Max.

Score: 720

ALL INDIA MOCK TEST

For NEET 2023
TEST NO. 14
SYLLABUS
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Botany : Full Syllabus
Zoology : Full Syllabus

*(Each Question
Subject(s) Section(s) No. of Questions Type of Question(s)
Carries 04 (Fours) Mark
Section A 35 140
Physics
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Chemistry
Section B 15 40
MCQ (Multiple Choice
Section A 35 140
Botany Question)
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Zoology
Section B 15 40
Total Marks 720

Note: Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and incorrect options marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Unattempted/Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.

General Instructions:
1. Each questions carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (Four) marks.
2. For each incorrect answer, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
3. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
4. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of the
multiple correct/best option marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ignored all candidates
will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by
the candidate.
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 2 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

6. According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if

Physics stress is increased, then the ratio of stress
to strain
Section-A
(a) increases
1. The density () versus pressure (P) of a (b) remains constant
given mass of an ideal gas is shown at two (c) decreases
temperatures T1 and T2. Then the relation
(d) becomes zero
between T1 and T2 may be
7. The total number of degrees of freedom of
a CO2 gas molecule is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 9 (d) 6
8. 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system,
whose change in internal energy is 40 J;
(a) T1 = T2 then the amount of external work done is
(b) T2 > T1 (a) 140 J (b) 70 J
(c) T1 >T2
(c) 120 J (d) 150 J
(d) All the three are possible
9. A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will
2. The length of a metallic rod is 5 m at 0°C
and becomes 5.01 m, on heating upto be ( of iron = 11 10−6 / C )
100°C. The linear expansion of the metal (a) 11 10 −6 cm shorter
will be (b) 11 10 −6 cm longer
(a) 2.33 × 10–5/°C (b) 6.0 × 10–5/°C
(c) 11 10 −5 cm shorter
(c) 4.0 × 10–5/°C (d) 2.0 × 10–5/°C
(d) 11 10 −5 cm longer
3. As the temperature of a liquid is raised, the
coefficient of viscosity 10. Maxwell’s law of distribution of velocities
(a) decreases shows that
(b) increases (a) the number of molecules with most
(c) may increase or decrease depending on probable velocity is very large
the nature of liquid (b) the number of molecules with most
(d) remains the same probable velocity is zero
4. Pressure applied to enclosed fluid is (c) the number of molecules with most
(a) increased and applied to every part of probable velocity is very small
the fluid (d) the number of molecules with most
(b) diminished and transmitted to wall of probable velocity is exactly equal to 1
container
11. For the given diagram, frequency of
(c) increased in proportion to the mass of
oscillation is proportional to
the fluid and then transmitted
(d) transmitted unchanged to every portion
of the fluid and wall of containing vessel
5. Which of the following is correct for Young's
modulus of elasticity (Y) for a given 3k m
material? [where r = radius of cross section (a) (b)
m 3k
of wire,  = length of wire]
2k k
(c) (d)
(a) Y  2 (b) Y  3 m m
(c) remains constant (d) Y  r2
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 3

12. Match Column I (Physical Variables) with

Column II (Expressions). (n = number of gas
molecules present per unit volume, (c)
k = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute
temperature, m = mass of the particle)
Column I Column II
(A) Most probable (1) nkT
velocity (d)

(B) Energy per (2) 3kT / m

degree of
freedom 15. A block of ice floats on a liquid of relative
density 1.2 in a beaker, then level of liquid
(C) Pressure (3) 2kT / m when ice completely melts
(a) lowers (b) rises
(D) R.M.S. velocity (4) kT / 2
(c) remains same (d) either (a) or (b)
(a) (A) → (3); (B) → (4) ;(C) → (1) ;(D) → (2) 16. If two vessels A and B contain the same gas
(b) (A) → (1); (B) → (2) ;(C) → (3); (D) → (4) but the volume of vessel A is twice that of B
(c) (A) → (4); (B) → (3); (C) → (1); (D) → (2) and temperature and pressure of gas A is
(d) (A) → (3); (B) → (4); (C) → (2); (D) → (2) twice that of gas B, then the ratio of gas
molecules in A and B is
13. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3
constant pressure and volume are defined (c) 3:1 (d) 2:1
Cp
as Cp and Cv, respectively. If  = and R 17. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of
Cv
force constant 800 N/m executes simple
is the universal gas constant, then Cv is harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of
equal to the oscillator is 4J, the maximum
R  −1 acceleration of the mass is
(a) (b)
 −1 R (a) 15 ms-2 (b) 35 ms-2
(c) 45 ms-2 (d) 20 ms-2
1+ 
(c) (d) R
1−  18. According to Archimedes’ principle, loss of
weight of a body immersed in a liquid is
14. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and equal to
converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the (a) weight of the liquid displaced
following curves represents the (b) weight of the body
phenomenon qualitatively? (c) weight of the total liquid
(d) None of these
19. Assertion: Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) explain the concept of energy.
Reason: Energy depends on temperature.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
reason is a correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
(b) reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
 4 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

20. A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K.
The energy of radiation emitted by this
object with wavelength between 499 nm
and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and
1000 nm is U2 and between 1499 nm and
1500 nm is U3. Wien’s constant
b = 2.88  106 nm − K . Then
(a) U2 = 0 (b) U1 = 0
(c) U1 = U2 (d) U2  U1
25. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1
and 2 having densities 1 and 2
respectively. A solid ball, made of a material
of density 3, is dropped in the jar. It comes
to equilibrium in the position shown in the
figure. Which of the following is true for 1,
2 and 3?

21. For an ideal gas graph is shown for three

processes. Process 1, 2 and 3 are
respectively.

(a) 1  2  3 (b) 1  3  2
(c) 3  1  2 (d) 1  3  2

26. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density 8000

kg/m3 is 2  109 N/m2 . The speed of sound
in that liquid is
(a) 100 m/s (b) 250 m/s
(a) Isobaric, adiabatic, isochoric (c) 300 m/s (d) 500 m/s
(b) Isochoric, adiabatic, isobaric 27. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5
(c) Adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric minutes. The surrounding temperature is
(d) Isochoric, isobaric, adiabatic 20°C. In what further time (in minutes) will it
22. Drops of liquid of density  are floating half cool to 30°C?
immersed in a liquid of density . If the (a) 15/2 (b) 5
surface tension of liquid is T, the radius of (c) 25/3 (d) 10
the drop will be 28. A refrigerator with coefficient of
3T 3T performance 1/3 releases 200 J of heat to a
(a) (b)
g ( 3 −  ) g ( 4 − 3 ) hot reservoir. Then the work done on the
working substance is
3T 6T (a) 100/3 J (b) 150 J
(c) (d)
g ( 2 −  ) g ( 2 −  ) (c) 200/3 J (d) 50 J
29. In forced oscillations, a particle oscillates
23. The temperature of equal masses of three
simple harmonically with a frequency equal
different liquids A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C
to
and 28°C respectively. The temperature
(a) the natural frequency of the particle
when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when
(b) the frequency of the driving force
B and C are mixed is 23°C. The temperature
(c) double the natural frequency of the
when A and C are mixed is
particle
(a) 16.2 C (b) 23 C (d) double the frequency of the driving force
(c) 20.2 C (d) 24.2 C
30. The phase difference between the
24. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
pressure so as to double its volume. The particle executing simple harmonic motion
final temperature of the gas will be close to is
(a) 327°C (b) 250°C (a) zero (b) 0.607
(c) 154°C (d) 300°C (c)  (d) 0.5
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 5

31. When a system is taken from state i to state 35. A is singing a note and at the same time, B
f along the path iaf, it is found that Q =50 cal is singing a note with exactly one-eight the
and W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 frequency of the note of A. The energies of
cal. W along the path ibf is the two sounds are equal. The amplitude of
the note of B is
(a) same as that of A
(b) twice that of A
(c) eight times that of A
(a) 18 cal (b) 6 cal (d) four times that of A
(c) 60 cal (d) 16 cal
Section-B
32. The diagram shows a force-extension graph
36. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s
for a rubber band. Consider the following
law of cooling?
statements:
I. It will be easier to compress this rubber
than expand it
II. Rubber does not return to its original (a)
length after it is stretched
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is
stretched and released

(b)

Which of these can be deduced from the

graph?
(a) I only (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) III only
33. Two vibrating tunning forks produce
(c)
progressive waves given by
y1 = 4sin500t and y2 = 2sin506t.
Number of beats produced per minute is
(a) 60 (b) 180 (d) None of these
(c) 260 (d) 30 37. Assertion: For an ideal gas, at constant
34. Assertion: Identical springs of steel and temperature, the product of pressure and
copper are equally stretched. More work will volume is constant.
be done on the steel spring Reason: The mean square velocity of the
Reason: Steel is more elastic than copper. molecules is inversely proportional to mass.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
reason is a correct explanation for reason is a correct explanation for
assertion. assertion
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
reason is not a correct explanation for reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
 6 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

38. During an adiabatic process of an ideal gas, Column II

1 (1) 0
if P is proportional to 1.5 , then the ratio of
V T
(2)
specific heat capacities at constant 2
pressure to that at constant volume for the T
gas is (3)
4
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.35 (4) T
(c) 0.85 (d) 0.45 3T
(5)
39. For a particle executing SHM the 4
displacement x is given by x = A cos t. (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(5), (E)-(1)
Identify the graph which represents the (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(5), (D)-(3), (E)-(2)
variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a (c) (A)-(3), (B)-(1,4), (C)-(3), (D)-(5),
function of time t and displacement. (E)-(1,2,4)
(d) (A)-(1,3), (B)-(3,4), (C)-(5), (D)-(1,2),
(E)-(5,4)
43. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial
temperature of T K does 6R joules of work
(a) I, III (b) II, IV adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of
(c) II, III (d) I, IV this gas at constant pressure and at
constant volume is 5/3, the final
40. For which of the following cases, there will temperature of gas will be
be no Doppler effect? (a) (T – 4) K (b) (T - 2.4) K
(a) If source and listener, both move in the
(c) (T + 2.4) K (d) (T + 4) K
same direction with same speed.
(b) If one of the source/listeners is at the 44. The displacement of a particle in SHM is
centre of a circle, while the other is  
x = 10 sin  2t −  metre. When its
moving on it.  6
(c) When both the source and listener are displacement is 6 m, the velocity of the
at rest. particle is
(d) All of these (a) 18 m/s (b) 20 m/s
41. A simple pendulum is made of (c) 16 m/s (d) 10 m/s
a body which is a hollow 45. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere is
sphere containing mercury applied on a spherical ball, then its volume
suspended by means of a reduces to 0.01%. The bulk modulus of the
wire. If a little mercury is material of the rubber in dyne/cm2 is
drained off. The period of pendulum will
(a) 100  1012 (b) 10  1012
(a) decrease
(b) increase (c) 1 1012 (d) 1000  1012
(c) remain unchanged 46. A whistle producing sound waves of
(d) become erratic frequencies 9500 Hz and above is
42. For the SHM of particle, x = A sin t match approaching a stationary person with speed
the column I and column II. v m/s. The velocity of sound in air is 300
Column I m/s. If the person can hear frequencies upto
(A) Maximum positive displacement a maximum of 10,000 Hz, the maximum
(B) Maximum positive velocity value of v upto which he can hear whistle is
(C) Minimum negative acceleration 15
(a) 15 2 m/s (b) m/s
(D) Maximum positive acceleration 2
(E) Zero displacement (c) 15 m/s (d) 40 m/s
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 7

47. The fundamental frequency of an organ Zn + H2SO4 ⎯⎯→ ZnSO4 + H2

pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe
has same frequency as first overtone of a (a) Zn | H2SO4 || ZnSO4 | H2
closed organ pipe. If speed of sound is (b) Zn | Zn2+ || H+ ,H2 | Pt
330 m/s, then the length of closed organ (c) Zn|ZnSO4 || H2SO4 | Zn
pipe is
(a) 41 cm (b) 35 cm (d) Zn|Zn2+ || H+ | H2
(c) 31 cm (d) 82 cm 54. EDTA4– is a ____________ ligand.
48. When a wave is reflected from a denser (a) Tetradentate (b) Hexadentate
medium, the change in phase is (c) Bidentate (d) Tridentate
(a) 0 (b)  55. Which of the following are Biodegradable
(c) 3 (d) 2 polymers?
49. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of (a) Nylon 2–Nylon 6 (b) Buna-S
reservoir is 927°C and that of sink is 27°C. (c) PMMA (d) All of these
If the work done by the engine when it 56. The correct electronic configuration of C2 is?
transfers heat from reservoir to sink is
(a) (1s2 )( * 1s2 )(2s2 )( * 2s2 )(2p2z )( 2p2x )
12.6 × 106 J, the quantity of heat absorbed
by the engine from the reservoir is (b) (1s2 )( * 1s2 )(2s2 )( * 2s2 )( 2p2x = 2p2y )
(a) 16.8 × 106 J (b) 4.2 × 106 J (c) (1s2 )( * 1s2 )(2s2 )( * 2s2 )(2p2z )(2p1x = 2p1y )
(c) 8.6 × 106 J (d) 4.0 × 106 J (d) (1s2 )( * 1s2 )(2s2 )( * 2s2 )( 2p2x = 2p1y )
50. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is
excited to support the third overtone. It is 57. Which of the following is the correct
found that air in the pipe has structure of H2O2?
(a) three nodes and four antinodes (a) H O O H
H
(b) three nodes and three antinodes (b)
(c) four nodes and three antinodes O O
(d) four nodes and four antinodes H

(c)

Chemistry
(d)
Section-A
51. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 mL of 58. (CH3)3CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces:
3 molar solution is: (a) (CH3)3CD
(a) 2 (b) 3 (b) (CH3)3COD
(c) 4 (d) 6 (c) (CD3)3CD
(d) (CD3)3COD
CH3
52. on reductive ozonolysis yields 59. The correct order of E 2+ values with
M /M

(a) 6-oxoheptanoic acid negative sign for the four successive

(b) 6-oxoheptanal elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is
(c) 6-hydroxyheptanal (a) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co
(d) 3-hydroxypentanal (b) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co
(c) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
53. Which of the following is the correct cell
(d) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co
representation for the given cell reaction?
 8 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

60. Match the LIST-I and LIST-II, pick the 62. Which of the following assumption is
correct matching from the codes given incorrect according to kinetic theory of
below: gases?
LIST- I LIST- II (a) The actual volume of the gas is
negligible in comparison to the empty
(A)
 Ag(CN)2 − (I) Square
space between them.
planar and
1.73BM (b) All the particles, at any particular time,
3−
have same speed and same kinetic
(B) (II) Linear and
Cu ( CN) 
 4
zero
energy.
(c) Particles of a gas move in all possible
(C)
Cu(CN)6 3− (III) Octahedral
directions in straight lines.
and zero
(d) There is no force of attraction between
(D) 2+ (IV) Tetrahedral
Cu (NH3 )  the particles of a gas at ordinary
 4
and zero temperature and pressure.
(E)
Fe(CN)6 4− (V) Octahedral
63. Choose the correct answer for BF3 and BH−4
and 1.73BM
(a) (A) → (IV); (B) → (II); (C) → (V); with respect to shape and hybridization.
(D) → (III); (E) → (I) (a) BF3 – Trigonal, sp2 hybridisation;
(b) (A) → (IV); (B) → (V); (C) → (II); BH−4 – Square planer, sp3 hybridisation
(D) → (I); (E) → (III) (b) BF3 – Triangular, sp3 hybridisation;
(c) (A) → (II); (B) → (IV); (C) → (V); BH−4 – Hexagonal, sp3 d-hybridisation
(D) → (I); (E) → (III) (c) BF3 – Trigonal, sp2 hybridisation;
(d) (A) → (V); (B) → (IV); (C) → (I); BH−4 – Tetrahedral, sp3 hybridisation
(D) → (III); (E) → (II) (d) BF3 – Tetrahedral, sp3 hybridisation;
61. Match the following BH−4 – Tetrahedral, sp3 hybridisation
List I List II 64. Which defect is represented by the given
figure?
1. Li < Na < K < Rb (1) Increasing ionic
size
3+ 2+ + –
2. Al < Mg < Na < F (2) Decreasing
order of metallic
nature
3. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (3) Increasing order
of metallic
radius (a) Schottky defect
4. B < C < O < N (4) Increasing order (b) Frenkel defect
of first ionization (c) Vacancy defect
enthalpy (d) Metal excess defect
The correct matching is 65. Among the following, the most stable
1 2 3 4 compound is
(a) (2) (3) (1) (4) (a) Cis-1, 2-cyclohexanediol
(b) (3) (1) (4) (2) (b) Trans-1, 2-cyclohexanediol
(c) (3) (1) (2) (4) (c) Cis-1, 3-cyclohexenediol
(d) (4) (3) (2) (1) (d) Trans-1,3-cyclohexanediol
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 9

66. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 (c) They have open structure which enables
g/mol, C, H and N atoms are present in them to take up small molecules.
9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular formula can be (d) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having two
(a) C6 H8 N2 (b) C6 H8 N2 dimensional structures.
(c) C6 H8 N2 (d) C4 H18 N3
74. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as
67. Which of the following salts will give basic one of the product. Its structure is:
solution on hydrolysis?
(a) NH4Cl (b) KCl
(c) K2CO3 (d) (NH4)2CO3
68. pK a of a weak acid is 5.76 and pK b of a
(a)
weak base is 5.25. What will be the pH of
the salt formed by the two?
(a) 7.255 (b) 7.005
(c) 10.225 (d) 4.255
69. Solubility product expression of salt MX 4
Which is sparingly soluble with a solubility s
can be given as (b)
(a) 256s5 (b) 16s3
(c) 5s (d) 25s4
70. The total number of protons in 10g of
calcium carbonate is (NA = 6.023 × 1023)
(a) 1.5057 × 1024 (b) 2.0478 × 1023
(c) 3.0115× 1024 (d) 4.0956 × 1024
71. The correct IUPAC name of compound (c)
CH3 ⎯ CH2 ⎯ C ⎯ CH⎯ CHO
 
O CN
(a) 2-cyano-3-oxopentanal
(b) 2-formyl-1-oxopentanenitrile
(c) 2-cyano-1, 3-pentanedione
(d) 1, 3-dioxo-2-cranopentane. (d)
72. What would the value of Kc depend upon for
the reaction, N2 +3H2 2NH3 , if Kc for
1 3 75. The covalent character decreases in the
the reaction N2 + H2 NH3 is 30. following order for group 1 element halides
2 2
(a) 60 (a) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(b) 900 (b) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(c) 90 (c) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
(d) None of these (d) MI > MBr > MCl > MF

73. Which one of the following statements 76.
about the zeolite is true?
(a) They are used as anion exchangers
(b) Some of the SiO44− units are replaced by
AlO54− and AlO96− ions in zeolite.
If a mixture containing 3 moles of hydrogen
and 1 mole of nitrogen is converted
completely into ammonia, the ratio of initial
and final volumes under the same
temperature and pressure would be:
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
 10 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

77. Which of the following molecular species (a) MO2 (b) M2O3
has unpaired electron(s)? (c) M3O2 (d) MO
(a) N2 (b) F2
84. The ratio of number of moles of KMnO4 and
(c) O 2− (d) O22−
K2Cr2O7 required to oxidise 0.1 mol Sn2+ in
78. The percentage of p-character in the acidic medium
orbitals forming P – P bonds in P4 is: (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
(c) 50% (d) 75% 85. The number of atoms per unit cell in a
79. In Vander Waals equation of state for a real simple cubic, free-centered cubic and body-
gas, the term that accounts for the centred cubic are _______ respectively.
intermolecular forces is: (a) 1, 4, 2 (b) 4,1, 2
a (c) 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 8, 2
(a) Vm − b (b) P +
Vm2
Section-B
1
(c) RT (d) 86. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is
RT
__________.
80. At constant temperature, in a given mass of (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
an ideal gas:
87. Which hydrogen like species will have the
(a) The ratio of pressure and volume always
same radius of 1st Bohr’s orbit of a hydrogen
remains constant
atom?
(b) Volume always remains constant
(a) n = 2, Li+2 (b) n = 2, Be+3
(c) Pressure always remains constant (c) n = 2, He+ (d) n = 3, Li+2
(d) The product of pressure and volume
88. Among the following the pair in which the
always remains constant
two species are not isostructural is
81. Which of the following is a redox reaction? (a) SiF4 and SF4
(a) H2SO4 with NaOH (b) IO3− and XeO3
(b) In atmosphere, formation of O3 from O2
(c) BH−4 and NH+4
by lightening
(c) Formation of oxides of nitrogen and (d) PF6− and SF6
oxygen by lightening. 89. What is the quantity of water that should be
(d) Evaporation of H2O added to 16g methanol to make the mole
82. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 fraction of methanol as 0.25?
for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol (a) 27 gm
H2O. (b) 12 gm
(c) 18 gm
NaCl is ________% ionized
(d) 36 gm
(a) 60% (b) 50%
(c) 100% (d) 40% 90. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer)
associated with a proton moving at 1.0 × 103
83. In a metal oxide, oxide ions are arranged in
ms–1.
hcp array and the metal ion occupies (Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and h =
octahedral voids. If one-third of octahedral 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
voids and all tetrahedral voids are empty the (a) 0.032 nm (b) 0.40 nm
metal oxide formula is: [M-metal]. (c) 2.5 nm (d) 14.0 nm
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 11

91. H2 SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In 96. Sulphide ore is converted to oxide form by
which of the reaction, is it not acting as an using the process
oxidising agent? (a) Leaching (b) Roasting
(a) C + 2H2 SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2 O (c) Smelting (d) Calcination
(b) CaF2 + 2H2 SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF 97. Which of the following have highest
(c) S + 2H2 SO4 → 3SO2 + H2 O magnetic moment?
(d) Cu + 2H2 SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2 O (a) Co2+ (b) Mn2+
2+
(c) Zn (d) Cu2+
92. In aqueous solution which one of the
following ions has the largest size 98. In C2H5OH and H2O solution is example of
(a) Na+ (b) Rb+ non-ideal solution then which graphical
(c) K+ (d) Li+ representation is correct?
.
93. Match the column I with column II and mark
the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II (a)

(A) (i) Mole fraction

(B) (ii)
(b)

(C) (iii) CH3–(CH2)6– Mole fraction

CH3 .

(D) HO(CH2)3CH (iv)

(c)
(CH3)CH(CH3)2
Mole fraction

(a) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) .

(b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)

(c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
(d) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii) (d)

94. Photochemical smog contains which of the Mole fraction

following air pollutants
(a) CO2, SO2 and CO 99. The graph of t1/2 versus initial concentration
(b) Ozone, Chlorine and Sulphur dioxide ‘a’ is for
(c) Nitrogen oxide, PAN and Ozone
(d) Oxygen, Chlorine and nitric acid
95. Number of spectral lines in Balmer series t1 2

when an electron return from 7 th orbit to 1st

orbit of hydrogen atom are
a
(a) 5 (b) 8
(a) First order (b) Zero order
(c) 18 (d) 15
(c) Second order (d) Can’t predict
 12
100. Which of the following has the least
percentage of carbon in it?
(a) Hematite (b) Cast iron
(c) Wrought iron (d) Pig iron
Botany
Section-A
101. ICBN stands for
(a) Indian Congress of Biological Names
(b) International Code of Botanical
Nomenclature
(c) International Congress of Biological
Names
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
102. Which of the following pteridophytes is a
member of the Pteropsida class?
(a) Lycopodium and Adiantum
(b) Pteris and Adiantum
(c) Equisetum and Psilotum
(d) Selaginella and Pteris
103. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Female gametophytes are free-living in
Gymnosperms.
(b) Origin of seed habit can be traced back
to Pteridophytes.
(c) A protonemal and leafy stage exists in
the Pteridophyte gametophyte.
(d) Pteridophytes have antheridiophores
and archegoniophores.
104. Which of the following statements is not
true?
(a) Hypogynous flowers have a superior
ovary.
(b) When stamens are connected to petals,
as in brinjal, they are epiphyllous.
(c) A stalk or filament and an anther
constitute stamen, which represents the
male reproductive organ.
(d) Any plane can be used to dissect an
actinomorphic flower into two equal
halves.
105. Which of the following statements is
correct?
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14
A. Pneumatophores are seen in
Rhizophora.
B. The banyan tree has a lot of adventitious
roots.
C. From the region of elongation, some of
the epidermal cells form root hairs.
D. Prop roots can be found in maize and
sugarcane.
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) Only C
(d) C and D
106. What is the name of the process through
which solids, such as colloids, absorb water
and expand in volume?
(a) Diffusion (b) Plasmolysis
(c) Osmosis (d) Imbibition
107. Which of the following is used in the
pyruvate-to-acetyl CoA conversion?
(a) Oxidative phosphorylation
(b) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(c) Oxidative decarboxylation
(d) Oxidative dehydration
108. Choose the most accurate statement about
mitosis.
(a) Chromosomes move to the spindle
equator and get aligned along equatorial
plate in metaphase.
(b) In anaphase, chromatids separate but
remain in the cell's centre.
(c) In telophase, chromatids begin to move
towards opposite poles.
(d) At the end of prophase, the Golgi
complex and endoplasmic reticulum are
still visible.
109. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) In day neutral plants, the flowering
process does not take place.
(b) If the night length is less than a critical
period, long day plants show flowering.
(c) When the night length exceeds a crucial
dark period, short-day plants blossom.
(d) Plants that are day-neutral are
insensitive by the duration of the day.
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 13

110. Match Column I and Column II and choose 114. When synapsis is complete all along the
the correct option. length of the chromosome, the cell is said to
have entered a stage called
Column I Column II
(a) zygotene (b) pachytene
A. Nitrogen fixing I. Nitrococcus and (c) diplotene (d) diakinesis
cyanobacteria Nitrosomonas
115. ABA is involved in
B. Free living aerobic II. Anabaena and (a) elongation of shoot.
nitrogen fixers Nostoc (b) increased cell division.
(c) dormancy of seeds.
C. Denitrifying III. Rhodospirillum
(d) elongation of root.
bacteria
116. Which of these is not a stop codon?
D. Anaerobic nitrogen IV. Azotobacter and
(a) UAA (b) UAG
fixers Beijernickia
(c) UGA (d) UGG
E. Nitrifying bacteria V. Pseudomonas
117. Which type of flowers are not very colorful
and Thiobacillus
and do not produce nectar?
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-III (a) Wind pollinated
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III, E-I (b) Insect pollinated
(c) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-II, E-I (c) Water pollinated
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V (d) Both (a) and (c)
111. Vegetative reproduction occurs by 118. Which of these traits not considered in
fragmentation. Asexual spores and sexual Mendelian experiment?
organs are absent in this case. Identify the (a) Flower position (b) Pod shape
class of fungi to which the above statement (c) Seed shape (d) Flower shape
belong?
119. Which of these is known as cellular factory
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
responsible for the synthesis of proteins?
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
(a) ER (b) Ribosome
112. In grass and banyan trees, roots that grow (c) mRNA (d) tRNA
from portions of the plant other than the
120. Given below is the image of a typical dicot
radicle are known as______.
embryo. Identify A to D.
(a) adventitious roots
(b) fibrous root system
(c) tap root system
(d) tertiary root system
113. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondria is incorrect?
(a) Mitochondrial matrix contains its own
DNA and ribosomes.
(b) Outer membrane is permeable to
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and (a) A- Radicle; B- Cotyledons; C- Root cap;
proteins. D- Plumule
(c) Enzymes of electron transport are found (b) A-Radicle; B- Root cap; C- Plumule; D-
in outer membrane. Cotyledons
(d) Inner membrane is convoluted with (c) A- Cotyledons; B- Root cap; C- Radicle;
infoldings. D- Plumule
(d) A- Cotyledons; B- Plumule; C- Radicle;
D- Root cap
 14 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

121. Wheat comes under which of the following 131. Closed vascular bundles lack?
orders? (a) Ground tissue
(a) Poales (b) Asterales (b) Cambium
(c) Liliales (d) Sapindales (c) Conjunctive tissue
122. The kingdom that includes the blue-green (d) Pith
algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and 132. The cork cambium, cork and secondary
methanogenic archaebacteria, is cortex are collectively called
(a) Protista (b) Plantae (a) Phellem (b) Phellogen
(c) Monera (d) Fungi (c) Phelloderm (d) Periderm
123. Who is considered as the ‘Father of 133. Who among the following made the
Taxonomy’? conclusion that “Cell wall is a unique
(a) John ray (b) Linnaeus structure of plant cells.”?
(c) Darwin (d) A.P. de Candolle (a) Virchow (b) Robert Hooke
124. Group of organisms having protein, rich (c) Schwann (d) Schleiden
layer (Pellicle) is called 134. Which of the following is present in the
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Slime moulds stroma of chloroplasts?
(c) Euglenoids (d) Protozoans i. Ribosomes
125. Cyanobacteria are known to have which of ii. Double stranded DNA
the following photosynthetic pigments? iii. Enzymes for protein synthesis
(a) Chlorophyll a (b) Carotenoids (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii
(c) Phycobilins (d) All of the above (c) i and iii (d) i, ii and iii

126. Identify the correct statement/s regarding 135. The central part of centriole’s proximal
sexual system of classification. region is called_______.
(a) It is an artificial system (a) hub (b) spokes
(c) peripheral fibril (d) spindle fiber
(b) It is based on androecium structure
(c) It is based on anatomy and embryology Section-B
(d) Both a and b
136. Roots that emerge from parts of the plant
127. Identify the odd one out w.r.t the tap root. other than the radicle are found in
(a) Turnip (b) Sweet potato (a) grasses (b) banyan tree
(c) Carrot (d) None of the above (c) Monstera (d) all of the above
128. Identify the incorrect pair.
137. In Sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded,
(a) Tendrils- Cacti
17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
(b) Short-lived leaves- Australian acacia
The percentages of the other three bases
(c) Food storage- Garlic
expected to be present in this DNA are
(d) Modified leaves -Pitcher plant (a) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
129. Root hairs arise from the zone of cell (b) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(a) elongation (b) division (c) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(c) maturation (d) All of these (d) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
130. Tricarpellary, syncarpous and superior ovary 138. For what reason, chloroplasts are usually
is a feature of aligned along the walls of mesophyll cells?
(a) Liliaceae (a) To get optimum quantity of incident light
(b) Solanaceae (b) To get optimum quantity of water
(c) Fabaceae (c) To get the mechanical support
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) To get optimum amount of carbon
dioxide
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 15

139. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (d) It considered vegetative characters that
incorrect? were more easily affected by
I. Water and minerals, and food are environment.
generally moved by a mass or bulk flow
144. Genetic code is said to be degenerate
system.
because
II. Bulk flow can be achieved either through
a positive hydrostatic pressure gradient (a) codon degenerate very quickly
or a negative hydrostatic pressure (b) one amino acid is coded by more than
gradient. one codon
III. The bulk movement of substances (c) one codon codes for more than one
through the conducting tissues of plants amino acid
is called translocation. (d) None of the above
IV. Xylem translocates organic and 145. Why C4 plants are more productive than the
inorganic solutes, mainly from roots to C3 plants?
the aerial parts of the plants. (a) C4 plants have large size leaves.
(a) II and III (b) II, III and IV (b) C4 plants does not show photorespiration.
(c) IV only (d) II only (c) C4 plants grow in the warm and humid
140. In old trees, the greater part of secondary conditions.
xylem is _________. (d) None of these
(a) white (b) dark brown 146. Which of the following is correct for
(c) light brown (d) grey r-selected species?
141. Select the incorrect match from the (a) Large number of progenies with small
following. size.
(a) Potato - Late blight (b) Large number of progenies with large
(b) Rice - Red Rot size.
(c) Sugarcane - Red striped disease (c) Small number of progenies with small
(d) Wheat - Brown rust size.
142. What kind of similarity is found in polar (d) Small number of progenies with large
regions and high altitudes? size.
(a) High temperature, low precipitation and
deciduous forest 147. Which of the following statements about
(b) Low temperature, snowfall, scanty or no crossing over/genetic recombination is
vegetation correct?
(c) Moderate rainfall, high temperature, no A. It is also the reciprocal transfer of
vegetation genes between the non-homologous
(d) High humidity, high rainfall, low
chromosomes.
temperature
B. It occurs in the tetrad stage of meiosis I,
143. Artificial system of classification was not which occurs in pachytene of prophase I.
acceptable because of the following C. It occurs between homologous
reason?
chromosomes' non-sister chromatids.
(a) It was based on vegetative characters
only. D. The process is mediated by the
(b) It was based on natural affinities among recombinase enzyme.
the organisms. (a) All except A (b) A, B and C
(c) It gave more weightage to vegetative (c) All except C (d) All of the above
than sexual characteristics.
 16
148. Which set of chromosomes in pea have the
all seven characters studied by Mendel?
(a) Chromosome 1, 4, 5 and 6
(b) Chromosome 1, 3, 5 and 7
(c) Chromosome 1, 4, 3 and 5
(d) Chromosome 1, 4, 5 and 7
149. As a autoclaved product of DNA, which of
the following synthetic phytohormones was
discovered?
(a) NAA
(b) Kinetin
(c) Thidiazuron
(d) 2, 4-D
150. In nature, a given habitat has enough
resources to support a maximum possible
number, beyond which no further growth is
possible. This characteristic feature of
nature is known as
(a) biotic potential
(b) carrying capacity
(c) natural selection
(d) homeostasis
Zoology
Section-A
151. Which of the following is the reason for
shape of a person’s ear?
(a) Dense irregular connective tissue
(b) Elastic cartilage
(c) Fibrocartilage
(d) Dense regular connective tissue
152. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Lysine is a neutral amino acid.
(b) Amino acids are substituents of methane.
(c) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(d) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.
153. Haemoglobin carries what percentage of
oxygen?
(a) 98 (b) 90
(c) 70 (d) 50
154. Which of the statements below is incorrect?
(a) CO2 has a 25-fold greater solubility than
O2 .
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14
(b) Oxyhaemoglobin production is favoured
by a high hydrogen ion concentration.
(c) Three major layers make up the
diffusion membrane of alveoli.
(d) Spirometers are used to estimate
breathing volumes.
155. When the P50 value of haemoglobin rises
under particular conditions, the pigment's
affinity for combining with O2 will?
(a) Rise
(b) Fall
(c) remain same
(d) first rise and then fall
156. Which of the following formed element
activates the plasma clotting factors?
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Monocytes
(c) Lymphocytes (d) Thrombocytes
157. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean-shaped
structures situated between the levels of
______ thoracic and ______ lumbar
vertebrae.
(a) 11th; 1st (b) 12th; 3rd
(c) 10th; 2nd (d) 12th; 5th
158. According to the accepted concept of
hormone action, if receptor molecules are
removed from target organs, then the target
organ will
(a) continue to respond to the hormone
without any difference.
(b) not respond to the hormone.
(c) continue to respond to the hormone but
will require higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond to the hormone but
in the opposite way.
159. Which of the following hormone is used in
transplantation surgery to suppress immunity
and thus chances of organ rejection by
recipient’s body are decreased?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Cortisol
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Steroid hormone
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 17

160. A person who is on a long hunger strike and (a) It is the ability of the organism to get
is surviving only on water, will have adapted to one niche.
(a) more glucose in his blood. (b) It is the ability of the organism to get
(b) less urea in his urine. adapted in the environment by radiating
(c) more sodium in his urine. heat.
(d) less amino acids in his urine. (c) Evolution from a single ancestor to
161. Choose the correct pair. different species adapted to different
(a) Hippocampus - 3-chambered heart environments.
(b) Rana - 2-chambered heart (d) Ability of the organism to adapt into
(c) Pavo - 3-chambered heart different niches.
(d) Crocodilus - 4-chambered heart
169. Select the incorrect match from the following
162. The enzymes having slightly different options.
molecular structures but similar catalytic
(a) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder
reaction called
(b) Syphilis – Viral disease
(a) coenzyme (b) holoenzyme
(c) NK cells – Innate immunity
(c) proenzyme (d) isoenzyme.
(d) Common cold – Rhino virus
163. RBCs, plasma and bicarbonate are the
medium for transport of carbon dioxide. 170. Periodic abstinence is one such method in
Maximum amount of carbon dioxide is which
carried by (a) menstrual cycle does not occur.
(a) RBCs (b) couples abstain from coitus during
(b) plasma ovulation (14th day) only.
(c) bicarbonates (c) couples abstain from coitus from day 8
(d) all RBCs and bicarbonate carries 50 per to 17 of menstrual cycle.
cent of carbon dioxide. (d) ovulation does not occur during the
164. A condition of failure of the kidney to form period of intense lactation.
urine is called_______. 171. Identify the animal group in which
(a) anuria (b) deamination reproduction occurs only through sexual
(c) uremia (d) None of these
method.
165. Oxytocin hormone is released into the blood (a) Cnidaria (b) Porifera
by_______. (c) Ctenophora (d) Protozoa
(a) pituitary (b) adrenals
(c) parathyroid (d) thyroid 172. Identify incorrect statement from the
following statements.
166. Select the odd one with respect to sexual
(a) Earthworms and leeches are dioecious.
mode of reproduction.
(b) Nereis is monoecious.
(a) Genitalia (b) Gonads
(c) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive
(c) Gametes (d) Gemmules
system.
167. In test tube baby the embryo with upto eight (d) Both a and b
blastomeres is transferred into
(a) uterus 173. Identify the characteristics possessed by
(b) fallopian tube members of class Amphibia.
(c) vagina (a) Body divisible into head and trunk
(d) cervical canal (b) Respiration by gills only
(c) Two-chambered heart
168. What is correct regarding the adaptive
(d) Internal fertilization
radiation?
 18 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

174. Identify the feature which is not found in all 181. Carbohydrates which are sweet in taste are
chordates except mammals. called?
(a) Coelom (a) Fructose (b) Sugar
(b) Dorsal nerve cord (c) Cellulose (d) All of the above
(c) Mammary glands
(d) Sternum 182. Except which one, all of the following amino
acids are aromatic?
175. Match the following.
(a) Valine (b) Tyrosine
Column I Column II
(c) Tryptophan (d) Phenylalanine
(Scientific name) (Common name)
A. Corvus i. Ostrich 183. Which statement is/are incorrect about co-
B. Labeo rohita ii. Carp enzyme?
C. Struthio iii. Crow (a) Coenzymes are enzymes' active
D. Aptenodytes iv. Penguin components.
(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (b) Every coenzyme is a cofactor, however
(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv not every cofactor is a coenzyme.
(c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (c) Every cofactor is a coenzyme, and every
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii coenzyme is a cofactor.
176. ----------- the unit of neural system. (d) The majority of coenzymes are
(a) Neuron (b) Neuroglia nucleotides, which are made up of
(c) Dendrite (d) Nucleus vitamins.

177. Which tissue in our body functions as a 184. What would be left if all of a protein's peptide
lining for body cavities, ducts, and tubes? linkages were broken?
(a) Simple glandular epithelium (a) Peptides (b) Carbohydrates
(b) Compound epithelium (c) Amino acids (d) None of the above
(c) Cuboidal stratified epithelium
185. Inulin is a polymer of _________.
(d) Simple epithelium
(a) glucose
178. The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is (b) glycogen
produced by the secretions of: (c) fructose
(a) Cervical glands
(d) maltose
(b) Flame cells
(c) Abdominal glands Section-B
(d) Pheromones
186. Determine the incorrect statement regarding
179. The stomach of the earthworm extends the occurrence of notochord.
between which segments? (a) It is present throughout the life in
(a) 8-14 (b) 5-7 Amphioxus.
(c) 9-14 (d) 8-9 (b) It is absent throughout the life of humans
180. Identify the excretory organ of frog. from the very beginning.
(a) Malpighian tubule (c) It is present only in larval tails in
(b) Urinary bladder ascidians.
(c) Ureter (d) It is replaced by a vertebral column in
(d) Flame cell adult frogs.
Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14 19

187. Electroporation procedure involves (c) To transmit the stimulus

(a) fast passage of food through sieve (d) All of the above
pores in phloem elements with the help
192. What part of the mammalian brain is
of electric stimulation
responsible for muscle coordination activity?
(b) opening of stomatal pores during the
(a) Corpus callosum
night by artificial light
(b) Cerebellum
(c) making transient pores in the cell
(c) Cerebrum
membrane to introduce gene constructs
(d) Medulla oblongata
(d) purification of saline water with the help
of a membrane system 193. Identify the statements that are true
regarding liver.
188. The testes in humans are situated outside
(I) It is the largest gland of the body.
the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called
(II) In adult human, it weighs around 2.5 to
the scrotum which helps in
3.5 kg.
(a) maintaining the scrotal temperature
(III) It is situated in the pelvic cavity.
higher than the internal body
(IV)It produces no digestive enzyme.
temperature
(a) (I) and (II) (b) (II) and (III)
(b) providing more space for the growth of
(c) (I) and (IV) (d) (I) and (III)
epididymis
(c) providing a secondary sexual feature for 194. Regarding cuboidal epithelium which of the
exhibiting the male sex following statement is incorrect?
(d) maintaining the scrotal temperature (a) They are found in the walls of blood
lower than the internal body temperature vessels and air sac of lungs.
(b) Secretion and absorption are the main
189. Identify the heterocrine glands from the
functions of these tissue.
following given options.
(c) It is composed of a single layer of cube-
A. Thymus B. Pancreas
like cells.
C. Gonads D. Pineal gland
(d) All of the above
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) C and D (d) A, B, C and D 195. Which of the following is the correct
pathway of sperm movement?
190. What are the properties of a good vector?
(a) Seminiferous tubules - rete testis - vasa
(1) It must be small in size.
efferentia - epididymis - vasa deferentia
(2) It should be able to replicate
-prostatic urethra - membranous urethra
autonomously.
- penile urethra
(3) It should have suitable marker genes.
(b) Seminiferous tubules - rete testis -
(4) It must possess multiple cloning site
epididymis - vasa efferentia - vas
Select the correct statement:
deferens - ejaculatory duct -
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
membranous urethra - penile urethra
(c) (3) and (4) (d) All of the above
(c) Seminiferous tubules - rete testis - vasa
191. With reference to neuromuscular junction, efferentia - epididymis - vas deferens -
what is the role of neurons in animals? ejaculatory duct - membranous urethra -
(a) To detect the stimulus penile urethra
(b) To receive the stimulus
 20 Mock Test [Full Syllabus] - 14

(d) Seminiferous tubules - rete testis - vasa the occipital condyles, allowing for
efferentia - epididymis - ejaculatory duct nodding movements.
- vas deferens - membranous urethra - (d) A fibrous joint connects the parietal and
penile urethra temporal bones of the skull.

196. What is the name for a single step large 200. The three steps of the polymerase chain
mutation that leads to speciation? reaction (A, B, and C) are depicted in the
(a) Saltation diagram below. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it
(b) Natural selection
represents.
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) branching descent

197. Adding which of the following group will

convert nucleoside into a nucleotide?
(a) Hydroxyl (b) Phosphate
(c) Uracil (d) Carboxyl

198. The nerve impulse for hearing originates in

which region of the mammalian ear?
(a) Ear ossicles (b) Cochlea
(c) Auditory nerve (d) Eardrum
199. Which of the following statements about a
particular section of a normal human skeleton (a) B - denaturation at 94°C, followed by
is correct? primer annealing at 60°C and extension.
(a) The floating ribs are the 9th and 10th pairs (b) A - denaturation at a temperature of about
of ribs. 50°C.
(b) The thigh bone articulates with the glenoid (c) C - extension in the presence of heat-
cavity, which is a depression. stable DNA polymerase.
(c) Atlas is the first vertebra. It lacks a (d) A - annealing with two sets of primers.
centrum and is articulated to the skull via