Max.

Score: 720

ALL INDIA MOCK TEST

For NEET 2023
TEST NO. 3
SYLLABUS
Physics : Calorimetry, Thermal Expansion, Heat Transfer Thermodynamics, KTG, Oscillations, Wave
Chemistry : GOC; Hydrocarbons; Environmental chemistry
Biology : Photosynthesis in higher plants, Respiration in Plants, Plant growth and development, Excretory products
and their elimination, Locomotion and movement, Neural Control and Coordination, Chemical coordination
and integration

*(Each Question
Subject(s) Section(s) No. of Questions Type of Question(s)
Carries 04 (Fours) Mark
Section A 35 140
Physics
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Chemistry
Section B 15 40
MCQ (Multiple Choice
Section A 35 140
Botany Question)
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Zoology
Section B 15 40
Total Marks 720

Note: Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and incorrect options marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Unattempted/Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.

General Instructions:
1. Each questions carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (Four) marks.
2. For each incorrect answer, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
3. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
4. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of the
multiple correct/best option marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ignored all candidates
will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by
the candidate.

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 2 Mock Test - 03

Physics 6. 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system,

Section - A whose internal energy is 40 J; then the
1. Which of the following statements is/are amount of external work done is
correct about the standing wave? (a) 140 J (b) 70 J
I. In a standing wave the disturbance (c) 120 J (d) 150 J
produce is confined to the region where 7. The total number of degrees of freedom of a
it is produced. CO2 gas molecule is
II. In a standing wave, all the particles (a) 4 (b) 3
cross their mean position together. (c) 5 (d) 6
III. In a standing wave, energy is 8. Two kg of water is converted into steam by
transmitted from one region of space to boiling at atmospheric pressure. The volume
other. changes from 2 × 10-3 m3 to 3.34 m3. The
(a) I and II (b) Only II work done by the system is about
(c) Only III (d) I, II and III (a) –340 kJ
2. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating (b) 170 kJ
in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open (c) –170 kJ
at both ends vibrating in third overtone are in (d) 340 kJ
resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio 9. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and
of the length of P1 to that of P2 is converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/8 following curves represents the
(c) ¼ (d) 1/2 phenomenon qualitatively?
3. Find the temperature at which the Vrms for O2
molecule is 483 m/s.
(a) 300 K (b) 600 K
(c) 500 K (d) 400 K (a) (b)
4. The ratio of the coefficient of volume
expansion of a glass container to that of a
viscous liquid kept inside the container is 1 :
4. What fraction of the inner volume of the
container should the liquid occupy so that the
volume of the remaining vacant space will be (c) (d)
same at all temperatures?
(a) 2 : 6 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 64 (d) 1 : 12 10. Match Column I (Physical Variables) with
5. The density () versus pressure (P) of a Column II(Expressions). (n = number of gas
given mass of an ideal gas is shown at two molecules present per unit volume, k =
temperatures T1 and T2. Then the relation Boltzmann constant, T = absolute
between T1 and T2 may be temperature, m = mass of the particle)
Column I Column II
(A) Most probable (1) nkT
velocity
(B) Energy per degree (2) 3kT / m
of freedom
(C) Pressure (3) 2kT / m
(D) R.M.S. velocity (4) kT / 2
(a) T1 = T2 (a) (A) → (3); (B) → (4) ;(C) → (1) ;(D) → (2)
(b) T2 > T1 (b) (A) → (1); (B) → (2) ;(C) → (3); (D) → (4)
(c) T1 >T2 (c) (A) → (4); (B) → (3); (C) → (1); (D) → (2)
(d) All the three are possible (d) (A) → (3); (B) → (4); (C) → (2); (D) → (2)
Mock Test - 03 3

11. Frequency of oscillation is proportional to

3k m
(a) (b)
m 3k
2k k
(c) (d)
m m
(a) Isobaric, adiabatic, isochoric
12. Assertion: Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) Isochoric, adiabatic, isobaric
explain the concept of energy. (c) Adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric
Reason: Energy depends on temperature. (d) Isochoric, isobaric, adiabatic
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
17. The phase difference between the
reason is a correct explanation for
instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
assertion.
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
(a) zero (b) 0.607
reason is not a correct explanation for
(c)  (d) 0.5
assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 18. The frequency of the simple harmonic
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. motion attained in forced oscillations, after
the forced oscillation die out, is
13. A man is watching two trains, one leaving
(a) the natural frequency of the particle
and the other coming in with equal speeds of
(b) the frequency of the driving force
4 m/s. If they sound their whistles, each of
(c) double the natural frequency of the
frequency 240 Hz, the number of beats
particle
heard by the man (velocity of sound in air =
(d) double the frequency of the driving force
320 m/s) will be equal to
(a) 6 19. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance
(b) 3 1/3 releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir.
(c) 0 Then the work done on the working
(d) 12 substance is
(a) 100/3 J (b) 150 J
14. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of
(c) 200/3 J (d) 50 J
force constant 800 N/m executes simple
harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of the 20. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5 minutes.
oscillator is 4 J, the maximum acceleration of The surrounding temperature is 20°C. In
the mass is what further time (in minutes) will it cool to
(a) 15 ms-2 30°C?
(b) 35 ms-2 (a) 15/2 (b) 5
(c) 45 ms-2 (c) 25/3 (d) 10
(d) 20 ms-2 21. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density 8000
15. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant kg/m3 is 2  109 N/m2 . The speed of sound
pressure so as to double its volume. The in that liquid is
final temperature of the gas will be close to (a) 100 m/s (b) 250 m/s
(a) 327°C (c) 300 m/s (d) 500 m/s
(b) 250°C 22. Two vibrating tunning forks produce
(c) 154°C progressive waves given by y1 = 4sin500t
(d) 300°C
and y2 = 2sin506t. Number of beats
16. For an ideal gas graph is shown for three
produced per minute is
processes. Process 1, 2 and 3 are
(a) 60 (b) 180
respectively.
(c) 260 (d) 30
 4 Mock Test - 03

23. When a system is taken from state i to state 27. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s
f along the path iaf, it is found that Q =50 cal law of cooling?
and W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36
cal. W along the path ibf is

(a)

(a) 18 cal (b) 6 cal

(c) 60 cal (d) 16 cal
24. For which of the following cases, there will
be no Doppler effect? (b)
(a) If source and listener, both move in the
same direction with same speed.
(b) If one of the source/listeners is at the
centre of a circle, while the other is
moving on it.
(c) When both the source and listener are at (c)
rest.
(d) All of these
(d) None of these
25. For a particle executing SHM the
28. The displacement of a particle in SHM is
displacement x is given by x = A cos t.
 
Identify the graph which represents the x = 10 sin  2t −  metre. When its
 6 
variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a
displacement is 6 m, the velocity of the
function of time t and displacement.
particle is
(a) 18 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 16 m/s
(d) 10 m/s

(a) I, III (b) II, IV 29. Match the column I and column II.
(c) II, III (d) I, IV Column I Column II
(A) Maximum positive (1) 0
26. Assertion: For an ideal gas, at constant displacement
temperature, the product of pressure and T
(B) Maximum positive velocity (2)
volume is constant. 2
Reason: The mean square velocity of the T
(C) Minimum negative (3)
molecules is inversely proportional to 4
mass. acceleration
(D) Maximum positive (4) T
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; acceleration
reason is a correct explanation for 3T
(E) Zero displacement (5)
assertion 4
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(5), (E)-(1)
reason is not a correct explanation for (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(5), (D)-(3), (E)-(2)
assertion (c) (A)-(3), (B)-(1, 4), (C)-(3), (D)-(5),
(E)-(1, 2, 4)
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (d) (A)-(1, 3), (B)-(3, 4), (C)-(5), (D)-(1, 2),
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct (E)-(5, 4)
Mock Test - 03 5

30. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the
excited to support the third overtone. It is surroundings is:
found that air in the pipe has (a) 45 C (b) 20 C
(a) three nodes and four antinodes (c) 42 C (d) 10 C
(b) three nodes and three antinodes
Section - B
(c) four nodes and three antinodes
36. Assertion: Each vibrational mode gives two
(d) four nodes and four antinodes
degrees of freedom.
31. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of
Reason: By law of equipartition of energy,
reservoir is 927°C and that of sink is 27°C. If
the energy for each degree of freedom in
the work done by the engine when it
thermal equilibrium is 2kBT.
transfers heat from reservoir to sink is 12.6 ×
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
106 J, the quantity of heat absorbed by the
reason is a correct explanation for
engine from the reservoir is
assertion.
(a) 16.8 × 106 J
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
(b) 4.2 × 106 J
reason is not a correct explanation for
(c) 8.6 × 106 J
assertion
(d) 4.0 × 106 J
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
32. When a wave is reflected from a denser (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
medium, the change in phase is
37. Various electromagnetic waves are given in
(a) 0
column I and various frequency ranges in
(b) 
column II. Match the two columns.
(c) 3
Column I Column II
(d) 2
(A) Radio waves (1) 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz
33. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam (B)  -rays (2) 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 HZ
ahead of him. He slows down to 36 km / (C) Microwaves (3) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1022 Hz
hour. He finds that traffic has eased and a (D) X-rays (4) 5 × 105 to 109 Hz.
car moving ahead of him at 18 km / hour is (a) (A) → (2) ; (B) → (5) ; (C) → (3) ; (D)
honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz . If the → (4)
speeds of sound is 343 m / s , the frequency (b) (A) → (2) ; (B) → (2) ; (C) → (4) ; (D)
of the honk as heard by him will be: → (3)
(a) 1332 Hz (c) (A) → (4) ; (B) → (3) ; (C) → (2) ; (D)
(b) 1372 Hz → (1)
(c) 1412 Hz (d) (A) → (4) ; (B) → (1) ; (C) → (2) ; (D)
(d) 1464 Hz → (3)
34. Two similar open organ pipes of length 38. The equation of a progressive wave is
50 cm and 50.5 cm produce 3 beats per
 t x 
second when sounded together. The velocity y = 0.02sin2  − 
of sound in air is  0.01 0.30 
(a) 303 m / s Here x and y are in metre and t is in
(b) 330 m / s second. The velocity of propagation of the
(c) 151.5 m / s wave is
(d) 603 m / s (a) 300 ms−1
35. Certain quantity of water cools from 70 C to (b) 30 ms−1
60 C in the first 5 minutes and to 54 C in (c) 400 ms−1
(d) 40 ms−1
 6 Mock Test - 03

39. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted
between its kinetic energy (KE) and potential
energy (PE) against its displacement d.
Which one of the following represents these
correctly? (graphs are schematic and not
drawn to scale)
(a)
(b)
43. Two spheres made of same substance have
diameters in the ratio 1 : 2. Their thermal
capacities are in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 8
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1
44. If mass energy equivalence is taken into
account, when water is cooled to form ice,
the mass of water should
(a) Increase
(b) Remain unchanged
(c) Decrease
(d) First increase then decrease
45. In the plot of temperature versus time
showing changes in the state of ice on
heating, which part represents constant
temperature?

(c)

(d) (a) The region AB represents ice and water

in thermal equilibrium.
(b) At B water start boiling.
(c) As C all the water gets converted into
40. If the frequency of EM radiations is halved steam.
then the energy of EM radiation will become (d) A to B and C to D represents water and
(a) Remains the same steam in equilibrium at boiling point.
(b) Becomes half
46. The freezing point on a thermometer is
(c) Becomes four times
marked as 20° and the boiling point at as
(d) Can’t say
150°. A temperature of 60°C on this
41. 50 g of copper is heated to increase its thermometer will be read as
temperature by 10°C. If the same quantity of (a) 94° (b) 45°
heat is given to 10 g of water, the rise in its (c) 98° (d) 100°
temperature is (Specific heat of copper
47. Two equations of two S.H.M. are
= 420 Joule-kg−1C−1 ) x = a sin( t −  ) and y = b cos( t −  ) .
(a) 5°C (b) 6°C The phase differences between the two is
(c) 7°C (d) 8°C (a) 0o (b) o
42. In a room where the temperature is 30°C, a (c) 90o (d) 180o
body cools from 61°C to 59°C in 4 minutes. 48. A body is executing simple harmonic motion
The time (in minutes) taken by the body to with an angular frequency 2 rad/sec. The
cool from 51°C to 49°C will be velocity of the body at 20 mm displacement.
(a) 4 When the amplitude of motion is 60 mm is
(b) 3 (a) 40 mm/sec (b) 60 mm/sec
(c) 6 (c) 113 mm/sec (d) 120 mm/sec
(d) 2
Mock Test - 03 7

49. A particle starts S.H.M. from the mean 55. Nitrobenzene can be prepared from
position. Its amplitude is A and time period is benzene by using a mixture of cone. HNO3
T. At the time when its speed is half of the and cone. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid
maximum speed. Its displacement y is acts as a/an
A (a) Catalyst (b) Reducing agent
(a) A (b) (c) Acid (d) Base
2
A 3 2A 56. Which of the following reactions is an
(c) (d) example of nucleophilic substitution
2 3
reaction?
50. A particle executes S.H.M. with a period of 6
(a) RX + Mg ⎯→ RMgX
second and amplitude of 3 cm its maximum (b) RX + KOH ⎯→ ROH + KX
speed in cm/sec is (c) 2RX + 2Na ⎯→ R – R + 2NaX
(a)  / 2 (b)  (d) RX + H2 ⎯→ RH + HX
(c) 2 (d) 3 57. Which one is most reactive towards S N1
CHEMISTRY reaction?
Section - A (a) C5H5CH2Br
51. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type (b) C6H5CH(C6H5) Br
(c) C6H5CH(CH3) Br
which one (d) C6H5C(CH3) (C6H5) Br
of the following has the highest relative rate? 58. Among the given compounds, the most
susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the
(a) carbonyl group is
(a) CH3COCI (b) CH3COOCH3
(c) CH3CONH2 (d) CH3COOCOCH3
(b)
59. Which one is most reactive towards
(c) CH3 ⎯ CH2Br electrophilic reagent?
(d) CH3 ⎯ CH2 ⎯ CH2Br C 3

52. Which one of the following is most reactive C 3

towards electrophilic attack? (a) (b)

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(c) (d) 60. Hyperconjugation is not possible in

(a)
53. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
towards nucleophilic substitution are in the (b)
order of:
(a) Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester >Acyl
(c)
chloride
(b) Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride >
(d)
Amide
(c) Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > 61. Highest boiling point is observed for
Amide
(a) 2-Methylbutane
(d) Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid
(b) Pentane
anhydride
(c) Hexane
54. Benzene reacts with CH3CI in the presence (d) 2, 2 - Dimethylpropane
of anhydrous AICl3 to form 62. Which of following hydrocarbon cannot be
(a) Xylene prepared by Wurtz reaction?
(b) Toluene
(a) CH4 (b) C2H4
(c) Chlorobenzene
(c) C2H6 (d) C2H2
(d) Benzylchloride
 8 Mock Test - 03

(a) iii > ii > i > iv (b) ii > iii > iv > i
(c) iii > ii > iv > i (d) ii > i > iv > iii
63. 72. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen is liberated as
(a) N2(g) (b) NO(g)
(c) N2O(g) (d) NH3(g)
73. In which of the following compounds,
Which nitrogen in Lysergic acid diethylamide
tautomerism is favourable and enol form is
(LSD) is most basic?
most stable?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) All are equally basic (a) (b)

64.

(c) (d)

The major product P is

(a) But-1-ene (b) Butane 74. Chloroform (B.P. 334 K) and aniline (B.P.
(c) Cis-but-2-ene (d) Trans-but-2-ene 457 K) are easily separated by the technique
65. Minimum atomic radii among the following is of
of (a) Crystallisation (b) Distillation
(a) Al (b) Ga (c) Sublimation (d) Chromatography
(c) ln (d) Tl 75. In Carius method of estimation of halogen,
66. Photochemical smog does not contain 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.47 g of
(a) Ozone (b) Glycerol AgBr. Percentage of bromine in compound is
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Nitric oxide (molar mass of AgBr = 188 g)
67. Rate of hydrogenation of which of the (a) 20% (b) 40%
following alkene will be minimum? (c) 50% (d) 80%
(a) CH3 – CH = CH2 76. Which of the following compound does not
(b) CH2 = CH2 exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(c) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2
(a) CH3CH = CHCH3
(d) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
68. C2H5CN and C2H5NC are (b)
(a) Metamers
(b) Functional isomers (c) PhCH = CHPh
(c) Position isomers (d) CH3CH = CH2
(d) Chain isomers 77. The number of structural isomers for the
69. Which of the following is not aromatic in compound with molecular formula C4H6 is
nature? (a) 3
(b) 7
(a) (b) (c) 5
(d) 9
78. The order of stability of the following
(c) (d) carbocations is
70. Producer gas is a mixture of (I)
(a) CO + H2 (b) CO + N2 (II)
(c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + N2
71. Decreasing order of -I effect of the given
(III)
groups is
i. –CN ii. –NO2
iii. –NH2 iv. –F (a) (III) > (II) > (I) (b) (II) > (III) > (I)
Mock Test - 03 9

(c) (I) > (II) > (III) (d) (III) > (I) > (II) (d) CH3COOH
dil. H2SO4
79. Ph − C  C − H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → A (Major). The Section - B
86. The total number of conformation possible
major product A is for ethane by rotation around C–C bond is
(a) 2 (b) 
(c) 4 (d) 9
(a) (b) PhCH2CHO C2H5OH
87. CH3MgBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (A).

The product (A) is

(a) CH4 (b) C2H6
(c) (d) PhCH2CH2OH (c) CH3 – O – C2H5 (d) C3H8
H O
80. H − C  C − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯
HBr (excess)
→ A ⎯⎯2 ⎯→ B 88. Which of the following will not act as an
electrophile?
The compound B is
+
(a) A diol (b) An aldehyde (a) B2H6 (b) NO2
(c) A ketone (d) An alkyl halide +
81. IUPAC name of the compound (c) SO3 (d) NH4

is
(a) 4-Oxo-5-methylhexanoic acid 89.
(b) 2-Methyl-3-oxohexanoic acid The major product A is
(c) 1-Hydroxy-2-methylhexane-1,3-dione
(d) 5-Methyl-4-oxohexanoic acid
82. Which of the following is least reactive
towards electrophilic attack?

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)
83. The number of 3c – 2e– bond(s) present in
diborane is 90. Number of vinylic hydrogen atoms in
(a) 2 (b) 4 CH3 – CH = CH2 is
(c) 1 (d) 3 (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 1
84. The product obtained at cathode when
sodium acetate undergoes Kolbe’s 91. The sum of  and  bonds in
electrolysis is
(a) CO2 is
(b) H2 (a) 12
(c) CH4 (b) 15
(d) C2H6 (c) 18
85. The product P is the following reaction is (d) 14
( CH COO ) Mn 92. The product(s) obtained upon reductive
C2H6 + O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3

2 ⎯→ P
ozonolysis of 2-methylpropene is
(a) CH3CH2OH (a) CH3CH(CH3) CHO
(b) CH3CHO (b) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO
(c) C2H4 (c) CH3COCH2CHO
 10 Mock Test - 03

(d) (CH3)2C = O + HCHO (c) Neopentane (d) Benzene

93. The product B in the following reaction 99. The product obtained upon reaction of
sequence is methane with steam at 1273 K in presence
of nickel is
(a) CO (b) HCHO
(c) CH3OH (d) HCOOH
100. Match chemicals given in list I with the
harmful effects they can cause when
exceeds tolerable limit in drinking water in list
(a) (b)
II.
List I List II
a. Nitrates (i) Blue baby
syndrome
(c) (d) b. Sulphates (ii) Mottling of teeth
c. Lead (iii) Laxative effect
d. Fluorides (iv) Damage kidney
and liver
94. Which of the following is not a greenhouse
Select the option with correct code.
gas?
(a) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(a) CO2 (b) O3 (b) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(c) CH4 (d) O2 (c) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
95. The violet coloured compound formed when (d) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
sulphur containing sodium fusion extract is Botany
treated with sodium nitroprusside is Section-A
(a) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (b) [Fe(CN)5NO]2–
101. The movement of electrons as per Z-scheme
(c) [Fe(CN)3NOS]2– (d) [Fe(CN)5SCN]4–
in light reaction is
96. Statement I: Silica gel and alumina are used
(a) From low to high energy level
as adsorbent for adsorption (b) Uphill in redox potential scale
chromatography. (c) Downhill in redox potential scale
Statement II: Paper chromatography is a (d) Both (b) & (c)
type of partition chromatography. 102. Read the following statements:
(a) CFO part of ATPase is associated with
In the light of above statements, select the
breakdown of proton gradient.
correct option. (b) A H-carrier contributes in creation of
(a) Statement I is true but statement II is proton gradient.
false (c) Movement of electrons in ETS is
(b) Statement I is false but statement II is coupled to pumping of protons into the
true lumen.
(c) Both statements I and II are true (d) Formation of NADPH + H+ is related
(d) Both statements I and II are false with the creation of proton gradient.
5 4 3 2 1 How many of the above statements are
97. In the hydrocarbon CH3 − CH = CH − C  CH,
correct?
the hybridisation state of carbon 2, 3 and 5
(a) Two (b) One
are respectively (c) Four (d) Three
(a) sp, sp2, sp3 (b) sp3, sp2, sp2 103. How many components listed below are part
2 3 2
(c) sp , sp , sp (d) sp, sp, sp3
of cyclic ETS?
V O
98. n-Heptane ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 3
→ P (major)
773K
10 − 20atm
P700, P680, NADP reductase, Hydrogen
carrier, PS I, Water Splitting Complex, PS II
The major product P is (a) Two (b) Three
(a) Toluene (b) Anisole (c) Five (d) Four
Mock Test - 03 11

104. Which among the following is not a step in 111. Choose the correct labelling for given figure
Calvin cycle?
(a) Carboxylation
(b) Reduction
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Regeneration
105. Regeneration of four molecules of RuBP in
C3 cycle requires the expenditure of __ ATP.
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3 (a) D-Saturation point, E-Maximum
(d) 2 photosynthesis
106. In C4 plants, sugar is produced in (b) A-Achieved at high light intensity
(a) Bundle sheath cells (c) D-10% of total sunlight, E-
(b) Mesophyll cells Compensation point
(c) Palisade leaf cells (d) A-Light saturation at 10% of total
(d) Spongy mesophyll sunlight
107. Which one of the following is a C4 plant? 112. Respiratory substrates are the organic
(a) Papaya substances which are ___________ during
(b) Potato respiration to liberate energy.
(c) Maize (a) oxidised (b) reduced
(d) Pea (c) synthesised (d) both (a) and (b)
108. Which of the following statement is correct 113. What is true about the end products of
regarding the C4 plants? glycolysis?
(a) The carbon fixation is catalysed by PEP (a) 2 pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH2
carboxylase (b) 2 pyruvic acid + 2NADH2
(b) Mesophyll cells lack the RuBisCO (c) 1 pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH2
enzyme (d) 2 pyruvic acid+ 1 ATP + 1 NADH2
(c) Photorespiration is absent 114. Which of the following options does not hold
(d) More than one option is correct true regarding anaerobic respiration or
109. PEPcase and RuBisCO in C4 plants are fermentation?
present respectively in (a) Occurs inside the mitochondria
(a) Cytoplasm and thylakoids (b) Partial breakdown of glucose occurs
(b) Stroma and cytoplasm (c) Net gain of only 2 ATP molecules
(c) Stroma and thylakoids (d) None of these
(d) Cytoplasm and stroma 115. Site of Krebs' cycle in mitochondria is
110. Identify the incorrect match. (a) outer membrane
(b) matrix
Mesophyll
(a) Regeneration of PEP (c) oxysomes
cells
(d) inner membrane.
(b) RuBP oxygenase activity Chloroplast 116. Krebs' cycle starts with the formation of a six
carbon compound by reaction between
Photorespiratory loss of
(c) Cytoplasm (a) fumaric acid and pyruvic acid
CO2
(b) OAA and acetyl CoA
Decarboxylation in C4 Bundle (c) malic acid and acetyl CoA
(d)
pathway sheath cell (d) succinic acid and pyruvic acid.
 12 Mock Test - 03

117. FAD participates in Krebs' cycle as electron 122. Assertion: Complex II and complex Ill of
acceptor during conversion of ETS are NADH dehydrogenase and
(a) succinyl CoA to succinic acid cytochrome oxidase complex, respectively.
(b) a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA Reason: Cytochrome c acts as a mobile
(c) succinic acid to fumaric acid carrier for transfer of electrons between
(d) fumaric acid to malic acid. complex Ill and IV.
118. Match column I with column II and select the
Mark the correct choice as:
correct option from the given codes.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
Column I Column II and reason is the correct explanation of
A. Glycolysis (i) Inner assertion.
mitochondrial (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
membrane reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
B. TCA cycle (ii) Mitochondrial
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
matrix
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
C. ETS (iii) Cytoplasm
123. Assertion: During aerobic respiration,
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
pyruvic acid formed as a result of glycolysis,
(b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
undergoes phosphorylation reaction to form
(c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
acetyl CoA.
(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
Reason: There is net gain of 36 ATP
119. In the electron transport system present in
the inner mitochondria membrane molecules during aerobic respiration of one
complexes I and IV are respectively molecule of glucose.
(a) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2 Mark the correct choice as :
(b) FADH2 and NADH dehydrogenase (a) If both assertion and reason are true
(c) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome and reason is the correct explanation of
c oxidase complex assertion.
(d) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
synthase. reason is not the correct explanation of
120. Read the given statements and select the assertion.
correct option. (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Statement 1: During photophosphorylation
(of photosynthesis), light energy is utilised 124. During epigeal germination, the first thing
for the production of proton gradient during that comes out of soil Is
ATP synthesis. (a) radicle
Statement 2: In respiration, energy of (b) cotyledon
oxidation reduction is utilised for the (c) endosperm
phosphorylation and thus the process is (d) epicotyl
called oxidative phosphorylation. 125. Secondary growth generally occurs in
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. (a) monocots
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 (b) dicots
is incorrect. (c) gymnosperms
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 (d) both (b) and (c).
is correct. 126. Fastest phase of S-shaped growth curve is
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. (a) lag phase
121. Value of RQ in succulents is (b) log phase
(a) unity (b) infinite (c) stationary phase
(c) less than unity (d) zero. (d) both (a) and (b).
Mock Test - 03 13

127. The given figure shows development of an 131. Functions of auxins include
embryo that undergoes two phases A and B. (a) promoting flowering in pineapple
Select the correct option regarding it. (b) inducing parthenocarpy in tomato
(c) use as herbicides to kill dicot weeds
(d) all of these.
132. Which of the following physiological effects
is caused in plants by gibberellic acid?
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
(c) Rooting in stem cuttings
(d) Yellowing of young leaves
133. Hormone primarily concerned with cell
A B
division is
(a) Geometric phase - Arithmetic phase
(b) Arithmetic phase - Geometric phase (a) ethylene
(c) Arithmetic phase - Exponential phase (b) ABA
(d) Exponential phase - Stationary phase (c) cytokinin
128. The given figure shows growth of two leaves (d) gibberellic acid.
over the period of one day. If, AG = absolute 134. Assertion: Abscisic acid (ABA) is also
growth and RGR = relative growth rate, then called stress hormone.
select the correct option.
Reason: ABA increases the tolerance of
plants to various kinds of stresses.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
AG for RGR for AG for RGR for (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
leaf A leaf A leaf B leaf B (d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(a) 1% 1 2% 2 135. Assertion: Vernalisation is the promotion of
(b) 100% 5 10% 5 flowering by a period of low temperature.
(c) 5 100% 5 10% Reason: Vernalisation prevents precocious
(d) 5 100% 5 100% reproductive development late in the
growing season.
129. Intrinsic heterophylly is found in all except
(a) cotton Mark the correct choice as :
(b) buttercup (a) If both assertion and reason are true
(c) coriander and reason is the correct explanation of
(d) larkspur. assertion.
130. Hormone involved in phototropism is (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
(a) IAA reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) gibberellin assertion.
(c) kinetin (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) 2, 4-D (d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
 14 Mock Test - 03

Section - B 142. If hexokinase, an enzyme that catalyses the

first step reaction in glycolysis is blocked,
136. J. Priestley' experiment include
what will be the impact on glycolytic
(a) a green alga, Cladophora
pathway?
(b) Chlorella and Scenedesmus
(c) purple and green sulphur bacteria (a) Glycolysis will speed up.
(d) mint plant. (b) Glycolysis will slow down.
(c) Glycolysis will stop.
137. What is/are the function(s) of accessory
(d) Glycolysis will occur normally.
pigments?
(a) They enable a wider range of 143. Respiratory pathway is
wavelength of incoming light to be (a) catabolic (b) amphibolic
utilised for photosynthesis. (c) anabolic (d) endergonic.
(b) They absorb light and transfer the 144. Oxidation of one NADH and one FADH 2
energy to reaction centre. respectively gives rise to ____________ and
(c) They protect reaction centre from photo ___________ ATP molecules.
oxidation. (a) 3 and 2 (b) 2 and 1
(d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 1
138. If a chemical process is affected by more 145. Study carefully the following statements and
than one factor, then it rate will be select the incorrect ones.
determined by the factor which is nearest to (i) When fats are used in respiration, the
its minimum value, it is the factor which R.Q. is more than unity because fats
directly affects the process if its quantity is contain more O2 and require relatively
changed. This is the statement of less amount of O2 for oxidation.
(a) Hatch and Slack (ii) The most important energy carrier is
(b) Calvin and Bas ham ATP. This energy rich compound is
(c) Blackman's law of limiting factors mobile and can pass from one cell into
(d) Lindeman n's law of minimum. another.
139. Which of the following equations holds true (iii) Before pyruvic acid enters Krebs' cycle,
for acidification reactions of CAM pathway? one of the two carbon atoms of pyruvic
(a) PEP + CO2 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯
PEPcase
⎯→ OAA + H3PO 4 acid is reduced to carbon dioxide in the
reaction called reductive carboxylation.
(b) OAA + NADPH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dehydrogenase
⎯→ Malic acid + NADP+
(iv) A special electron carrier system located
(c) Malic acid + NADP + ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Malic
enzyme
→ Pyruvic acid + CO2 + NADPH in the mitochondrial membrane is called
(d) All of these shuttle system. It transfers electrons
140. The diagram represents the Calvin cycle. from the hydrogens of cytoplasmic
NADH to the mitochondrial electron
carriers across the mitochondrial
membrane.
(v) Zymase is a complex mixture of many
At which stage is CO2 incorporated? enzymes which requires several
(a) P (b) Q coenzymes for its action. The enzyme
(c) R (d) S complex-zymase catalyses series of
141. Glycolysis occurs in the ____________ and reactions taking place during
produces ________ which in the presence of fermentation leading to the production of
O2 enters the ethyl alcohol.
(a) cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) cytosol; glucose; mitochondrion (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) mitochondrion; pyruvate; chloroplast (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) chloroplast; glucose; cytosol (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
Mock Test - 03 15

146. Which of the following hormones induces ZOOLOGY

early transition from juvenile to adult phases Section - A
in conifers? 151. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean-shaped
(a) Cytokinins structures situated between the levels of ___
(b) GA thoracic and ____ lumbar vertebrae.
(c) ABA (a) 11th; 1st (b) 12th; 3rd
(d) IAA (c) 10th; 2nd (d) 12th; 5th
152. Which is the first step of urine formation?
147. Which one of the PG Rs would you use if you
(a) Ultrafiltralion
are asked to?
(b) Tubular secretion
A. Overcoming senescence (c) Selective secretion
B. 'Bolt' a rosette plant (d) Tubular reabsorption
C. Induce immediate stomatal closure in 153. Glucose and amino acids in the filtrate are
leaves reabsorbed by tubular epithelial cells
(a) A- cytokinin, B-GA, C-ABA through
(b) A-ABA, B-GA, C-auxin (a) Active transport (b) Passive transport
(c) A-auxin, B-ethylene, C-GA (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Osmosis
(d) A-cytokinin, B- ethylene, C-ABA 154. In which segment of the nephron, is
reabsorption minimum?
148. 6- furfuryl amino purine, 2-4 dichlorophenoxy
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
acetic acid and indole acetic acids are
(b) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
respectively examples of (c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(a) kinetin, natural auxin and synthetic (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
auxin 155. Hormone responsible for the absorption of
(b) kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural water in DCT is
auxin (a) ADH (c) Oxytocin
(c) kinetin, gibberellin and natural auxin (b) ACTH (d) Insulin
(d) natural auxin, synthetic auxin and 156. The excretory structure of Amphioxus
kinetin. (Cephalochordate) is
149. Leaf fall starts when the amount of (a) Flame cell/Protonephridia
(b) Coxal gland
(a) auxin increases
(c) Malpighian tubules
(b) auxin decreases
(d) Green gland
(c) abscisic acid decrease
157. What is the amount of CO2 removed by
(d) gibberellic acid decreases.
humans lungs per min?
150. Select the incorrect ones. (a) 20 ml (b) 200 ml
(a) Vernalisation is applicable to temperate (c) 180 ml (d) 125 ml
and some tropical plants. 158. The condition of accumulation of urea in
(b) The stimulus of vernalisation is blood is termed as
perceived by leaves whereas the (a) Uremia (b) Diuresis
stimulus of photoperiodism is perceived (c) Glycosuria (d) Haematuria
by shoot tips and embryo tips. 159. A bundle of muscle fibre is called
(c) Low temperature treatment must be (a) Fascia (b) Glenoid cavity
(c) Myocyte (d) Fasciculus
applied throughout day and night.
(d) Vernalisation process can be reversed 160. The dark band present on myofibrils is
(a) Isotropic band (b) Anisotropic band
by application of high temperature.
(c) I-band (d) M-line
 16 Mock Test - 03

161. A sarcomere consists of 171. The order of three layers of cells in the retina
(a) One A-band and one I-band from inside to outside
(b) Half A-band and two half I-band (a) Bipolar cells ➔ Ganglion cells ➔
(c) Half A-band and one I-band Photoreceptor cells
(d) One A-band and two half I-band (b) Photoreceptor cells ➔ Ganglion cells ➔
162. Select the correct option Bipolar cells
(a) HMM = Tail + Short arm (c) Ganglion cells ➔ Bipolar cells ➔
(b) LMM = Tail + Head Photoreceptor cells
(c) HMM = Head + Short arm (d) Photoreceptor cells ➔ Bipolar cells ➔
(d) LMM = Head
Ganglion cells
163. Number of floating ribs are
172. The retinal blood vessels enter the eye at
(a) 2 pairs (b) 12 pairs
(a) Fovea (b) Blind spot
(c) 7 pairs (d) 3 pairs
(c) Macula lutea (d) Crista
164. Head of humerus articulates with ____ cavity 173. Which of the following results in the
(a) Glenoid generation of potential difference in the
(b) Acetabulum photoreceptor cells of eyes?
(c) Foramen magnum (a) Conversion of retinal into opsin
(d) Obturator foramen
(b) Conversion of opsin into retinal
165. The U-shaped bone present at the base of (c) Dissociation of the retinal from opsin
the buccal cavity is (d) Dissociation of the opsin from retinol
(a) Skull (b) Hyoid
174. The scala vestibuli ends at the _____, while
(c) lncus (d) Stapes
the scale tympani terminates at the _____ .
166. The joint present between radius and ulna is Find the correct option.
(a) Gliding joint (b) Saddle joint (a) Scala media, temporal bone
(c) Pivot joint (d) Angular joint (b) Oval window, round window
167. In Myasthenia gravis _______ is affected. (c) Pinna, tympanic membrane
(a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (d) Eustachian tube, external auditory
(b) Sarcolemma meatus
(c) Neuromuscular junction 175. The stereo cilia are projected from which part
(d) T-tubules of the hair cell?
168. On application of a stimulus on the axonal (a) Basal part
membrane, (b) Apical part
(a) There is a rapid influx of K+ at that site (c) Lateral part
(b) There is a rapid efflux of Na+ at that site (d) Front part
(c) There is a rapid influx of Na+ at that site 176. The hair cells present on the crista
(d) There is a rapid efflux of K+ at that site ampullaris receive the stimuli of
169. All of the following are parts of forebrain, (a) Audition
except (b) Change in the body posture
(a) Cerebellum (c) Association areas (c) Vision
(b) Corpus callosum (d) Hypothalamus (d) Olfaction
170. The part or human brain located between 177. The two glands located in the neck region
thalamus/hypothalamus and pons is are
(a) Forebrain (a) Thyroid gland and parathyroid gland
(b) Midbrain (b) Pituitary gland and pineal gland
(c) Hindbrain (c) Adrenal gland and thymus
(d) Vestibular apparatus (d) Pineal gland and thyroid gland
Mock Test - 03
178. Hypothalamic hormones directly regulate the
synthesis and secretion of
(a) Thyroid hormones
(b) Pituitary hormones
(c) Adrenal hormones
(d) Parathormone
179. Somatostatin inhibits the release of
(a) Prolactin
(b) Melanin
(c) Thymosin
(d) Growth hormone
180. The hormone not released by pars distalis,
in man is
(a) Growth hormone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) Luteinizing hormone
181. If ‘X’ Is a hormone which controls the
carbohydrate metabolism In the body and 'Y'
is a hormone which controls the secretion of
‘X’. then 'X' and ‘Y’ are
(a) Insulin and somatotrophin
(b) Aldosterone and growth hormone
(c) Glucocorticoid and ACTH respectively
(d) Glucocorticoid and GHRH
182. Graafian follicle gets converted into _______
after ovulation under the effect of _________
(a) Corpus callosum, GnRH
(b) Corpus luteum, LH
(c) Corpus albicans, FSH
(d) Ovarian follicle, prolactin
183. Angiotensinogen ⎯⎯→ Angiotensin − I
X
(A) (B)
'X' in the given statement refers to
(a) Angiotensin-11
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Renin
(d) Rennin
184. Secretin promotes the release of
(a) HCI and sodium carbonate ions
(b) HCI and bicarbonate ions in gastric
juice
(c) Water and bicarbonate ions in
pancreatic juice
(d) Pancreatic enzymes and mucus
17
185. Which of the following forms a hormone
receptor complex on the cell membrane?
(a) Cortisol
(b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Progesterone
Section - B
186. Which is not correct with respect to human
kidney?
(a) The peripheral region is called cortex
and central medulla.
(b) Malpighian corpuscles are present in
the cortex region.
(c) Blood enter into glomerulus through
efferent arterioles.
(d) The concave part of kidney is called
hilum.
187. Which of the following hormone/enzyme
is/are correctly paired with its function?
I. Renin - Enzyme that catalyse the
formation of angiotensin I.
II. Aldosterone - Regulate water
reabsorption at the distal convoluted
tubule
III. Anti-diuretic hormone - It is a powerful
vasoconstrictor that stimulates the
secretion of aldosterone.
IV. Angiotensin II - Promotes reabsorption
of sodium at distal convoluted tubule.
(a) Only I (b) Only III
(c) I, II and III (d) II, Ill and IV
188. Select the incorrect statement regarding
thick segment of ascending limb of loop of
Henle.
(a) This part allows passive diffusion of Na+
and K+.
(b) The part is impermeable for water.
(c) When ultrafiltrate move through this part
it gradually get diluted.
(d) This part is made up of cuboidal
epithelium.
189. The cytoplasmic movement that occurs
inside the cells is
(a) amoeboid
(c) flagellar
(b) ciliary
(d) cyclosis
 18 Mock Test - 03

190. Given diagram shows bone of the left human (iv) Metacarpals are five in numbers.
hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain (v) The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones.
mistakes in labelling. Two of the wrongly (a) (i) and (v)
labelled bones are (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (v)
(d) (ii) and (ill)
193. The space between arachnoid and pia mater
is called
(a) supra-arachnoid space
(b) sub-arachnoid space
(c) subdural space
(d) meninges.
194. The correct sequence of meninges from
inner to outer side is
(a) dura mater ➔ arachnoid membrane ➔
pia mater
(b) dura mater ➔ pia mater ➔ arachnoid
membrane
(c) pia mater ➔ arachnoid membrane ➔
dura mater
(a) fibula and tarsals
(d) arachnoid membrane ➔ dura mater ➔
(b) femur and fibula
pia mater.
(c) fibula and phalanges
(d) tarsals and femur. 195. Which of the following options illustrates the
distribution of Na+ and K+ ions in a section of
191. Select the incorrect match.
nonmyelinated axon which is at resting
Type of vertebrae No. of vertebrae
potential?
(i) Cervical vertebrae 7
(ii) Thoracic vertebrae 12
(iii) Lumbar vertebrae 4 (a)
(iv) Sacral vertebrae 5
(v) Caudal vertebrae 5
(a) (iii) and (v)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v)
(d) (ii) and (v)
192. Which of the following statements are
incorrect regarding a normal human
skeleton? (c)
(i) Hyoid bone does not articulate with any
bone.
(ii) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone,
situated on the ventral side of the (d)
thorax.
(iii) Acromion is a cup-shaped bone
covering the knee.
Mock Test - 03 19

196. Which of the following statements are (c) Progesterone

correct regarding neural system? (b) Estrogen
(i) Bipolar neurons are present in cerebral (d) None of these
cortex. 199. If baby's anterior lobe of pituitary is damaged
(ii) The cerebral hemispheres are due to an accident, then from which of the
connected by a tract of nerve fibres following disorders is he most likely to
called corpus callosum. suffer?
(iii) The medulla oblongata is connected to (i) Cretinism
the spinal cord and located just above (ii) Simmonds' disease
the pons. (iii) Acromegaly
(iv) The efferent neuron carries signals from (iv) Dwarfism
CNS to the effectors. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(v) Autonomic neural system relays (c) Only (iv) (d) (i), (ill) and (iv)
impulses from the CNS to skeletal
200. Read the given statement and select the
muscles.
correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), and (iii) only Statement A: A person suffering from
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) only myxoedema has puffy appearance and lack
(d) (ii), and (iv) only of alertness.

197. Mammals born without a thymus gland fail to Statement B: Excessive secretion of
manufacture parathormone leads to accumulation of fat in
(a) B-lymphocytes the subcutaneous tissue.
(c) plasma cells (a) Both statements A and B are true and B
(b) T-lymphocytes is the correct explanation of A.
(d) basophils. (b) Both statements A and B are true but B
is not the correct explanation of A.
198. Which of the following hormones utilises
(c) Statement A is true but B is false.
cAMP as a second messenger?
(d) Both statements A and B are false.
(a) Aldosterone