Fiitjee: JEE (Mains)

FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY &

MATHEMATICS Batches-CTY191 Re(A,
B) to P01, P02, ... (Phase-3)Q.P. CODE :
192001106 TEMPLATE CODE :
OJEMD180C01 SET-A
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
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3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct
response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question.
¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6
above.
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SECTION-1
PHYSICS
1. The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r to be a black hole is : (G = gravitational
constant and g = acceleration due to gravity at the surface of sphere)
(A) (2 Gm/r)1/2  c (B) (2 gm/r)1/2 = c (C) (2 Gm/r)1/2  c (D) (Gm/r)1/2  c
2. The largest and the shortest distances of the earth from the sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the
sun when it is at the perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit drawn from the sun, is :
r r rr 2r1r2 r r
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 2 (C) (D) 1 2
4 r1  r2 r1  r2 3
3. If the earth were to ceases rotating about its own axis. The increase in the value of g in CGS
system at a place of latitude of 45º, will be
(A) 2.68 (B) 1.69 (C) 3.36 (D) 0.34
4. A uniform pressure P is exerted on all sides of a solid cube. It is heated through t in order to bring
its volume back to the value it had before the application of pressure. Then :
P B B
(A) t  (B) t  (C) t  BP (D) t 
B P P
5. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod made of it suffers a longitudinal string of 2 × 10–
3
, what is the percentage increase in its volume ?
(A) 2 % (B) 4 % (C) 0 % (D) 5 %
6. A uniform plank of Young’s modulus Y is moved over a smooth horizontal surface by a constant
horizontal force F0 as shown in figure. The area of cross–section of the plank is A. The compressive
strain in the plank in the direction of the force is :
F0 2F0 F0 3F0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
AY AY 2AY AY
Space for Rough Work
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7. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + t, its moment of inertia increases from I to I
I
+ I. If  be the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod, then the value of is :
I
 t t
(A) 2 t (B)   t (C) (D)
2 
8. The gram specific heat of many solids at low temperatures varies with absolute temperature T
according to the relation S = AT3, where A is a constant. The heat energy required to raise the
temperature of a mass m of such a solid from T = 0 K to T = 20 K is :
(A) 4 × 104 mA (B) 2 × 103 mA (C) 8 × 106 mA (D) 2 × 106 mA
9. A black body is at a temperature of 2800 K. The energy of radiation emitted by this object with
wavelength between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U2 and between
1499 nm and 1500 nm is U3. The Wien’s constant b = 2.80 × 106 nm K. Then :
(A) U1 = 0 (B) U3 = 0 (C) U3 > U2 (D) U2 > U1
10. A planet is at an average distance d from the sun and planet’s average surface temperature is T.
Assume that the planet receives energy only from the sun and loses energy only through radiation
from its surface. Neglect atmospheric effects. If T  d–n, the value of n is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/4
11. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
Cp
temperature. The ratio of for the gas is :
Cv
5 3 4
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
3 2 3
12. At a certain temperature, radius of an air bubble is doubled when it comes to the top from the
bottom of a mercury column of height ‘h’. If the pressure at the top is two atmospheres, the value of
‘h’ (in metres) is :
(A) 5.5 (B) 10.64 (C) 12.45 (D) 15.00
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13. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of helium in a container of
volume 10L, from T1 K to T2 K, is (Na = Avogadro’s number, kB = Boltzmann constant)
3 3 3 T  3
(A) Nak B  T2  T1  (B) Nak B  T2  T1  (C) Nak B  2  (D) Nak B  T2  T1 
2 4 4  1
T 8
14. In the given figure container A holds an ideal gas at a pressure of 5.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature
of 300 K. It is connected by the thin tube (and a closed valve) to container B, with four times the
volume of A. Container B hold same ideal gas at a pressure of 1.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature of
400 K. The valve is opened to allow the pressure to equalize, but the temperature of each container
kept constant at its initial value. The final pressure in the two containers will be close to :
(A) 2.0 × 105 Pa (B) 2.5 × 105 Pa (C) 3.0 × 105 Pa (D) 3.5 × 105 Pa
15. If d is the average diameter of the molecule, then the mean free path of the molecules between two
successive collisions is proportional to :
1 1
(A) d (B) d2 (C) (D) 2
d d
16. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of
angular frequency . The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact
with the platform for the first time :
(A) at the highest position of the platform for an amplitude of g/2
(B) at the mean position of the platform for an amplitude of g2/2
(C) at the lowest position of the platform for an amplitude of g/2
(D) at the mean position of the platform for an amplitude of g2/2
192001106-Ph3PhT01-OJEMD180C01
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rd
 1
17. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes   in 2 seconds. If its amplitude after 6 seconds
3
1
is times the initial amplitude, the value of n is
n
(A) 32 (B) 3 2 (C) 3 3 (D) 33
18. A particle of mass m is located in a one dimensional field where potential energy is given by :
V(x) = A(1 – cos px), where A and p are constants.
The time period of small oscillations of the particle is
m m m 1 Ap
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
 Ap   Ap 
2
A 2 m
19. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the mean
position are v1 and v2 respectively. Its time period is
x 22  x12 v12  v 22 v12  v 22 x12  x 22
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
v12  v 22 x12  x 22 x12  x 22 v12  v 22
20. y = a cos (kx - t) superposes on another wave giving a stationary wave having node at x = 0. What
is the equation of the other wave ?
(A) a cos (kx + t) (B) a cos (kx - t) (C) – a cos(kx + t) (D) – a sin(kx + t)
21. A stone is hung in air from a wire which is stretched over a sonometer with the help of stone. The
bridges of the sonometer are 40 cm apart when the wire is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency
256. When the stone is completely immersed in water, the length between the bridges is 22 cm for
re-establishing unison. The specific gravity of the material of the stone is :
 40   40 
2 2
22 40
(A) (B) (C) 256  (D) 256 
 40    22  40    22
2 2 2 2
40 22
22. A massless rod is suspended by two identical strings AB and CD of equal length. A block of mass
m is suspended from point O such that BO is equal to ‘x’. Further, it is observed that the frequency
of 1st harmonic (fundamental frequency) in AB is equal to 2nd harmonic frequency in CD. Then,
length of BO is :
(A) L/5 (B) 4L/5 (C) 3L/4 (D) L/4

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23. A train is moving with a constant speed along a circular track. The engine of the train emits sound
of frequency f. The frequency heard by the guard at the rear end of the train :
(A) is less than f
(B) is greater than f
(C) is equal to f
(D) may be greater than, less than or equal to f depending on the factors like speed of train, length
of train and radius of circular track
24. The gravitational potential (VG) and gravitational field (EG) are plotted against distance r from the
centre of a uniform spherical shell. Consider the following statement
(I) The plot of VG against r is discontinuous
(II) The plot of EG against r is discontinuous
(A) Both I and II are correct (B) both I and II are wrong.
(C) I is correct but II is wrong (D) II is correct but I is wrong
25. Find the work done to take a particle of mass m from surface of the earth to a height equal to
2R(where R is radius of earth, g is acceleration due to gravity on earth surface).
mgR 2mgR
(A) 2 mgR (B) (C) 3 mg R (D)
2 3
26. A particle executes SHM of frequency f. The frequency of its kinetic energy is
f
(A) f (B) (C) 2f (D) zero
2
27. The intensity level 1 m away from a point source is 60 dB. Threshold intensity of hearing is 10-
12
Wm-2. If there is no loss of sound power in air then intensity level at 2000 cm from the source is
(A) 45 dB (B) 34 dB (C) 35 dB (D) 64 dB
28. In the experiment for determination of the speed of sound in air using resonance tube method. The
length of air column that resonates with fundamental mode with a tuning fork is 0.1 m. When its
length is changed to 0.35 m it resonates in first over tone. The end correction is
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.025 m (C) 0.05 m (D) 0.0024 m.
29. A Carnot engine has efficient 40%. If the temperature of sink is 27ºC, then to increase efficiency by
10%, the temperature of the source should be increased by
(A) 15.7 K (B) 25.7 K (C) 50.7 K (D) 35.7 K
30. Three identical rods A, B and C of equal lengths and equal diameters are joined in series as shown
in figure. Their thermal conductivities are 2K, K and K/2 respectively. Calculate the temperature at
two junction points.
(A) 85.7, 57.1ºC (B) 80.85, 50.3ºC (C) 77.3, 48.3ºC (D) 75.8, 49.3ºC
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SECTION-2
CHEMISTRY
31. In the following carbocations, the stability order is:
CH3
(I) RCH 2CH2 (II) C (III) C (III) CH2
CH3
(A) III>II>IV>I (B) IV>I>II>III (C) IV>III>II>I (D) III>IV>II>I
32. 
 

These are three canonical structures of naphthalene. Examine them and find correct statement
among the following :
(A) All C – C bonds(from 1-4) are of same length
(B) C1 – C2 bond is shorter than C2 – C3 bond.
(C) C1 – C2 bond is longer than C2 – C3 bond
(D) none.
33. Among the following structures

CH3
H
C2H 5 CH C2H5
CH3 CH3 H C
C 2H5 CH C3H7 CH 3CO CH C2H5 H

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
It is true that
(A) Only II and IV are chiral compounds (B) All four are chiral compounds
(C) Only I and II are chiral compounds (D) Only III is a chiral compound
34. An alkene on oxidative ozonolysis gives propanoic acid. The alkene is

(A) cyclohexene (B) 1-methylcyclopentene
(C) 1, 2 – dimethylcyclobutene (D) 3-hexene
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35. But-1-ene may be converted to butane by reaction with

(A) Pd/H2 (B) Zn/HCl (C) Sn/HCl (D) Zn-Hg
36. Acetone will be formed by the hydrolysis of

(A) but-1-ene (B) but-2-ene (C) iso butene (D) Propyne
37. How many 1°carbon atom will be present in a simplest hydrocarbon having two 3° and one 2°
carbon atom?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
CHO
38. IUPAC name H3C of is:
CN
(A) 2-methyl-3-cyanopropanal (B) 2-methyl-3-oxopropanenitrile
(C) 2-cyano-3-propanal (D) 2-oxopropanenitrile
39. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

(a) CH3CH2COOH (b) CH3CHOHCOOH
(c) HOOC.CH2.COOH (d) CH3.CO.COOH
40. How many plane of symmetry are present in CHCl3

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
41. Which of the following new man projection formula for 1, 2 - dichloro ethane represents the stable
staggered from ?
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl H H Cl H H
(a) (b) (c) (d)

H
H H H H H H H H
H H H Cl
42. Which of the following structure are super imposable?
Br Br Me
H
H Me Me H Br H
Br Me
(1) HO Et (2) Et OH (3) Et Me (4) HO Et
Me Me OH Me
(A) 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3

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43. In which of the following molecules resonance is equivalent :

(A) HCOO (B) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(C) (D)
44. Among the following compounds, the decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic
substitution is
CH3 O CF 3
H3C
I II III IV
(A) III > I > II > IV (B) IV > I > II > III
(C) II > I > IV > III (D) III > I > II > IV
45. Which of the following groups cannot participate in resonance:

— 
(A) – COOH (B) COO (C) – COCl (D)  NH3
46. Aromatic compounds are :
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I and IV (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) II and III
47. Arrange the following compounds in order of this increasing basic character.
H2 N H 2N H2 N
H2 N
CH3 Cl NO 2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) IV < II < III < I (B) I < II < III < IV (C) IV < I < II < III (D) IV < III < I < II
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48. The electrophile generated by conc. HNO2 and HNO3 is

(A) NO2+ (B) NO+ (C) both a & b (D) none of these
Na / NH
B   R–CC–R 3  A
Lindlar
49.
A and B are geometrical isomers (R–CH=CH–R) –
(A) A is trans, B is cis (B) A and B both are cis
(C) A and B both are trans (D) A is cis, B is trans
50. A compound (C5H8) reacts with ammonical CuCl 2 to give a red precipitate and reacts with excess
of KMnO4 solution to give (CH3)2CH–COOH. The compound is –
(A) CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (B) (CH3)2CH–CCH
(C) CH3(CH2)2CCH (D) (CH3)2C=C=CH2
A
51. CH3–CH2–CCH CH3CC–CH3
B
A and B are –
(A) alcoholic KOH and NaNH2 (B) NaNH2 and alcoholic KOH
(C) NaNH2 and Lindlar (D) Lindlar and NaNH2
BH / THF H O
B      A
3 3
52.
H 2O 2 / OH
A and B are :
(A) Both (B) Both
(C) (D)
53. Which of the following statements would be true about this compound :
(A) All three C – N bonds are of same length.

(B) C1 – N and C3 – N bonds are of same length but shorter than C5 – N bond.
(C) C1 – N and C3 – N bonds are of same length but longer than C5 – N bond.
(D) C1 – N and C3 – N bonds are of different length but both are longer than C5 – N bond.
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NH Cl
4
54. CHCH Cu2Cl2 product
Product is –
(A) Cu–CC–Cu (B) CH2=CH–CCH
(C) CHC–Cu (D) Cu–CC–NH4
CH 3 CH 3
| |
CH 3  C  CH  C  CH 3
55. | 
KMnO4
 products, Products are –
CH 3
O O
|| ||
(A) CH 3  C  CH 3 , (CH3)3C–COOH (B) CH 3  C  CH 3 , (CH3)3C–CHO
O
||
(C) CH 3  C  OH , (CH3)3C–COOH (D) None is correct
(1) Hg( OAc) / H O / THF

56. 
2
2 
 A is –
( 2) NaBH4 / NaOH/ H 2O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
57. ; C1 – H, C2 – H, C3 – H and C4 – H homolytic bond dissociation
energy is in the order:

(A) C2 – H > C3 – H > C4 – H > C1 – H (B) C1 – H > C4 – H > C2 – H > C3 – H
(C) C2 – H > C3 – H > C1 – H > C4 – H (D) C1 – H > C4 – H > C3 – H > C2 – H
CHCOOH 
58. CH2=CH–CH=CH2 + | |  product X by reaction R. X and R are
CHCOOH
(A) Diels Alder (B) Friedel-Crafts
(C) Diels Alder (D) Friedel-Crafts
59. Ozone layer in the atmosphere depleted by

(A) LPG (B) CFC (C) CNG (D) Acid rain
60. Bond strength order of Indicated bond in following molecules as

CH CH
(I) CH3  CH 2  Cl (II) (III) CH 3  CH  CH 3
 H3C Cl |
Br
(A) II > I > III (B) II > III > I
(C) III > II > I (D) I = III > II
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SECTION-3
MATHEMATICS
61. If , ,   [0, 3], then number of ordered triplets (, , ) which satisfying
(1 + sin4) (2 + cot4) (4 + sin4)  12 sin2 is
(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) none of these
3 3
62. In triangle ABC if cos A  cos B  cos C =  and sinA.sinB.sinC = then value of
8 8
 tan A.tanB is
5 5
(A) (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) 
3 3
63. Number of solution of cos42x + 2sin22x = 17(cosx + sinx)8, x  (0, 2) is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10
64. The number of real solutions of the equation cos5x + sin3x = 1 in the interval [0, 2] is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) infinite
65. A flagstaff stands on the middle of a square tower. A man on the ground, opposite to the middle of
one face and distant from it 100 m, just see the flag; on his receding another 100 m, the tangents of
the elevation of the top of the tower and the top of the flagstaff are found to be 1/2 and 5/9. Find the
height of the flagstaff, the ground being horizontal
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
66. The minimum value of (sec-1x)2 + (cosec-1x)2 is equal to

2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
2 4 8
1 2x 
67. If (x – 1) (x2 + 1) > 0, then sin  tan1  tan1 x  is equal to
 2 1  x 2

1
(A) 1 (B) (C) 1 (D) none of these
2
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68. In ABC, P is an interior point such that PAB = 10º, PBA = 20º, PCA = 30º and PAC = 40º. If
sin-1 sin(A + B) + cos-1 cos(B + C) =  then sin is
1 1 3
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
69. Complete solution set of tan2 (sin-1x) > 1 is

 1   1   1 1 
(A)  1,   ,1 (B)   ,   0
 2  2   2 2
 1   1 
(C) (-1, 1) – {0} (D)  1,   ,1
 2  2 
70. In ABC, a = 5, B = 45º, C = 60º, AD is altitude. Assuming AD as diameter, a circle is drawn

which cuts AB & AC at P and Q respectively, then PQ is equal to
5 3 5 3 5 3 5 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 2 3 2 2 2
71. If lengths of sides of triangle are in A.P. and the perimeter of the triangle is 12. If the triangle is
obtuse angled triangle then the common difference of AP belongs to
(A) (1, ) (B) (4, ) (C) (1, 4) (D) (0, 4)
 r  r 
72. In a triangle if  1  1   1  1   2 , then triangle is
 r2  r3 
(A) right angled (B) isosceles
(C) equilateral (D) none of these
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73. In ABC, circumradius is 3 & in radius is 1.5 units, then the value of a cot 2A + b2 cot3B + c3 cot4C is
(A) 5 3 (B) 7 3 (C) 13 3 (D) None of these
  
3n
2
 i
74. If 1, 1, 2, …. 3n be the roots of x3n+1 = 1 and  is complex cube root of unity, then i 1
3n
is
    
i 1
i
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
75. If  is a complex constant such that z2 + z +  = 0 has a real root then
1
(A) Re     1 (B) Re      & lm     R
2
1
(C) lm      only (D) Re     lm     1
2
76. Let Zk; K = 1, 2, 3, 4 be four complex numbers such that |zk| = K  1 & |30z1 + 20z2 + 15z3 + 12z4|
= K  z1z2 z3 then k =
(A) |z1z2z4| (B) |z2z3z4| (C) |z1z3z4| (D) 1
77. If z1 = 3 + 4i & z2 = -3 – 4i then the equation |z – z1| + |z – z2| = 10 represents

(A) straight line (B) circle
(C) ellipse (D) line segment joning z1 & z2
192001106-Ph3PhT01-OJEMD180C01
15
78. If  is any complex number such that z = |z|2 and | z  z | + |    | = 4, then as  varies, then the
area bounded by the locus of z is
(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 16 sq. units (D) 12 sq. units
79. The arithmetic mean of 9 observations is 100 and that of 6 is 80. The combined mean of all15
observation is
(A) 100 (B) 92 (C) 90 (D) 88
80. Let a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, …., 200 and another population B has 100
observation 151, 152, … 250. If VA & VB represents variances of two populations, respectively, then
VA
=
VB
9 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
4 9 3
81. An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed by using 8 digits out of the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
6, 7, 8, 9 without replacement. The number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 9! (B) 2(7!) (C) 4(7!) (D) (36)(7!)
82. The number of rational numbers lying in the interval (2008, 2009) all whose digits after the decimal
point are non-zero and are in decreasing order is
9 10
(A) 
i 1
9
Pi (B) 
i 1
9
Pi (C) 29 – 1 (D) 210 – 1
83. The number of functions f from the set A = {0, 1, 2} into the set B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} such that
f(i)  f(j) for i < j and i, j  A is
(A) 8C3 (B) 8C3 + 2(8C2) (C) 10C3 (D) none of these
192001106-Ph3PhT01-OJEMD180C01
16
84. The number of positive integral solutions of the equation x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 = 1050 is

(A) 1800 (B) 1600 (C) 1400 (D) none of these
85. In a certain test there are n questions. In this test 2k students gave wrong answers to at least (n – k)
questions, where k = 0, 1, 2, …., n. If the total number of wrong answers is 4095, then value of n is
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 15
86. The coefficient of t50 in (1 + t2)25 (1 + t25) (1 + t40) (1 + t45) (1 + t47) is

(A) 1 + 25C5 (B) 1 + 25C5 + 25C7 (C) 1 + 25C7 (D) none of these
87. Value of the expression C02  2C12  ...  n  1 Cn2 is

(A) (2n + 1) (2nCn) (B) (2n - 1) (2nCn)
n  n 
(C)   1  2n Cn  (D)   1  2n1 Cn 
2  2 
88. The number of irrational terms in the expansion of (51/6 + 21/8)100 is

(A) 96 (B) 97 (C) 98 (D) 99
 
6
89. The greatest integer less than or equal to 2  1 is
(A) 196 (B) 197 (C) 198 (D) 199
90. If z1, z2, z3 represents vertices A, B & C respectively of ABC in argand plane. If AB = AC (in
magnitude) then
(A) z12  z2 z3 (B) z22  z1z3 (C) z32  z1`z2 (D)  z12   z1z2

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FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY &

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

Space for Rough Work

(A) L/5 (B) 4L/5 (C) 3L/4 (D) L/4

(A) III>II>IV>I (B) IV>I>II>III (C) IV>III>II>I (D) III>IV>II>I

33. Among the following structures

C 2H5 CH C3H7 CH 3CO CH C2H5 H

34. An alkene on oxidative ozonolysis gives propanoic acid. The alkene is

35. But-1-ene may be converted to butane by reaction with

36. Acetone will be formed by the hydrolysis of

39. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

40. How many plane of symmetry are present in CHCl3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) HO Et (2) Et OH (3) Et Me (4) HO Et

(A) 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3

43. In which of the following molecules resonance is equivalent :

45. Which of the following groups cannot participate in resonance:

46. Aromatic compounds are :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

48. The electrophile generated by conc. HNO2 and HNO3 is

(A) Both (B) Both

(A) All three C – N bonds are of same length.

(1) Hg( OAc) / H O / THF

(A) (B) (C) (D)

57. ; C1 – H, C2 – H, C3 – H and C4 – H homolytic bond dissociation

energy is in the order:

(A) Diels Alder (B) Friedel-Crafts

(C) Diels Alder (D) Friedel-Crafts

59. Ozone layer in the atmosphere depleted by

60. Bond strength order of Indicated bond in following molecules as

63. Number of solution of cos42x + 2sin22x = 17(cosx + sinx)8, x  (0, 2) is

66. The minimum value of (sec-1x)2 + (cosec-1x)2 is equal to

69. Complete solution set of tan2 (sin-1x) > 1 is

70. In ABC, a = 5, B = 45º, C = 60º, AD is altitude. Assuming AD as diameter, a circle is drawn

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3

77. If z1 = 3 + 4i & z2 = -3 – 4i then the equation |z – z1| + |z – z2| = 10 represents

84. The number of positive integral solutions of the equation x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 = 1050 is

86. The coefficient of t50 in (1 + t2)25 (1 + t25) (1 + t40) (1 + t45) (1 + t47) is

87. Value of the expression C02  2C12  ...  n  1 Cn2 is

88. The number of irrational terms in the expansion of (51/6 + 21/8)100 is

Space for Rough Work

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Batch : Date of Examination :