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 CHEMISTRY 6 Assertion (A): Specificconductivity of all
electrolytes decreases on
Section-A dilution
Reason (R) : On dilution number of ions
1.
The slope of Arheniusplot In Kvwof fint per unit volume decreases
order reaction is -5x10' K. The value of Eaof (1) Both A andR are correct and R is the
the reaction is correct explanation of A
(1) 41.5 K} mol! (2) -83 KJ mol:! (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
(3) 83.0 KJ mol1 (4) l66 K] mol! the correct explanation of A
2. The IUPAC name of the compound is (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
7. For a cell involving one electron transfer
E ='X at 298K. The equilibriumconstant
for the cell reaction is 10". Xis
(1) 0.0295 V (2) 0.295 V
(1) 1- methyl-6 -ethyl cyclo hex - 1-ene (3) 0.0591 V (4) 0.591 V
(2) 6- Ethyl- 1- methyl cyclo hex - 1-ene 8 Consider the following reaction,
(3) 2- ethyl -l - methyl cyclo hex - 3- ene
(4) 1- methyl -2 - ethyl cyclo hex -3- ene CH, - COCI H
Pd-BasO,
’A

3 (Tropone) is an example of The product Ais

(1) C,H,CHO (2) CH,OH
(3) C,H,COCH, (4) C,H,C
(1) Heterocyclic compound 9 The spin only magnetic momentum of complex
(2) Benzonoid compound
(3) Aliphatic compound ion [NiCi,T is
(4) Non Benzonoid aromatic compound (1) 1.732 B.M (2) 2.82 B.M
4. Assertion (A): pKa value of phenol is 10.0 (3). 0 (4) 3.87 B.M
while that of ethanol is 15.9
10. A gas undergoes isothermal irreversible
Reason (R) : Ethanol is stronger acid than
expansion at 300K from 1littol10 lit against
phenol
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
an external pressure of one atmosphere. Work
done by the gas is
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT (1) 1381.8Kcals
the correct explanation of A (2) 909j
(3) A is not correct butR is correct
(3) 5803.6 J
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
5 Choose the correct reaction (4) 1010 KÊ
1. The correct order of decreasing acid strength
(1) CH,CH,CONH, M »CH,CH, CH,NH, of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid
(B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is
(2) CH, -CH =CH, CH,- CHBr-CH,Br
(1) B>A> D> C
(3)
NaBH4 (2) B»D>C>A
H,0 (3) A>B>C>D
(4) CH,CH,NH, CHO,A KOH , CH,CH,NC (4) A>C>B> D
 12. In the
reaction (2) (co(NH,), (ONO)]a,
CH, -C= CH NgS0,
30% H,S0, (3) K,[c(o«), C,]

major product 20. Volume of CO, obtained by the

Major product [C] is decomposition of 9.85 gof BaCO, is ( conplete
(1) Isobutyl alcohol
(2) Tertiary butyl alcohol
weightof BaCO, = 197.(3)
(1) 2.24 L (2) 1.118L
(molecular
(3) Acetone (3) 0.84 L (4) 0.56 L
(4) Secondary butyl alcohol 21. In an atom, an electronis moving
13.
with a
speed
Deficiency of vitamin B, causes the disease of 600 msec with an accuracy of 0.005
(1) convulsions (2) beri-beri Certainity with which the position
of the
(3) cheilosis (4) sterility electron can be locatediis(h =6.6x10 kg 's
14. Which one of the following is a meta
directing mass of electron = 9,1x10 kg )
group
(1) 1.52x10"m (2) 5.1x10m
(1) -OH (2) -O-C-R (3) 1.92x10 m (4) 3.84x10°m
(3) -NO, 22. Oxidation state of chromium is +3 in
(4) -NH,
15. Which one of the following is ionic (1) Cr,0, (2) Cro,
(1) PE, (2) BiE, (3) CrO, (4) K,Cro,
(3) NE, 23. In Dumas method,' x grams of an organic
(4) AsE,
16. If the ionic radiiof A* and B are nearly same compound containing nitrogen liberated 234cc
(i.e. 1.34A°). Then atomic radii of A and B of N, at STP. If the mass percentage of nitrogen
respectively are in the compound is46.8 then the value of'x is

1
(1) 1.34A, 1.34 A (2) 0.72A, 1.96 A (1) gram (2)
8 128ram
(3) 1.96 A, 0.72 A (4) 1.96A, 1.96 A 1
(3) l68am
17. Number of possible isomers for the complex (4) gram
4
24. Number of peptide bonds in a tetrapeptide is
with the formula Co(en), Cl, willbe (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
18. Aniline reacts with bromine water to give X
25. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths
of absorption in the visible region for the
as major product. 'X' is
complexes of Co' is
(1) o- bromoaniline
(2) 2, 4, 6 - tribromoaniline
(3) m -bromoaniline
) (co(H,o),J{cafen),]" [co(NH).,
(4) p- bromoaniline
19. Which of the following complex shows Linkage
isomerism?

() [co(NH,),ajar (4) (ca(NH,)]"cno

 following compound will
26. Select the incorrect statement from the 31. Which among the
following be more reactive for SN' reaction
(1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
expecially when finely divided (1) CI (2) -CI
(2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
toelement than lanthanoid contraction CI CI
(3) (4)
(3) Most basic hydroxide of lanthanoids is
formed by Lutecium CH, CH,
(4) Ce(+(4) solutions are widely used as 32. CH,CH,COOH A0,B- UAH, C
oxidizing agents in volumetric analysis Functional isomer of 'C'is
27. Number of hybrid orbitals involved in bonding
in benzene molecule is NH,
(1) 12 (2) 16 CH, - CH-CH,
(3) 18 (4) 20 (1)

28. Select the essential amino acid that has hetero (2) CH, -CH, -CH, -NH,
cylic ring (3) CH, -CH, - NH,
(1) Valine
(2) Glutamic acid (4) CH, -CH, - NH-CH,
(3) Tryptophan 33. Statement-I: Fluorine oxidizes water to
Oxygen whereas chlorine
(4) Phenyl alanine and Bromine react with
29. Which 3d element has the greatest tendency water to form corresponding
toconvert from +3 state to +2 state in aqueous hydrohalic and hypohalous
solution acids
(1) Cobalt Statement-II: Oxidising power of halogens
(2) Manganese increases down the group
(3) Chromium
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Titanium correct answer from the options given below:
30. Match column -Iwith column - II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
Column -I Column -II
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(reagents) (Radicals)
a) Dil HCI i) Pb2+ (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statenent I and Statement II are
D) NH,CI+ NH, OH+(NH,), Co, i) Al false

ii) Mn2* 34. The most suitable reagent for the following
c) NH,CI+NH,OH +H,S conversion, is
iv) S2+ CH,
d) NH,CI+ NH,OH H,C
H,C-CC-CH,
H
Choose the correct answer from the options cis-2-butene
given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Hg*/H, H,0 (2) Na/ liquid NH,
(3) H, Pd-BaSO, (4) Zn / HCI
(1) i iii iv ii

i
35. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions,
(2) iii ii iv
which one willexhibit the largest boiling point
(3) i iv iii (1) KCI (2) C,H,0,
(4) iii iv ii i (3) Al,(S0,4), (4) K,SO,
 41. 8 mole of a gas AB, are introduced iinto a 1.0dm!
Setion -B
36. Which of the following vessel. It dissociates as
to be most stable carbocation is expected Aun +3B)
2AB)
NO, NO, At equilibrium 2 mole of A, are found
be present. The equilibrium constant of the
reaction is
(1)
(+)
(2) (1) 2mol' (2) 3mol I
(+)
(3) 27 mol'? (4) 36 mol' ?
H
H 42. Van't Hoff factor of Hg,Cl, in its aqueous
NO,
NO, solution will be (Hg,Cl, is 80% ionized in the
H solution)
(3) H (4) (+ (1) 1.6 (2) 2.6
(3) 3.6 (4) 4.6

E ()
43. The 13h group element with least melting point
is
37. Find the ratio of shortest wave (1) TI
and Balmer series for H - atom lengths in Lyman (2) Ga
(3) Al (4) B
(1) 1:4 (2) 4:1
44. In the reaction
(3) 1:2 (4) 2:1
38. Identify the incorrect match OCH,
Symbol IUPAC official name
excess of HI
A) Unu i) Mendelevium A+ B’ C+D
A
B) Unq ii) Rutherfordium
C) Uns ii) Bohrium the correct match for the above reaction
D) Une iv) Darmstadium
A B D
(1) A-i (2) B-ii
(3) C- iii (4) D -iv (1) C,H,I CH,ONa C,H,OH CH,I
39. The correct bond order in the following species
is (2) C,H,ONa CH,I c,H,0H CH)
(1) 0; <0, <0* (2) 0, <0; <0 (3) C,H,! CH,OH C,H CH,0H
(3) 0 <0; <0; (4) o,* <O; <0; (4) C,H,ONa CH,I C,H,I CH,!
40. Assertion (A): Noble gases have very low

Reason
boiling points
(R): Noble gases beingmonoatomic
45. C,H,0(x) KMn0,/H"c,H,0,."X can be
A) n- butyl alcohol
have no interatomic forces
B) 2° butyl alcohol
except weak dispersion forces
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the C) Isobutyl alcohol
correct explanation of A D) 3° butyl alcohol
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT (1) A, B, Cand D
the correct explanation of A (2) Aand Bonly
(3) A is not correct but R is correct (3) Aand Conly
(4) A is correct but R isnot correct (4) A, Band C only
 46. Concentration of Ag' ions in a saturated| (3) Aand Conly
(4) A and Bonly
solution of Ag,C,0, is 2.2x10mol L'. The
with 0.2 moles of
solubility product of Ag,C;0, is 50. 0.2 moles of H,SO, reacts liberated during
(1) 2.6x 10 (2) 4.5x109 KOH in aqueous solution. Heat
the process is
(3) 5.3x10-12 (4) 2.42x10* (1) 2.865 KJ (2) 22.92 KJ
47. Statement-I : Rate constant is not influenced (3) 5.73 KJ (4) 11.46 KJ
by catalyst PHYSICS
Statement-Il: 2H,0,2H,0+0, sn
example of first order reaction Section-A

In the light of the above statements,choose the 51. Aparticle is moving along a straight line
correct answer from the options given below: with uniform acceleration covers distances
(n+1)h seconds. If
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are S, and S, in the nth and
'n' seconds
true S, +S, = lm then its velocity after
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true from the start is
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (1) 0.8 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s
(4) Bcth Statement I and Statement II are (3) 0.2 m/s (4) 0.3 m/s
false 52. From an elevated point 'P'a ston is projected
48. In the following reaction vertically upwards, when it reaches a distance
d below 'p, its velocity is doubled. The greatest
HCN height reached by it above 'P' is
-A Cons H,SC]A
d
(1) (2) 3d (3) 2d (4)
2
product [C] is 53. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any
time are x= 5t-2t" and y= 10t respectively,
(1) -COOH where x and y are in meters and t in seconds.
The acceleration of the particle at t= 2s is:
(1) -8m/s (2) 0
(2) -COOH (3) Sn/s' (4) -4m/s
54. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
-CHO i+2j]ms.Considering x and y axes to
(3) be along horizontal and vertical up directions.
the equation of itspath is (g =10ms)
(1) y=2x-5x*m (2) y=x-5x* m
(4) -OH
(3) 4y =2x- 5x'm (4) 4y =2x-25x' m
49, Select the correct statements from the following 55. Aparticle is acted upon by a force of constant
A) SiC, is easily hydrolysed magnitude which is always perpendicular
to the velocity of the particle, the motion of
B) GeX, (x = F, CI, Br, I) is more stable than the particle takes place in a plane. It follows
that.
GeX,
(1) its velocity is constant
C) SnFE is ionic in nature
(2) its acceleration isconstant
D) PbF,is covalent in nature
(3) its kinetic energy is constant
(1) A, Band Conly (4) it moves in a straight line
(2) B,Cand Donly
56. A chain and Bimmediately after the string is cut, are
consisting of5 links each
0.1 kg is lifted vertically up with a of mass respectively:
acceleration of 2.5m/s. The force of constant
interaction between 1 and 2nd links as shown

2 A 3m
3

88
(1) 6.15 N (2) 4.92N (1) 3'3 (2) &3
(3) 9.84 N (4) 2.46 N 8
57. The molecules of a given (3) 3 (4) g8
mass of a gas
have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms at 27°C and 61. Arope is wound around a hollow. cylinder of
1.0x10 Nm pressure. When the temperature mass 3kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
and pressure of thegas are respectively, 127°C acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled
and 0.05x10° Nm², the most probable velocity with a force of 30 N?
of its molecules in ms is (1) 5 rad/s² (2) 25 rad/s?
400 (3) 0.25 rad/s
(1) 10042 (2) (4) 2.5 radls?
62. The acceleration of an electron due to the
(3)
100V2 400 V2 mutual attraction between the electron
3
(4)
3 and a proton when they are 1.6A apart is
58. For ap - type semiconductor, which of the
following staterments is true? (m, =9x10 kg, e=l.6x10"c)
(1) Holes are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms a-: the dopants
Take l -=9x10' Nmc*
4TE,
(2) Electrons are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants (1) 10m/s
(3) Electrons are the majority carriers and (2) 10°* m/s
trivalent atoms are the dopants (3) 10° m/s
(4) Holes are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants (4) 10 ms
63. Four identical rods each of mass 'm' and length
59. Aball 'A' moving with a speed of 90m/s collides
with another identical ball 'B' moving with a make a square frame in the xy - plane as
speed V' in the opposite direction. 'A comes shown in the figure. The M.I. about the Z-axis
is
to rest after the collision. If the coefficient of
restitution is 0.8, The speed 'V' of B before AY
collision is
(1) 10 ms (2) 81 msl
(3) 22.5 ms (4) 90 ms
60. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m
respectively are connected by a massless
and inextensible string. The whole system is Sm!' 10m!
(1) (2)
suspended by a massless spring as shown in 3 3
figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A
(3) (4) 4ml
3
 64. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal | relates power (P),
length feach, are kept coaxially in contact with 70. The formula P=
at
each other such that the focal length of the dimensional
combination is F. When the space between distance (x) and time (t). The
formula of 'a'is
the two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has
the same refractive index (u=1.5) as that of
glass) then the equivalent focal length is F.
The ratio E: will be (3) [Mr]
(1) 2:3 (2) 3:4(3) 2:1 (4) 1:2
Asatellite revolves
show the arrangement of| 71. The radius ofa planet is R.
Oo rolowing figures around it in a circle of radius r with angular
bar magnets in different configurations. Each velocity 0,. The acceleration due to the gravity
magnet has magnetic dipole moment m. on planet's surface is
Which configuration has highest net magnetic
dipole moment ? (1) (2)
R'
N R

(3) (4) R
|ZN S R
SS N mand
(A) (B) 72. Two satellites A and B of masses
m, (m, =2m,)are moving in circular orbits
ofradii , and r,(, =4r,) respectively, around
34 60"
the earth. If their periods are T, and T,, then
the ratio is
(C) (D)
(1) A (2) B (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) C (4) D (3) 2 (4) 16
constant pressure, the ratio of increase
66. Aray oflight incident on a 60 angled prism of 73, At
refractive index 2 suffers minimum deviation. in volume of an ideal gas per degree raise in
The angle of incidence is
kelvin temperature to it's original volume is (T
= absolute temperature of the gas)
(1) 70° (2) 0°
(1) T² (2) T
(3) 45° (4) 30° 1
1
67. The maximum number ofpossible interference (3) (4)
maxima for slit separation equal to.twice the
74. Agas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and
wavelength in YDSE are 4moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
(1) Infinite (2) Five vibrational modes, calculate the total internal
(3) Three (4) Zero energy of the system.
68. The velocity of light in air is 3x10°mls and (1) 22RT (2) 11RT
in a medium is /3 x10° m/s. The Brewster's (3) 20RT (4) 9RT
angle of the medium is
75. Ina thermodynamic process, pressure of afixed
(1) 30° (2) 60° mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that
(3) 45° (4) 90° the gas molecules gives out 30 J of heat and
69. A uniform cube is subjected to volume
10 Jof work is done on the gas. If the initial
compression. If each side is decreased by 1%, internal energy of the gas was 40 J, then the
then volumetric strain is final internal energy will be
(2) 0.06 (1) 30J (2) 20J
(1) 0.01
(4) 0.03 (3) 60J (4) 40J
(3) 3
76. The two ends of a metal rod are maintaincd | 80. Aspherical conductor of radius 2m is charged
at temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate to a potential of 120V. It is now placed inside
of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0/s another hollow spherical conductor of radius
If the ends are maintained at 6m initially uncharged. Calculate the potential
temperatures
200°C and 210C. the ratc of heat flow will
be
to which the bigger sphere would be raised.
(1) 20 V (2) 60 V
(1) 16.8J/s (2) 8.01/s (3) 80 V (4) 40 V
(3) 4.01/s (4) 44.01/s 81. Calculate the charge on the second capacitor
77. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two before and after switch in the circuit is closed.
materials Aand Bare as shown in figure. If Y,
and Y, are the Young's moduli of the materials,
then

2
A
Ss•S

CE
X (1j CE (2) 0,0
Strain
CE
(1) Y, =2Y, (2) Y, =Y, (3) 0, CE (4)
2
(3) Y, =3Y, (4) Y =3Y, 82. You have two wires of same material with
mass
78. A smallsphere of mass m dropped from a ratio 1:2 and length ratio 2:3. If resistance of
first wire is R, then resistance of second wire
great height. After it has fallen 100 m, has will be
attained its terminal velocity and continues to
fall at that speed. The moduius of work done 8R R
(1) (2)
by air friction against the sphere during the 3 4
first 100 m of fall is 3R
(3) 9R
(1) Greater than the modulus of work done 8
(4)
8
by air friction in the second 100 m
83. All bulbs in the figure are identical. Which
(2) Less than the modulus of work done by bulb(s) consumes maximum power?
air friction in the second 100 m
(3) Equal to 100 mg
(4) Greater than 100 mg
79. Choose the correct relation regarding potential.
Here A,B, C and D all are at equal distance
from point O. Point 'O' is the midpoint of line
joining -q and +q. Then

(1) Onlyl (2) Only3 and 4

. A +
(3) Only 2 (4) Only l and 5
84. Water rises to a height of 2cm in a long capillary
tube. If the tube is tilted 60' from the vertical,
length of elevated water column in the tube
(1) V,=V, >V, =V,
(1) 4.0cm
(2) Ve=V,>V=V, (2) 2.0 cm
(3) V,>V=V,>V, (3) 1.0 cm
(4) V,>V=V,>V, (4) water will not rise at all
 85. into
Astraight conductor carrying current' splits I 90. ALMeV positronand 1 MeV electron meetec
They annihilate
two parts of same material and opposite directions.
same moving in
thickness as shown in the figure. The radius each other by emitting two photons. If the rest
of the circular loop is R. The is 0.51 MeV, then
mass energy of an electron
fieldat the centre P of the looptotal magnetic
is the wavelength of each photon is
(1) 5.1x10A° (2) 10.2x10A'
R (3) 8.2x10A° (4) 6.2x104°
can rise vertically up
91. Ahelicopter of power Pspeedv
901 with maximum uniform or it can move
horizontally with maximum uniform speed ,.
the velocity andgis
Iftheair friction is ktimes mass
the
the acceleration due to gravity, then
of the helicopter is
(1) Zero (2) 3u,i/32R,autward
(3) u,i/32R, inward (4) 4i/2R, inward (1) m=
K(-) (2)

2gv
SECTION-B k(-) (4) m=
86. The fringe width in a YDSE is 2mrh, distance
(3) m=
2gv k( -)
between slits and screen is 1.2 mand separation 92 The circuit diagram shown here corresp onas
between the slits is 0.24 mm. The radiation of tothe logicgate,
same source is also incident on a photo cathode +6V
of work- function 2.2eV. The stopping potential
R

(1) 3.1V (2) 2.2 V

(3) 0.9 V. (4) 5.3V
B
87. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
LED (Y)
V=V,i (V, >0) enter an electric field R
B=-E,i (E, =constant >0) att= 0.If A, is its
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is (1) NOR (2) AND
(3) OR (4), NAND
93. Assertion (A) : Self-inductance is called the
electromagnetic inertia
(1) 1+ (2)
mV, mV, Reason (R) : Self- inductance is the phe
nomenon, according to which
(3) , (4) Af an opposing induced emf is
88. The recoil speed of hydrogen atom after it produced in a coil as a result
emits aphoton in going fromn=5 state to n of time rate change in mag
netic flux linked in the coil.
=lstate
(1) 2.4ms (2) 4.18ms Inthe light of the above statements, choose
(3) 3.2ms-! (4) 6.4ms-! the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
89. A Hydrogen atom in groundstate absorbs a (1) (A)is not correct but (R) is correct
photon of energy 12.1 eV. It's orbital angular (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
momentum changes by AL, Then AL is equal
the correct explanation of (A)
to
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(1) 1.05x10 Js (2) 2.11x10*" Js not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) 3.16x10* Js (4) 4.22x10" Js (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
94. In the circuit shown in the figure neglecting | 100. Astep-up transformer is used to
source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter
(1) increase the current and incrcase the
reading willrespectively be voltage
(2) decrcase the current and increase the
voltage
R=309 X=250
H (3) increase the current and decrease the
Xç-259 voltage
A
(4) decrease the current and decrease the
240 V voltage
(1) 0V,3 A (2) 150 V,3A BOTANY
(3) 150 V, 8 A (4) 0V,8 A
95. The rms current in an ACcircuit is 2 A. If the SECTION-A
wattles current be V3A What is the power 101. Which one among the following is a defining
factor?
feature of all living beings ?
(1) Growth (2) Reproduction
1
(1) (2) (4) (3) Metabolism (4) Selfconsciousness
3
96: One mole of an ideal gas
expands with 102. Which of the following is not a main criteria
for classification used by Whittaker?
temperature accordingtothe relation V= kT*° (1) Cell structure
The work done when the temperature
by 30°c changes (2) Mode of nutrition
(1) 10 R (2) 20 R
(3) Body organization
(3) 30 R (4) Cell membrane
(4) 40 R
103. Match List-I with List-II.
97. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared,
microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is List-I List-II
(1) Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared,
microwaves a) Archaebacteria i) Most abundant
(2) Microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, bacteria
ultraviolet b) Chemosynthetic ii) Heterocystous
(3) Infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma bacteria bacteria
rays c) Cyanobacteria iii) Oxidation of
(4) Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma various inorgan
icsubstances
rays
d) Heterotrophic iv) Bacteria that
98. Awave travelling in the +ve x-direction having bacteria live in harsh
maximum displacement along y-direction as conditions
Im, wavelength 2n mand frequency of - Hz (a) (6) (o) (d)
is represented by (1) () (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) y= sin(10x-20nt) (2) (iv) (ii) (i) ()
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (i)
(2) y=sin(2nx +2nt) (4) (iv) (ü) () (ii)
(3) y= sin(x-2r) 104. CJD in humans is caused by
(4) y= sin(2rx -2nt) (1) Viruses
99. The phase difference between acceleration and (2) Viroids
velocity of a particle executing S.H.M is (3) Prions
(1) 90° (2) 0° (3) J80° (4) 60° (4) Mycoplasma
 hromMOsome taxonomy is based () Both statement I and staterment Il are
hehiour?
numbers, structure and correct.
(2) Both statement Iand statement II are
Numerical Taxonomy incorrect.
Cytotaxonomy (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Chemotaxonomy incorrect.
Adansonian taxonomy (4) Statement Iis incorrect but statement II
is correct.
Hdrvcolloidsalgin and carrageen are
obtained 111. Match List-I with List-II.
(rom
) Brownalgae List-I List-1I
(2) Redalgae a) Zygomorphic i) Datura

(3) Red brown algae

and
Brown and red algae
respectively b) Actinomorphic ii) Cassia
respectively c) Epigynous ii) Peach
07.Inwhich of the following group sporophyte is
t free living but attached to photosynthetic iv) Ray florets of
gametophyte? d) Perigynous
sunflower
(1) Bryophytes
(a) (6) () ()
2) Pteridophytes
(1) (i) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) Gymnosperms
(2) (ii) () (ii) (iv)
(4) Angiosperms
(3) (ii) (1) (iv) (ii)
108. Select the incorrect match. (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) Unbranched stem-Cycas
112. Which of thefollowing is an endospermic seed?
(2) Needle like leaves -Ginkgo (2) Gram
(1) Bean
(3) Mycorrhiza association -Pinus (4) Castor
(3) Pea
(4) Tallest gymnosperm - Sequoia
113. Which of the following is primary meristem?
109. How many of the given is/are main (primary)
functions of root? (a) Apical meristem
(i) Absorption of water and minerals (b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Cork cambium
(i) Nitrogen fixation
(d) Inter fascicular cambium
(üm) Proper anchorage to plant
(1) a and d only (2) b and c only
(iv) Storing reserve food material
(3) canddonly (4) a and b only
(v) Synthesis of growth regulators
(1) Two 114. Which of the following option represent the
correct statements?
(2) Three
(3) Four
() Collenchyma provides mechanical support
to the growing parts of plants
(4) Five
(ii) Sclerenchyma provide support toorgans
110. Given below are two statements. (iii) Mature tracheids and vessels both are
Statement-I : In flowers of lily the calyx and devoid of cell wall.
corolla are not distinct. (iv) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and
thin walled which is made up of cellulose
Statement-II: In cymose type of inflorescence
the main axis terminates in a (1) I, II, II&IV
flower. (2) I, II&IV only
In light of the above statements, choose the (3) I, II &IV only
Correct answer from the options given below. (4) I, II &III only
 na
15.Which of the following is non membrane | 122. Cell cycle includes a series of events
bound organelle found in both prokaryotes & (1) Duplication of it's genome
eukaryotes ? (ii) Synthesis of other cell constituents
(1) Centriole (ii) Division of cytoplasm & othe
constituents
(2) Microtubules
(3) Ribosomes (1) 1&II only (2) II&III onl
(3) I, I1 &III (4) I& III only
(4) Nucleolus
123. Mphase starts with and usually end
116. Select the correct match
(1) Phycomycetes -Claviceps, Aspergillus (1) DNA replication, protein synthesis
(2) Ascomycetes Albugo, Mucor, Rhizopus (2) DNA replication, separation of dau
(3) Basidiomycetes - Ustilago, Puccinia, chromosomes
Puffballs (3) Separation of daughter
(4) Deuteromycetes - Morels, Truffles chromosomes, reorganization of nu
membrane
117. Which of the following act as hydrogen carrier (4) Chromosome material becomes unta
in photosynthetic ETS? division of cytoplasm
(1) PC (2) PQ
124. G, Phase corresponds to the interval bet
(3) Cyt b6/f (4) Fd (1) G,& S-phase
118. How many ATP and NADPH are required (2) Mitosis &Sphase
(3) Mitosis & G, phase
respectively during C, pathway to reduce one (4) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
CO, molecule? 125. Which ofthefollowing inflorescence is co
(2) 12, 18 among members of Asteraceae?
(1) 18, 12
(1) Head
(3) 3,2 (4) 2,3
(2) Spike of spikelets
119. Glycerol would enter the respiratory pathway (3) Hypanthodium
after being converted to (4) Spadix
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Pyruvate 126. Condensation of chromosome mater
(3) PGAL (4) NADH initiated in while get completed in
(1) Prophase, Metaphase
120. The presence of A, is reminiscent of antiquity
and the process of B represents the dominance (2) Prophase, Anaphase
of RNA world. (3) Interphase, Prophase
A B (4) Interphase, Metaphase
Exons Replication 127. Match the column
(1)
Column-I Column-II
(2) Introns Transcription
(3) Introns Splicing a Auxins i) Terpene
compounds
(4) Mutons Splicing b) Gibberellins ii) Adenine
121. Select the incorrect match. derivatives
ii) Indole
(1) Ingenhousz -Sunlight is essential to plant c) Cytokinins
process that purify the air d) Abscisic acid
Compound
iv) Carotenoid
(2) J.V.Sachs -Provided evidence for produc derivatives
tion of glucose when plants grow
(a) (b) (c) ()
(3) C.VNiel - 2H,A +CO,2A (1) (ii) (iv) (ii) (i)
+CH,0+H,0 (2) (ii) (iv) (1) ()
(3) (ii) () (i) (iv)
(4) T.W.Engelmann - Absorption spectrum
of photosynthetic pigments (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (i)
 t the incorrect match
Auxin Root initiation on stem T33. Experimental verification of chromosomal
cuttings theory of inheritance was done by
Gibberellins Delay
Cytokinins -
senescence of fruits (1) Sutton & Boveri
-Overcome apical
Ethylene Promotion of seeddominance
(2) Sturtevant
and bud (3) T.HMorgan
dormancy
How many (4) Bateson
microsporangia are seen in atypical
angiospermic dithecous anther ? 134. In Eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II is responsible
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1 for synthesis of
130. Giv below are two statements. One is labelled (1) r-RNA
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled Reason (2) hn-RNA
(R). (3) -RNA
Asertion (A) :Flowering plants have devel (4) sn-RNA
oped many devices to discour 135. Select the incorrect match
age self- pollination and to
encourage cross pollination. (1) DNA replication - DNAdependent DNA
Reason (R): Autogamy is true cross polli polymerase
RNA
nation.
(2) Transcription - RNA dependent
In light of the above statements, choose the polymerase
correct answer from the options given below. (3) Teminism - RNA dependent DNA
(1) BothA and Rare true and Ris the correct polymerase
explanation of A. (4) Translation - Peptidyl transferase
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. SECTION- B
(3) Ais true but Ris false. 136. Given below are two statements.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. Statement-I : High temperature preserves
131 What is the function of tassels in corn cob? the enzyme in a temporarily
(1) To protect seeds inactive state whereas low tem
(2) To attract insects perature destroys enzymatic
(3) To trap pollen grains activity
(4) To disperse pollen grains Statement-II: When the inhibitor closely
resembles the substrate in it's
132. Select the correct genetic phenomenon for
given condition molecular formula and inhib
its the activity of enzyme,it is
(A) Expression of only one of the Parental called competitive inhibitor
trait in F
(B) Expression of both of the parental trait In light of the above statements, choose the
in E correct answer from the options given below.
(C) Expression of intermediate phenotype of (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
both parental traits in F (2) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
A B (3) Both StatementIand Statement II are
(1) Do mi Incomplete Codoninande false.
nance dominance (4) Staterment I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Epistasis Incomplete Codominande 137. Select the incorrect match.
dominance
(1) Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
(3) Do mi Codominance Incomplete (2) Trichoderma polysporum -Cyclosporin.A
nance
dominance
(3) Monascus purpureus - Streptokinase
(4) Epistasis Pleiotropy Multiple
allelism
(4) Propionibacterium -Swiss cheese
 Assertion
(R).
(A)and the other is
labelled Reason through 3'’s' phosphodi
ester linkage to from a dinu
Assertion (A): The technique of genetic en cleotide.
gineering/recombinant DNA Statement-II: The plane of one base pair
technology helps to overcome stacks over the other in double
limitations of traditional hy helix, confers stability to the
bridisation procedures. helical structure.
Reason (R) :
Genetic engineering does (1) Both StatementI and Statement II are true
not allow transfer genes
of (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
between prokaryotes and (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
eukaryotes.
In light of the above
false.
statements, choose the (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Aand Rare true and Ris the 146. Activity of an enzymecan be affected by a
correct change in the conditions which can alter
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the (1) Nature of enzyme
correct explanation of A. (2) Secondary structure
(3) A is true butR is false (3) Tertiary structure
(4) Both (A)and (R) are false (4) Quaternary structure
139. Which of the following restriction site not 147. (1) Haem is the cofactor of peroxidase
present in pBR322 cloning vector? (n) Haem is the prosthetic group of peroxidase
(1) PvuI (2) Hind II (In) Haem is the cofactor of catalase that
(3) Bam HI (4) Sal I
140. Bt cotton is hydrolyses H,0, into H,0 &Oxygen
(iv) Haem is the prosthetic group of catalase
(1) Insect resistant plant and catalyse the breakdown of H,0, to
(2) Insecticide resistant plant H,0&Oxygen
(3) Weedicide Select the combination of correct statements.
(4) Biofertilizer (1) II &IV (2) I& III
141. RNA interference is a process or method of (3) I,III &IV (4) I, II, III&IV
(1) Gene therapy (2) Gene cloning 148, Given below are two statements
(3) Gene silencing (4) Genearmplification Statement-I : The essential chemical com
142. Use of bioresources by multinational companies ponents of many coenzymes
without proper authorization, is known as are vitamins.
(1) Biopatent (2) Bioethics Statement-II: Metal ions form coordination
(3) Biopiracy (4) Bio-smuggling bonds with side chains at
the active site and at the
143. Which of the following is not a cofactor of same time form one or more
enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? coordination bonds with the
(1) NAD" (2) CoA substrate
(3) Mg (4) Haem In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
144. How many laws of inheritan ce Mendel
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
proposed/ suggested based on monohybrid
cross? (2) Statement I is truebut Statement II is false
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Two false.
(4) One
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
 which of the following
phase proteins are
149,In (1) Macropus (2) Pteropus
thesised in preparation for mitosis while (3) Corvus (4) Exocoetus
cellgrowth continues ? 154. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) G (2) S (3) G, (4) G
List I List II
150. How many are associated with G, stage? (A) Cerebral hemi- (1) Pneumotaxic
spheres centre
() Exit of G, phase (B) Pons (I1) Limbic system
() Metabolically active
(C) Hippocampus (II) Corpus callo
() No longer proliferation Sum

(v) Suspended stage of cell cyce (D) Hypothalamus (IV) Secretes neu
(1) I&l only rohormones

(2) II,III&IV only (A) (B) (C) (D)

(3) I, II,& IIIonly (1) III IV II

(4) I, II, III,& IV (2) III IV I II

(3) III I IV
Z00LOGY (4) III IV I

Section-A 155. Comb plates are found in

151.Which of the following is not correct regarding (1) Chaetopleura

sexual dimorphism in animals?
(1) Male stingrays have pelvic claspers
(2) Male frogs have vocal sacs
(3) Male cockroaches have anal styles 156. Assertion (A): Oxygen dissociation curve
(4) Male roundworms are longer than fermales
152.Given below are two statements.
Statement-I: Darwin called minor heritable
variations as saltations.
Statement-II: Darwin believed that adaptive
ability is due to the inheritance
of acquired characters.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement IIis true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
153. Identify the animal based on the characters
given below.
(A) Forelimbs adapted for flying
(B) Four-chambered heart
(C) Body covered by hair
(D) Viviparity
The aboye characters are seen in
(2) Limulus
(3) Chelone
(4) Pleurobrachia
shifts to left at tissues.
Reason (R): High H'and low pO;at body
tissues reduce the affinity of
0, with haemoglobin.
(1) Both A andR are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true butR is false
(3) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) A is false but R is true
157. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I: Corpus luteum is maintained
by the hormone LH.
Statement-II: Ovary secretes estrogen, pro
gesterone and relaxin,
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement Iand Statement II are
true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
158. Given below are two (1) 25000 species of plants contribute to
statements.
traditional medicines
Statement-I: The second meiotic division (2) Humans derive economicbenefits through
in the secondary oocyte is
completed after the fusion of bioprospecting
male and female pronuclei. (3) Watching spring flowers in full boom
Statement-1I: Sex of human baby is deter (4) Agriculture and apiculture practices for
food
mined by the sperm of father.
In light of the above statements. choose the 162. The Bidder's canal of male frog
correct answer from the options given below. (1) is located in the testes
(1) Both Statement Iand Statement Il are (2) carries urine and sperms
true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) directly opens into cloaca
(4) communicates with urinogenital duct
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are 163. Given below are two statements.
false. Statement-I : Nodal tissue of the human
159. Which of the following statements is true heart is specialised cardiac
musculature.
regarding haemoglobin in humans?
(1) It is an iron-containing protein. Statement-II: The number of action potentials
generated per minute does not
(2) It transports CO,in the form of carbonic vary at different parts of nodal
acid.
tissue.
(3) It is 12-16 mg/100ml in a healthy human
In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Its ßchain synthesis is regulated by a gene correct answer from the options given below.
on 16th chromosome.
(1) Both StatementI and Statement II are
160. Match List I with List II and choose the correct true
option. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
List I List II (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(A) Bronchioles (I) Ciliated epithe (4) Both Statenment I and Statement II are
lium false.
(B) Epiglottis (II) Squamous epi 164.Which of the following is correctly matched?
thelium (1) a-lactalbumin - Used in the treatment
(C) Alveoli (II) Striated muscle of emphysema
fibres
(2) HIV vaccine - Attenuated vaccine
(D) External (IV) Elastic cartilage produced from yeast
intercostal (3) Humulin - Recombinant therapeutic drug
muscles
for the treatment of diabetes mellitus
(E) Myometrium (V) Smooth muscle <<<a
fibres (4) PCR- Based on the principle of antigen
antibody interaction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) l65. Parturition is induced by acomplex neuroendo
(1) I .IV crine mechanisì involving cortisol, estrogens
(2) I IV II III and oxytocin. Cortisol is secreted by the
(3) II II IV (1) placenta
(4) I IV III II (2) ovary
(3) posterior pituitary
161. Which ofthefollowing is not a narrow utilitarian
argument for conserving biodiversity? (4) adrenal gland
 Which of the tollowing is not
combination? acorrect (3) It is due to a mutation of the HBB gene
of the 16h
Joint Feature chromosome.
(1) Fibrous Immovable Example
Cranial
(4) Qualitative problem ofsynthesis of ßchain
of globin.
joint
(2) Hinge sutures 171.Given below are two staternents.
Synovial Knee joint
joint fluid Statement-I: The Mediterranean orchid
(3) Carti Permits Ophrys employs 'sexual deceit'
Joints
laginous limited to get pollination done by a
joint between species of bee.
movements adjacent
vertebrae Statement-II: A given fig species can be
(4) Pivot Allows pollinated only by its'partner
joint
Joints be
movements tween skull wasp species and no other
and atlas species.
167. The majority of nephrons in the In light of the above statements, choose the
have human kidney correct ánswer from the options given below.
(1) short loops of Henle (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) highly developed vasa recta (2) Statement I is true butStatement IIis false
(3) long loops of Henle (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
(4) no peritubular capillary
network (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
168. Choose the correct set of statements related to true
predation.
172. Match list I with List II and choose correct
A. It is detrimental to both
species. option.
B It is aconduit for energy transfer in a food
chain. List I List II
C. It maintains species diversity by reducing (A) Charas (1) Erythroxylum coca
interspecific competition among prey (B) Crack (II) Papaver som
species. niferum
D. Herbivores, in a broad ecological context, (C) Reserpine (III) Cannabis sativa
are very different from predators. (D) Smack (IV) Raawolfia vomito
Chemical methods adopted in pest control ria
are based on predation. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) A, Bonly (2) D, E only (1) I II IV
(3) B, Conly (4) A, Conly (2) III IV
169. Which hormone of the pituitary regulates the (3) III I IV II
growth and secretion of milk in mammary (4) III I IV
glands? 173. Which of the following has myosin binding
(1) Prolactin site?
(2) Estrogen (1) Troponin (2) Dystrophin
(3) Progesterone (3) Actin (4) Tropomyosin
(4) Growth hormone 174. Which of the following assisted reproductive
170. Which of the following statements holds true technologies does not involve in vivo
for sickle cell anaemia but not for thalassemia? fertilisation?
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder. () ICSI (2) GIFT
(2) It reduces the rate of synthesis of a or B (3) Artificial insemination
 175. Choose the correct set of placentalmammals| 181. Expiratory capacity is
of Australia.
(1) the totalvolume of airaperson can expire
(1) Ant eater, numbat
after normal inspiration
(2) Lemur, flying squirrel
(2) volume of air that remains in the lungs
(3) Sugar glider, bandicoot after a normal expiration
(4) Bobcat, Tasmanian tiger cat
(3) maximum volume of air a person can
176. Which ofthe following is incorrect about the
scapula of the human skeleton? expire after aforced inspiration
(1) It is a dorsal, flat (4) volume of air in the lungs after forcible
thorax.
triangular bone in the expiration
(2) Its spine projects as acromion process. 182. In a person, the volume of bloodat the endof
(3) Its glenoid cavity articulates with the head ventricular systole is 60 mL, and the volume
of the humerus. of blood at the end of ventricular diastole is
(4) It is a part of the pelvic girdle. 10 mL. His heart rate is 80 beats per minute.
177. Which of the following is an alien species in Calculate the cardiac output.
Indian rivers that poses a threat to native fishes? (1) 4litres
(1) Nile perch (2) 5 litres
(2) Parthenium (3) 3.5 litres
(3) African catfish
(4) 5600 ml
(4) Eicchornia
183. Assertion (A): The efferent arteriole of human
178. Which ofthe following is asexually transmitted kidneys has lower levels of
infection that is curable if detected early? urea and glucose than the
(1) Hepatitis -B afferent arteriole.
(2) Genital herpes
(3) HIV infection
Reason (R): Peritubular capillaries arise
from efferent arteriole.
(4) Chlamydiasis
(1) Both A and Rare true and Ris the correct
179. A woman who carries the gene for haemophilia explanation of A
can transmit the recessive gene to
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(1) sons only correct explanation of A
(2) daughters only
(3) A is true but R is false
(3) both daughters and sons
(4) A is false but R is true
(4) all sons and few daughters
180. Which ofthe following statements are incorrect 184.The primary carnivores are
about antibodies? (1) primary consumers
A They are a type of proteins produced by (2) first trophic level organisms
T-lymphocytes. (3) secondary consumers
B They are involved in humoral inmunity. (4) second trophic level organisms
C. Thymosins stimulate their production.
D. IgA antibodies in colostrum provide T85. Which of the following is an approach for the
passive immunity to the newborn. conservation of threatened animals in their
E They are cytokine barriers. natural habitat without human interference?
(i) A, Eonly (1) Wildlife safari parks
(2) B, only (2) Zoological parks
(3) C, Donly (3) Cryopreservation techniques
(4) B, C, D (4) Wildlife sanctuaries
 Section-B 190. Assertion (^): Glucagon is a hyperglycemic
the contents of List I with List Il and hormone.
J86. MMatch
choose thc correct option. Reason (R): It stimulates the process of
List I List II glycogenolysis and glucone
(A) Anopheles (1) Radula ogenesis.
(B) ApBysia (1) Notochord in (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
larval tail correct explanation of A.
(C) Ascidia (11) Compound eyes, (2) A is true but R is false
antennae (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(D) Asterias (IV) Calcareous ossicles explanation of A.
(4) Ais false but R is true.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) III IV 191. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
(2) III IV option.
(3) I1 IV I II List I List II
(4) III IV I Mendelian
(A) Rheumatoid ()
187.Which of the following does not occur in the arthritis disorder
fallopian tube?
(B) Phenylketon- () Chromosomal
(1) Completion of second meiotic division uria disorder
in primary oocyte (C) Addison's (III) Autoimmune
(2) Fusion of sperm and ovum disease disorder
(3) Cleavage leading to the formation of
morula (D) Turner's syn- (IV) Hormonal
(4) Muscular movement for transport of drome disorder
gametes
188. Which of the following statementsare true (A) (B) (C) (D)
regarding the proximal convoluted tubule of (1) III IV
the human nephron? (2) III I IV
A. It is lined by columnar epithelium. (3) III IV I
B. It is situated in the medullary region of
(4) III IV
the kidney.
C. It secretes Hions into the filtrate. 192. Expressed sequence tags are
D. Conditional reabsorption of Na" aided by (1) all coding and non-coding sequences
aldosterone occurs in it.
(2) genes that are expressed as RNA
E 70 to 80% of water and electrolyte
reabsorption occur in it. (3) amino acid sequences of proteins
(1) C,E (4) repetitive DNA sequences
(2) A,C 193. Which of the following is the corectly matched
(3) B, D set regarding the partial pressure of0, and
(4) A, E Co,?
189. Ringworm infection is caused by (1) Dorsal aorta - pO,=95, pCO,=45
(1) Trichomonas (2) Pulmonary artery - p0,=95, pC0,=40
(2) Epidermophyton (3) Pulmonary vein - pO,=75,pCO,=45
(3) Mycobacterium (4) Systemic tissues - pO,=40, pCO,=45
(4) Psiolophyton
194. Given below are two statements. 197, Which of ihe following is not an autoimmune
disorder?
Statement-I : The death of organisms in
a trophic level marks the (1) Rheumatoid arthrilis
beginning of the detritus food (2) Grave's disease
chain. (3) Myasthenia gravis
Statement-II: Dead bionmass serves as an (4) Myotonic dystrophy
energysource for saprotrophs.198. Assertion(A): AJ-shaped population growth
In light of the above statements, choose the curve represents exponential
growth.
correct answer from the options given below.
Reason (R): The fitness ofa species in terms
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
of its 'r is significantly higher
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true in the presence of acompeting
(3) Both Statement Iand Statement are species.
true (1) Both A and Rare true and Ris the correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement explanation of A.
are
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
false.
correct explanation of A.
195. Choose the incorrect statement.
(3) Ais true but R is false
(1) The cranial capacity of the first human (4) A is false but R is true
like being, the hominid, is 650-800cc.
199, The cerebral aqueduct is found in
(2) Australopithecus lived in Near East and (1) midbrain
Central Asia.
(2) cerebrum
(3) Pre-historic cave art developed about (3) cerebellum
18000 years ago.
(4)' hypothalamus
(4) Neanderthal man used hides to
200. Match List I with List II andchoose the correct
protect their body and buried their dead.
option.
196.Glucocorticoids secreted by the adrenal cortex List I List II
are involved in
(A) Vaults (I Prevent entry of
A. gluconeogenesis sperms into cervix
B. reabsorption of Na' and watér (B) LNG - 20 (I) cervix hostile to
C. maintenance of cardiovascular sperms
(C) Oral pills (I) Prevent insemina
system tion
D. inflammatory reactions (D) Condoms (IV) Inhibit ovulation
Which of the above are correct?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) A, B
(1) III IV
(2) B,C (2) I IV
(3) A, C (3) I IV
(4) All are correct (4) I IV