Quiz Outsystems

1 - Which of the following is False?

A reactive web application is an application for multiple devices.
Data requests are performed synchronously.
The code generated by Outsystems results in a single page application.
A developer creates the Reactive Web App in Service Studio.
2 - The business concepts that need to be stored and accessed in our applications
must be modeled as ...
Entities
Entity diagrams.
Entity relationships.
Database tables.
3 - Which of the following mappings between Outsystems and the
database NOT is correct?
Entities - Tables.
Attributes - column.
Reference attribute - primary key.
Index - Index.
4 - Which of the following statements about Entities is false?
Entities have attributes.
Entities do not require an identifier.
Entities are stored only in memory.
Entities can be created, updated and deleted.
5 - If an Entity Attribute called HouseNumber is created, what needs to be done
about its data type?
Must be defined as Integer.
Must be set to Decimal.
Nothing, it will be automatically set to Identifier.
Nothing, it will automatically be set to Integer.
6 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a static entity?
It cannot be changed after the first publication.
Contains a set of records.
It has two Entity Shares.
It cannot be extended with any new attributes.
7 - Regarding the records of a static entity, which of the following options is
false?
Values for all 4 standard attributes must be defined.
Records can only be added and removed during development.
The record identifier is the identifier of the Static Entity.
The Identifier attribute is mandatory for all static entities.
8 - Are static entities more similar to that of another programming concept?
Linked lists.
Enumeration.
Hash maps.
Static variables.
9 - The screens can be composed by a combination of several elements called
Widgets.
True
False
10 - What kind of variables can be created within a Screen?
Only local variables.
Input parameters only.
Input parameters and local variables.
Input parameters, output parameters and local variables.
11 - Which of the following options is false?
Input parameters allow data to pass between screens when navigating between them.
Local variables on one Screen can be accessed directly from another Screen.
Local variables allow the temporary storage of relevant information within a Screen.
When the value of a local variable changes, the user interface reacts immediately.
12 - The Expression widget ...
Displays only static text.
Displays the calculated text at run time.
Displays only the result of mathematical expressions.
13 - Which of the following behaviors is true for links and buttons?
Links can only navigate to screens.
Buttons can only have a screen action as a target when they click.
Links and buttons can navigate to screens or trigger screen actions.
Only links can navigate to external URLs.
14 - Regarding the If widget, which of the following is false?
Functions can be used within the Condition of an If.
More branches can be added to an If widget.
Only one of the branches is shown at run time.
Several widgets can be added within each branch.
15 - Regarding the Container widget, which of the following options is false?
Containers allow you to group multiple widgets together.
By default, containers can span 1 to 12 columns.
Containers can be placed inside other containers.
All containers must have at least one widget inside.
16 - Which of the following options is the correct?
Screen actions can call up other screen actions on a different screen.
Customer actions can call up screen actions.
Server actions can call client actions.
Client actions can call server actions.
17 - Client actions and server actions can have the following variables:
Input and output parameters, but without local variables.
Input parameters and local variables, but no output parameters.
Input and output parameters, as well as local variables.
Output parameters and local variables, but no input parameters.
18 - The flow of an action can have ...
Several start and end nodes.
One or more initial nodes, but only one final node.
Only one start node, but several end nodes.
Just a start node and an end node.
19 - Regarding the If statement, which of the following is false?
The True and False branches are mandatory.
Only one of the branches is executed, depending on the result of the If condition.
If statements can also be used to implement loops.
More branches can be added, if necessary.
20 - Regarding the Switch instruction, which of the following options is false?
The first branch evaluated by the condition as True is executed.
Each branch classified as True is executed.
If no branch evaluates to True, the Otherwise branch will be executed.
The Otherwise branch must exist.
21 - Within a flow of action ...
Only one exception handler can exist.
It is mandatory to have at least one exception handler.
The Exception Handler flow cannot cross other flows.
22 - If we have multiple exception handlers in an action flow and an exception is
raised ...
Execution is always moved to the Global Exception Handler.
Execution is moved to the Exception Handler which is more specific to the Exception.
Execution is moved to all Handlers except for the action.
A Switch statement is required to select which Exception Handler will continue to run.
23 - In an aggregate, the Sources section is used to ...
Set values to test the aggregate's output records.
Define the entities from which we want to retrieve the records.
Defining conditions for obtaining specific subsets of records.
Define the order of the aggregates output records.
24 - Considering that we can add several filters to an aggregate, which of the
following is false?
A record is included in the output if it matches at least one of the filters.
Filters are concatenated with the AND operator.
All filters are translated into SQL and included in the WHERE clause.
Logical operators and some built-in functions can be used within the filters.
25 - Regarding Sorting in aggregates, which of the following options is the
correct?
Aggregates support only one Sorting criterion.
If more than one Sorting criterion is defined, all of them must have the same direction
(increasing or decreasing).
It is mandatory to define the direction for all Sorting criteria (increasing or decreasing).
It is only possible to define several Sorting criteria if there are duplicate records in the entity.
26 - In an aggregate, the purpose of the Test Values section is ...
Define values to test the visualization of the aggregate output.
To define the conditions for obtaining specific records, not all records.
To define the order of your checkouts.
To define the entities from which we want to obtain records.
27 - Regarding the screen aggregates, which of the following options is false?
Screen aggregates are executed asynchronously and in parallel.
Screen aggregates exist only in the scope of the screen in which they were defined.
Screen aggregates can only be executed when explicitly called.
Screen aggregates can only fetch data from the database.
28 - How is the data fetched by an aggregate linked to a table or a list widget?
Setting the widget's Source property for the Aggregate output.
The connection is made automatically, since the Aggregate is within the scope of the Screen.
Adding an Expression within the widget that refers to an attribute of the data fetched by
Aggregate.
Creating a screen action that programmatically assigns the widget to the data fetched by
Aggregate.
29 - Considering ListItem and List Actions, which of the following options is
false?
List actions can only be used within list items.
List items can be used outside of lists
When List Items have the full slide option enabled, List Action is not required.
The List Action triggers a Screen Action that will have the logic to be executed when sliding.
30 - Regarding the data relationship, which of the following options is the
correct?
An entity must have an identifier to allow relationships.
A reference attribute must be mandatory.
An entity can have only one reference attribute.
The entity identifier must be an integer.
31 - Which of the following steps is necessary to create a 1-to-1 relationship
between Entity A and Entity B?
Set the data type of Entity B's identifier attribute to Entity A's Identifier.
Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier
B.
Add a new reference attribute of type Entity Identifier B to Entity A.
Add a new Entity C, with the identifier attribute being a composition of the Identifier types of
Entity A and Entity B.
32 - Which of the following steps is necessary to create a 1-to-many relationship
between a Master Entity A and a Detailed Entity B?
Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity B to Identifier of Entity A.
Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier
B.
Entity A must have a reference attribute of type Entity Identifier B.
Entity B must have a reference attribute of type Entity identifier A.
33 - Which of the following steps is necessary to create a many-to-many
relationship between Entity A and Entity B?
Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity B to Identifier of Entity A.
Add a new reference attribute of type Entity Identifier B to Entity A.
Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity Identifier A and Entity Identifier
B.
Add a new reference attribute of type Identifier from Entity B to Entity A and a new reference
attribute of type Identifier from Entity A to Entity B.
34 - Regarding the indexes, which of the following options is the correct?
Custom indexes cannot be added to an entity.
The indices speed up data recovery without any impact.
Unique indexes help to avoid duplication of data.
Indexes on referenced attributes cannot be deleted.
35 - Regarding the Delete Rule property, which of the following options does not
guarantee referential integrity?
Protect
Delete
Ignore
36 - Which of the following behaviors does not apply to Forms?
A form groups input widgets and allows data to be viewed and edited.
A Form has a Source property that will contain the values sent by the user.
In addition to the input widgets, a Form can contain other widgets, such as Links and Buttons.
A form is useful for validating the data sent by the user.
37 - Considering Dropdown and Button Group, which of the following options is
false?
A Button Group needs a Button Group item to represent each option that the user will have
available to choose from.
The Dropdown List property defines the data that will appear as options for the user on a Screen.
Each button group item within a button group has a Variable property to save the option chosen
by the user.
The Dropdown Variable property will keep the value selected by the user. This value is defined
in the Options Value property.
38 - The checkbox or switch widgets are linked to a variable of what type?

Text
Integer
Boolean
Date
39 - Considering Inputs and Labels, which of the following options is the correct?
Each Input must have an associated Label.
An Input widget can only be used for the Text data type.
To access the value sent in an Input widget, we can simply use InputName.Value.
Labels associated with mandatory fields will display a visual cue on the screen.
40 - What is the behavior of the Screen when a widget is not valid (Valid
property set to False)?
The Screen displays the grayed out widget and displays the input validation error message.
The widget does not appear on the screen and the validation message appears instead.
Displays the regular widget and displays the validation error message when we hover.
Displays the regular widget, applies a specific style (for example, red border) and displays the
validation error message.
41 - Which of the following is not a validation incorporated into OutSystems?
Required fields
Maximum length of text fields
Input field data types
42 - Which of the following options is correct in relation to the Valid property of
the Form?
The Valid property of the Form must be verified after the last custom validation.
The Valid property of the Form is automatically changed to False when all input fields on the
Form are not valid.
The Valid property of the Form must be explicitly set to False (for example, with an Assign)
when an input field is not valid.
When integrated validations are enabled, the Valid property of the Form is automatically
checked before executing the client's action logic.
43 - Considering the users and functions in OutSystems, which of the following
options is the correct?

By default, end users are managed in the internal Users application.

End users can only be created programmatically, using Actions from the Users application.
There are three functions built into OutSystems: Anonymous, AppUser and Registered.
All users, with or without login, automatically have the registered role.
44 - In OutSystems, how do we restrict access to a Screen?
Access the Users application and associate the Screen with a specific function.
In Screen Properties, deselect the functions to restrict your access.
Use the CheckRole action.
We don't. Only users with a username and password can access it.
45 - Considering the integrated function actions, which of the following options is
false?
The CheckRole action checks whether a user has that specific role.
The GrantRole action allows you to programmatically grant a role to a user.
The RevokeRole action allows you to remove a role from a user programmatically.
The CreateUserWithRole action creates an end user and assigns the role to him.
46 - In OutSystems, where can we place breakpoints?
Only in actions (client side and server side)
Server-side logic only.
Client-side logic only.
In Actions and Variables
47 - In OutSystems, it is possible to inspect the values of the variables during
debugging.
True
False
48 - Which of the following commands is not available in the OutSystems
debugger?
Stop Debugging
Continue Request
Step Over
Restart Debugging
49 - When debugging a consumer module, how do we ensure that the execution
stops at the breakpoints defined in the producer module?
We just need to set breakpoints in the producer module. Execution will stop at its breakpoints
automatically.
We also need to start the debugger on the producer module.
Nothing, just leave Service Studio open.
At the producer, set the Input Module property to the consumer module.
50 - Consider an aggregate with a "With or Without" junction between two
entities. What is the expected output of the aggregate?
All records from both entities (FULL OUTER JOIN).
"Only records in which there is correspondence between the two entities (INNER JOIN)."
All records from the left entity, even if there is no match on the right entity (LEFT JOIN).
All records from the right entity, even if there is no match on the left entity (RIGHT JOIN).
51 - Considering that aggregates may have hidden columns, which of the
following options is the correct?
Hiding columns in the aggregate affects only the view of the output.
Empty columns in the database are automatically hidden.
Hidden columns help to optimize the aggregate.
Hidden columns are not part of the output.
52 - Which of the following elements cannot be used to create calculated
attributes in an aggregate?
Value of the attributes of the Source Entities.
Built-in functions that can be translated into SQL (for example, Length (), Power ()).
Variables
Server actions using entity attributes.
53 - Consider that we want to apply aggregate functions to an Aggregate. Which
of the following is false?
We can apply several aggregation functions within an aggregate.
The aggregate output will contain all the attributes of the source entities plus the aggregation
columns.
We can apply the following functions to attributes of the integer data type: sum, max, min, count
and average.
The aggregate output will not include columns in gray.
54 - In OutSystems, a Block is a reusable UI component. Which of the following
is NOT correct?
A Block promotes reuse, that is, develop once, reuse several times.
A block encapsulates its own logic.
A Block improves maintenance, that is, changes the design or functionality, affects all uses.
A block can only be reused once.
55 - A block can be used ...
Only within other screens.
Screens and internal blocks, including himself.
Screens and internal blocks, except for itself.
Only within other blocks.
56 - Regarding Placeholders, which of the following options is the correct?

A Placeholder reserves space on the interface to be allocated when the block is instantiated.
When a block with Placeholders is instantiated, it is mandatory to place at least one widget inside
Placeholders.
Placeholders can be added to screens and blocks.
Only one Placeholder can be added per block.
57 - Regarding block events, which of the following is false?
Events can be defined at the block or screen level.
The events allow you to pass information from the scope of the Block to the parent scope.
Events are triggered by a block and handled by your father.
Two instances of a Block can use the same handler for the same event.
58 - In which of the following situations is it necessary to define a handler for a
block event?
When the event has input parameters.
When the block has Placeholders.
When the event's input parameters are all mandatory.
When the event is defined as mandatory.
59 - In which of the following situations is the On Parameters Changed Event
triggered?
If the value of a block input parameter changes within an action of the block's client.
On Changed parameters must be explicitly triggered by the block's parent.
When the block's parent changes the value of at least one of the block's input parameters.
60 - Which of the following events is not available on Screens or Blocks?
Initialize
Ready
After Fetch
Render
61 - Considering the Initialize event of a Screen, which of the following options
would be the best use case for that event?
Recover data from the server database.
Act based on the data returned by a data action.
Manipulate the DOM.
Set the default value for a local variable.
62 - Which of the following is the correct order of occurrence of events on a
Screen?
Initialize, Ready, Render, Destroy.
Initialize, Destroy, Ready, Render.
Ready, Initialize, Render, Destroy.
Initialize, Render, Ready, Destroy.
63 - Which of the following options is correct in relation to Client Variables?
The value of a Client Variable is shared among all connected users.
Binary lists or data can also be stored in Client Variables.
Client Variables should be used to store confidential information.
Client Variables are useful for caching frequently accessed information.
64 - Which of the following would be a good use case for a Client Variable?
Credit Card Number.
Profile picture.
User Identifier.
Username.
65 - The value of a Site Property can be modified in the Service Center to change
the behavior of the application at runtime.
True
False
66 - Which of the following is a good use case for a Site Property?
Current user ID.
Total quantity of products in stock.
REST Web service API key.
Search keyword.
67 - Which of the following options is correct, when implementing pagination
with tables or lists?
The Initial Pagination Index property contains the current page number.
Pagination's Max Records property contains the number of records to be shown per page.
The Total Count entry for the Pagination standard should be set to the number of records per
page.
68 - Regarding the classification in a Table, which of the following options is the
correct?

All header cells must have the Sort Attribute property set.
Only the sort attribute of the header cells needs to be set. The data is updated automatically.
The On Sort event has an input parameter containing the clicked column.
69 - Regarding the classification of Lists, which of the following options is the
correct?

The lists have an integrated On Sort event.

Classification clauses cannot be changed dynamically at run time when using Lists.
Other widgets should be used to allow the end user to define the classification criteria.
70 - Which of the following is the correct syntax for entities and attributes?
{Entity}. [Atributo]
(Entidade). {Atributo}
[Entidade]. {Atributo}
Entity.Attribute
71 - Considering the aggregates and the SQL tool, which of the following is the
correct option?
All queries that can be written in an SQL tool can be defined in an aggregate.
The junctions between entities can only be defined in aggregates.
The SQL tool allows you to write queries that contain subqueries.
Grouping of attributes can only be done with the SQL tool.
72 - A developer should favor the use of a Structure instead of the Entity when
outputting an SQL SELECT Query. Do you agree with this statement?
Yes, because consultations are easier to maintain.
Yes, because queries will retrieve less attributes and less data.
No, because it is exactly the same.
No, it is preferable to use the Entity instead of the Structure.
73 - Regarding non-SELECT queries, which of the following options is the
correct one?
It is not possible to execute DELETE queries with the SQL tool.
It is not possible to use Query Parameters in non-SELECT queries.
It is mandatory to specify all attributes in an INSERT query.
It is mandatory to define the Entity or Outgoing Structure.