c – i , d – ii
a) The diameter of the dispersed particle is much b) a – iv , b – i , c – ii , d – iii
smaller than the wavelength of the light used c) a – iii , b – iv , c – ii , d – i
d) a – iii , b – i , c – iv , d – iii
b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not
much smaller than the wavelength of the light 579. select the correct ground state electronic
used configuration
c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase 𝐶𝑟 𝐸𝑢 𝑇𝑖 2+
and dispersion medium are almost similar in
magnitude. a) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑5 4𝑠1 [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 7 5𝑑°6𝑠 2 [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑2 4𝑠°
d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
b) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑4 4𝑠 2 [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 7 5𝑑°6𝑠 2 [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑2 4𝑠 2
and the dispersion medium differ greatly in
magnitude. c) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑4 4𝑠 2 [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 6 5𝑑1 6𝑠 2 [𝐴𝑟]4𝑠 2 3𝑑°
a) a & c b) b & c
d) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑5 4𝑠1 [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 6 5𝑑 2 6𝑠 2 [𝐴𝑟]4𝑠1 3𝑑4
c) a & d d) b & d

575. Among the following , correct statement is :

580. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Hardy schulze law states the bigger the size
a) Chemisorption is caused by bond formation
of the ions, the greater is it’s coagulating
b) Chemisorption is reversible process
power
c) Chemisorption is specific process
b) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic
d) Chemisorption increases with increase in
c) One would expect charcoal to adsorb
temperature
chlorine more than hydrogen sulphide
d) Brownian movement is more pronounced for
581. Adsorption of a gas on a surface
smaller particles than for bigger particles
followsFreundlich adsorption isotherm. Plot of
log 𝑥/𝑚 versus log 𝑝 gives a straight line with
576. If a homogeneous colloid placed in dark is
slope equal to 0.5, then (𝑥/𝑚 is the mass of the
observed in the direction of light, it appears
gas adsorbed per 𝑔𝑚 of adsorbent)
clear and it observed from the direction at right
a) Adsorption is proportional to pressure
 b) Adsorption is proportional to the square root 583. Which of the following curves is in accordance
of pressure Freundlich absorption isotherm?
c) Adsorption is proportional to the square of
pressure a) b)
d) Adsorption is independent of pressure

582. For a linear plot of log 𝑥/𝑚 versus log 𝑝 in a

Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the
following statements is correct? ( 𝑘 and 𝑛 are c) d)
constants)
a) both 𝑘 and 1/𝑛 appear in the slope term
b) 1/𝑛 appears as the intercept
c) only 1/𝑛 appears as the slope
d) log(1/𝑛) appears as the intercept