English (1001CMD303029230079) *1001CMD303029230079* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 20-12-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,P,Q & MER

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single correct answer) from Chemistry, Physics and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
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(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to
185). All questions are compulsory.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : SYLLABUS-03

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 5. In the reaction 2SO3(g) → 2SO2(g) + O2(g) the

rate of appearance of O2 is 0.016 Kg.hr – 1. What
1. Statement-I :- Decomposition of gaseous ammonia is the rate of formation of SO2 in Kg.hr – 1 ?
on a hot platinum surface is a zero order reaction (1) 0.016 Kg.hr – 1
at high pressure.
Statement-II :- At high pressure, the metal surface (2) 0.001 Kg. hr – 1
gets saturated with gas molecules. (3) 0.032 Kg.hr – 1
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false (4) 0.064 Kg.hr – 1
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true 6. w
8% sucrose ( ) is isotonic with 5% nonvolatile
V
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true solid solute at 27°C calculate molar mass of solute ?
2. If fraction of active molecules in a chemical
reaction are 10 – 5, then calculate activation (1) 328 g (2) 213.75g
energy of this reaction at 27°C ? (3) 400 g (4) 200 g
(1) 28.72 kCal (2) 2.87 kCal
7. Assertion (A) : People taking a lot of salty food
(3) 6909 kCal (4) 6.909 kCal
experience the puffiness or swelling, called edema
3. How much mass of solute [molar mass = 30] is Reason (R) : There is water retention in tissue
required to dissolve in 100 g heptane to reduce
its vapour pressure to 70 % ? cells and inter cellular spaces because of osmosis.

(1) 14 g (2) 12.85 g (3) 10 g (4) 20 g (1) Both A and R are correct, R is the correct
explanation of A
4. Match the column
Column-I Column-II (2) Both A and R are correct, R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(A) Zero order (P)
(4) A is incorrect, R is correct
8. The experimental data for the reaction
2A + B2 → 2AB
(B) First order (Q) Initial rate
Experiment [A] [B2]
(mol L – 1S – 1)
I 0.50 0.5 1.6 × 10 – 4
(C) Second order (R) II 0.50 1.0 3.2 × 10 – 4
III 1.00 1.0 3.2 × 10 – 4
The rate law for reaction is :
(1) r = k [A]0 [B2]1
(D) Third order (S)
(2) r = k [A]1 [B2]1
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P (2) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P (3) r = k [A]2 [B2]1
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S (4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (4) r = k [A]1 [B2]0
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,P,Q & MER
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9. 2g NaOH is present in 300 mL aqueous solution 14. If O2 gas is bubbled through water at 303 K then
express its concentration in terms of percentage calculate millimoles of O2 which is dissolved in
strength ? 1 litre water. Assuming O2 exerts a partial
(1) 0.33 % (2) 0.55 % pressure of 0.832 bar & Henry constant of O2 is
46.82 Kilo bar?
(3) 0.66 % (4) 6.6 %
(1) 0.532 millimole (2) 0.32 millimole
10. In the formation of HBr from H2 and Br2 following
mechanism is observed : (3) 0.986 millimole (4) 0.62 millimole
I. Br2 ⇌ 2Br • (Equilibrium step) 15. Match the column
II. H2 + Br • → HBr + H • (Slow step) Column-I Column-II
III. H • + Br2 → HBr + H • (fast step) (Solute) (van't Hoff factor,i)
The rate law for the above reaction is :
AlCl3 if
(1) r = K'[H2] [Br2] (A) (P) i = 3.4
α = 0.8
(2) r = K'[H2] [Br2]1/2 BaCl2 if
1/2 (B) (Q) i = 2.8
(3) r = K'[H2] [Br2] α = 0.9
(4) r = K'[H2]1/2 [Br2]1/2 CH3COOH
11. When concentration of reactant becomes 0.25 M (C) dissolved (R) i = 3.8
from 0.5 M in a first order reaction in 10 sec. in benzene
then what is the half life of a reaction. K4[Fe(CN)6]
(D) (S) i<1
(1) 5 sec. (2) 15 sec. if α = 0.7

(3) 8 sec. (4) 10 sec. (1) A→P, B→Q,C→R,D→S

12. (2) A→Q, B→P,C→S,P→R
(3) A→P, B→Q,C→S,D→R
If concentration of (C) becomes double then what will
be the effect on rate of reaction while concentration of (4) A→R, B→S,C→P,D→Q
(A) and (B) remain constant ? 16. Choose the correct statement
(1) Becomes double (1) Aqueous solution of NH3 turns Blue litmus
(2) Remain same paper into Red.
(3) Becomes half (2) Ca3P2 + H2O → gas x gas x has Rotten egg
smell.
(4) Becomes four times
(3) Reactivity order White phosphorous > Red
13. Which of the following aqueous solution shows
phosphorous
maximum freezing point ?
(4) Among in N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 oxide, N2O5 is
(1) 0.1 M Na2SO4(aq.) known as mixed anhydride.
(2) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (aq.) 17. Select the Amphoteric oxide
(3) 0.1 M Urea (1) CO (2) SnO
(4) 0.1 M Alum (3) N2O3 (4) P2O5
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,P,Q & MER
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18. Predict the hydrolysis product of I-Cl molecule - 25. Assertion : Tungsten has a very high melting
(1) HOI, HCl (2) HI, HCl point.
Reason : Tungsten is a covalent compound.
(3) HI, HOCl (4) HOI, HOCl
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
19. Which of the following compound on heating is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
produce Nitrogen gas.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) (NH4)2SO4
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(2) (NH4)NO2
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both (2) & (3) 26. Magnetic moment 2.83 B.M. is given by which
20. Which among the following is the most reactive ? of the following ion ?
(1) I2 (2) IC ℓ (3) C ℓ 2 (4) Br2 (1) Ti+3 (2) Ni+2
21. Argon is used in arc welding because of its - (3) Cr+3 (4) Mn+2
(1) low reactivity with metal 27. How many Cr-O Bond length are same in
Na2CrO4 compound.
(2) ability to lower the melting point of metal
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) flammability
(3) 2 (4) 1
(4) high calorific value
28. Chemically 'Corrosive sublimate' is -
22. Double salt which has maximum water of crystallisation?
(1) ZnO (2) BaO
(1) Potash alum
(3) HgCl2 (4) Hg2Cl2
(2) Mohr Salt
29. The acidic solution of a salt produced a deep blue
(3) Carnallite
colour with starch iodide solution. The salt may be
(4) Potassium ferrocyanide
(1) chloride (2) nitrite
23. Compound which does not exist
(3) acetate (4) bromide
(1) CuI2
30. Nessler's reagent is
(2) KHCl2
(1) K2HgI4
(3) Cu(CN)2
(2) K2HgI4 + KOH
(4) All of these
(3) K2HgI2 + KOH
24. Which of the following is not optically active ?
(4) K2HgI4 + KI
(1) [Co(en)3]3+
31. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large
(2) [Co(OX)3]3 – volume of water the white turbidity produced in
(3) cis – [CoCl2 (en)2]+ (1) Bi(OH)3 (2) Bi2O3
(4) trans-[CoCl2 (en)2]+ (3) BiOCl (4) Bi2OCl3
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32. A mixture, on heating with concentration H2SO4 and 37. The rate of reaction increases by the increase of
MnO2, librates reddish brown vapour of temperature because
(1) Br2 (2) NO2 (1) Collision frequency is increased
(3) HBr (4) I2 (2) Energy of product decreases
33. At the occasion of marriage, the fire works are (3) Fraction of molecules possessing energy ≥
used, which of the following gives green flame ? ET (threshold energy) increases
(1) Ba (2) K (3) Be (4) Na (4) Mechanism of reaction is changed
34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? 38. Which of the following is correct for ideal solution ?
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ – Coloured , square planar (1) Δ G = ( – ), Δ S = ( – )
(2) [Fe(OX)3]3 – – Paramagnetic, show optical (2) Δ G = (+), Δ S = ( – )
isomerism (3) Δ G = ( – ), Δ S = (+)
(3) [AuCl4]¯ – Square planar, Diamagnetic (4) Δ G = 0, Δ S = 0
(4) [Ni(dmg)2] – Tetrahedral, Inter H-bonding
present
39. A gaseous reaction A(g)→B(g) + 1 C (g) shows
2
increase in pressure from 150 mm to 200 mm. in
35. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic
10 min. What is the rate of disappearance of A(g) ?
acid (EDTA) is :
(1) 20 mm. min – 1 (2) 10 mm. min – 1
(1) (3) 5 mm. min – 1 (4) 8 mm. min – 1
40. Normality and molarity of '15 V' H2O2 solution
respectively is :
(2)
(1) 1.33 N, 2.66 M (2) 1.33 M, 1.33 N
(3) 2.66 N, 1.33 M (4) 3.99 N, 1.33 M
(3)
41. Which of following has crown structure -
(1) White phosphorous (2) Rhombic Sulphur
(3) Graphite (4) Fullerene
(4)
42. Select the correct statement regarding
N(SiH3)3 compound.
(i) With respect to Nitrogen it is planar.
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) (ii) Both N and Si has same Hybridisation.
36. 78 g benzene with 23 g toluene forms an ideal (iii) It has P π -d π Bond.
solution calculate mole fraction of toluene in (iv) Bond angle is less than expected due to Back
vapour phase. Bonding.
If pobenzene = 700 mm, potoluene = 650 mm (1) only (i) and (ii) (2) only (i),(iii) & (iv)
(1) 0.18 (2) 0.82 (3) 0.52 (4) 0.23 (3) only (i),(iii) (4) only (iii) & (iv)
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43. Read the following statement 46. A salt gives violet vapours when treated with
concentration H2SO4, it contains
Statement - I : Complex salt is the type of molecular
(1) Cl¯
addition compound.
(2) I¯
Statement - II : Complex salt are unstable in aqueous
(3) Br¯
solution.
(4) NO−3
(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true
47. When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is
(2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false heated with concentrated H2SO4, orange red
(3) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is false vapours are obtained.These are of the compound :-
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true (1) chromous chloride
44. Column-I Column-II (2) chromyl chloride
(3) chromic chloride
(A) CO (P) Monodentate ligand
(4) chromic sulphate
(B) en (Q) Anionic ligand
48. Mark the compound which is soluble in hot water.
Form organo metallic (1) Lead chloride
(C) Gly (R)
compound with metal (2) Mercurous chloride
(D) Thiocyanato (S) Bidented ligand (3) Stronsium sulphate
(T) Neutral ligand (4) Silver chloride
49. Which of the following order is not correct ?
Select the correct option - (1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+>[Mn(CN)6]3 – >[V(CO)6]
spin magnetic moment
(1) A-P,R,T B-S,T C-Q,S D-P,Q
(2) [Co(CN)6]3 – >[Co(NH3)6]3+>[Co(H2O)6]3+
(2) A-P,R B-S,T C-Q,R,S D-P,Q,R Δ 0 value.
(3) A-P,R,T B-S,T C-Q,S D-P,Q,R,S (3) [Ni(CO)4]>[Co(CO)4] – >[Fe(CO)4]2 –
(4) A-R,T B-S,T C-Q,R,S D-P,Q M-C bond strength
45. The incorrect statement about Ni(CO)4 is : (4) [Ni(NH3)4]2+<[Ni(en)(NH3)2]2+< [Ni(en)2]2+
Thermodynamic stability
(1) The bond order of CO in the complex is
less than bond order of CO molecule 50. Which of the following property decreases on
moving from Ce to Lu ?
(2) The complex is diamagnetic and dsp2 hybridised
(1) Basic Nature of oxide
(3) The bond order of Ni-C bond is greater
than one. (2) Covalent character of halide
(4) The complex cannot act as oxidizing or (3) Paramagnetism of trivalent ions.
reducing agent according to sidwick EAN rule. (4) complex formation tendency
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,P,Q & MER
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 English 7
Topic : SYLLABUS-03

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 56. A straight wire of length L is bent into semicircle. It

is moved in a uniform magnetic field with speed 'v'
51. In the given figure if i1 = 3 sin ω t and with diameter perpendicular to the field. The
i2 = 4 cos ω t, then i3 is induced emf between the ends of the wire is :-

(1) 5 sin ( ω t +53°) (2) 5 sin ( ω t + 37°) (1) BLv (2) 2 BLv
(3) 5 sin ( ω t + 45°) (4) 5 cos ( ω t + 53°) 2BvL
(3) 2 π BLv (4)
52. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the π
terminals of a resistance & current will be – 57. If a bar magnet is dropped vertically into a, long
copper tube then its final acceleration will be:-
(1) a = g (2) a > g (3) a < g (4) a = 0
58. The magnetic energy stored in a long solenoid of
area of cross section A and length L is :-
B2 B
(1) 400V, 2A (2) 800V, 2A (1) (2)
2 μ 20 2μ0
(3) 100V, 2A (4) 100V, 4A 1 B2 AL
(3) μ 0 B2 (4)
53. Power dissipated in pure inductance will be : 2 2μ0

LI 2 LI 2
59. Pure inductors each of inductance 3 H are connected
(1) (2) 2LI2 (3) (4) Zero as shown. The equivalent inductance of the circuit is :-
2 4
54. The voltage of AC source varies with time
according to the equation
V = 240 sin 100 π t cos 100 π t, where t is in sec
(1) peak voltage of AC is 240 V (1) 1H (2) 2H (3) 3H (4) 9H
(2) peak voltage of AC is 120 V 60. The energy of infrared waves is greater than that of :-
(3) peak voltage of AC is 180 V (1) Visible light (2) Ultraviolet waves
(4) frequency of AC is 50 Hz (3) X-Rays (4) Microwaves
55. The impendence of an AC circuit is Z = 100 Ω and 61. The range of wavelength of the visible light is :-
phase angle is 30°, the resistance of the circuit is :- (1) 10 Å to 100 Å
(1) 100 ohm (2) 50 ohm (2) 4000 Å to 8000 Å
100 (3) 8000 Å to 10,000 Å
(3) ohm (4) 50√3 ohm
√ 3 (4) 10,000 Å to 15,000 Å
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,P,Q & MER
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62. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic 67. If the electrical potential V in space as a function
wave is nature :- 1 1 1
of co-ordinates is given by V = + + ,
x y z
(1) X-rays (2) Gamma rays then find the electric field intensity at (1, 1, 1).
(3) Cathode rays (4) Infrared rays (1) ^ ^
i + ^j + k (2) ^
2i^ + ^j + 2k
63. The dielectric constant of air is 1.006. The speed of (3) ^ ^ ^
(4) None of these
i −j −k
electromagnetic wave travelling in air is a × 108 m/s,
where a is about :- 68. Temperature coefficient of resistance ( α ) is positive
(1) 3 (2) 3.88 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.2 for :-
(1) Conductors (2) Insulators
64. Assertion : If we see along the axis of a charged
ring, the magnitude of Electric field is minimum (3) Semiconductors (4) All of the above
at centre and magnitude of electric potential is 69. Wires of nichrome and copper of equal length are
maximum. connected in series in an electrical circuit, then :-
Reason : Electric field is a vector quantity while
electric potential is scalar (1) More current will flow in copper wire

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason correctly explains Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not correct explaination of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
65. Q1
Find the value of by looking at the various
Q2
electric lines of forces between charges Q1 and Q2
(2) More current will flow in nichrome wire
(3) Copper wire will get more heated
(4) Both wire will have same current
70. 100 watt and 220 volt is marked on a bulb. Its
resistance is :-
(1) 484 Ω (2) 100 Ω (3) 220 Ω (4) 48 Ω
71. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance
between A and B will be –

(1) 15 R (2) 2 R (3) R (4) 13 R

(1) – 2.5 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1 72. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled
from room temperature to 40K the resistance of :-
66. In the region where electric field is zero, the relation
between electric potential V and distance r is (1) Each of them decrease
1 (2) Each of them increase
(1) V ∝ r (2) V ∝
r
2
(3) Copper increases and germanium decreases
(3) V ∝ r (4) V = Constant
(4) Copper decreases and germanium increases
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73. The amount of charge passed in time 't' through a 78. There are two identical spherical conductors,
cross – section of a wire is each having capacitance 'C', placed at very large
Q(t) = At2 + Bt + C separation as compared to their radius. The
Then correct statements are, capacitance of the combination so formed is :-
The unit of :-
C
(a) A is ampere sec. (b) A is ampere sec – 1 (1) 2C (2) (3) C (4) ∞
2
(c) B is ampere (d) C is ampere sec.
79. Magnetic field due to a long copper wire at
(1) a, c, d (2) a
distance R from the axis of the wire is B then
(3) b, c, d (4) Only c, d 5
magnetic field at distance 5R from axis due to
74. In ohm's law experiment following observations this wire will be (R is the radius of the wire)
are obtained B B
(1) 25 B (2) (3) B (4)
Potential difference (involt) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2 25 5
Current (in amp.) 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 80. A horizontal overhead powerline carries a current
100 A in south to North direction, then magnetic
What will be the current when potential difference
field at distance 20 cm. Just above the line will be
is 0.75V
(1) 10 – 3 T, towards East
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.3 A (3) 0.6 A (4) 0.8 A
(2) 10 – 4 T, towards West
75. The balance point in the meter Bridge is obtained
(3) 10 – 3 T, towards West
(1) Extreme left of wire
(4) 10 – 4 T, towards East
(2) Extreme Right of wire
81. A circular coil of radius 3.2 cm is having 100 turns
(3) At any point of wire
carrying current 2A. A proton moving with the
(4) At the mid point of wire speed 105 m/s along the axis of the coil, then
76. The point to be kept in mind for verification of magnetic force on the proton when it arrives at the
ohm's Law centre of the coil is
(1) Ammeter and voltmeter should be connected (1) π × 10 – 17 N
in series
(2) π × 10 – 16 N
(2) Ammeter should be connected in series and
voltmeter in parallel (3) π × 10 – 14 N
(3) Ammeter should be connected in parallel (4) zero
and voltmeter in series 82. A proton, deutron and alpha particle are moving
(4) None of the above with same kinetic energy enters in a magnetic
field B perpendicularly. Then for which particle
77. Ohm's law applicable for time period of the circular path will be minimum :
(1) non-metal (1) proton
(2) non-linear component (2) deutron
(3) metal conductor (3) alpha
(4) Zener diode (4) same for all
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83. A thin bar magnet of magnetic moment M is 89. Match the following two columns :-
bent to form 'L' shape from mid point then its Column-I Column-II
new magnetic moment will be
ELECTRIC
M (a) (p) MLT – 3A – 1
(1) M (2) POTENTIAL
√ 2
ELECTRIC
(3) M √2 (4) 2M (b) (q) ML3T – 3A – 1
FIELD
84. Magnetic moment of ferromagnetic material is ELECTRIC
(c) (r) ML2T – 3A – 1
(1) zero FLUX
(2) weak PERMITTIVITY
(d) OF FREE (s) None of these
(3) strong
SPACE
(4) may strong or weak
(1) a→r, b→p,c→q,d→s
85. Which of the following material has low retentivity
and low coercivity ? (2) a→r, b→q,c→s,d→p

(1) steel (2) soft iron (3) a→r, b→q,c→p,d→s

(3) Al Ni Co (4) Ti Co Na ℓ (4) a→p, b→q,c→r,d→s

90. A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and
SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )
charge +q has length ℓ . It is placed in downward
86. The root mean square value of an alternating vertical electric field. The time period of small
source of emf e = e1sin ω t + e2cos ω t is :- oscillation is

e1 e2 e21 + e22
(1) √ (2) √

2
e21 − e22
(3) √ (4) √ e21 + e22
2
87. A direct current of 2 A and an alternating current
having a maximum value of 2A flow through
two identical resistances. The ratio of heat ℓ ℓ
produced in the two resistances will be : (1) equal to 2 π √ (2) greater than 2 π √

g g
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 ℓ
(3) less than 2 π √ (4) not defined
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 g
91. Four charges equal to – Q are placed at the four
88. If the coefficient of mutual induction of the
primary and secondary coils of an induction coil is corners of a square and a charge q at a centre. If
5 H and a current of 10 A is cut off in 5 × 10 – 4 s, the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is
the emf induced (in volt) in the secondary coil is :- Q Q
(1) − (1 + 2√2) (2) (1 + 2√2)
4 4
(1) 5 × 104 (2) 1 × 105
Q Q
(3) − (1 + 2√2) (4) (1 + 2√2)
(3) 25 × 105 (4) 5 × 106 2 2

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92. You have 40 identical cells, each of internal 97. In a RC circuit, the time required for the charge
resistance r. In order to obtain large current in a very on a capacitor to build up to a given fraction of
high resistance R ( R >> r), which combination is its steady state value is independent of :-
preferable
(1) Series (2) Parallel (1) The value of the applied emf to the circuit.
(3) Mixed (4) Any of them (2) The value of C.
93. In an experiment to determine the resistance of (3) The value of R.
galvanometer by half deflection method the
(4) None of these
circuit shown is used. If R = 10 Ω , S=4 Ω then
resistance of Galvanometer is - 98. Assertion : Magnetic force on current carrying
loop in uniform magnetic field is zero.
Reason : Magnetic field never exert force on
current carrying loop.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

20 40 50 70
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3 (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
94. A 800 μ F capacitor is charged at a constant rate (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
of 50 × 10 – 6 A. The time after which the voltage Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
across the capacitor become 10 V.
99. Match the column quantities in column-I with their
(1) 160 S (2) 50 S (3) 10 S (4) 500 S units in column-II.
95. Seven capacitors each of capacitance 2 μ F are to Column-I Column-II
be connected to obtain a capacitance 10 μ F. (i) Magnetic field (a) Henry/meter
11
Which of the following combination is possible ? (ii) Magnetic permeability (b) A/m
(1) 5 in parallel 2 in series. (iii) Magnetising intensity (c) Henry
(2) 4 in parallel 3 in series. (iv) Self inductance (d) Weber/m2
(3) 3 in parallel 4 in series
(1) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c
(4) 2 in parallel 5 in series.
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
96. Consider the RC circuit shown below what (3) (i)-b,d, (ii)-a, (iii)-a, (iv)-a
combination of values R and C will result in the (4) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
slowest rate of capacitor discharge when switch
'S' is closed ? 100. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns
and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is
suspended vertically and the normal to the
plane of the coil makes an angle of 30º with the
direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field
of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of
torque experienced by the coil?
(1) 10 Ω & 50 μ F (2) 100 Ω & 5 μ F (1) 0.24 N-m (2) 0.48 N-m
(3) 10 Ω & 5 μ F (4) 100 Ω & 50 μ F (3) 0.60 N-m (4) 0.96 N-m
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Topic : SYLLABUS-03

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 106. True fertilization leads to the formation of :

(1) Primary
101. Match the column – I with column – II and select (2) Zygote
endosperm nucleus
the correct option from option given below :
(3) Secondary nucleus (4) Endosperm
Column – I Column – II
107. The ______ cell of pollen grain divides and
Region of ovule fuses
(A) Funicle (I) forms the two male gametes :
with funicle
(1) Vegetative (2) Generative
One or two protective
(B) Hilum (II) (3) Central (4) Archesporial cell
layer of ovule
(C) Integument (III) Stalk of ovule 108. Endosperm is completely consumed by developing
embryo before seed maturation in :
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III (2) A – II, B – I, C – III
(1) Pea, groundnut (2) Coconut, castor
(3) A – III, B – I, C – II (4) A – III, B – II, C – I
(3) Maize, wheat (4) Coconut, wheat
102. In flowering plant, a mature male gametophyte
is derived from a pollen mother cell by - 109. Assertion (A) :- The flowers have to provide
different floral rewards to pollinator.
(1) Three meiotic division Reason (R) :- Nectar, pollengrains and providing
(2) One meiotic and two mitotic division safe place for laying egg are floral rewards.
(3) Two meiotic division (1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) explain (A).
(4) One meiotic division (2) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) does not
103. Which of the following statement is correct? explain (A).

(1) Typical angiospermic anther is monothecous (3) (A) is true while (R) is false.

(2) Typical angiospermic anther is tetrasporangiate (4) (A) & (R) both are false.

(3) Typical angiospermic anther is bisporangiate 110. A group of individual of same species living at
one place constitute a _________?
(4) Ovule is also known as microsporangium
(1) Community (2) Biome
104. Which of the following is not a pre–fertilization event ?
(3) Population (4) Biosphere
(1) Development of male gametophyte
111. How many character given below are functional?
(2) Development of female gametophyte (Stratification, Energy flow, Species diversity,
(3) Formation of primary endosperm nucleus Dominance, Nutrient Cycling)
(4) Dehiscence of anther (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
105. Maize, Sugarcane, Vallisneria, Yucca and Orchid. 112. In a pond there are 25 lotus plant last year and
How many plants shows wind pollination ? through reproduction 8 new plants are added.
Calculate the birthrate (per lotus per year)?
(1) Two (2) Four
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.5
(3) Five (4) Three
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113. 118. Logistic growth curve is represented by
dN
(1) = rN
dt
dN K−N
(2) = rN ( )
dt K

(3) Nt = N0 + B + I − D − E

dN N
(4) =1−
Above diagram represent population density. dt K
Identify A and B ? 119. The amount of nutrients such as carbon,
(1) A-Mortality, B-Natality nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium etc. present in the
(2) A-Natality, B-Mortality soil at any given time is referred to as ______
(3) A-Immigration, B-Emigration (1) Standing crop
(4) A-Emigration, B-Immigration (2) Standing state
114. Which one of the following is not a example of (3) Nutrient immobilisation
commensalism? (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Clown fish and sea anemone 120. The second trophic level in a lake is :-
(2) Ticks and dogs (1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton
(3) Barnacles and whale
(3) Decomposers (4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) Cattle egret bird and cattle
115. How many examples in the given list below are 121. Which of the following statements about
of competition ? productivity is correct ?
Flamingo and fish, Cattle egret bird and cattle, (1) Primary productivity of all ecosystem is a constant
Lice on Human, Fig tree and wasp. (2) NPP is the amount of biomasss available
(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Four for consumption by carnivores only
116. Read the following statements : (3) Primary productivity depends on the plant
(i) Biological control methods are based on the species inhabiting a particular area
ability of predator to control its prey population.
(ii) Endo parasite live inside the host body. (4) Secondary productivity is defined as the
(iii) In Mediterranean orchid, the flower petal rate of formation of new organic matter by
resembles the female bee. decomposers only
(iv) Co-evolution found between fig species and 122. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :-
wasp species.
How many of the above statements are correct ? (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
inverted as the biomass of fish far exceeds
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 that of phytoplanktons
117. A population has certain attributes that an (2) Pyramid of number and biomass may be
individual organism does not these are either upright or inverted
a. Birth rate b. Death rate
c. Sex ratio d. Age distribution (3) Pyramid of number is always upright in
grassland and pond ecosystem
(1) a & b (2) b and c
(4) Pyramid of energy is mostly upright but
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c and d sometimes it may be inverted
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123. Select correct statements :- 128. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Humification and mineralisation occur (1) The egg apparatus consists of two synergids
during decomposition and one egg cell.
(2) Decomposition is largely an oxygen (2) Filiform apparatus, play an important role
releasing process in guiding the pollen tube entry into embryosac
(3) The movement of energy is unidirectional (3) Three cells which are present at the
from higher trophic level toward the lower chalazal end are called antipodals cells.
trophic level
(4) Polar nuclei are situated above the egg
(4) Detritivores break down detritus into smaller apparatus in central cell
particles by the process called as mineralisation
129. Which of the following sequence of development
124. Which of the following is the major cause of of embryo sac is correct ?
biodiversity loss ? (1) Nucellus → Embryosac → Megaspore
(1) Over-exploitation (2) Nucellus → Megaspore mother cell →
(2) Alien species invasion Megaspore → Embryo sac
(3) Co-extinction (3) Nucellus → Megaspore → Megaspore
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation mother cell → Embryo sac
125. Fill in the blank :- (4) Nucellus → Megagametophyte →
The ___'A'___ have a greater amphibian species Megaspore → Embryo sac
diversity than the ___'B'___ ? Find out 'A' & 'B' 130. In equation log S = log C + Z log A, Z stands for :
respectively.
(1) Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats (1) Regression coefficient (2) Slope of the line
(2) Southern Ghats, Northern Ghats (3) Y – intercept (4) 1 & 2 both
(3) Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats 131. What is so special about tropics that might
(4) Northern Ghats, Southern Ghats account for their greater biological diversity ?
126. Match the following columns : (1) Speciation is generally a function of time.
Column-I Column-II
(2) Tropical environments are more constant
A Genetic diversity (i) Single community level and predictable.
B Species diversity (ii) Gene level (3) More solar energy available in the tropics
Ecological All level of Biological (4) All of the above
C (iii)
diversity organisation
132. Complete the following analogy given below
D Biodiversity (iv) Ecosystem level.
with respect to process of decomposition :-
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) Slower decomposition : Lignin and chitin in
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) detritus :: Faster decomposition : A
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (1) A – Nitrogen and sugar in detritus
127. Which one of the following invertebrates are the (2) A – Low temperature and soil moisture
most species-rich taxonomic group ? (3) A – Climatic condition
(1) Molluscs (2) Insects
(4) A – Cool and moist enviorment
(3) Crustaceans (4) Sponges
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133. Match the following columns :- SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
Column-I
Column-II
(Steps of
(Characteristic)
136. If the leaf cell has 8 chromosomes, then what is
decomposition) number of chromosome in pollen mother cell
Inorganic matter seep into and megaspore of this plant respectively ?
(A) Fragmentation (1)
soil horizon (1) 8, 8 (2) 8, 4 (3) 4,4 (4) 16,8
Release of inorganic nutrients 137. In grass embryo, epicotyl has a shoot apex and a
(B) Humification (2)
due to the action of microbes few leaf primodia which are covered by hollow
(C) Leaching (3)
Breakdown of detritus into foliar structure, which is called : –
smaller particles
(1) Scutellum (2) Aleuron layer
Nutrient rich dark coloured
(D) Mineraliztion (4) amorphous substance is (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Coleoptile
formed 138. Read the following statements ?
(i) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially
A B C D physiogical ecology.
(ii) Proto cooperation is also known as
(1) 4 3 1 2
nonobligatory mutualism.
(2) 3 4 1 2 (iii) Mutualism is obligatory relationship.
(3) 2 3 4 1 (iv) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful for its
predator because of a special chemical present in
(4) 3 1 4 2 its body.
134. Which one of the following interaction show a How many of the above statements are correct ?
common character that interacting species live (1) One (2) two (3) Three (4) Four
closely together?
139. After exponential increase population becomes
(1) Predation, Parasitism only stagnant the growth curve is -
(2) Predation, Commensalism only (1) J - shaped (2) S - Shaped
(3) Parasitism, Commensalism only (3) Fluctuating (4) Circular
(4) Predation, Parasitism, Commensalism 140. How many listed factors can affect the primary
productivity of an ecosystem ?
135. Match the column : (a) Environmental factors
Column-I Column-II (b) Nutrient availability
(a) Mycorrhiza (i) Proto-cooperation (c) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
(b) Epiphyte (ii) Mutualism (1) a, b (2) a, c (3) b, c (4) a, b, c
(c) Crocodile and birds (iii) Scavenger 141. Identify the incorrect statements from the following
(d) Vulture (iv) Commensalism (1) Phytoplanktons are the producers in the pond
Choose correct options below : (2) The energy present on a trophic level is
(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii) determined by species in that trophic level
(3) In an aquatic ecosystem, grazing food chain
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) is the major conduit for energy flow
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) (4) In terrestial ecosystem detritus food chain
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) is the major conduit for energy flow.
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142. Which one of the following chemical produced 148. Read the following statements and find out the
by Rauwolfia vomitoria plant : incorrect statements :-
(1) Serpentine (2) Withanine
(1) In a particular climatic condition, decomposition
(3) Reserpine (4) Saponin
rate is slower it detritus is rich in nitrogenous
143. India share the total global species diversity is?
and water soluble compounds like sugars
(1) 5% (2) 6% (3) 7% (4) 8%
(2) Warm and moist environment inhibit
144. Presence of more than one embryo in seed is
decompostion
known as :-
(1) Adventive embryony (2) Poly embryony (3) Rate of decomposition is slower it detritus
(3) Apomixis (4) Amphimix is rich in lignin and chitin

145. When the pollens of one flower falls on the stigma of (4) Both option (1) and (2)
another flower of same plant then genetically it is : 149. Assertion (A) : Size of population for any species
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Allogamy is not a static parameter.
(3) Autogamy (4) Xenogamy Reason (R) : It keeps changing in time depending
146. Fill in the blank :- on various factors.
According to ____'A'____ the total number of
(1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) explain (A).
described plant and animal species are shightly
more than ____'B'___ ? (2) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) does not
(1) (A)-IUCN, (B)-1.5 Billion explain (A).
(2) (A)-Robert May, (B)-1.5 Million (3) (A) is true while (R) is false.
(3) (A)-IUCN, (B)-1.5 Million (4) (A) & (R) both are false.
(4) (A)-Robert May, (B) 1.5 Billion 150. Match the following column I with column II :
147. Match the following columns : Column I Column II
Column-I Column-II
A (+), (+) i Predation
A India has world's land area (i) 8.1%
B India share global species diversity (ii) 2.4% B ( – ), ( – ) ii Amensalism
According to Robert May total C ( – ), (0) iii Mutualism
C (iii) 22%
species recorded
D Plant species recorded in India (iv) 45000
D (+), ( – ) iv Competition

(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
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Topic : SYLLABUS-03

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 155. Statement I : LH acts on the sertoli cells and

stimulates secretion of some factors which helps
151. Match the following columns and choose correct in the process of spermiogenesis.
options : Statement II : FSH acts at the leydig cells and
stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of
spermatogenesis.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
156. During human foetal development limbs are well
(2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i) developed by the end of
(3) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii) (1) 8 weeks (2) 10 weeks
(4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv) (3) 12 weeks (4) 4 weeks
152. Which statement is not correct ? 157. Follicles surrounded by more layers of granulosa
(1) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown cells and a new theca are called –
of endometrial lining (1) Primary follicles (2) Secondary follicles
(2) The secretion of LH and FSH increases (3) Tertiary follicles (4) Graffian follicles.
gradually during the follicular phase
158. How many mammary lobes are present in a
(3) During pregnancy all events of menstrual female ?
cycle stop.
(1) 15 – 20 (2) 250
(4) In the presence of fertilization, the corpus
luteum starts degenerating (3) 30 – 40 (4) 1 – 3
153. How many seminiferous tubules are there in 159. Which is not included in male sex accessory
each testicular lobule ? ducts ?
(1) 5-10 (2) 1-3 (1) Rete testis
(3) Always 1 (4) Always 3 (2) Epididymis
154. Which hormone is essential for maintenance of (3) Vas deferens
the endometrium during pregnancy ? (4) Seminiferous tubule
(1) ADH 160. Which is unpaired gland in male reproductive
(2) Estrogen system of human ?
(3) Progesterone (1) Bartholin gland (2) Seminal vesicle
(4) Relaxin (3) Prostate gland (4) Cowper's gland
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161. Assertion (A) : Testis is a primary reproductive 165. Identify the one of the following hormone which
organ. is secreted in female during pregnancy only -
Reason (R) : Testis is responsible for formation
of gamete and secretion of sex hormone. (1) Progesterone (2) hPL
(1) Both A/R are correct, R correctly explains A (3) Estrogen (4) All
(2) Both A/R are correct, R is not correctly explaining A 166. In which technique fertilisation occurs inside the
(3) A correct, R incorrect body of female ?
(4) A/R both incorrect (1) Z.I.F.T (2) I.U.T. (3) I.C.S.I (4) G.I.F.T

162. It is a diagrammatic view of male reproductive system, 167. Weekly pills for females are :-
choose the correct option about A, B, C and D. (1) Mala D (2) Mala N (3) Saheli (4) Gossypol
168. Identify the diagram given below :-

(1) Vasectomy (2) Oophrectomy

(3) Hysteractomy (4) Tubectomy
169. Which of the following method of contraception
is effective only upto a maximum period of six
163. Correctly matched pairs are :- months following parturition ?
(a) Sertoli cells – Produce sperms
(b) Seminal vesicle – Responsible for synthesis (1) LNG-20
of semen (2) Coitus interruptus
(c) Vasa efferentia – Open in epididymis
(d) Testicular lobules – About 250 in each testis (3) Lactational amenorrhoea
(1) a and b (2) a and c (4) CuT
(3) a, b and c (4) c and d 170. Match the column A with column B :
164. Choose that how many are correct among following Column-A Column-B
statements- (A) Barrier method (1) Vasectomy
(A) Seminal plasma with sperms is called semen.
(B) Male urethra is common passage for urine and (B) Oral pills (2) Condoms
semen. (C) IUD's (3) Prevents ovulation
(C) Presence or absence of hymen is reliable sign of
virginity of female. (D) Sterilisation (4) Cu-7
(D) For normal fertility of male at least 60% of
ejaculated sperms must have normal size and shape. (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
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171. Statement I : Reproductive and child health (RCH) 176. Assertion : Lichens can be used as pollution
care programmes creating awareness among people indicators
about various reproduction related aspects. Reason : Lichens will not grow in areas that are
Statement II : With the help of audio-visual and the pollution free
print media governmental and non-governmental (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
agencies have taken various steps to create reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
awareness among the peoples about reproduction.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason
(1) Both statements are correct is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Both statements are incorrect 177. Refer the given statements and select the correct
172. In the context of MTP, which of the following ones.
statement is incorrect ? (i) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms
in rocks.
(1) Medical termination of pregnancy during (ii) A study of fossils in different sedimentary
second trimester is generally safe. layers indicates the geological period in which
(2) MTP is an intentional or voluntary termination they live.
of pregnancy. (iii) Radio isotopes are often used to determine
the age of the fossils.
(3) Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed (iv) Study of fossils is called palaeontology.
in a year all over the world.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(4) MTP help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) only (i)
173. The first 'human being like' (hominid) creature was?
178. The big bang theory attempts to explain to us the
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Ramapithecus origin of ?
(3) Australopithecus (4) Homo habilis (1) Life (2) Universe
174. Fossil man having cranial capacity similar to that (3) 1st cellular form (4) 1st non-cellular form
of modern man was :
179. Who hunted with stone weapons but essentially
(1) Australopithecus (2) Java Man ate fruit ?
(3) Neanderthan Man (4) Homo habilis (1) Dryopithecus (2) Australopithecus
175. Which of the following is/are correct about (3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo erectus
Neanderthal man ?
A. They had brain capacity around 900cc. 180. Which of the following pair does not show convergent
B. They lived near east and central asia between evolution ?
10,00,000-40,000 year back (1) Anteater – Numbat
C. They used animal hides to protect their body
and burried their dead. (2) Lemur – Spotted cuscus
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) Flying squirrel – Flying phalanger
(3) Only C (4) Only A (4) Tasmanian tiger cat – Tasmanian wolf
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181. Analogus organ have :- SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )

(1) Same origin & same function
186. A diagram of human ovum is given below and
(2) Different origin & same function structures are labelled as A, B, C and D. Identify
(3) Same origin and different function the structure which is secreted by secondary oocyte
and choose the correct option about that structure.
(4) Different origin & different function
182. Agriculture came around how many years ago?
(1) 75,000
(2) 1,00,000
(3) 18,000
(4) 10,000
183. Which of the following is not true for Theory of
special creation ?
(1) B, Corona radiata which is a non cellular layer
(1) All living organisms we see today were
created as such (2) A, Zona pellucida which is a cellular layer
(2) Diversity was not the same since creation (3) C, Zona pellucida which is a non-cellular layer
(3) Diversity will remain same in the future (4) A, Zona pellucida which is a non-cellular layer
(4) The earth is about: 4000 years old 187. A sectional diagram of female pelvis showing
reproductive system is given below. Which of
184. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? the following is not part of external genitalia ?
(1) Before industrialisation more white winged
moths were present.
(2) After industrialisation more black winged
moths were present.
(3) Evolution is a directed process in the sense
of determinism. (1) H (2) I
(4) Evolution is a stochastic process. (3) J (4) A
185. Select the correct group/set of Australian 188. Which of the following hormones is/are not
Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation. secreted by placenta during pregnancy ?
hCG, hPL, estrogen, thyroxine, progesterone
(1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
(1) Estrogen and Progesterone
(2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(2) hCG and Thyroxine
(3) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(3) Thyroxine only
(4) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
(4) hPL and Estrogen
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189. How many of the following structure in the list 194. India was amongst the first country in the world
are not haploid ? to initiate action plans and programmes at a
Spermatid, sperm, Ovum, Primary Spermatocyte,
Oogonia, Spermatogonia, Polar body, Secondary national level to attain total reproductive health
spermatocyte, Primary oocyte. as a social goal. This programme named as ........
(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three was initiated in...........
190. How many of the following are secondary sex (1) RCH, 1997
organs in males ? (2) RCH, 1951
Uterus, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Prostate,
Fallopian tube, Seminal vesicle, Vagina, Testes, (3) Family planning, 1997
Bulbourethral glands (4) Family planning, 1951
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Four 195. Assertion : When we see stars, we apparently are
191. How many of the following structures will not be peeping into the past.
formed if reduction division does not occur during
Reason : The light emitted from stars started its
spermatogenesis ?
Spermatozoa, Spermatids, Spermatogonia, Primary journey millions of years back and from trillions
spermatocyte of kilometers away and reaching our eyes now.
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
192. Identify above contraceptive :- Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(1) Saheli (2) Injection
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) IUD (4) Implants
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
193. Consider the following statements given below and
choose the correct option :- 196. Statement-I : When mammals came down,
(A) Contraception pills include administration of reptiles took over the earth.
progesterone or progesterone–estrogen combinations.
(B) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is safe Statement-II : Mammals were viviparous and
during second trimester. protected their unborn young inside the mother's
(C) Ist 7 days after menstruation cycle and 7 days body.
before M.C. is called risk period.
(D) Intrauterine devices like Cu–T are effective (1) Statement I and II both are correct
contraceptives. (2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(1) B & D (2) A & D (3) Only Statement I is correct
(3) B & C (4) A, B & D (4) Only Statement II is correct
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197. 199.

How many statements is/are true for above diagram. Identify A, B, C, D :-

(1) In these animals, the same structure developed (1) A-Pelycosaurs, B-Thecodent,
along different direction due to adaptation to C-Dinosaurs, D-Mammals
different needs. (2) A-Therapsid, B-Sauropsid,
(2) These structure are homologous. C-Synapsid, D-Mammals
(3) These indicate common ancestory. (3) A-Therapsid, B-Synapsid,
(4) These structure show divergent evolution. C-Sauropsid, D-Mammals
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 (4) A-Pelycosaurs, B-Synapsid,
C-Sauropsid, D-Birds
198. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 200. The given diagram represents Miller's experiment.
matching. Choose the correct combination of labelling A, B and C.

(1) A - Electrodes, B – NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4,

(1) b-directional, a-disruptive, c-stabilising C -Vaccum pump
(2) b-directional, c-disruptive, a-stabilising (2) A – Electrodes, B – NH4 + H2 + CO2 + CH3,
C – Vaccum pump
(3) c-directional, b-disruptive, a-stabilising (3) A–Electrodes, B–NH4 + H2O, C–Vaccum pump
(4) a-directional, c-disruptive, b-stabilising (4) A – Electrodes, B – NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4,
C – Air pump
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