1.

All except one constitutes aqueous barrier: Ciliary Muscle

2. In what condition is disc edema not visualized in fundoscopy High Myopia (longer, bigger eyes)

3. Primary colors: Red , Green, Blue

4. In the perception of colors is it necessary to: a. Accept the presence of different cortical
visual sets
b. Accept the presence of different major
intralateral chamber body
c. It is affected by illumination
d. Postulate to different photoreceptors
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

5. The visibility spectrum is what 4 - 600 nm

6. In an infant, it is difficult to dilate the pupil because: Underdeveloped SYMpathetic nerve supply

7. Best differentiates papillitis from papilledema The visual acuity is almost always UNaffected in the
early stage

8. Clinical feature of amblyopia are the following except: Neutral density filters reduce visual acuity

9. Esotropia prism measurement is oriented as: a. Apex in / apex out

b. Base in / base out

10. Retinoschisis: It arises from peripheral cystoid degeneration of the

nerve fiber layer

11. Irisch nodule may be seen in the following conditions except: a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Metastatic Ca
c. Leimyoma
d. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
e. Tuberous Sclerosis

12. All of the following are true about malignant melanoma except: a. Usually managed by simple excision after
diagnosis is clearly established
b. Good prognosis
c. Epithelial in nature
d. Tend to develop in the inferior of the iris
e. It is not readily diagnosed with fluorescent
angiography ultrasound

13. Which of the following choices is a poor choice to treat pseudomonas a. Amikacin
keratitis b. Cefalotin
c. Perphenazine
d. Polymixin B
e. Tobramycin
f. None of the above

14. A man with retinitis pigmentosa marries his first cousin, their mothers are X - linked Recessive
sisters. Although there is no family history . . . . with 2 normal daughters, 2
normal sons . . . . not applicable for this pedigree?

15. The gene for retinitis pigmentosa is linked with Proximal portion of the short arm

16. If a recessive defect is observed in 1 / 10,000 persons, the chance of an 1 in 50

individual to become a carrier of a disease entity is:

17. Oculocutaneous albino marries a woman with normal color vision and 1/8
pigmentation. Their first birth is not albino . . . . . what is the risk of the second
child to have the same phenotype:

18. Which of the following histopathologic findings does not support the a. Full thickness corneal scar
diagnosis of sympathetic ophthalmia? b. Dalen Fuchs Nodules
c. Neovascularization of the retina
d. Lymphocytic infiltration of the uveal tract

19. If left untreated, which lesion is most likely to evolve into cancer? a. Actinic keratosis
b. Inverted follicular keratosis
c. Seborrheic keratosis
d. Intradermal Nevus

20. One year after a man had mild contusion, injury to the eye resulted to Angle recession
hyphemia. . . . most likely will exhibit one of the following:

21. When you enucleate an eye because of RB, the pathology report contains The tumor is present in the optic nerve, at the plane of
. . . . . . which has greatest prognostic importance? the surgical transection

22. In RB, all of the following are true except: The tumor often contains the Homer-Wright Rosettes

23. A female survivor of retinoblastoma with a positive family history has 2 50%
normal children. . . . . . . . the chances of having the third child developing RB
is approximately:

24. Contact lens wearer results in all of the following EXCEPT It decreases the availability of glucose for metabolic
use

25. If a child has cycloplegic refraction, OD +5, OS +1, (spherical) the Fully corrected
anisometropia should be:

26. Minus Lens: Biconcave

For nearsighted (myopic)
Eyes: LONGER and LARGER

27. Plus Lens: Biconvex

For farsighted (hyperopic)
Eyes: SMALLER, SHORTER

28. Presbyopia: Common among elderly women (60s)

MATCHING TYPE

29. Non-fenestrated endothelial cells Branch Retinal Arteriole

30. Myoepithelial cells Anterior pigmented layer of iris

31. Basement Membrane Descemet’s Membrane

32. Central Connecting Cilium Rod Outer Segment

33. Elastic Fibers Bruch’s Membrane

34. Abducens nerve (CN VI) a. Undergoes partial decussations
b. Contains motor and sensory fibers
c. Traverses through the roof of the cavernous sinus
d. Decussates completely
e. Nucleus is located in the floor of the 4th ventricle

35. All of the following are true about cotton wool spots except:
a. They are often seen in hypertensive retinopathy

b. They are creamy or cloud-like and obscure

underlying vessels

c. They are the result of focal retinal ischemia

d. They are the clinical counterpart of swollen axons in

the nerve fiber layer

e. They are located in the outer retinal layers

36. Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

a. Undergoes partial decussations

b. Contains motor and sensory fibers

c. Traverses through the roof of the cavernous sinus

d. Decussates completely

e. Nucleus is located in the floor of the 4th ventricle

37. Elastic fibers Bruch’s Membrane

38. Choroidal nevi may have all of the following except: a. Subretinal neovascularization
b. Subretinal fluid
c. Overlying drusens
d. Overlying orange (Lipofuscin) spots
e. Variable growth patterns

39. All of the following are potential uses for monoclonal antibodies except: a. Identifying specific subsets of t-lymphocytes

b. Treatment of metastatic retinoblastoma

c. Improving radionuclide imaging techniques

d. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis

e. Identifying infections agents in biopsy specimens

40. Non-fenestrated endothelial cells a. Rod outer segment

b. Branch retinal arteriole
c. Descemet’s membrane
d. Bruch’s membrane
e. Anterior pigmented layer of the iris
41. Peripheral anterior synechiae may be seen in all of the following disease a. Blunt trauma with postcontusion angle recession
entities except: b. Chronic iridis
c. Angle closure glaucoma
d. Diabetes with rubeosis iridis
e. Primary open angle glaucoma

42. All of the following relate to a ring scrotoma except a. It is responsible for the jack-in-the-box
phenomenon

b. It is most noticeable in middle distances (between 3

and 12 feet)

c. It is produced by high plus lenses

d. It is eliminated by correct curve lenses

43. In which of the following conditions might it be helpful to enhance the a. Allergic conjunctivitis
immune response with an immuno-potentiating drug? b. Uveitis
c. Malignant melanoma of the choroid
d. Sympathetic ophthalmia
e. Urticaria

44. Presbyopia becomes sympathetic a. Earlier in patients with small pupils than in patients
with large pupils

b. Earlier in women than in men

c. In uncorrected hyperopes earlier than in

uncorrected myopes

d. In uncorrected myopes than in uncorrected

hyperopes

e. Earlier in men than women

45. The following histopathologic features are characteristic of chronic a. Staphyloma

glaucoma except
b. Loss of rods and cones

c. Decreased number of ganglion cells in the retina

d. Gliosis and thickening of the pial septa in the optic

nerve

e. None of the above

46. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) a. Traverses through the roof of the cavernous sinus

b. Nucleus is located in the floor of the 4th ventricle

c. Undergoes partial decussations

d. Decussates completely

e. Contains motor and sensory fibers

47. Cromolyn sodium has been a useful drug in the treatment of allergic
conjunctivitis
48. True statement about disturbances of ocular pigmentations
49. Which one of the following histopathologic findings does not support a
diagnosis of ocular diabetes?
50. A true (non-artifactitious) chronic retinal detachment would be described
histopathologically by all of the following except:
51. Select the true statements about aplasia of the optic nerve
a. Is an excellent antihistamine
b. Decreases the need for steroid and has low toxicity
and side effects
c. Degranulates mast cells better than steroid
d. Reduces eosinophil counts in the tears
e. Eliminates the need for using topical steroids
a. Commonly found in the fundus of an infant with
congenital rubella syndrome
b. Those seen as oval hyperpigmentation in a section
of the fundus are congenital
c. Usually from an error in tyrosine metabolism
d. Usually results in heterochromia iridis
a. Aggregations of epithelioid cells in a wear tract
b. Cystoid spaces in the outer layer of the retina that
are filled with lipoproteinaceous material
c. Vacuolization of the pigment epithelium of the iris
d. Neovascular membrane extending from the inner
surface to the retina through the internal limiting
membrane
a. Retinal breaks with rounded margins
b. Retinal microcysts
c. Drusen formation
d. Retroretinal membrane
e. Intact photoreceptors
a. The retinal vessels are absent
b. Aplasia may occur in an eye which appears normal
externally
c. An anterior coloboma occurs relatively frequently
with aplasia of the optic
d. The condition is usually bilateral
e. All of the above
52. Oculomotor nerve a. Nucleus is located in the floor of the 4th ventricle

b. Undergoes partial decussations

c. Traverses through the roof of the cavernous sinus

d. Contains motor and sensory fibers

e. Decussates completely

53. The insertion of the superior rectus muscle a. Overlies the thickest portion of the sclera

b. Located posterior to the ora serrata

c. Nearer the limbus then the insertion of the lateral

rectus muscle

d. Overlies the thinnest portion of the sclera

54. Which lesion has the best prognosis for life? a. Spindle cell melanoma confined to the iris

b. Spindle cell melanoma of the ciliary body

c. Spindle cell melanoma confined to the choroid

d. Melanocytoma of the optic nerve

e. Totally necrotic melanoma confined to the choroid

55. Which answer best characterize band keratopathy? a. Amyloid

b. Calcium
c. Copper
d. Fibrosis
e. Iron

56. Which statement comparing retinoblastoma to choroidal melanoma is a. Both tend to invade the optic nerve
false
b. Both undergo spontaneous necrosis

c. Both can be diagnosed by ocular ultrasonography

d. Both can give rise to neovascularization

e. Prognosis of both worsens with extraocular

extensions

57. The most likely source of a tumor metastatic to the choroid in a women is a. Colon
b. Cervix
c. Breast
d. Kidney
e. Lung

58. Optic nerve (CN II) a. Nucleus is located in the floor of the 4th ventricle

b. Undergoes partial decussations

 c. Traverses through the roof of the cavernous sinus
d. Contains motor and sensory fibers
e. Decussates completely

59. A corrected curve lens is designed to a. Minimize glass thickness

b. Minimize marginal astigmatism
c. Reduce light reflection
d. Reduce spherical aberration
e. Improve light transmission

60. True about aniridia a. Cardiac anomalies often occur in the same
individual

b. In association with nystagmus, cataract, glaucoma

and corneal pannus

c. May be associated with lymphoma in children

d. Usually inherited as an autosomal recessive trait

e. None of the above

61. The hyaloid artery a. Regresses before birth

b. Forms a vascular plexus with the tunica vasculosa

lentis

c. Gives rise to the choroidal vessels

d. Branch of the carotid artery

e. Regresses before birth and forms a vascular plexus

with the tunica vasculosa lentils

f. All of the above

62. A tapetal-like reflex is seen in the fundus of some carriers of: a. Protanopia

b. Choroideremia

c. X-linked retinitis pigmentosa

d. Ocular albinism

e. X-linked juvenile retinoschisis